DIVO Fundamentals Exam 301 Questions with Verified Answers
What happened to the USS Mahan? - CORRECT ANSWER Contactor drove on base and onto the
... [Show More] quarterdeck without proper credential, took gun from Quarterdeck watch
Who is responsible for the safety and security of the ship? - CORRECT ANSWER Duty Section
When the OOD is having issues on watch who is the first person they should contact? - CORRECT ANSWER Duty Section Leader
Who is the officer designated by the CO to carry out the routine of the unit inport and to supervise the OOD in the safety and general duties of the unit? - CORRECT ANSWER CDO
Who carries out the ship's routine and controls access to the ship? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterdeck watch
Who can serve as a second pair of eyes on the quarterdeck and double-check the ship's routine
Maintains the deck log and supervises the use of the 1MC? - CORRECT ANSWER POOW
Who is responsible for conducting periodic musters of restricted crew, supervising the performance of extra duty, and routine inspections of various spaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Duty Master-at-Arms
Who is primarily responsible for the safety and proper operation of the unit? - CORRECT ANSWER OOD
What are the three words for what the OOD does with the things they are responsible for? - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise, Inspect and Control
What is the most important initial action to be taken by the OOD? - CORRECT ANSWER Notify
What are the duties of the OOD? (17) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Safety of the ship
2. Reports and Logs
3. Watches
4. Execution of the plan of the day
5. Gangways
6. Ownship's Boats
7. Alarms and Whistles
8. Grooming
9. Security
10. Anti Terrorism Force Protection (ATFP)
11. Pier conditions
12. Quarterdeck search procedures
13. Status of crew aloft, crew over the side, or divers in the water
14. Overall appearance and cleanliness of the ship
15. Honors and ceremonies.
16. Liberty Boats
17. Ship's vehicles
Ship board logs are _____ documents. - CORRECT ANSWER Legal
What equipment helps the OOD communicate with the crew members? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. 1MC
2. Ship's Service Telephone
3. Handheld Radios
4. 21/24 MC circuit
5. VHF Radios
6. Quarterdeck Alarms
7. Sound-powered phones
How long should you arrive prior to taking watch? - CORRECT ANSWER 30 minutes, relieve 15 minutes prior to time
When does relieving the watch begin? - CORRECT ANSWER 30 minutes to an hour before watch
What things are required to be entered into the ship's log? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Accidental loss of any kind
2. Loss or serious damage to boats, equipage, stores of any kind
3. After an action occurs, enter a full reconstruction with details
4. Any change in major propulsion plant status, setting of special detail, anything effecting the ship's overall status
5. Any accident or injury occurring onboard ship
6. Unauthorized absence
7. Arrests, suspensions from duty, and restorations to duty with date and time of occurrence
8. Arrival/Departure of Commanding Officer
9. All occurrences of honors, ceremonies, and visits
What 3 things should you do before OOD watch? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Become familiar to with overall situation
2. Inspect spaces and walk the ship
3. Read all log entries from previous watch
What are the 5 points to a 12 o'clock report? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Fuel and water
2. Draft
3. Admin
4. RHIBs
5. Mag Temps
- CORRECT ANSWER
What 4 pier services must be checked on each watch to ensure integrity? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Phone
2. Power
3. Water
4. Collection Holding Tank (CHT) services
What should the OOD do prior to getting underway? - CORRECT ANSWER Drive the checklist until sea and anchor detail is stationed.
What does the DIVO notebook have? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. personal data
2. training data
3. a space and equipment responsibly log
4. the watch and battle station to be manned
other useful data for the orientation of relieving officer
What are some things to hold your people accountable for as a DIVO? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Personal standards
2. Space cleanliness
3. Structural Integrity
Whatever interests your boss should ___ ___. - CORRECT ANSWER fascinate you
What are 4 basic good starting places as a DIVO? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Basic Damage Control
2. Maintenance Material
Management (3-M) Program
3. Basic Watch standing
4. Learn your spaces
What are collateral duties? - CORRECT ANSWER Assist with specific trainings, programs, and other events on the ship
Where can you find all information on how to be a DIVO? - CORRECT ANSWER SORM
In accordance with SORM how often should you walk you spaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Everyday
How often should a DIVO do spot checks? - CORRECT ANSWER Once a week
What are some examples of principal assistants? - CORRECT ANSWER MPA, BOSUN, STO...
What is the order from POTUS of the Navy's administrative chain of command? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. POTUS
2. SECDEF
3. SECNAV
4. CNO
5. FLT/FF CDR (4 Star)
6. Type Commander (2/3 Star)
7. DESRON/ PHIBRON (O-6)
8. Ship CO (O-3 to O-6)
What is the order from POTUS of the Navy's operational chain of command? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. POTUS
2. SECDEF
3. CJCS
4. Unified Joint CDR
5. Fleet CDR
6. SG CDR
7. DESRON/ PHIBRON
8. Ship CO
How many Unified Commands are there?
What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 6
1. USNORTHCOM
2. USSOUTHCOM
3. USPACOM
4. USAFRICOM
5. USCENTCOM
6. USEUCOM
Where is USCENTCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER MacDill AFB, FL
Where is USNORTHCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Peterson AFB, CO
Where is USSOUTHCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Miami, FL
Where is US Special Operations Command located? - CORRECT ANSWER MacDill AFB, FL
Where is USAFRICOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Kelley Barracks, Stuttgart, Germany
Where is USPACOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Honolulu, HI
Where is USEUCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Stuttgart, Germany
Which Fleet is the biggest fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER 7th fleet
Where is US Strategic Command located? - CORRECT ANSWER Omaha, NE
Where is US Transportation Command located? - CORRECT ANSWER Scott AFB, Illinois
How many operational fleets are there?
What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 6
1. US Fleet Forces (TF 80)
2. Third Fleet
3. Fourth Fleet
4. Fifth Fleet
5. Sixth Fleet
6. Seventh Fleet
Where does US Fleet Forces (TF 80) have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Atlantic Ocean, formerly 2nd Fleet
Where does Third Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Pacific Ocean
Where does Fourth Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER The Caribbean, and surrounding waters of Central and South America; Effective July 1, 2008
Where does Fifth Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER The Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, and part of the Indian Ocean
Where does Sixth Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Atlantic Ocean and the Adriatic, Baltic, Barents, Black, Caspian, Mediterranean, and
North Seas
Where does Seventh Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Pacific Ocean and most of the Indian Ocean
What fleet is responsible for the Navy's cyber warfare programs and subordinate to USSTRATCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER 10th Fleet
Where is 10th Fleet located? - CORRECT ANSWER Fort Meade, MD
Who flies the commissioning Pennant? - CORRECT ANSWER Commissioned ships
When is a pennant flown on your ship? - CORRECT ANSWER Flag officer or unit commander is afloat
When is ship in full-dress? - CORRECT ANSWER On National holidays and when directed by a higher authority
What does "closed up" mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Flag is all the way up
Who is responsible for ensuring the proper execution of morning and evening colors? - CORRECT ANSWER OOD
When should color guard be mustered? - CORRECT ANSWER 15-20 mins prior to 0755
When is "attention" sounded for colors? - CORRECT ANSWER immediately before 8
How should the ensign be hoisted up? - CORRECT ANSWER Smartly
What does 3 short blasts of a police-type whistle mean for colors? - CORRECT ANSWER "Carry on" (Terminates ceremony)
Who gets a stinger? - CORRECT ANSWER Captains and Commodores attached to your ship
When is evening colors? - CORRECT ANSWER 15-20 minutes prior to sunset
When is "First call, first call to colors"? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 minutes prior to sunset for evening, 0755 for morning
How is the ensign and jack lowered? - CORRECT ANSWER Ceremoniously
How many bells are rung for O-5 or O-6? - CORRECT ANSWER 4
How many bells are rung for O-7 or O-8? - CORRECT ANSWER 6
How many bells are rung for O-9 or O-10? - CORRECT ANSWER 8
How do you find out who outranks who in the waterfront? - CORRECT ANSWER Lineal list
Bell strikes coincide with what? - CORRECT ANSWER CO's physical presence on ship (stepping on)
Does a ship inport render passing honors to an officer passing on the pier? - CORRECT ANSWER yes
When do you pass ship honors - CORRECT ANSWER When senior ships pass close aboard (~600yds)
What is the rule for blast meanings when passing honors? - CORRECT ANSWER Port even, starboard odd
What does one blast mean once ship is at attention? - CORRECT ANSWER hand salute
What does two blasts mean once ship is at attention? - CORRECT ANSWER end salute
What does three blasts mean once ship is at attention? - CORRECT ANSWER carry on
What are the three general things the OOD should do during any emergency? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Call it away 2. Notify CDO and department who can help 3. Log it
What is the OOD's main responsibility in all shipboard emergencies? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Notify the appropriate personnel
2. maintain situational awareness
3. log pertinent information in the deck log
What are the 6 most common types of DC emergencies? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Flooding
2. Loss of a Firemain
3. Fire
4. Excessive Magazine Temperatures
5. Explosion
6. Toxic Gas
What should the OOD do in case of flooding? (7) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Contact CCS/DC Central
2. Ensure the POOW passes the word and rings the bells
3. Ensure that the crew and emergency party are informed
4. Consider going to GQ or Condition II DC if flooding is out of control
5. Suspend all work being done in area of emergency
6. Log the incident in the deck log
7. Notify SOPA and ships in company and coordinate Rescue and Assistance teams from other ships
What can a loss of firemain pressure result in? - CORRECT ANSWER Loss of:
firefighting, dewatering, cooling water for equipment
sonar dome pressurization
What should be done if a firemain is lost? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pass word "smoking lamp is out throughout the ship"
2. Notify public works
3. suspend hot work, ordnance and fuel transfer
What should you log for a man overboard? - CORRECT ANSWER Log incident with victim's name
What do you do for a man overboard? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pass word
2. Assemble personnel to rails
3. Display OSCAR
4. check for injury
5. log
What reports will come to OOD during a HAZMAT emergency? - CORRECT ANSWER Time of the spill or discovery
Location of the spill
Identification of the spilled material
Properties and behavior of the spilled material
Source of the spill
Volume of the spill
Anticipated movement of the spill
What is a FPCON? - CORRECT ANSWER Force Protection
How many FPCONS are there?
What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 5
NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE and DELTA
What does BRAVO WAM mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Above BRAVO not quite CHARLIE
When is FPCON NORMAL set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when there is no discernible threat of possible terrorist activity
When is FPCON ALPHA set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when there is a general threat of terrorist activity against the installation and the personnel
The nature and extent are unpredictable
When is FPCON BRAVO set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists
When is FPCON CHARLIE set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when incident occurs or when intelligence indicates that some form of terrorist action against the installation or it the personnel is imminent
When is FPCON DELTA set? - CORRECT ANSWER Highest level of threat conditions
Applies to the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence indicates terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely
What are the deterring factors for FPCON? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Existence
2. Capability
3. Intentions
4. History
5. Targeting
6. Security Environment
How long does the first to respond from the SRF have to a security alert have to respond? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 minutes
How long does the BRF have to respond to a security alert? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 minutes
What does SRF stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Security Reaction Force
What does BRF stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Back-up Reaction Force
What does RF stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Reserve Force
How long does the RF have to respond to station to a security alert? - CORRECT ANSWER 15 minutes
What is the most important response as the OOD to any threat? - CORRECT ANSWER NOTIFY appropriate personnel
What is a PPR? - CORRECT ANSWER Pre Planned Response
What should you set if there is a bomb threat? - CORRECT ANSWER ZEBRA
Who should be ordered to investigate for a shipboard security threat? - CORRECT ANSWER DMAA
What does the OOD do for an external or civil disturbance? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. 'Security Alert'
2. 'Force Protection Alert'
3. Notify CDO and CO
4. Contact local police
5. Recall gangway watch and pier sentries
6. Secure and remove brow
7. Secure all weather decks to all nonessential personnel
8. Log incident
What is a controlled space? - CORRECT ANSWER Contains a security interest that, if lost, stolen, compromised, or sabotaged, can cause grave damage to the command mission or to national security
What is done in the event of a controlled space intrusion? (that is unusual) - CORRECT ANSWER have POOW secure the brow
What does ATFP stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Antiterrorism Force Protection
What does ATTWO stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Anti-Terrorism Tactical Watch Officer
Who does the ATTWO report to? - CORRECT ANSWER CDO
What does the ATTWO do? - CORRECT ANSWER Tactically employs command assets to defend the unit against terrorist attack when in port
What is a Tactical R/T circuit used for? - CORRECT ANSWER For tactical situations
What is used to query and warn aircraft? - CORRECT ANSWER MAD (Mil) and IAD (Civ)
Warning shots determine _______ - CORRECT ANSWER Intent
What is the secondary means for ATFP comms? - CORRECT ANSWER Hand-held two-way radio, R/T circuits
What is the primary means for ATFP comms? - CORRECT ANSWER Shipboard telephone system
What is the tertiary means for ATFP comms? - CORRECT ANSWER 1MC
What is EMCON for? - CORRECT ANSWER To prevent an enemy from detecting, identifying, locating friendly forces
What is a Threat Level in regards to ATFP? - CORRECT ANSWER The degree to which the environment is conducive to conducting terrorist operations in a specific country, region or locale
How many ATFP threat levels are there?
What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 4
High, Significant, Moderate and Low
When is there a high ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER Anti-U.S. terrorists are operationally active
When is there a Significant ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER Anti-U.S. terrorists are present, but limited operational capability
When is there a Moderate ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER Terrorists are present and no indications of anti-U.S. activity.
When is there a Low ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER No group is detected/non-threatening
FPCONS are a ______ _______ - CORRECT ANSWER security posture
What is SOFA? - CORRECT ANSWER - Agreement between a host country and foreign military forces in that country
- Establishes the rights and privileges of foreign personnel present in a host country
- Provides guidance in the event of a legal issue arising (Civil or Criminal)
What does SOFA stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Status of Forces Agreement
What does SOPA stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Senior Officer Present Afloat
What is the SOPA? - CORRECT ANSWER Instructions and guidance from the senior officer present
What is the definition of Deadly Force? (Memorize) - CORRECT ANSWER Force that a person uses causing, or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily harm.
What is serious bodily harm? - CORRECT ANSWER If left untreated could result in death
What are the 6 parts of having a Combat Mindset? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Alertness
2. Decisiveness
3. Aggressiveness
4. Speed of Action
5. Self Control
6. Determination
How many stages of mental awareness are there?
What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 5
White, Yellow, Orange, Red and Black
What mental awareness stage Is the best for watch? - CORRECT ANSWER Yellow
What is the White stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER State of total vulnerability; unaware of actions around you.
What is the Yellow stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER State of non-specific alert; aware and alert to everything around you.
What is the Orange stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER State of specific alert; focus is on a possible threat.
What is the Red stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER Mentally prepared to use deadly force; criteria has been met for use of deadly force.
What is the Black stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER Improper mental condition; individual experiences sensory overload.
A person who does not physically resist is a/n ____ type - CORRECT ANSWER Passive
A person who does physically resist is a/n ____ type - CORRECT ANSWER Active
What is a Passive Compliant subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will follow verbal task directions.
What is a Passive Resistor subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will not follow task direction.
What is a Active Resistor subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will not follow task direction.
Physically resists, but does not attack!
What is a Active Aggressor subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will not follow task direction; physically attacks.
How many levels are there in the force continuum?
What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 6
1. Presence
2. Verbal Commands
3. Soft Control
4. Hard Control
5. Non-lethal Force
6. Deadly Force
What levels of the force continuum are for a passive subject? - CORRECT ANSWER 1-3
What levels of the force continuum are for an active subject? - CORRECT ANSWER 4-6
What are the 3 requirements for deadly force? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Capability
2. Opportunity
3. Intent
Who is authority to arm personnel vested in? - CORRECT ANSWER CO
In the case of holstered weapons, a weapon should not be removed from the holster unless there is ________ _________ that use of the weapon may be necessary. - CORRECT ANSWER reasonable expectation
When a firearm is discharged, it will be fired with the intent of rendering the person(s) at whom it is fired on are ______ - CORRECT ANSWER discharged incapable (of continuing the activity or course of behavior prompting the individual to shoot.)
When should you do warning shots? - CORRECT ANSWER Not at all in U.S. Territory except in an appropriate exercise
What are the 4 training requirements for personnel to be armed in the performance of applicable duties? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Weapons qualified IAW OPNAV 3591.1F
2. Non-Lethal Weapons
3. Use of Force and Deadly Force
4. Rules of Engagement (ROE)
What are the deadly force conditions? (times where deadly force is an option) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Inherent Right of Self-Defense.
2. Defense of Others.
3. Assets Vital to National Security.
4. Inherently Dangerous Property.
5. National Critical Infrastructure.
6. Public Health or Safety.
7. Serious Offenses Against Persons.
8. Escape.
9. Arrest or Apprehension.
(SFRM) What is the goal of the Fleet Response Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER Sailors deploy on ships at the peak of readiness
(SFRM) What are the 4 parts of foundation basic phase training? - CORRECT ANSWER Educate, train, asses and certify
(SFRM) What are the 4 stages of the ship life cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintain
2. Train
3. Operate
4. Sustain
(SMOT)
(SFRM) What happens at the end of the ship life cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER Go back to the first phase
(SFRM) What does an availability mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Available for maintenance
(SFRM) What does AWP stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Availability Work Package
(SFRM) Where is work package determined from? - CORRECT ANSWER CSMP
(SFRM) How many TSRAs are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 5
(SFRM) What is the normal timeline for the Fleet Response Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER 27 months
(SFRM) What are the phases of the Fleet Response Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintenance Phase
2. Basic Phase
3. Advanced/Integrated Phase
4. Deployment
5. Sustainment Phase
(SFRM) How many Readiness Evaluations are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 7
(SFRM) Who is responsible for READ-E 2-7? - CORRECT ANSWER Type Commander
(SFRM) What happens in READ-E 1? - CORRECT ANSWER Self assessment by ship's force
(SFRM) What is the SFRM? - CORRECT ANSWER The ship's primary tool in navigating through the major components of the Fleet Readiness Training Plan (FRTP).
(SFRM) How many chapters are in the SFRM? - CORRECT ANSWER 5
(SFRM) What is the difference between a CNO Availability and a CMAV? - CORRECT ANSWER CMAV is at the homeport and involves smaller maintenance, CNO Availabilities are upgrades and bigger maintenance
(SFRM) What are the things to do during the Maintenance Phase? - CORRECT ANSWER Prepare Sailors, Review Programs, Training Plans and Administrative Programs
(SFRM) What are the 'PESTO" pillars? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Personnel
2. Equipment
3. Supply
4. Training
5. Ordnance
(SFRM) What are the exit criteria from the maintenance phase? - CORRECT ANSWER Ready to train
Light off assessment
Dock trials and fast cruise
What are the 2 Tiers of Basic Phase - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Mobility
2. Unit Tactical
How long is the Basic Phase training? - CORRECT ANSWER 20 weeks (21 for BMD)
What is the key phrase to the Basic Phase - CORRECT ANSWER ATG led, TYCOM certified
What areas of the ship fall into Mobility (Tier 1)? - CORRECT ANSWER Search and Rescue (SAR)
Air
MOB-E (Mobility-Engineering)
MOB-D (Damage Control)
MOB-N (Navigation)
MOB-S (Seamanship)
Explosive Safety
FSOM (Medical)
AT (Anti-Terrorism)
Supply
CCC (Communications)
3M
What areas of the ship fall into Mobility (Tier 2)? - CORRECT ANSWER AW (Air Warfare)
SW (Surface Warfare)
Strike
BMD
Intelligence
EW (Electronic Warfare)
CRY (Cryptology)
USW (Under Sea Warfare)
What are the 5 parts that are involved in both Tier 1 and 2 of the Basic Phase? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.0/2.0 - Education
1.1/2.1 - Material and Admin
1.2/2.2 - Theory and Fundamentals
1.3/2.3 - Individual and Team Training
1.4/2.4 - Assessment
What happens at the parts of the Basic Phase? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.0/2.0 - Education:
Introduction to ATG counterparts and Basic Phase overview. Familiarizes the ship with the process.
1.1/2.1 - Material and Admin
Verification of material condition of required systems and equipment. Review of required programs.
1.2/2.2 - Theory and Fundamentals
Classroom training on the basics of a warfare area.
1.3/2.3 - Individual and Team Training
Practical, hands-on scenarios with over-the-shoulder training starting with individual watchstanders and then incorporating the entire watch team.
1.4/2.4 - Assessment
ATG assesses ship's performance in a particular warfare area based on performance in graded events. Once all warfare areas in a Tier are completed and assessed as satisfactory, ATG makes the recommendation to TYCOM for certification and TYCOM certifies the ship.
What is a Certification event? - CORRECT ANSWER Assessed once then done for 2 years (like mooring to a buoy)
What is a Recurring Event? - CORRECT ANSWER Required Periodic Self-Assessment
What are ATG's Responsibilities? - CORRECT ANSWER Training
Aid in Assessments and evaluations
Maintain easily identified standards
What are the elements of effective training? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Regular schedule
2. Professional Instruction
3. Positive leadership
4. Tech Support
5. Personal Interest
6. Quality Control
What is a PB4T? - CORRECT ANSWER Planning Board for Training
What happens at the PB4T? - CORRECT ANSWER Ship training schedule is coordinated
How often does PB4T happen? - CORRECT ANSWER Happens at least monthly or when XO directs
How many months does the Long Range Training Plan cover? - CORRECT ANSWER 12 months
Who approves the LRTP? - CORRECT ANSWER CO
Who reviews the LRTP? - CORRECT ANSWER XO
What are the sub plans for the Short Range Training Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly, Monthly and Weekly
What happens if you forget to record training? - CORRECT ANSWER IT DIDN'T HAPPEN
What are the 4 most important training references? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. SORM
2. SFRM
3. Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)
4. Fleet Training Management and Planning System (FLTMPS)
What is OJT? - CORRECT ANSWER On the job training
What is the benefit of OJT? - CORRECT ANSWER Personalized means of developing skills from those that have mastered those skills
What are the 3 sections of PQS? - CORRECT ANSWER 100 Level (Fundamentals)
200 Level (Systems)
300 Levels (Watch Stations)
What does PQS stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel Qualification Standard
What is the TFOM? - CORRECT ANSWER Like a GPA for quals
What is TORIS? - CORRECT ANSWER system to train and certify ships
What does TORIS stand for - CORRECT ANSWER Training and Operational Readiness Information Service
What is ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER process that assists organizations and individuals in making informed risk decisions in order to reduce or offset risk.
What is a risk? - CORRECT ANSWER An expression of possible loss in terms of severity & probability
What are the 4 principles of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
2. Accept no unnecessary risk
3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning
4. Make risk decisions at the right level
What are the 5 steps to the 5 step ORM process? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify Hazards
2. Asses Hazards
3. Make Risk Decisions
4. Implement Controls
5. Supervise
How many ORM severity categories are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 4
What is the lowest ORM severity category? - CORRECT ANSWER Category IV
What is ORM severity Category I? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests
What is ORM severity Category II? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard may cause severe injury, illness, property damage, damage to national or service interests or degradation to efficient use of assets
What is ORM severity Category III? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage, damage to national, service or command interests or degradation to efficient use of assets
What is ORM severity Category IV? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard presents a minimal threat to personnel safety or health, property, national, service or command interests or efficient use of assets
What are the ORM probability categories?
What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 4
A-D
What are the 4 ORM Probability categories and what do they mean? - CORRECT ANSWER A- Likely B- Probably C- May D- Unlikely
(to occur)
How many Risk assessment codes are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 5
What are the 5 risk assessment codes and what do they mean? - CORRECT ANSWER 1 (most serious) is a probability of A and a severity of I, 5 (least serious) is a probability of D and severity of IV
How many levels are there of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. In-Depth
2. Deliberate
3. Time Critical
Which ORM level is most effective when done in a group? - CORRECT ANSWER Deliberate
What does a DIVO need to do with CASREPs? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Understand the impact of the casualty
2. Take the time to learn the equipment
3. Know how to brief your CASREP
Why do CASREPs? - CORRECT ANSWER Report diminished/malfunctioning equipment.
Provide advance notice of maintenance, so you get it.
When does a malfunction become a casualty? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Cannot be repaired in 48 hours
2. Reduces ability to perform primary/secondary mission
(Time + importance)
3. Reduces training command's ability to do mission (For shore commands)
What is the minimum classification of a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER Confidential
What is the approved way to write a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER MFOM (https://mitsinc.webex.com)
What are the categories for CASREPS? - CORRECT ANSWER CAT 2, CAT 3, CAT 4
What is a CAT 2 CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER - Minor degradation in primary mission
- Major degradation or total loss of secondary mission
- Transmitted Priority Precedence
- Updates must be submitted every 30 days
What is a CAT 3 CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER - Major degradation in primary or secondary
- Transmitted OP Immediate Precedence
- Updates must be submitted every 10 days
What is a CAT 4 CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER - Total loss of primary mission
- Transmitted OP Immediate Precedence
- Updates must be submitted every 72 hours
How often must a CAT 3 CASREP be updated? - CORRECT ANSWER every 10 days
What are the pre-routing procedures for a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. DIVO is informed of casualty
Job must be entered and approved in OMMS-NG
2. Generate CASREP using MFOM CASREP Generator
3. Make sure techs and LCPO read over report to ensure technical accuracy
4. Start routing!!!
What is the routing process for a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Department Head - Review
2. Operations Officer - Schedule info
3. Supply Officer - Parts info and MILSTRIP
4. Executive Officer - Review
5. CO - Final Approval
6. Finalize CASREP
7. Radio to send out
What are the different types of CASREP reports? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Initial
2. Update
3. Correction
4. Cancellation
Which type of CASREP report is submitted to correct information included on previous CASREPs? - CORRECT ANSWER UPDATE
What is a CASREP Correction report (CASCOR) reported for? - CORRECT ANSWER Report the repair of previously CASREP'd equipment
What does DRRS-N stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Readiness Reporting System - Navy
Why do we have DRRS-N? - CORRECT ANSWER Provides an accurate, near-real-time means of reporting a diminished combat readiness posture due to a significant PESTO deficiency
(Help commanders make informed decisions)
What is a MET? - CORRECT ANSWER Mission Essential Status
What are the 4 types of DRRS-N assessments? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. MET
2. Capability
3. Core
4. Commander
What are the PESTO pillars? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Personnel
2. Equipment
3. Supply
4. Training
5. Ordinance
What are the assessment value colors? - CORRECT ANSWER Gray, Green, Yellow and Red
What does the Gray assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Not yet assessed
What does the Green assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Capable and/or trained up and demonstrated
What does the Yellow assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Expected to be good but not demonstrated
What does the Red assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Unable to accomplish task to prescribed standards and conditions
What is OARS? - CORRECT ANSWER A measurement of unit Overall Resources and Training
What are the two parts of the unit Overall Readiness Assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER OARS and DRRS-N
When should DRRS-N assessments be preformed? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Within 24 hours of a significant change in readiness
2. Within 30 days of the last assessment, even if there is no change in readiness
3. Upon unit commissioning / placed "in service special"
4. Turnover of rotational crews
5. Within 24 hours of submitting a C3/C4 CASREP
Update affected capability areas
6. Within 24 hours of unplanned change in U/W status (fail to sail, Sortie, Surge Deploy, RTP for repairs)
What are common DIVO inspections? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintenance and Material Management (3-M)
2. Inspection and Survey (INSURV)
3. Light Off Assessment (LOA)
4. Engineering Operational Certification (EOC)
5. Supply Management Certification (SMC)
6. Aviation Readiness Qualification (ARQ)
7. Aviation Facility Certification (AVCERT)
8. Cruise Missile Tactical Qualification (CMTQ)
What is the ATG Tool box? - CORRECT ANSWER Used to prepare for inspections, gives you the checklists
(https://atg.ncdc.navy.mil/toolbox/private/index.htm)
Who is required to have a seabag inspection prior to transfer? - CORRECT ANSWER E-1/E-2/E-3
What does NAVOSH stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Occupational Safety and Health
What area's does the industrial hygiene survey ensure? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Electrical Safety
2. Sight conservation
3. Hazmat
4. Hearing conversation
5. Confined Spaces
6. Lockout/Tagout
7. Trip/Fall Protection
8. Radiation
9. Respiratory
What inspection is done to determine and ensure safety and security and to promote good order and discipline? - CORRECT ANSWER Health and Welfare Inspections
Who conducts health and welfare inspections? - CORRECT ANSWER Divisional and departmental leadership and/or Master at Arms
Who can conduct a Zone Inspection? - CORRECT ANSWER CO, XO, 3MC, DH, DCA, DIVOs, LCPOs
What is the periodicity of Zone Inspections? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly
What does ZIDL stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Zone Inspection Deficiency List
Who conducts Messing and Berthing Inspections and how often? - CORRECT ANSWER The XO, CDO, Section Leader and Master at Arms
Conducted everyday
What are the 5 phases of the Fleet Response Training Plan - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Sustainment
2. Maintenance
3. Shakedown
4. Basic
5. Integrated/Advanced
What is the periodicity of 3-M assessments? - CORRECT ANSWER Once per FRTP
(3M Mid-Cycle Assessment (MCA) required 13-17 months after successful 3MC)
How often is an INSURV preformed? - CORRECT ANSWER Every 60 months
What inspection is done to ensure ship is capable of safely lighting off engines and operating its engineering plant prior to going to sea? - CORRECT ANSWER Light-off Assessment
What is the periodicity of LOAs? - CORRECT ANSWER LOA must be conducted if ship undergoes any maintenance period longer than 120 days or if TYCOM deems necessary.
What is the purpose of an Engineering Operational Certification? - CORRECT ANSWER To certify ship for all underway engineering operations
All inspections should be done FRTP except ______. - CORRECT ANSWER INSURV
What inspection is done to assess and certify the shipboard supply mission to include, general stores accountability/sustainability, hazardous materials, and food service accountability/sustainability? - CORRECT ANSWER Supply Management Certification (SMC)
What inspection is done to ensure personnel qualifications, training, and readiness of individuals involved with shipboard aviation are current and accurately maintained? - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation Readiness Qualification (ARQ)
Who conducts LOA, EOC, SMC, ARQ, AVCERT and CMTQ? - CORRECT ANSWER ATG (Afloat Training Group)
What inspection is done to ensure required shipboard aviation facilities and equipment are installed and properly functioning? - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation Facility Certification (AVCERT)
What is a Rigorous combat scenario that certifies a ships crew to utilize Harpoon anti ship missiles and Tomahawk land attack missiles? - CORRECT ANSWER Cruise Missile Tactical Qualification (CMTQ)
____ ____ fix equipment. - CORRECT ANSWER Repair parts
What is the difference between Equipage and Equipment - CORRECT ANSWER Equipage are things not installed on the ship such as hard hats SCBA...
We put in ______ to get parts - CORRECT ANSWER Requisitions
What is S-1? - CORRECT ANSWER Stock control
What is S-2? - CORRECT ANSWER Food service
What is S-3? - CORRECT ANSWER Sales and services
What is S-4? - CORRECT ANSWER Disbursing
Is MWR supply on the ship? - CORRECT ANSWER NO
Who is the liaison between your division and supply? - CORRECT ANSWER Repair Parts Petty Officer
What kinds of things are purchased through OPTAR? - CORRECT ANSWER Operational Things (Engines, pumps, consumables..)
What kinds of things are purchased through TADTAR? - CORRECT ANSWER Temporary travel or duties (Emergency leave, TDY)
What does EOFY stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER End of Fiscal Year
Can a CASREP order parts? - CORRECT ANSWER NO
What is a proactive tool to prevent a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER ANORS (Anticipated Not Operationally Ready Supply)
_______ is like ANORS except only for parts out of commission that are essential to the ship's mission. - CORRECT ANSWER NORS
Where is an equipment requisition job opened?
What is the requisition process for equipment breaks? - CORRECT ANSWER OMMS
1. Equipment breaks
2. Open a job in OMMS
3. DH Approves Parts in OMMS
4. TECH EDIT by LS
5. Generates in RSUPPLY
6. Approve/cancel DH
7. Picking Ticket
8.CO signs
9. LS pulls
10. Part issued
APL orders what kind of part? - CORRECT ANSWER equipment (Parts)
AEL orders what kind of part? - CORRECT ANSWER equipage
How many digits is the NSN (National Stock Number? - CORRECT ANSWER 13
What is a really long number/ letter combination? - CORRECT ANSWER MILSTRIP (Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedure)
_________ seeks correction (for supply) - CORRECT ANSWER FCFBR (Fleet COSAL Feedback Report)
_________ requests item additions/deletions - CORRECT ANSWER ACR (Allowance Change Request)
What trades items based on ship needs..? - CORRECT ANSWER ILO (Integrated Logistics Overhaul)
What should be done monthly to validate and keep outstanding requisitions in system? - CORRECT ANSWER MOV (Material Obligation Validation)
What are the types of MOV annotations? - CORRECT ANSWER V - Valid, material still required
C - Cancel, material no longer required
R - Received
What are some common reasons your part might be canceled by supply? - CORRECT ANSWER > Wrong APL (parts not listed, AEL, ACL)
> Ordered in excess of QPA (quantity per application)
> Ordered consumables using EMRM (e.g. Tools)
> JCN is closed
> No response to internal MOV (RPPO issue)
> Wrong DLR RIP (remain in place) code
> Multiple DLR's per request #
> Unauthorized maintenance at shipboard level (SM&R)
What are replaceable assemblies required to execute an approved maintenance plan, identifying faults by swapping known-good assemblies for potentially bad ones? - CORRECT ANSWER MAMs
What report is made when wrong or less than ordered supplies are received? - CORRECT ANSWER Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)/ Report of Discrepancy (ROD)
What is submitted because some received supplies are bad/ not to par? - CORRECT ANSWER Quality Deficiency Report (QDR)
What is an item that is in big demand and has been ordered on standby? - CORRECT ANSWER SIM
Navy Cash cards cost what? - CORRECT ANSWER 5-7$
What are Navy Managed items which, based on unit cost, annual demand, difficulty of repair, or other economic considerations, have been selected by Inventory Managers (IM) for special inventory control? - CORRECT ANSWER DLR (Depot Level Repairable)
What are services? - CORRECT ANSWER MWR bus, CHT trucks [Show Less]