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Divo Fundamentals Exam(17 Sets) Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
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Divo Fundamentals Exam 84 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Divo Fundamentals Exam 84 Questions with Verified Answers SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Standard Organization and Regulations Manual for the US Navy SORM pur... [Show More] pose - CORRECT ANSWER dictates required ship's bills, instructions, primary and collateral duties, watch organization, divisional/departmental organization, etc Shipboard CoC - CORRECT ANSWER CO/XO/CMC Dept Heads DivOs Division Departmental CoC - CORRECT ANSWER Department Head Principal Assistant/LCPO DivOs LCPOs LPOs/WCSs Sailors Dept Head Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER organize and train department on DC, PQS, and watches Oversee dept admin and records for organization and operation of department execute maintenance and material management system DivO Responsibilties - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise the performance of work within the division Schedule and conduct training for division personnel Maintain a DivO notebook LCPO Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER assign division personnel daily tasks and oversee division priority accomplishment assist DivO in divisional admin assist in assigning personnel in cleaning stations, supervision Pos Work Center supervisor Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER responsible via the DivO for 3M system operation within work center Admin organization - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF SECNAV CNO PACFLT/USFF Commander TYCOM Commander DESRON/PHIBRON/LCSRON Commodore Ship's CO Operational Organization - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF CJCS GCC NCC NFC CSG/ESG TYCOM DES/PHIB/LCSRON Ship's CO Geographic Combatant Commands - CORRECT ANSWER USAFRICOM USCENTCOM USEUCOM USNORTHCOM USPACOM USSOUTHCOM USNORTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Peterson AFB, Colorado USSOUTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Miami, FL USAFRICOM - CORRECT ANSWER All of Africa except for Egypt USEUCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Stuttgart, Germany Greenland, Europe, Russia, Isreal USCENTCOM - CORRECT ANSWER AOR includes Egypt and ME USINDOPACOM - CORRECT ANSWER Pacific SOCOM - CORRECT ANSWER MacDill AFB, FL STRATCOM - CORRECT ANSWER deter strategic attack and employ forces as directed to guaruntee the security of the nation and allies TRANSCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Transportation Command (Scott AFB, IL) CYBERCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Plans, coordinates, integrates, synchronizes and conducts activities to: direct the operations and defense of specified DoD information networks SPACECOM - CORRECT ANSWER Space Numbered Fleets - CORRECT ANSWER 2nd-West Atl 3rd-Pac to IDL 4th-South America 5th-ME 6th-Med, North Seas, Western Africa 7th-Indian Ocean/WestPac How many bells for an O5/O6 - CORRECT ANSWER 4 Bell ringing is done in groups of - CORRECT ANSWER 2 what do you call if a CO is returning to a ship - CORRECT ANSWER *4 Bells* "USS AMERICA, returning" What about an unknown Colonel, USMC leaving - CORRECT ANSWER *4 bells* "COLONEL, UNITED STATES MARINE CORPS, departing" Precedence of Messages - CORRECT ANSWER Routine R-6hrs Priority P-3Hrs Immediate O-30min Flash Z-<10min PESTO - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel, Equipment, Supply, Training, Ordnance 6 Phases of a Life Cycle - CORRECT ANSWER Maintenance Shakedown Basic Advanced Integrated Sustainment CE - CORRECT ANSWER Certification exercises Conducted in basic phase like mooring to a buoy for MOB-S RE - CORRECT ANSWER Repetitive Exercises Conducted to maintain proficiency like anchorage for MOB-S every 90 days AE - CORRECT ANSWER Advanced Exercises conducted once per lifecycle in the advanced, integrated phases or sustainment Who conducts CE? - CORRECT ANSWER Afloat Training Group What is a zone inspection? - CORRECT ANSWER Ensures proper measures taken to keep machinery, spaces, and equipment operational and in a satisfactory state of preservation How often are zone inspections conducted - CORRECT ANSWER every space once per quarter minimum INSURV - CORRECT ANSWER Board of Inspection and Survey conducted at least every 5 years SFTRM requires once in a ship's lifecycle established by congress in 1870s PB4T - CORRECT ANSWER Planning board for Training Who makes up the PB4T - CORRECT ANSWER XO chair, TRAINO led, SafetyO, DHs, DCA, Educational Services Officer, CMC, Medical Rep Examples of Shipboard Training Proframs - CORRECT ANSWER OJT-On the job training INDOC-Indoctrination Team Training Navy eLearning Strike program for undesignated seamen PQS sections - CORRECT ANSWER 100 Level fundamentals 200 level systems 300 level watchstations examples of 300 level watchstanding requirements - CORRECT ANSWER basic DC communications basic first aid basic firefighting what program tracks PQS aboard the ship - CORRECT ANSWER relational administrative data management ORM - CORRECT ANSWER operational risk management-a proccess that assists commands in making informed risk decisions 3 levels of ORMS - CORRECT ANSWER In depth ORM Deliberate ORM Time-Critical ORM 4 Principles of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost Accept no unnecessary risk Anticipate and manage risk by planning Make risk decisions at the right level IAMIS (5 Steps of ORM) - CORRECT ANSWER Identify Hazards Assess Hazards Make Risk Decisions Implement Controls Supervise RAC - CORRECT ANSWER Risk assessment Code Matrix number formed by combination of severity x probability Supply Organization Onboard - CORRECT ANSWER SuppO Material Support (S1)/Food Service (S-2)/Ship's Store(S3)/Disbursing(S4) RPPO - CORRECT ANSWER Repair Parts Petty Officer Liaison between Supply and respective department TADTAR - CORRECT ANSWER Temporary Additional Duty Targeted Budget (for per diem and travel) OPTAR - CORRECT ANSWER Operational Target Money estimate of the amount of money needed by the ship to perform their assigned task and function GRANT - CORRECT ANSWER allocation of funds from TYCOM to perform day to day ops AUGMENT - CORRECT ANSWER additional allowance, usually an increase in OPTAR funds COSAL - CORRECT ANSWER coordinated shipboard allowance list all things needed to be carried onboard, both installed and as spares APL - CORRECT ANSWER allowance parts list list of technical characteristics of single piece of installed equipment (valve, fire pump) AEL - CORRECT ANSWER Allowance equipment list items or materials needed to support mission (kevlar helmets, wrenches, etc) FEDLOG - CORRECT ANSWER interactive system used to look up anything that needs replacing or ordering CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER casualty of part inhibits the mission Cat II, III, IV based on severity Depot Level Repairable Program - CORRECT ANSWER turn in broken parts to get discounts on new ones MOV - CORRECT ANSWER material obligation validation verify unfilled quantities of parts requests in order to improve supply chain requirements CMEO - CORRECT ANSWER command managed equal opportunity can file informal or formal reports SAPR report types - CORRECT ANSWER restricted report-ensures animinity and privacy of victim, no police involvement unrestricted report-higher level, police involved family care plan - CORRECT ANSWER ensure proper care for min children or adult dependents during time of unavailability FFSC - CORRECT ANSWER family fleet support center Ombudsman - CORRECT ANSWER liaison between CO on the ship and welfare of command's families Wartime requirements - CORRECT ANSWER ships manned power document which lays out quantitative manpower wartime requirements ROC - CORRECT ANSWER required operational capability POE - CORRECT ANSWER projected operational environment billets authorization - CORRECT ANSWER AMD Personnel assigned - CORRECT ANSWER enlisted distribution and verification proccess COB - CORRECT ANSWER current onboard ODCR - CORRECT ANSWER officer distribution control report LRTRP - CORRECT ANSWER long range training and relief plan Methods to maintain service record - CORRECT ANSWER BUPERs NSIPS DAPA - CORRECT ANSWER Drug and alcohol program advisor EMIR - CORRECT ANSWER enlisted manning inquiry report notify PERS4013 about shortages in enlisted what is found in a DIVO notebook? - CORRECT ANSWER personnel and responsibilities training and qualifications awards evaluations counseling and leave chits requirements for enlisted to advance - CORRECT ANSWER recommended by the CO pass the Navy Wide Advancement exam have the required time in rate pass annual BUPERS selection board for E7 and above advancement ineligibility - CORRECT ANSWER cheating in confinement failed exam failed PRT revoked security clearance other methods of enlisted advancement - CORRECT ANSWER meritorious advancement program combat MAP accelerated advancement program fleet sailor of the year career development board - CORRECT ANSWER primary delivery method to ensure sailors are provided necessary guidance to make informed career decisions comissioning programs - CORRECT ANSWER USNA NROTC STA-21 OCS LDO/CWO programs MECP DANTES - CORRECT ANSWER defense activity for non traditional education support [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Exam 153 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Exam 153 Questions with Verified Answers Striker - CORRECT ANSWER Someone trying to get a designation Requirements for advancement ... [Show More] - CORRECT ANSWER Complete navy training and required schools Citizenship or security clearance requirements Meet PRT requirements Pass navy wide advancement exam Meet minimum performance criteria Be recommended by CO CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER Casualty report Types of casualty reports - CORRECT ANSWER Initial, update, correction, cancellation Categories of casualty reports - CORRECT ANSWER 2 minor degradation of primary function 30 days 3 major degradation of of primary or secondary mission 10 days 4 total loss of primary mission 72 hours Purpose of CASREPS - CORRECT ANSWER Inform CNO and fleet commanders of how to utilize ships What does a CASREP request - CORRECT ANSWER Technical assistance, status of reports, NOT FOR ORDERING PARTS What program does the navy use to write CASREPs - CORRECT ANSWER MFOM 2.0 Initial report Correction Report Update report Cancellation report - CORRECT ANSWER CASREP CASCOR CASUP CASCAN 5 core concepts of information assurance - CORRECT ANSWER Availability Integrity Authentication Confidentiality Non reputation Types of threats - CORRECT ANSWER Unintentional and intentional Procedures when you see violation of IA - CORRECT ANSWER Disconnect but do not turn off computer, gather all pertinent information, report information to IAM, IAO, CSM, report incident to navy cyber defense operations command, report it to NCIS Collateral duties of a division officer - CORRECT ANSWER ESO, MWR, voting officer, wardroom treasurer, assistant command fitness leader, legal officer, marine corps relief society, combined federal campaign, VBSS, ATFP How many times should you walk your spaces - CORRECT ANSWER Daily How many times should you do a spot check - CORRECT ANSWER Once a week per division Personnel subject to UCMJ - CORRECT ANSWER Active duty personnel, midshipmen, reservists on active duty, retired personnel receiving benefits, civilians under martial law Article 31& 31B - CORRECT ANSWER Compulsory self incrimination prohibited Article 15 - CORRECT ANSWER Captains mast Article 86 - CORRECT ANSWER Absence without leave Article 133 - CORRECT ANSWER Conduct unbecoming of an officer Article 92 - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to comply with an order Three types of courts martial - CORRECT ANSWER Summary, special, general Summary Courts martial punishments - CORRECT ANSWER 1 month confinement, decrease in grade, forfeit 2/3 pay for 1 month, hard labor for 45 days, restriction for 60 days Special courts martial punishment - CORRECT ANSWER Decrease in grade, forfeit 2/3 pay for 6 months, restriction for 60 days, confinement with hard labor for 60 days, bad conduct discharge General courts martial punishments - CORRECT ANSWER Confinement at hard labor, total forfeit of pay, dishonorable discharge, dismissal, life imprisionment, death NJP final word - CORRECT ANSWER CO NJP awarded punishment - CORRECT ANSWER Confinement on bread and water, correctional custody, forfeiture of pay, reduction in pay grade, 45 days extra duty, restrictions PESTO Pillars - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel Equipment Supply Training Ordinance Importance of DRRS-N - CORRECT ANSWER Notify CNO and combatant commanders so they can manage the fleet FOM - CORRECT ANSWER Figure of merit What afloat databases flow into DRRS-N - CORRECT ANSWER FLTMPS, MFOM, CSMP, CMP, TORIS, OIS Ineligibility for enlisted advancement - CORRECT ANSWER Retired In confinement Failed prt Non U.S. citizen Unauthorized absence Cheating on an exam Fraudulent advancement When are exams for E-4/5/6 - CORRECT ANSWER September and March When are exams for Chiefs - CORRECT ANSWER January CAP promotions are based off of - CORRECT ANSWER The size of the command Reasons for Administrative separation - CORRECT ANSWER Honorable, general, other than honorable, uncharacterized Criteria for Hardship discharge - CORRECT ANSWER Hardship is not temporary Effects immediate family Sailor is the only person to remedy hardship Every effort is made to alleviate hardship Not criteria for hardship discharge - CORRECT ANSWER Indebtedness Single parent hood Part time employment Personal convenience Financial or business convenience Frocked - CORRECT ANSWER Having all of the responsibilities and roles without the pay grade How long do you have to have a non observed eval - CORRECT ANSWER 90 days What are negative promotion categories on an eval - CORRECT ANSWER Progressing Significant problems What percentage can be EP? - CORRECT ANSWER 20% What does the CIMEO Promote - CORRECT ANSWER Quality of life, positive command morale, equal opportunity Types of CIMEO reports - CORRECT ANSWER Formal & informal What does DAPA stand for - CORRECT ANSWER Drug and alcohol programs advisor How many times over what time period can you be kicked out for failing the PRT - CORRECT ANSWER 3 times in four years FFSC - CORRECT ANSWER Fleet and family services center Ombudsman - CORRECT ANSWER Official representative of CO, plays a vital role in establishing and maintaining current and accurate communications between the command and its family members What is considered classified information - CORRECT ANSWER Used to describe classified material in any matter, document, product, or substance and applied to all personnel People designated by CO on the information security team - CORRECT ANSWER Security manager, top secret control officer Top Secret - CORRECT ANSWER Can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security Secret - CORRECT ANSWER Can cause serious damage to national security Confidential - CORRECT ANSWER Can cause damage to national security What has to be marked classified - CORRECT ANSWER Literally everything containing classified information TSCO has to do inventory - CORRECT ANSWER Once a year How can you transmit top secret information - CORRECT ANSWER Direct contact between appropriately cleared personnel Defense courier service Department of state diplomatic courier service Communications protected by a cryptographic system authorized by the director of the NSA or protected distribution system How long do you have to keep top secret and secret receipts - CORRECT ANSWER Top secret 5 years, secret 2 years What does it mean to have a loss of classified information? Who do you have to notify - CORRECT ANSWER Any time you cannot account that something is classified Abandon ship procedures in U.S. Waters - CORRECT ANSWER Zeroing equipment, destroy all comsec material as completely as possible. Lock it in security containers and let sink with the ship Abandon ship procedures in foreign waters - CORRECT ANSWER Destroy all COMSEC equipment and keying material, destroy all equipment as completely as time permits and jettison u destroyed or partially destroyed COMSEC material overboard, place paper items in weighted bags and let sink 3 things the OOD does in an emergency - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise Inspect Control Where can division members find our where they go in an emergency - CORRECT ANSWER Watch quarter station bill What to do in an emergency - CORRECT ANSWER NOTIFY AND LOG What flag is raised in a man over board situation - CORRECT ANSWER Oscar Three types of security reaction forces - CORRECT ANSWER SRF BRF RF What is the difference between dress ship and full dress ship - CORRECT ANSWER Full dress ship has up and overs in addition to ... Who Musters the color guard - CORRECT ANSWER OOD What time is morning colors - CORRECT ANSWER 0800 What time is evening colors - CORRECT ANSWER Sunset What is called 5 minutes to colors - CORRECT ANSWER First call to colors, no announcements made over 1MC unless emergency Who is in charge of safety and security of the ship while in port - CORRECT ANSWER Duty section What is the stinger for - CORRECT ANSWER CO's physical presence on board Passing honors to port - CORRECT ANSWER 2 blasts on police whistle 1 salute 2 cut 3 carry on Passing honors to starboard - CORRECT ANSWER 1 blast on police whistle 1 salute 2 cut 3 carry on Dipping the ensign - CORRECT ANSWER We never initiate it Who is tasked by the OOD and POOW - CORRECT ANSWER MOOW SOPA and how that is established - CORRECT ANSWER Senior officer present afloat By lineal number How often does INSURV happen - CORRECT ANSWER Every other FRTP Mandated by congress How often does CMTQ, AVCERT, ARQ, 3M CERT, LOA inspections happen - CORRECT ANSWER Once per FRTP Why do we conduct sea bag inspections - CORRECT ANSWER To ensure sailors have everything they need What spaces does a messing and berthing inspection occur in - CORRECT ANSWER Berthing, state rooms, galley, mess decks, ward room, wardroom kitchen, scullery How often do zone inspections happen - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly Operational messages - CORRECT ANSWER MOVREP, LOGREQ, OPREP-3 Interest levels of OPREP-3 - CORRECT ANSWER Pinnacle- national interest Navy blue- navy interest Unit SITREP operational commander How long does SUPPO have to submit a LOGREQ - CORRECT ANSWER 48 hours Why do we have to do MOVREPs - CORRECT ANSWER USS INDIANAPPOLIS How long do you have to make an initial voice report/ send a message report for an incident - CORRECT ANSWER 5 minutes 60 minutes What is included in a message header - CORRECT ANSWER Precedence Date time group To From Info What is the time for auto declassification - CORRECT ANSWER 10 years What does NO FOREIGN mean - CORRECT ANSWER No foreign release NCodes N00 N1 N2 N3/5 N4 N6 N7 N8 - CORRECT ANSWER 00- commander 1- manpower personnel 2- intelligence 3/5 ops and plans 4 readiness and logistics 6 C5I 7- training 8 - warfare requirements and assessments Pers 41 - CORRECT ANSWER Surface warfare officers Pers 40 - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted personnel Pers 4013 - CORRECT ANSWER Sub department of pers 40 How often does the EDVR come out - CORRECT ANSWER Monthly What are the sections of the EDVR - CORRECT ANSWER 1-prospective gains 2- prospective losses 3- personnel on board for TEMDU, iN deserter status or administratively dropped from navy strength accounts and an alpha roster 4- total personnel onboard in distribution community sequence 5- personnel status summary 6- CNO Billets authorized number 7- NEC billet/ personnel inventory Why is the EDVR important - CORRECT ANSWER Watch team replacement plan, manning gaps, if you're short NECs you can send people to school What does EMIR stand for - CORRECT ANSWER Shows critical NEC shortage Who is the EMIR sent to - CORRECT ANSWER From the ship to PERS4013 What is a readiness gap - CORRECT ANSWER The number of people you need to get ready to go to war Who does the chief of naval personnel report to - CORRECT ANSWER CNO 5 ORM Steps - CORRECT ANSWER ID hazards Assess hazards Make risk decisions Implement controls Supervise What determines RAC - CORRECT ANSWER Probability and severity category combination Probability Categories - CORRECT ANSWER A. Likely to occur B. Probably will occur C. May occur D. Unlikely to occur Severity Categories - CORRECT ANSWER I. May cause death II. May cause serious injury III. may cause minor injuries IV. minimal threat to personnel 3 levels of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER In depth- thoroughly study hazards, long term, usually with new equipment Deliberate- planning prior to evolution, disaster response planning Time critical- daily routine, on the run sub conscious action during execution What systems can you access service records - CORRECT ANSWER BOL and NSIPS NSIPS - CORRECT ANSWER Pay and personnel issues only Who is responsible for officer service records - CORRECT ANSWER The officer, we have a pictures associated with our records Who is in charge of enlisted service records - CORRECT ANSWER ADMIN PSD What is LORTARP Who manages it? - CORRECT ANSWER Long range training and requirement plan XO Relief plan for officers What is in the divo notebook - CORRECT ANSWER Personal data, training data, space, equipment and responsibility log, watch and battle station to be manned, leave chits, counseling chits, evals Where should the divo notebook be stored - CORRECT ANSWER Secured in a non public space 4 Stages of SFRM - CORRECT ANSWER Sustain Maintain Train Operate 5 Phases of SFRM - CORRECT ANSWER Maintenance Basic phase Advanced/integrated phase Deployment Sustainment What is TSRA - CORRECT ANSWER Total ships readiness assessment Material based assessment that allows you tom improve CMAV & CSMP Basic phase has two phases - CORRECT ANSWER Tier 1 mobility Tier 2 tactical Tier 1 components - CORRECT ANSWER 3 SAM(ends)E FACS SAR AIR MOB-E(engineering) MOB-D(damage control) MOB-N(navigation MOB-S(seamanship) Explosive safety FSOM Anti terrorism Supply CCC comms 3M Tier 2 components - CORRECT ANSWER BWCIS BMD AW, SW, USW, EW CRYPTO INTELL STRIKE What is PB4T? How often is it done - CORRECT ANSWER Planing board for training Once a month or as designated by the XO Who should be at PB4T - CORRECT ANSWER XO TRAINO Department heads DCA ESO medical rep What are four training references - CORRECT ANSWER SORM SFRM FLTEMPS EDVR OJT - CORRECT ANSWER On the job training GMT - CORRECT ANSWER General military training PQS Levels - CORRECT ANSWER 100-fundamentals 200-systems 300- watch stations TORIS- TFOM has 4 Pillars - CORRECT ANSWER Proficiency, personnel, management, material What does SORM stand for - CORRECT ANSWER Standard organizations and readiness manual Non material stuff is/are - CORRECT ANSWER Services Small fleet unit supply - CORRECT ANSWER S1-stock control and postal S2-food service S3-ship store S4-disbursing/navy cash What funding pays for schools, lodging, emergency leave etc. - CORRECT ANSWER TADTAR What funding pays for parts and consumables - CORRECT ANSWER OPTAR What does COSAL stand for? What does it mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Coordinated ship board allowance list Guide for determining the items and quantities which should be stocked by the supply department to support the equipment installed on board What rank is required to be a RPPO - CORRECT ANSWER Petty officer Why does supply cancel parts - CORRECT ANSWER Wrong APL Ordered in excess of QPA ordered consumables using EMRM JCN is closed No response to internal MOV Wrong DLR RIP Multiple DLRs per request Unauthorized maintenance at shipboard level Who is responsible for paying back when overdrawing on a navy cash card - CORRECT ANSWER The sailor Functions of a CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER Request tech assistance Report requisition/ issue status of required materials Characteristics of a CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER Significant equipment casualty Diminished combat readiness posture Inability to perform assigned operational mission AFRICOM - CORRECT ANSWER Africa minus egypt CENTCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Middle East, plus Egypt, minus Israel EUCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Europe and Russia NORTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER North america PACOM - CORRECT ANSWER Asia, India, all of the Indian ocean SOUTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Central and South America SOCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Special operations command STRATCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Strategic command, anything in space or having to do with computers TRANSCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Logistics and supply Fleet forces TF 80 - CORRECT ANSWER Gulf of Mexico western Atlantic up to the north pole 4F - CORRECT ANSWER Central American waters South American waters 3F - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern pacific 7F - CORRECT ANSWER Western pacific, Madagascar waters 5F - CORRECT ANSWER Arabian gulf, gulf of Oman, red sea 6F - CORRECT ANSWER Europe, Africa, Baltic, Black Sea, Mediterranean, north seas 10F - CORRECT ANSWER Not over water computers, cyber command [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Test Review 58 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Test Review 58 Questions with Verified Answers List of Geographic Combatant Commands - CORRECT ANSWER USAFRICOM, USCENTCOM, USEUCOM, U... [Show More] SNORTHCOM, USINDOPACOM, USSOUTHCOM, USSPACECOM List the functional combatant commanders - CORRECT ANSWER US Special Operations Com, US Transport Com, US Strategic Com, US Cyber Com What are the four security classification levels and their definitions? - CORRECT ANSWER Top Secret: Exceptionally grave damage, less about info more about how we got it. Secret: Serious damage, actionable items Confidential: Damage if released. CUI: Controlled unclassified information What are the colors for each classification? - CORRECT ANSWER TS: Burnt orange. Secret: Red. Confidential: Blue. CUI: Green. Define access as it relates to INFOSEC - CORRECT ANSWER Your ability to access information Define "Need to Know" as it relates to INFOSEC - CORRECT ANSWER Determination made that an individual with access is required to know classified information to perform their job/mission Define Clearance as it relates to INFOSEC - CORRECT ANSWER Eligibility to access classified materials and a valid need to know Explain the fundamentals of the Fleet Family Support Program - CORRECT ANSWER The Fleet and Family Support Program is designed to help support sailors in work and family life. It does this through providing resources and programs. List several programs provided by the Fleet Family support program - CORRECT ANSWER SAPR, Navy Gold Star Program, Counseling advocacy and prevention, family care plan Define Billet Based Distribution (BBD) - CORRECT ANSWER Web System designed to fill as many spots with qualified personnel as possible and provide awareness of alignment and vacancies. How does BBD apply to the DIVO - CORRECT ANSWER DIVOs use BBD to understand the manning alignment of their divisions and any project vacancies that may occur What are the three levels of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER In-depth, deliberate, time critical Define in-depth ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Time is not a limiting factor, can take as much time as needed to implement controls to reduce ORM Define deliberate ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Ample time to apply process for best decision Define Time critical ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Little or no time to apply ORM process Process for ringing a CO on & off the ship - CORRECT ANSWER Ding ding, ding ding, SHIPS NAME, arriving/departing/returning, stinger What is an APL? - CORRECT ANSWER Allowance Parts List. APL is for pieces of equipment that are physically attached to the ship. What is an AEL? - CORRECT ANSWER Allowance Equipage List. AEL is for pieces of equipment that allow us to perform a mission, eg. flakjackets, kevlar List the procedures for morning colors - CORRECT ANSWER 1) 1st call (fly prep pennant). 2) Attention. 3) Music. 4) Close up. 5) lower flag (if at half mast). 6) Carry on. List the procedures for evening colors - CORRECT ANSWER 1) First call. 2) attention. 3) Music. 4) Raise flag to full staff (if at half mast). 5) lower flag. 6) carry on. What are the three types of court martial? - CORRECT ANSWER Summary, Special, and General Court Martial Define Summary Court Martial - CORRECT ANSWER Run by one officer O3 or higher, can only be done for enlisted personnel and for minor offenses Define Special Court Martial - CORRECT ANSWER Run by a military judge and four members, for non-capital and some capital offenses. Defense and trail counsel, and accused may retain civilian counsel. Define General Court Martial - CORRECT ANSWER Military judge and eight members, may try a person subjected to the UCMJ for any offense. What are the inspections that apply for DIVOs? - CORRECT ANSWER Seabag, safety, 3M and zone inspection, admin inspection, INSURV What is a seabag inspection and how often does it occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Seabag inspection, usually conducted for junior sailors to ensure they have everything necessary before evolutions like deployment or transfer of command. Can also be a punishment assigned as EMI. What is a safety inspection and how often does it occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Safety inspections are designed to inspect spaces to ensure they are meeting proper NAVOSH safety requirements, checking hazmat safety, electrical safety, and radiation safety, among other things. What is an administrative inspection and how often does it occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Health and welfare inspection, checks messing, berthing, and quarters. Can be conducted daily. What is a zone inspection and how often does it occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Zone inspection is an inspection of zones and spaces around the ship to ensure they are being properly maintained, it is conducted quarterly. What is a 3M assessment and how often does it occur? - CORRECT ANSWER A 3M assessment is an inspection done to ensure the 3M program is properly managed and maintenance is properly scheduled and accomplished, it occurs every 11-18 months. What is INSURV and how frequently does it occur? - CORRECT ANSWER INSURV, or inspection and survey, is an inspection conducted normally once every five years to evaluate a unit's fitness for service. More recently it has become pop up inspection. Describe responsibilities of Department Head IAW SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Organize and train dept for battle readiness, oversee dept admin, coordinate dept safety program, supervise training and professional development of Jos Describe responsibilities of DIVOs IAW SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise performance of work, schedule and conduct training for division, maintain DIVO notebook, report to DH if any issues should arise. Describe responsibilities of LCPOs IAW SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Assign division personnel daily tasks, assist DIVO in admin duties, responsible for day-to-day activities of division. Describe the responsibilities of LPOs IAW SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Performs many of the functions of the LCPO in assisting the DIVO, including Preparation of watch and liberty lists Training and PQS qualification of junior personnel Ensures divisional administration is forward to division officer for review and forwarding. Describe the responsibilities of the Work Center Supervisor IAW SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Prepares PMS weekly work center schedule, assigns personnel, 3M system operation in the work center. What are the three main components of an LES? - CORRECT ANSWER entitlements, ,deductions, allotments What are the four types of personnel involved in drafting and releasing naval messages? - CORRECT ANSWER Users (anyone authorized to draft, release, or process electronically transmitted messenger), Originators (authority whose name is associated with the message, usually CO), Releasers (who releases the message), and Drafters (who composed the message) What is the DIVOs role in the PQS program? - CORRECT ANSWER It is a DIVO's responsibility to track the status of their division's individual PQS in the DIVO binder to ensure that they are tracking on the qualification of personnel. Navy Operational Chain of Command - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS, SECDEF, CJCS, Combatant Commanders, Navy Component Command (NCC), Numbered Fleet Command (NFC), Carrier or ESG Commander, DESRON/PHIBRON, Ship CO Navy Admin Chain of Command - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS, SECDEF, SECNAV, CNO, US Fleet Forces Commander, TYCOM, DESRON/PHIBRON, Ship CO What are the stages of OFRP? - CORRECT ANSWER Maintenance, shakedown, basic, advanced, integrated, sustainment What is the goal of SFTRM - CORRECT ANSWER Designed to optimize the return on training and maintenance investments, maintain Sailor quality of service, and ensure units are certified in progressive levels of deployable capability Define INFOSEC - CORRECT ANSWER A process of procedures used to protect information. Define OPSEC - CORRECT ANSWER The process to deny the enemy critical information about us. Define COMSEC - CORRECT ANSWER Protective measures we use to protect our communications systems Define Physical Security - CORRECT ANSWER Physical measures we take to safeguard COMSEC On what occasions are FITREPS/Evals submitted? - CORRECT ANSWER Periodic, detaching, special circumstance, CO detaching What are the levels of the use of force continuum? - CORRECT ANSWER Presence, verbal commands, soft controls, hard controls, non-lethal, deadly force What are the requirements for deadly force to be used? - CORRECT ANSWER Intent, opportunity, capability (deadly force triangle) What is the purpose of the OMBUDSMAN? - CORRECT ANSWER The OMBUDSMAN is a civilian (typically a spouse) who coordinates information for families with the CO What is the purpose of a Material Obligation Validation? - CORRECT ANSWER A Material Obligation Validation (or MOV) is used to verify unfilled quantities of parts requests in order to improve supply chain requests, and ensure sound financial management practices. What is the purpose of PBFT and who is a part of it? - CORRECT ANSWER Planning Board for Training is a board conducted monthly (or as directed by XO) in order to deconflict the schedule to efficiently conduct training with personnel needed. Headed by XO and attended by DHs, TRAINO, Safety Officer, DCA, CMC, etc What are the components of aa FITREP/EVAL - CORRECT ANSWER Individual info, occasion for report, senior information, command information, watch standing and collateral information, performance traits, recommendation, comments, promotion recommendation, endorsement What types of TSP options are available and what makes them different? - CORRECT ANSWER Individual funds and lifecycle funds. Individual funds provide 5 different investment fund options while lifecycle funds are a blend of individual funds that automatically adjust for risk based on target retirement date. What is an EMIR and who it is sent to? - CORRECT ANSWER An Enlisted Manning Inquiry Report (EMIR) is a message sent from the CO saying why we need an individual for unit readiness. It is sent to PERS-41, TYCOM, and ISIC What is the purpose of the in-port security force? - CORRECT ANSWER The purpose of the in-port security force is to reduce the vulnerability of personnel, units, and equipment to attack or danger. What are the 8 SSOPs - CORRECT ANSWER Integrity, formality, level of knowledge, procedural compliance, forceful backup, questioning attitude, ownership, self sufficiency. [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Exam 160 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Exam 160 Questions with Verified Answers CDO - CORRECT ANSWER Command Duty Officer - Authorized by the CO to carry out the routine o... [Show More] f the unit in port ATTWO - CORRECT ANSWER Anti Terrorism Tactical Watch Officer - Tactically employs assets to defend the unit against terrorist attack when in port EDO - CORRECT ANSWER Engineering Duty Officer - Same duties as the EOOW underway, in addition to managing the duty section POOW - CORRECT ANSWER Petty Officer of the Watch - Assist the OOD in supervising the watch team - Maintains the deck log and supervises the use of the 1MC - Reports to the OOD MOOW - CORRECT ANSWER Messenger of the Watch - Performs various routine duties tasked by the OOD or POOW (Maintaining visitor log and access badges; maintain the cleanliness of the quarterdeck/brow) - Reports to the OOD Sounding-and-Security Watch - CORRECT ANSWER - Assigned for additional and increased physical security (rovers) - Reports at least hourly to the OOD Duty Master-at-Arms - CORRECT ANSWER - Responsible for conducting periodic musters of restricted crew, supervising the performance of extra duty, & routine inspections - Enforces standards of order and discipline OOD In Port Duties - CORRECT ANSWER - Designated by the CO to be in charge of the unit - Carry out routine and inform changes in the routine - Report to the CDO in CO's absence - Render honors - Maintain Deck Log - Colors - Maintain Lines OOD Comm Equipment - CORRECT ANSWER 1MC Ship's Service Telephone Handheld Radios Quarterdeck Alarms Sound-powered phones Importance of maintaining log books - CORRECT ANSWER They are legal documents and should be treated as such Ship's Deck Log - CORRECT ANSWER Chronological record of events - POOW makes entries and OOD ensures accuracy and timeliness; signs at the conclusion of watch Required Personnel Deck Log Entries - CORRECT ANSWER - Arrival/Departure of the CO - Honors, Ceremonies, and Visits - Unexplained or Unauthorized absences Required Operational/Navigational Deck Log Entries - CORRECT ANSWER - Accidents (resulting in a loss of ANY kind) - Actions - Propulsion Status (Major changes in propulsion plant status or procedures that affect the ship's ability to maneuver) Relieving the Watch - CORRECT ANSWER - Inspect all spaces and equipment prior to relieving the watch - Examine all applicable log readings since they last had the watch; read the remarks section of those logs - Appropriate permissions and reports are given - Sign the log as appropriate First Substitution - CORRECT ANSWER Absence of the flag officer or unit commander Second Substitution - CORRECT ANSWER Absence of the chief of staff Third Substitution - CORRECT ANSWER Absence of the CO Absence of the XO, if the CO is on leave (> 72 hrs) Fourth Substitution - CORRECT ANSWER Absence of the civil or military official Starboard - CORRECT ANSWER Senior Officer Present Afloat (SOPA) - OIC of all the other ships in port (or on that pier) - Ususally ship whose CO is most senior on the pier Routine Evolutions (5) - CORRECT ANSWER - Twelve O'Clock Reports - Working Parties - Newly Reporting Personnel - Ship Visits - Pumping the Bilge SOFA - CORRECT ANSWER Status of Forces Agreement - Agreements addressing the status of US armed forces while present in a foreign country - Usually about criminal jurisdiction over US military personnel Ensign - CORRECT ANSWER Flag that a country designates to be flown on its warships - U.S. uses the national flag (Stars and Stripes) How is colors conducted? - CORRECT ANSWER Every morning at 0800 Every evening at sunset First Call to Colors - 5 min prior - No word is to be passed over the 1MC - Prep pennant Attention and Carry on Saluting the Flag CDO observes colors Arrival and Departure of senior officers - CORRECT ANSWER Sound bells Announce short title Stinger for embarked officer (ships CO, Commodore, or flag officer) Number of Bells for Senior Officers - CORRECT ANSWER O-5/O-6: 4 bells O-7/O-8: 6 bells O-9/O-10: 8 bells Passing Honors - CORRECT ANSWER Rendered on occasions when ships, flag officers, cars or small boats pass (within 600 yards) Rendered from junior to senior (based on the seniority of CO -Rank, Lineal number) Sequence: - Attention sounded: 1 blast for STBD; 2 blasts for port - One Blast: Hand Salute - Two Blasts: Ready, to - Three Blasts: Carry on ALPHA - CORRECT ANSWER Divers or EOD are down below BRAVO - CORRECT ANSWER Transferring fuels or explosives INDIA - CORRECT ANSWER Used to perform nesting of ships in port - At the dip: preparing to come alongside - Closed up: Ready to receive KILO - CORRECT ANSWER There are personnel working aloft KILO ONE - CORRECT ANSWER There are personnel working over the side KILO THREE - CORRECT ANSWER There are personnel working aloft and over the side LIMA - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) OSCAR - CORRECT ANSWER Man overboard PAPA - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel recall - Orders all crew to return immediately QUEBEC - CORRECT ANSWER Boat Recall - orders all boats to return immediately UNIFORM - CORRECT ANSWER Anchoring/Mooring/Weighing Anchor - At the dip: Anchor leg go or I am heaving in PREP - CORRECT ANSWER Closed up: 5 minutes until colors At dip: Commence colors HOTEL - CORRECT ANSWER I have a pilot embarked November Charlie - CORRECT ANSWER I am in distress and require assistance OOD (in port) primary responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER Safety, security, and proper operation of the unit Duty Section Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER Conduct training to ensure proficiency of each watchstander OOD responsibilities during emergency - CORRECT ANSWER - Notify the crew (use 1MC or any other common comm device) - Notify the CDO - Notify the DH or DDH - Notify base police, base fire dept, or paramedics Security Threats - CORRECT ANSWER Emergency situations that threaten the safety of the ship or the crew, inside or outside the lifelines - OOD will inform ship security forces - Secure the brow - Make appropriate deck log entries - Follow direction/coordinate with the ATTWO Force Continuum - CORRECT ANSWER Passive Subject 1. Presence 2. Verbal Commands 3. Soft Control Active Subject 4. Hard control 5. Non-lethal force 6. Deadly force Deadly Force Triangle - CORRECT ANSWER Capability Opportunity Intent In Port Security Forces - CORRECT ANSWER SRF (Security Reaction Force) BRF (Back-up Reaction Force) RF (Reserve Force) SFTRM - CORRECT ANSWER Surface Training & Readiness Manual SFTRM Fundamental Tenents - CORRECT ANSWER - Train the watchstander, watch team, maintainer, and trainer - A standard, predictable path to readiness - PESTO Pillars exit criteria - Simple shipboard reporting across all PESTO pillars - A sequenced approach to readiness - Consistent material assessment standards among all assessment organizations PESTO - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel (FLTMPS/NTMPS/TFFMS) Equipment (MFOM/CSMP) Supply (CMP) Training (TORIS) Ordnance (OIS) SFTRM Goal - CORRECT ANSWER A balanced, sustainable, and predictable approach to maximize employability Notional OFRP cycle length - CORRECT ANSWER (Optimized Fleet Response Plan Goal) 36 months OFRP Phases - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintenance 2. Basic 3. Advanced/Integrated 4. Sustainment Basic Phase - CORRECT ANSWER - Improve a unit's PESTO readiness - Train and certify a unit in all mission areas and ensure she is able to perform as a single cohesive unit - Watch standers become familiar with governing documents - Demonstrate proficiency and complete CEs CEs - CORRECT ANSWER Certification Events DIVO Role: Basic Phase - CORRECT ANSWER Warfare Lead - all elements of a warfare area Training - Planned and regularly conducted - Long Range Training Plan Equipment - Inventories of required gear and maintenance Administration - Watch Team Replacement Plan - Schools and certification deadlines ATG - CORRECT ANSWER Afloat Training Group Assesss and grade all CE's Develop Basic Phase training plans Provide tailored training when requested Develop standardized assessment check sheets and grade sheets DRRS-N - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Readiness Reporting System - Navy DRRS-N Assessments - CORRECT ANSWER Mission Essential Task: A task that is necessary, indispensable, or critical to the success of a unit's mission Capabilities: Comparable to the naval warfare mission areas Core: Highest unit level assessment SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Standard Organization and Regulations Manual - Outlines standard Navy organization - Dictates required ship's bills, instructions, primary and collateral duties, watch organization, divisional/departmental organization etc. DIVO Responsibilities per the SORM - CORRECT ANSWER - 3M - Schedule and conduct training - Assign divisional watches - Maintain DIVO notebook - Ensure DC equipment, fittings, and check-off lists is assinged - Promptly report to DH repairs that need correction - Inspect spaces Administrative Organization - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF SECNAV CNO PACFLT or USFF TYCOM (Surface/Air/Sub) DESRON/PHIBRON/LECSRON Ship CO Operational Organization - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF CJCS (advisory) GCC (Geographic Combatant Commander) NCC (Navy Component Command) NFC (Numbered Fleet Commander) CSG (Carrier Strike Group) or ESG DESRON/PHIBRON/LCSRON Ship CO Geographic Combatant Commands - CORRECT ANSWER USCENTCOM USAFRICOM USEUCOM USNORHTCOM USINDOPACOM USSOUTHCOM CENTCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Middle East (Except Israel) Central Asia Egypt AFRICOM - CORRECT ANSWER All Africa except Egypt EUCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Europe Russia Greenland Israel NORTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER US Alaska Puerto Rico Canada Mexico INDOPACOM - CORRECT ANSWER Indo-Asia-Pacific Region SOUTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Central & South America Caribbean Functional Combatant Commands - CORRECT ANSWER SOCOM, STRATCOM, TRANSCOM CYBERCOM SOCOM - CORRECT ANSWER US Special Operations Command - Providing combat-ready special operations forces to other Combatant Commanders STRATCOM - CORRECT ANSWER US Strategic Command - Deter strategic attack and employ forces, as directed, to guarantee the security of our Nation and our Allies TRANSCOM - CORRECT ANSWER US Transportation Command -Logistics and support to the other combatant commands CYBERCOM - CORRECT ANSWER US Cyber Command 10th Fleet - Direct, synchronize, and coordinate cyberspace planning and operations Numbered Fleets - CORRECT ANSWER 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 10th 2nd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Atlantic Ocean 4th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER The Caribbean, and surrounding waters of Central and South America 3rd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern Half of the Pacific Ocean 7th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Pacific Ocean and most of the Indian Ocean 5th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, and part of the Indian Ocean 6th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Atlantic Ocean and the Adriatic, Baltic, Barents, Black, Caspian, Mediterranean, and North Seas 10th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Responsible for the Navy's cyber warfare programs - Has operational control over Navy information, computer, crytologic and space forces Informal Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Quarters Uniform inspections Equipment checks Formal Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Graded Asses shipboard readiness Seabag Inspection - CORRECT ANSWER E3 & junior to ensure each person has a full and complete seabag E3 & junior will have one prior to transfer E4-E-6 on individual basis Safety Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) Program - Electrical Safety - Hazmat - Confined Spaces - Trip/Fall Protection - Respiratory - Sight conservation - Hearing conservation - Lockout/Tagout - Radiation Administrative Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER To determine and ensure the security, military fitness, or good order and discipline of the unit and crew - Health and Welfare - Messing and Berthing - Quarters Zone Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure proper measures are taken to keep machinery, spaces, and equipment operational and in satisfactory state of preservation DIVO: - Write jobs as needed - Ensure cleanliness 3M Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure the 3M program is properly managed and maintenance is properly scheduled/accomplished 2 phases - 3M Program Assessment - PMS Assessment Conducted by ATG 11-18 months from last assessment INSURV - CORRECT ANSWER Inspection and Survey Conducted at least every 5 years Provide assurance regarding a unit's fitness for service, identify limits to mission capability, and report material deficiencies Supply Organization - CORRECT ANSWER SUPPO S-1: Material Support - HAZMAT - Postal S-2: Food Service S-3: Ship's Store S-4: Disbursing RPPO - CORRECT ANSWER Repair Parts Petty Officer - Non-supply department personnel assigned by their respective departments to form liaison with supply OPTAR - CORRECT ANSWER Operating Target - An estimate of the amount of money required by a ship to perform their assigned task/functions Maintenance/Repair Other (Consumables) TADTAR - CORRECT ANSWER Temporary Additional Duty (TAD) Travel Target - Money allocated to support TAD expenses (schools, emergency leave, travel) COSAL - CORRECT ANSWER Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List Lists the items required to achieve maximum, self-supporting capability for an extended period of time APL - CORRECT ANSWER Allowance Parts List - Lists technical characteristics of a single piece of equipment and its supply information Parts for a specific console Documented in the COSAL AEL - CORRECT ANSWER Allowance Equipage List - Describe a system supported by a range of items Parts for an entire system Documented in the COSAL CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER Casualty Report Equipment malfunction or deficiency that cannot be corrected within 48 hrs and reduces a unit's capability to perform a mission CAT II - CORRECT ANSWER Minor degradation in any primary mission OR major degradation or total loss of a secondary mission CAT III - CORRECT ANSWER Major degradation, but not loss of primary mission CAT IV - CORRECT ANSWER Total loss of at least one primary mission MOV - CORRECT ANSWER Material Obligation Validation - Used to verify unfilled quantities of parts requests in order to improve supply chain requests, and ensure sound financial management practices Internal: Monthly External: Quarterly PQS - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel Qualification Standards - MINIMUM knowledge, skills, and abilities that an individual must demonstrate before standing watches or performing other specific duties - Qualification process certification for the MINIMUM level of competency is required prior to qualifying to perform specific duties PQS Sections - CORRECT ANSWER 100 Level (Fundamentals) 200 Level (Systems) 300 Level (Watchstations) DIVO Responsibilities for PQS - CORRECT ANSWER Monitor PQS completion WTRP Records Training PBFT - CORRECT ANSWER Planning Board for Training DH TRAINO Safety Officer DCA Educational Services Officer CMC Medical Rep Chaired by the XO Held at least monthly Coordinates the training schedule of the ship Shipboard Training Programs - CORRECT ANSWER On-the-Job Training (OJT) Indoctrination (INDOC) Rate-entry Training (Strikers) Team Training Optimized Fleet Response Plan (OFRP) Navy eLearing PQS TORIS-TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER Training and Operational Readiness Information Service (TORIS) - A web based tool used to schedule, execute, track, display, and report all unit level training (TYCOM's database) Training Figure of Merit (TFOM) Calculation of TORIS metrics for overall unit training readiness - TRAINO is the administrator NEC - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Enlisted Classification - Specialization within Rate EDVP - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted Distribution and Verification Process - Displays what you need and what you have ROC - CORRECT ANSWER Required Operational Capability - Used to specify desired level of achievement of readiness for a particular level of readiness - Desired level of readiness POE - CORRECT ANSWER Projected Operational Environment - Description of the environment which the ship is expected to operate, including the military climate Fit vs Fill - CORRECT ANSWER Fit - Right sailors (rate) with the right NEC Fill - Number of sailors w/ NEC (CMC can fill those spots etc) BBD - CORRECT ANSWER Billet Based Distribution Requests what you need in terns of rate, experience, eval - Try to get more tailored people that FIT your needs SMD - CORRECT ANSWER Ships Manpower Document - Quantitative and qualitative manpower wartime requirements for an individual ship or class of ships Reviewed during EDVP - factors in ROC/POEs AMD - CORRECT ANSWER Activity Manpower Document Manpower requirement supported by approved funding and end strength (Billets Authorized) EMIR - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted Manning Inquiry Report Notifies PERS-4013 of a units convern of enlisted personnel shortages - Manning: Below NMP or BA (Billets Authorized) - Critical NEC: COB/POB manning for the NEC does not meet approved DRRS-N requirements (Like ANAV) - Readiness Navy Apprenticeship - CORRECT ANSWER E-1 through E-3 Assigned a general rate (Airman, Fireman, or Seaman) Strikers - CORRECT ANSWER Sailor in an apprenticeship pay grade training toward a particular rating Cross Rate - CORRECT ANSWER Limit in the number of people in each rate by year group General Requirements for Advancement - CORRECT ANSWER Recommended by CO Have the required Time in Rate (TIR) Complete Navy training and required schools Citizenship or security clearance requirements PRT Pass Navy-Wide Advancement Exam (NWAE) Meet minimum performance criteria (FMS) FMS - CORRECT ANSWER Final Multiple Score Includes: - Performance Mark Average (Eval marking -> weighted score) - Standard Score (score on advancement exam) - Awards, Service in Paygrade (TIR), IA Points - Pass Not Advance (PNA) points (previous test taking performance) - Education (College courses) MAP - CORRECT ANSWER Meritorious Advancement Program - Allows COs to advance eligible personnel who are top performing Sailors in paygrades E3, E4, and E5 to the next higher paygrade - Immediately start getting paid Frocking - CORRECT ANSWER Wear the rank, carry the title, heave the responsibility, but don't get paid for that higher pay grade yet Commissioning Programs - CORRECT ANSWER Naval Academy NROTC STA-21 OCS LDO/CWO MECP (Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program) CMEO - CORRECT ANSWER Command Managed Equal Opportunity - Promote positive command morale and QOL - Provide an environment free from personal, social, or institutional barriers that prevent Service members from rising to the highest level of responsibility possible CMEO Reporting - CORRECT ANSWER Informal: CoC is the preferred process to identify, process, and resolve harassment and unlawful discrimination claims within a command Formal: Initiate an investigation Fraternization - CORRECT ANSWER UNDULY FAMILIAR personal relationships Prohibited relationships: - Officer & enlisted - Senior enlisted & junior enlisted in same command - any relationship that compromises the CoC SAPR - CORRECT ANSWER Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program Shall: - Focus on the victim - Be recovery-oriented - Standardized SAPR Restricted Report - CORRECT ANSWER Victims receive care/treatment without initiating investigation ONLY be reported to: - SAPR VA - SARC - Qualified Military or civilian Health Care Personnel - Chaplain - Victim's Legal Counsel SAPR Unrestricted Report - CORRECT ANSWER Allows assault victims to disclose the incident to the command, receive care/treatment, initiate an investigation Sexual Harassment - CORRECT ANSWER Reported to CEMO DAPA - CORRECT ANSWER Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor - Provides resources for treatment ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Operational Risk Management 5-Step ORM Process - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify Hazards 2. Assess Hazards 3. Make Decisions 4. Implement Controls 5. Supervise Severity Category I - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests Severity Category II - CORRECT ANSWER CATEGORY II - May cause severe injury, illness, property, damage, damage to national or service interests or degradation to efficient use of assets Severity Category III - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage, damage to national, service or command interests or degradation to efficient use of assets Severity Category IV - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard presents minimal threat to personnel safety or health, property, national, service or command interests or efficient use of assets Probability Category A - CORRECT ANSWER Likely to occur immediately Probability Category B - CORRECT ANSWER Probably will occur in several time. Expected to occur several times. Probability Category C - CORRECT ANSWER May occur. Can reasonably be expected to occur some time. Probability Category D - CORRECT ANSWER Unlikely to occur Risk Assessment Code - CORRECT ANSWER 1 = Critical 2 = Serious 3 = Moderate 4 = Minor 5 = Negligible Levels of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER In Depth Deliberate Time Critical Strategic --> Tactical INFOSEC - CORRECT ANSWER Information Security OPSEC - CORRECT ANSWER Operational Security - Formal program that identifies and protects sensitive but unclassified information that ensures missions success COMSEC - CORRECT ANSWER Communications Security - Protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications related to national security Physical Security - CORRECT ANSWER Physical measures taken to safegaurd COMSEC material NIPRNet - CORRECT ANSWER Non-classified internet Protocol Network SIRNet - CORRECT ANSWER Secret Internet Protocol Network Access - CORRECT ANSWER The ability/opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information Need-to-Know - CORRECT ANSWER Determination made that a prospective recipient requires access to specific classified information in order to perform their duties Top Secret - CORRECT ANSWER Orange Secret - CORRECT ANSWER Red Confidential - CORRECT ANSWER Blue For Official Use Only - CORRECT ANSWER FOUO Green River City - CORRECT ANSWER Continuously provides procedures to control outgoing paths from ship/shore systems for the purpose of OPSEC and Force Protection "Going Dark" EKMS - CORRECT ANSWER Electronic Key Management System Encrypt and decrypt information to and from ship [Show Less]
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Divo Fundamentals Exam 205 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Divo Fundamentals Exam 205 Questions with Verified Answers DIVO Org - CORRECT ANSWER divo/ asst divo chief LPO wcs/supply/watch leader work personne... [Show More] l divo responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER - message traffic trainings spot check weekly 3M talk to DH (supervisor) -QUALIFY (PQS, PB4T, WTRP) CSMP - CORRECT ANSWER Current Ship Maintenance Project - scrub weekly -supervise the performance of work centers within division in carrying out the shipboard maintenance and material management system SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Standard Organization and Regulations Manual - outlines Navy org - dictates required ship bills, instructions, primary/collat, watch organization - enables personnel to transfer ship/ship and expect similarities Shipboard Org & DH Org - CORRECT ANSWER CO/XO/ CMC DH/DIVO/Division DH/ Asst/ Dept LCPO DIVO/LCPO/DIV Readiness Conditions - CORRECT ANSWER Condition 1: General Quarters Condition 2: DC/ASW/Strike (specific.. modified GQ) Condition 3: Wartime/ Heightened Condition 4: Peacetime Readiness DOD Organization - CORRECT ANSWER SECDEF JCS (OP/ADMIN) Mil Dept (ADMIN) office SD (ADMIN) Unified CoCOM (OP) ADMIN CoC - CORRECT ANSWER training, manning, equipping POTUS SECDEF SECNAV CNO **** PACFLT/USFF **** TYCOM (Surf/Air/Sub) **/* DESRON/PHIBRON (O-6) CO (O3-O6) OPS CoC - CORRECT ANSWER warheads on foreheads POTUS SECDEF CJCS **** COCOM **** Fleet Com **** CSG/ESG * DESRON/PHIBRON (O-6) CO (O3-O6) CENTCOM - CORRECT ANSWER MidEast, Central Asia, Egypt AFRICOM - CORRECT ANSWER All of Africa (not egypt) EUCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Europe, Russian, Greenland, Israel NORTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER US, Alaska, Puerto Rico, Canada, Mexico PACOM - CORRECT ANSWER Indo-Asia- Pacific Region SOUTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Central/South America, Caribbean Functional Command - CORRECT ANSWER SOCOM STRATCOM TRANSCOM CYBERCOM Operational Fleets - CORRECT ANSWER (3) Eastern Pacific (4) Caribbean/ Cent/South AM (2) US Fleet Force (6) Eastern Atlantic, Adriatic, Barents, Black, Med, North Seas (5) Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Oman, part Indian Ocean (7) Western Pacific/ Indian Oc INFOSEC - CORRECT ANSWER protecting info and systems from unauthorized access COMSEC - CORRECT ANSWER designator "crypto" -identifies all docs and keying material which are used to protect or authenticate classified/unclass NETSEC - CORRECT ANSWER protecting the computer networks associated with DoD Physical Security - CORRECT ANSWER CAC/SIPR/PII - physical measure for network or security NIPR vs. SIPR - CORRECT ANSWER Non-classified internet protocol router secret internet protocol router OOD & Cyber Sec - CORRECT ANSWER quarterdeck is 1st line defense - access list (physical) - info sec... FOUO Information Security Program - CORRECT ANSWER CO responsible, but delegates authority - security manager - top secret control officer Classification Levels - CORRECT ANSWER Top Secret: exceptionally grave danger (orange) Secret: serious damage (Red) Confidential: potential damage (blue) Unclassified: green PB4T - CORRECT ANSWER Planning Board for Training - coordinates training sched - MONTHLY, but weekly XO, TRAINO, DHs, DCA, Edu Services, Medical LRTP/ SRTP - CORRECT ANSWER Long vs. Short Range Training Plan - LR: 12 months (you and chief make and send to DH) - SR: quarterly, monthly, weekly (do earlier in week) R-ADM - CORRECT ANSWER Relational Administrative Data Management - afloat admin database - generates simplified reports of required training - training/qual validation system SHIPBOARD** CANTRAC - CORRECT ANSWER Catalog of Navy Training Courses - web database of all available schools in the Navy Shipboard Training Programs - CORRECT ANSWER On the Job Training (OJT) INDOC Rate-entry (Strikers) Team Training Optimized Fleet Response Plan PQS TORIS - CORRECT ANSWER Training and Operational Readiness Info Service - web based system used to assess, train, and certify ships - OFFSHIP TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER Training Figure of Merit - application in TORIS to maintain proficiency standards across warfare areas - TRAINO administrates - tool for COs to tailor training ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Operational Risk Management 1. Identify 2. Assess (RAC) 3. Risk Decision 4. Implement Controls 5. Supervise Hazard Definition - CORRECT ANSWER Condition with potential to cause harm Risk Definition - CORRECT ANSWER expression of possible loss in terms of severity ORM measured by? - CORRECT ANSWER Probability (A-D) A = likely Severity (1-4) 1 = death 3 Levels ORM - CORRECT ANSWER in depth: thorough study of hazards in complex operation deliberate: planning session prior to evolution (group) time critical: "on the run", nothing recorded on paper CMEO - CORRECT ANSWER Command Managed Equal Opportunity - promote positive command morale and QOL - nonbiased environment - positive Equal Opportunity Restricted Reporting - CORRECT ANSWER only certain people know - can go unrestricted SAPR VA SARC Healthcare Chaplain Unrestricted Reporting - CORRECT ANSWER - cannot be reversed Chain of Command Law enforcement SARC SAPR VA health care professional DAPA - CORRECT ANSWER Drug and Alcohol Programs Advisor - commitment to personnel to help where needed - screenings and referrals (non punitive) CFL - CORRECT ANSWER Command Fitness Leaders - maintain fitness standard - exercise programs and guidance Omsbudsman - CORRECT ANSWER someone's spouse who is contact for family - link to servicemembers fam Family Care Plan - CORRECT ANSWER plans to care for minor children and adult family while sailor is gone - legal guardian, finances, relocation Navy Manpower Org - CORRECT ANSWER Ech 1: CNO DCNO (man, train, edu) ADCNO Ech 2: Chief Naval Personnel BUPERS STAFF DCNP Millington Ech 3: Commander Navy Recru CO Manpower Analysis CO Navy Personnel Reference Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures - CORRECT ANSWER OPNAVIST 1000.16 Series PERS 41 vs. 4013 - CORRECT ANSWER 41 = man/ distrib surf officers 4013: enlisted (NECs) SMD/ AMD - CORRECT ANSWER SMD: ship's manpower document; wartime requirements AMD: activity manpower doc; billets authorized due to funding/ end strength NEC/ PRD/ PL/ PG - CORRECT ANSWER CMS-ID Navy Enlisted Classification Projected Rotation Date Projected Loss Projected Gain ROC & POE - CORRECT ANSWER ROC: Req'd operational capability POE: Projected operational environment - everything needed to be operational and why you need the people you need EDVP vs. EMIR - CORRECT ANSWER EDVP: enlisted distrib and verification process - right people get sent to the right place (ratings/ NECs/paygrade) EMIR: enlisted manning inquiry report; tells Pers 4013 of an enlisted shortage Duty Section Responsibility - CORRECT ANSWER safety and security of the ship Duty MA: good order and discipline Inport Watch Org - CORRECT ANSWER CO XO CDO Duty DH / Duty Section Lead OOD POOW/ MOOW Sec Watch/ DC Watch Eng Watch QD Watch & Security Watch - CORRECT ANSWER QD: ship routine and access Sec: internal/external sec POOW - CORRECT ANSWER -OOD's right hand person -overall supervision of watch - deck log and 1MC MOOW - CORRECT ANSWER routine tasks - escorting, cleanliness, waking people up Sounding and Sec Watch - CORRECT ANSWER rounds and reporting to OOD - discover fire, flooding, and breach in ship security Duty MA - CORRECT ANSWER conducting periodic musters of restricted crew, extra duty, and routine various - standards of orders and discipline OOD Duties - CORRECT ANSWER safety and proper operation of the unit - supervise, inspect, and control NOTIFY AND LOG 8PM vs. 12PM - CORRECT ANSWER 8PM for CO (update on all done during the day 12PM status report for OOD SOPA - CORRECT ANSWER Senior Officer Present Afloat - ship in charge of other ships in port - CO most superior - pier scheduling/ cleanliness ATFP & OOD - CORRECT ANSWER Anti-Terrorism Force Protection - OOD: notify and log FPCON Levels - CORRECT ANSWER how we stand watch Normal: no threat Alpha: general threat Bravo: increased/ predictable Charlie: incident occurs Delta: highest level Inport Security Forces - CORRECT ANSWER SRF: 2 people, 5 min BRF:3-6 mem, 10 min RF: 10 mems, 15 minutes Force Protection vs. Security Alert - CORRECT ANSWER Force: exterior (move freely) - bomb you move Security: interior (stay in place) Dress Ship - CORRECT ANSWER Dress: recognize US and foreign nationals - national holiday - largest ensign on flagstaff - regular ensigns from masthead - largest union jack on jackstaff Full Dress Ship - CORRECT ANSWER -includes everything prescribed by dress ship with addition of RAINBOW of signal flags/ pennants (up and over) - National Holidays Colors as OOD - CORRECT ANSWER muster color guard 15-20 mins prior (make sure they look good and know how to do it) "First call, first call to colors" Attention -- 1 short blast carry on -- after Anthem 3 short blasts Senior Officer Bells - CORRECT ANSWER 4 for O5-6 6 for O7-8 8 for O9-10 short title for ariv/ depart "Essex Arriving/ Departing/ Returning" STINGER Passing Honors - CORRECT ANSWER junior ship to senior ship (based on CO) - IP: ship salutes Officer on pier or vehicles - UW: lineal number determines CO seniority Ways to Salute - CORRECT ANSWER Underway: 1. BLASTS - 1 blast = starboard - 2 blasts = port 1 = hand salute, 2 = cut, 3 carry on 2. Dipping the Ensign (half mast).. US don't Service Records - CORRECT ANSWER - kept by BUPERS & Navy Personnel Command - Personnel Service Detachment (PSD) Afloat - NSIPS (Navy Standard Integrated Personnel System) - BUPERS Online (BOL) Enlisted Service Record - CORRECT ANSWER official history of enlisted member's service & pay - DIVO makes sure they're responsible for correctness, management, and updating -- on NSIPS underway/ ashore OMPF - CORRECT ANSWER Official Military Personnel File - permanent record... emergency data, awards, evals, statement of service, time in rate, SGLI --- on BOL OSR - CORRECT ANSWER Officer Service Record *BOL w official photo OMPF: official military pers file ODC: officer data card PSR: perf summary rec ESR: electron service rec DIVO Notebook - CORRECT ANSWER keep track of your people!!! - keep in stateroom - divo pers record form - evals, awards, page 13, chits, counseling, collaterals, watch assignments Rate vs. Rating & Strikers - CORRECT ANSWER Rate = paygrade Rating: job speciality Striker: general apprenticeship then take a test for specific (FN, SN, AN, HN) NEC - CORRECT ANSWER Naval Enlisted Classifications - identify special knowledge skill set - graduation from a school TIR - CORRECT ANSWER time in rate - total service in a paygrade E1: date of enlist E4-E6: based on exam (MAR.. JUL1 or SEPT.. JAN1) TED - CORRECT ANSWER Terminal Eligibility Date - last chance to meet their required TIR to take exam - E7: January of next year TIR Advancement Chart - CORRECT ANSWER E1 -2 = 9 mos E2-3 = 9 mos E3-4 = 6 mos E4-5 = 12 mos E5-6 = 36 mos E6-7 = 36 mos E7-8 = 36 mos E8-9 = 36 mos FMS - CORRECT ANSWER Final Multiple Score = standard score performance mark avg TIR Education Awards Previous test score (Pass not advance.. PNA) Normal Advance Reqs - CORRECT ANSWER - just TIR for E1-3 - test/FMS/ TIR for E4-6 -LCPO: TIR/ BOARD/ EXAM - E8/E9: TIR & Board Ineligible for Advance - CORRECT ANSWER - retired - in confinement - failed PRT - non citizen - UA - cheating/ fraud - no CO Rec (admin) MAP - CORRECT ANSWER Meritorious Advancement Program - allows CO to advance eligible E3, E4, E5 to the next paygrade - you can pass them to other commands CMAP - CORRECT ANSWER combat meritorious advancement program - promotes E1-5 in recognition of uncommon valor/ deed RMAP - CORRECT ANSWER Recruiter Meritorious Advancement Program - recognizes best all around enlisted recruiter Accelerated Advancement Program - CORRECT ANSWER - graduate of A schools to advance to 3rd class without exam Frocking - CORRECT ANSWER wearing the insignia of the next rate... but not getting paid for it CDB - CORRECT ANSWER Career Development Board - provides opp for optimal development of professional skills to help them determine trajectory (2 weeks of check in) CMC, CCC, ESO, LCPOs Career Navigator - CORRECT ANSWER - ensures Navy has right type of sailor in each rating 1. Career Waypoints 2. C-Ways Reenlistment 3. C-Ways PACT Open Rating vs Balanced vs Competitive - CORRECT ANSWER OR: undermanned (auto) BR: fully manned... based on YG CR: overmanned... must apply for reenlist SRB & Zones - CORRECT ANSWER Selective Reenlistment Bonus - retain certain critical skills - monthly pay x service x multiplier = award Zone A: 21mos - 6 years Zone B: 6-10 years Zone C: 10-14 years ADSEP vs Punitive - CORRECT ANSWER ADSEP: finished service, disability, best interest of service - honorable, general, OTH, uncharacterized Punitive: severe cases/ court martial - bad conduct @ Special - dishonorable @ general Humanitarian Transfer & Hardship Discharge - CORRECT ANSWER - exceptional hardship (immediate fam, only person to remedy, not temp) 1. short period reassignment: 6 mos or less 2. medium: 12 mos + 3. indefinite: discharge request Types of Inspection - CORRECT ANSWER Daily: Uniform/ Spaces Administrative: R-ADM Material: Planned Maintenance System (PMS) Seabag: for E3 and below NAVOSH - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Occupational Safety and Health - maintenance of safe and healthy conditions in workplace - indust hygiene, Health & Welfare Inspect - CORRECT ANSWER safety/security/ good order - by Division, DH, MA - as directed by CO/XO Zone Inspection - CORRECT ANSWER machinery, spaces, eqpt clean and operational - by CO, XO, 3MC, DH, DCA, DIVO, LCPO - quarterly Messing/ Berthing Inspect - CORRECT ANSWER - dining/living spaces sanitary - XO or CDO/ Sect Leader/ MA - EVERYDAY SFRM/OFRP - CORRECT ANSWER Surface Force Readiness Manual - prescriptive Optimized Fleet Readiness Plan for ships to reach readiness - OFRP: path through inspections and certs 3M Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER - conducted by ATG (afloat training group) - once per FRTP - 3M MCA 13-17 mos after successful 3MC INSURV - CORRECT ANSWER inspection and survey - assess material condition of ships and provide readiness assessment to CNO - board of insurv members - every 60 mos -spending money accurately LOA - CORRECT ANSWER Light off Assessment - safely lighting off engines/ plant - by ATG - any time ship in maintenance longer than 120 days EOC - CORRECT ANSWER Engineering Operational Certification - ready for underway engineering ops - ATG - once per FRTP SMC - CORRECT ANSWER Supply Management Certification - general stores sustained, hazmat, food service accountability - ATG - once per FRTP ARQ - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation Readiness Qualification - personnel qual, training with shipboard aviation ready - ATG - once per FRTP AVCERT - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation Facility Cert - facilities/ equipment functional - ATG - once per FRTP CMTQ - CORRECT ANSWER Cruise Missile Tactical Qualification - combat scenario that certifies crew to use Harpoon missiles and TLAMs - ATG - once per FRTP DRRS-N - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Readiness Reporting System - Navy - submits data to CNO and FLTCOM to allow them to manage forces - uses METs (mission essential tasts) - accurate, real time means of reporting PESTO deficiency 4 DRRS-N Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Core 2. Commander 3. Capability 4. MET SORTS - CORRECT ANSWER Status of Resources and Training System - overall/resource status OARS - CORRECT ANSWER Organizational and Resource Status - resource status capability ratings and C-ratings PESTO - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel: FLTMPS Equipment: CSMP Supply: CMP Training: TORIS Ordnance: OIS UCMJ - CORRECT ANSWER Uniform Code of Military Justice - all active duty, all retired, USNA, martial law UCMJ Process - CORRECT ANSWER PI: Prelim Inquiry DRB: Discipl Review Board XOI: XO Inquiry NJP: captains mast PI - CORRECT ANSWER prelim inq - officer investigates legitmacies DRB - CORRECT ANSWER chiefs mess to get rid of excuses (What's going on?) - no punishment.. just rec XOI - CORRECT ANSWER talks to XO, DIVO present - NJP or no? NJP - CORRECT ANSWER non- judicial punishment - Captains Mast - no sentence or conviction NJP Punishment - CORRECT ANSWER 1. bread and water 2. correctional custody (30 days) 3. Forfeit Pay (1/2) 4. Reduction in grade 5. extra duty - restriction Court- Martial - CORRECT ANSWER - felonies! Summary: common Special: bad conduct discharge General: dishonorable discharge/ death Deadly Force - CORRECT ANSWER causes severe or bodily harm or death 3 Stages of Conflict - CORRECT ANSWER ??? Mental Awareness Stages - CORRECT ANSWER White: total vulnerability Yellow: non-specific alert Orange: specific alert Red: to use deadly force Black: sensory overload 2 Types of Subjects - CORRECT ANSWER Passive: no resistence 1. Compliant: will obey (attitude) 2. Resistor: not follow (drunk) Active: resists 1. Resistor: Rihanna... resists but not attack 2. Aggressor: CB.. yes attack 7 Justifications of Deadly Force - CORRECT ANSWER 1. self defense 2. defense of others 3. assets vital to nat'l sec 4. inherently dangerous property 5. nat'l critical infrastructure 6. escape 7. arrest/ apprehension 8. defend against animals Deadly Force Triangle - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Capability 2. Opportunity 3. Intent ** Use of Force Continuum - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Presence 2. Verbal Command 3. Soft Control ----------------- 4. Hard Control 5. Non-Lethal Force 6. Deadly Force Supply Uses - CORRECT ANSWER - equipment - equipage - repair parts -consumables - services - CASREP - requisition OPTAR - CORRECT ANSWER operating target - repair EMRM (eq maintence related material) - engine/ pumps/ radar - toilet paper, port visit fees/ costs TADTAR - CORRECT ANSWER Temporary add'l duty travel target - schools, TDY, emergency leave - quarterly COSAL - CORRECT ANSWER coordinated shipboard allowance list - guide for items and quantities AEL/ APL - CORRECT ANSWER AEL: Allowance equipage list APL: document for each equipment piece ACR - CORRECT ANSWER Allowance change request - asking for more or less FCFBR - CORRECT ANSWER Fleet COSAL Feedback Report NSN - CORRECT ANSWER National Stock Number - 13 digit stock number assigned by DLIS COG - CORRECT ANSWER Cognizance Code - two position numeric alpha code that identifies a stock numbered item w Navy inventory manager PQS - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel Qualification Standards - process for officer, enlisted - separated by 100, 200, 300 sections 100 200 300 level quals - CORRECT ANSWER 100 - fundamentals 200 - systems 300 - watch stations JQR - CORRECT ANSWER Job Qualification Requirement: command flexibility to satisfy a specific qual req when no PQS Qualifiers - CORRECT ANSWER Officers and POs designated in writing with authorization to qualify personnel on watch stations - conduct training with PQS assigned personnel to sign off Qual Process - CORRECT ANSWER 1. INDOC 2. Sign Offs: 300 only after all 100/200 3. Final Qual/Cert: chain of command will recommend final qual (board/exam) completion criteria for PQS - CORRECT ANSWER Prereqs Tasks Infrequent Tasks Abnormal Tasks Emergencies Watches ** EXAMS: CICWO/OOD-UW - 2434 signatures lol where to find PQS - CORRECT ANSWER NETC > Links > PQS or MyNavyPortal PQS Coordinator/ Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER officer at focal point of PQS matter - SR DH = SWO - accuracy of qualified personnel to build WATCH BILL (I/P & U/W) Major Quals for Officer/ Enlisted - CORRECT ANSWER Officer: SWO, EOOW, TAO Enlisted: Master Helmsman, Combat System Officer of Watch (CSOOW) DIVO role in PQS - CORRECT ANSWER - supervise and track divisional PQS - coordinate with chief/ training PO to assign - track your division! 4 Types CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Initial - NLT 24 hours; closed with COR/CAN 2. Update 3. Correction (CASCOR): 4. Cancellation (CASCAN): CASIN - CORRECT ANSWER initial: significant casualty; specific parts or tech assist CASUP - CORRECT ANSWER update initial remarks, got parts, assistance, estimated repair, changes? CASCOR - CORRECT ANSWER correction: report the repair ASAP, summary of repair, operational? CASCAN - CORRECT ANSWER cancellation: submitted upon entering ability - fixed as part of the avail - equipment perm taken out of use - casuality will not be fixed in normal way CASREP & 3M - CORRECT ANSWER 3MC checks status of casualities - coordinates repairs -can expedite parts DRRS-N & Supply System - CORRECT ANSWER **PESTO Pillars & MFOM Database - suppo furnish equipment casualty parts & MILSTRIP - Naval Supply Systems Command provides parts - Naval Inventory Control Point has control/ line items/ assemblies of all items Time Reqs for each CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER CAT2: minor degrad primary or major secondary - every 30 days CAT3: major primary/secondary - every 10 days CAT4: total loss primary - every 72 hours **CO/Commodore DESRON decides CAT2/3 MILSTRIP - CORRECT ANSWER military standard requisitioning and issue procedure - document ID, Quantity, Priority, Delivery, Activity, Req status routing procedure of CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER 1. DIVO informed (OMMS-NG) 2. CASREP using MFOM generator 3. tech/LCPO readover 4. route! DH > OPS > SUPPO > XO > CO applicable publications/guides for reporting (GEOLOCATION) - CORRECT ANSWER Joint Fleet Mantenance Manual (JFMM) ATTWO Watch Org - CORRECT ANSWER CO CDO ATTWO / OOD/ Chief Guard - sentries ATTWO Roles - CORRECT ANSWER - defend unit against terrorist in port - monitors watchstanders Threat Levels - CORRECT ANSWER defines degree of terrorist threat (environment) High: anti US terrorists active Significant: present but low capability Moderate: present but no activity Low: no group detected ISP DISP - CORRECT ANSWER Inport Security: developed prior to entering any foreign port and depending on current FLTCOM Directed ISP: DOD controls SOPA/ SOFA AT Plan - CORRECT ANSWER Sr Person at Pier Status of Forces Agreement AT Plan: specific plan for ship (covert message traffic) SROE/ SROF - CORRECT ANSWER Standing Rules of Engagement (OCONUS) Standard Use of Force (CONUS) Warning Shots - CORRECT ANSWER - not authorized in US terrority EXCEPT to protect vessels EMCON - CORRECT ANSWER Emissions Controls - condition set to prevent enemy from detecting, identifying, locating friendly forces Naval Message Purpose - CORRECT ANSWER electronic messages; deliver urgent info on operational and administrative matters Types of Messges - CORRECT ANSWER 1. MOVREP- leaving port 2. LOGREQ- before entering port 3. OPREP-3- special incident 4. GENADMIN- management 5. OPREP-5- underway 6. Tactical - employment Message Precedence - CORRECT ANSWER Routine (R): 6 hours Priority (P): 3 hours Immediate (O): 30 min Flash (Z): less than 10 min * CO/XO/OPS confirms precedence AIG - CORRECT ANSWER Address Indicating Group - list of 30+ specific/ freq addressees - reduces size of heading ex. alerts, air defense, severe weather, movreps, casreps, intel summary Office Codes - CORRECT ANSWER N00 Commander (Commo/Flag) N1 Manpower and Personnel N2 Omte; N3 Operations N4 Readiness and Logistics N5 Plans N6 C5I N7 Training N8 Warfare Reqs/assessments Message Classification Levels - CORRECT ANSWER Unclassified FOUO EFTO: encrypt for transmission only Confidential Secret Top Secret MOVREP & Types - CORRECT ANSWER -collect and distribute ship location data to op/admin command - accurate location for SAR - 24-48 hours before UW - Departure, Arrival, Position, Cancellation PIM - CORRECT ANSWER Plan of Intended Movement - no ship to shore comms required once underway unless PIM changes LOGREQ - CORRECT ANSWER - prior to arrival, CO tells naval authority the logistical reqs for ship in port - 48 hours prior arrival OPREP 3 & Types - CORRECT ANSWER -Special Incident; gonna make the news; - FLASH or IMMEDIATE precedence 1. Pinnacle: national level 2. Navy Blue: Navy interest.. death 3. Unit SITREP: for operation commanders OPREP-3 Times - CORRECT ANSWER Voice = 5 min Message Report = 60 mins ** not required to be complete... just send it DTG - CORRECT ANSWER Date- Time Group DD TTTT Z MMM YY P 08 1647 Z FEB 08 (ZULU time) Primary Care Manager - CORRECT ANSWER enroll in Tricare to get one - Senior Medical Officer NJP Evidence - CORRECT ANSWER EVAL Due Dates - CORRECT ANSWER Percentage MP & EP - CORRECT ANSWER - 20% EP - 60% = MP and EP FFSC - CORRECT ANSWER Fleet Family Support Center - finances, relationships, marriage, workshops Security Manager - CORRECT ANSWER Handling Top Secret Material-- who carries it? - CORRECT ANSWER Colors - CORRECT ANSWER 0800 & Sunset Officer Photos Periodicity/ Reqs - CORRECT ANSWER - required for all officers - take within 3 months of promotion - property of US Navy - Service Khaki, uncovered Wardroom - CORRECT ANSWER eating, PB4T, boards, big meetings -not a place for little work or hang out Common Reasons Supply Cancels Requests - CORRECT ANSWER SFRM & Ship Life Cycle - CORRECT ANSWER Surface Force Readiness Manual 1. Maintain 2. Train 3. Operate 4. Sustain AWP - CORRECT ANSWER Availability Work Package - material assessment and correction of critical material issues - developed months in advance TSRA - CORRECT ANSWER Total Ship Readiness Assessment - readiness focused material condition assessments scheduled and managed by TYCOM/ RMC CSMP - CORRECT ANSWER Current Ship's Maintenance Project CMAV - CORRECT ANSWER Continuous Maintenance Availability - follow on work done pier side at homepoint READ-E - CORRECT ANSWER Readiness Eval - multiple complementary assessments consolidated into distinct eval periods - assess, validate, or certify READE1: self assessment of manning, material, schooling READE2-7: TYCOM led FRTP & 6 Phases - CORRECT ANSWER Fleet Response Training Plan - aligned with OFRP and details path to deployment readiness 1. Sustainment 2. Maintenance 3. Shakedown 4. Basic 5. Advanced 6. Integrated PESTO - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel, Equipment, Supply, Training, Ordnance LES Components - CORRECT ANSWER Entitlements: base pay, bah, bas, COLA Allotments: dental, alimony, child support allowances:Family sep, dislocation, cash clothing, family subsistence Deductions: Taxes, SGLI Pay Benefits Article 31 and 31b - CORRECT ANSWER Compulsory Self Incrimination - cannot provide info to incriminate - Miranda Rights Article 32 - CORRECT ANSWER Rights and Procedure - informed of charges - right to counself - present evidence Article 86 - CORRECT ANSWER Absence without Official Leave - not authorized or leave when denied - leaves place of duty UA - CORRECT ANSWER Unauthorized Absence Article 92 - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to Obey Order or Regulation - service members follow lawful orders all times and without questions -HAS TO BE LEGAL Article 133 - CORRECT ANSWER Conduct Unbecoming of an Officer and a Gentleman - held to a high standard and must adhere to it - drunk w bloody uniform [Show Less]
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Divo fundamentals Exam 86 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Divo fundamentals Exam 86 Questions with Verified Answers 6 factors that influence FPCON - CORRECT ANSWER Existence Capability Intention History Tar... [Show More] geting Security environment horizontal length of flag - CORRECT ANSWER fly vertical length of flag - CORRECT ANSWER hoist upper left quarter of flag - CORRECT ANSWER canton/union Deadly Force - CORRECT ANSWER Force that a person uses causing, or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily harm 5 stages of mental awareness - CORRECT ANSWER White: unaware Yellow: non-specific alert Orange: specific alert Red: mentally prepared to use deadly force. Black: sensory overload reasons to use deadly force - CORRECT ANSWER Self defense Defense of others Assets vital to national security Inherently dangerous property National critical infrastructure Escape Arrest or apprehension Defense from animals Threat Levels - CORRECT ANSWER High: terrorists are present and active significant: terrorists are present, limited activity moderate: terrorists are present, inactive low: no terrorists present ISP - CORRECT ANSWER In port security plan (developed prior to entering new port) Navy Administrative Chain of Command - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF SECNAV CNO PACFLT/ atlantic fleet Navy component command Type commander Desron CO Navy Operational Chain of Command - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF Chairman of joint chiefs of staff Unified combatant commander Navy component command Fleet commander CSG/ ESG commander Desron CO four phases of ships life cycle - CORRECT ANSWER Maintain train operate sustain AWP - CORRECT ANSWER Availability work package (documenting everything that will need to be fixed during CNO availability) TSRA - CORRECT ANSWER Total Ship Readiness Assessment (thorough assessment of what needs to be fixed on ship) READ-E - CORRECT ANSWER Readiness Evaluation (assess and certify ship readiness) OFRP - CORRECT ANSWER Optimized fleet response plan (36 month life cycle) 6 phases of FRTP (fleet response training plan) - CORRECT ANSWER Sustainment maintenance shakedown basic advanced integrated CMAV - CORRECT ANSWER continuous maintenance availability (follow on work done pier side) SWATT - CORRECT ANSWER Surface warfare advanced tactical training (multi ship training in advanced phase) GRUSAIL - CORRECT ANSWER Group sail (10 day advanced phase assessment) INSURV - CORRECT ANSWER every 60 months (inspection and survey) Zone inspection - CORRECT ANSWER quarterly NAVOSH - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program (electrical safety, hazmat, hearing conversation, tagout) 3-M assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Once per FRTP conducted by ATG EOC - CORRECT ANSWER Engineering Operational Certification (certify ship for underway engineering) Once per FRTP conducted by ATG SMC - CORRECT ANSWER Supply Management Certification ARQ - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation Readiness Qualification (tests people) AVCERT - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation facility certification (to test equipment) CMTQ - CORRECT ANSWER cruise missile tactical qualification DRRS-N - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Readiness Reporting System-Navy DRRS-N assessment values - CORRECT ANSWER Yes (green) Qualified (yellow) No (red) Four types of DRRS-N Assessments - CORRECT ANSWER MET Capability Core Commander OARS - CORRECT ANSWER organizational and resource status (status of training and resources) PESTO Databases - CORRECT ANSWER FLTMPS MFOM R Supply TORIS OIS MILPERSMAN - CORRECT ANSWER Naval Military Personnel Manual (MILPERSMAN) Responsible for enlisted manning - CORRECT ANSWER PERS 4013 detailing website for enlisted - CORRECT ANSWER CMS-ID ROC/POE - CORRECT ANSWER Required Operational Capability/Projected Operational Environment (determines manning) SMD - CORRECT ANSWER Ships manpower document (wartime manpower requirements) AMD - CORRECT ANSWER Activity Manpower Document (billets funded) BBD - CORRECT ANSWER billet based distribution (online manning system) EDVP - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted Distribution and Verification Process (process of assigning personnel, tracks personnel shortages) ODCR - CORRECT ANSWER Officer Distribution Control Report (monthly account of officers onboard) LORTARP - CORRECT ANSWER Long Range Training and Relief Plan (XOs officer tracker) 8 requirements for advancement - CORRECT ANSWER complete training/schools citizenship security clearance PRT TIR advancement exam FMS CO recommendation TIR for each rate - CORRECT ANSWER 9 9 6 12 36 36 36 36 FMS (and 6 factors) - CORRECT ANSWER Final multiplier score test score eval average TIR education (associates/bachelors) awards previous test scores MAP - CORRECT ANSWER Meritorious advancement program CMAP - CORRECT ANSWER combat meritorious advancement program Career navigator program - CORRECT ANSWER Bases retention opportunities/ reenlistment approval on rate SRB - CORRECT ANSWER Selective Reenlistment Bonus (reenlistment incentive to mbrs who have highly desired skills. other benefits are retirement and education) 4 types of adsep - CORRECT ANSWER honorable general other than honorable uncharacterized 2 types of punitive disharge - CORRECT ANSWER bad conduct discharge (special court martial) dishonorable discharge (general court martial) OFMP - CORRECT ANSWER official military personnel file (found on BOL) What is in an enlisted service record? - CORRECT ANSWER Procurement assignment separation performance data education adverse information awards Contents of officer service record - CORRECT ANSWER Fitness report awards education qualifications appointments seperation Contents of Divo binder - CORRECT ANSWER evals awards page 13 counseling chits collateral duties WQSB classification levels - CORRECT ANSWER TS exceptionally grave damage Secret Serious damage confidential damage Transports TS material - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Courier Service 4 non geographic commands - CORRECT ANSWER SOCOM STRATCOM TRANSCOM CYBERCOM 10th fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Cyber Command GIG - CORRECT ANSWER Global Information Grid Operational Security process - CORRECT ANSWER Identify critical info analyze the threat analyze vulnerabilities assess risk apply counter measures ORM steps - CORRECT ANSWER Identify Hazards Assess Hazards Make Risk Decisions Implement Controls Supervise 4 principles of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost Accept no unnecessary risk Anticipate and manage risk by planning Make risk decisions at the right level Three levels of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER In depth Deliberate Time critical what determines RAC - CORRECT ANSWER probability (ABCD) severity (I II III IV) Article 31 and 31b - CORRECT ANSWER Compulsory self-incrimination prohibited article 32 - CORRECT ANSWER right to counsel, right to present evidence, right to be informed of charges etc Article 86 - CORRECT ANSWER AWOL Article 92 - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to obey order Article 133 - CORRECT ANSWER conduct unbecoming an officer and a gentleman NJP steps - CORRECT ANSWER Preliminary inquiry DRB XOI NJP Forms on NJP punishment - CORRECT ANSWER bread and water 30 days custody forfeiture 1/2 month pay for two months reduction in grade 45 days duty 60 days restriction three types of court martial - CORRECT ANSWER Summary Special General court martial punishments (that you can't get from NJP) - CORRECT ANSWER hard labor dishonorable discharge death life imprisonment deductions - CORRECT ANSWER SGLI federal/state taxes social security medicare tricare primary care manager - CORRECT ANSWER emergency (don't call PCM) urgent (call PCM) routine (see PCM) specialty (PCM will refer you) occasions for evals - CORRECT ANSWER periodic detachment of individual detachment of reporting senior promotion/frocking special Supply organization - CORRECT ANSWER S1 parts, mail S2 food S3 ship store/ sales S4 disbursing navy cash fund for equipment, consumables, parts - CORRECT ANSWER OPTAR (operating target) fund for schools, emergency leave - CORRECT ANSWER TADTAR three categories of naval message - CORRECT ANSWER Operational Administrative Tactical (indigo) types of operational messages - CORRECT ANSWER MOVEREP LOGREP OPREP-3 types of administrative messages - CORRECT ANSWER GENADMIN OPREP-5 Types of Subjects - CORRECT ANSWER Passive compliant Passive resistor Active resistor Active aggressor [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Exam 67 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Exam 67 Questions with Verified Answers Maintenance Phase - CORRECT ANSWER Chief of Naval Operations availability Coninuous Maintena... [Show More] nce Availability -prepare sailors, review programs, training plans, admin programs CMAV - CORRECT ANSWER Continuous Maintenance Availability Ship Life Cycle - CORRECT ANSWER Sustain, Maintain, Train, Operate Integrated Readiness Schedule - CORRECT ANSWER Maintenance Phase, basic phase, advanced/integrated phase, deployment, sustainment phase AWP - CORRECT ANSWER availability work package - what will be accomplished during the CNO availability - developed months in advance -based on planned upgrades -work on CSMP TSRA - CORRECT ANSWER Total Ship's Readiness Assessment -improve CMAV and the current ship's maintenance project (CSMP) -conducted by RMC -1-5 RMC - CORRECT ANSWER REgional Maintenance Center -increase ship's awareness of material standards -educate personnel on repair process READ-E - CORRECT ANSWER Readiness Evaluation -assess, validate, or certify ship readiness (7levels) SFRM - CORRECT ANSWER Surface Force Readiness Manual educate: -maintenance, basic, adv/integ, depl, sustainment phases FRTP - CORRECT ANSWER Fleet Readiness Training Plan PESTO - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel, Equipment, Supply, Training, Ordnance Basic Phase Training - CORRECT ANSWER Tier 1 and Tier 2 -20 weeks -21 weeks for BMD -ATG led - TYCOM certified -1.0/2.0 Educatin -1.1/2.1-Material and admin -1.2/2.2 - Theory and fundamentals -1.3/2.3 - individual and team training -1.4/2.4 - assessment Tier 1 - CORRECT ANSWER Mobility operate, navigate, communicate Tier 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Unit Tactical -warfare training ATG - CORRECT ANSWER Affloat training group Ship's responsibility - CORRECT ANSWER -scheduling -equipment -programs and admin DIVO's role (basic phase) - CORRECT ANSWER -warfare lead, personnel/training, equipment, admin Integrated/Advanced Phase - CORRECT ANSWER Tier 3 -strike training force led -fleet commander certified -training events depends on ship class DIVO's Role (int/adv phase) - CORRECT ANSWER -watchstanding, personnel/training, equipment In order to exit adv phase... - CORRECT ANSWER certify...MCO-ready, MCO-surge, MSO-R, MSS -complete INSURV or TYCOM Sustainment Phase - CORRECT ANSWER -deployable, but not deployed, sustain certs -after deployment, show sustained skill in warfare areas Deployed - CORRECT ANSWER Peak readiness...gone for lots of days. BLAH DIVO's Role (sustainment/deployment) - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel, equipment, supply, training, admin TYCOM - CORRECT ANSWER Type Commander - COMNAVSURFPAC ISIC - CORRECT ANSWER Immediate Superior in Command PB4T - CORRECT ANSWER Planning Board for Training Who attends PB4T/how often? - CORRECT ANSWER XO, TrainO, DH, DCA, Educ. Serv. O, Med Rep -monthly or up to XO Short Range Training Plan - CORRECT ANSWER SRTP -quarterly, monthly, weekly Training Records - CORRECT ANSWER Maintained by Divisional Training Petty Officer (R-ADM) and DIVO (notebook) -may be reveiwed by inspections R-ADM - CORRECT ANSWER Relational Administrative Data Management DIVO Notebook - CORRECT ANSWER records for divisional personal info Training References - CORRECT ANSWER SORM, SFRM, EDVR, FLTMPS EDVR - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted Distribution Verification Report FLTMPS - CORRECT ANSWER Fleet Training Management and Planning System CANTRAC - CORRECT ANSWER database with all available schools in the Navy OJT - CORRECT ANSWER On the job training --> old fashion learning through doing - personalized INDOC - CORRECT ANSWER indooctrinatino -for new personnel Rate-entry training (strikers) - CORRECT ANSWER undesignated SN/FN/AN -have rate to become PO Team training - CORRECT ANSWER through drills/evolutions/briefs GMT - CORRECT ANSWER General Military training (anger managment, suicide awareness, financial management) PQS - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel Qualification Standard -3 sections: 100 level (funamentals), 200 level (systems), 300 (watch stations) TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER Training Figure of Merit 4 pillars: -Proficiency -Personnel -Management -Material Rate vs. Rating - CORRECT ANSWER Rate = pay grade (E1, E2...) Rating = occupational specialty (DCFN) Apprenticeship groups - CORRECT ANSWER FN, SN, AN, HN Striker track - CORRECT ANSWER RTC -----A School----> Designated Striker RTC ----non-des striker in fleet ----E4 exam---des striker PACT - CORRECT ANSWER Professional Apprenticeship Career track -provide up to date reqs for entry into ratings for non des sailors NECs - CORRECT ANSWER Naval Enlsited Classifications -identify special knowledge/skill set earned by sailor General Requirement for Advancement - CORRECT ANSWER -complete navy training and required schools -citzenship or security clearance requirements -meet PRT reqs -have required time in rate (TIR) -pass navy-wide advancement exam -meet minimum performance criteria - equation for final multiple score (FMS) -recommended by the CO TIR - CORRECT ANSWER time in rate -total service in paygrade -E1 TIR date is date of enlistment -E4-->E6 date is based on date of exam TIR times - CORRECT ANSWER E-1 to E-2 : 9 months E-2 to E-3 : 9 months E-3 to E-4 : 6 months E-4 to E-5 : 12 months E-5 to E-6 : 36 months E-6 to E-7 : 36 months E-7 to E-8 : 36 months E-8 to E-9 : 36 months TED - CORRECT ANSWER Terminal Eligibility Date -last date to meet TIR -documented in DIVO notebook FMS - CORRECT ANSWER Final Multiple Score -standard score -performance mark avg (from Eval) -service in paygrade (TIR) -education (more points for higher degree) -awards previous test taking performance PNA - CORRECT ANSWER pass not advanced points Advancmenet Ineligibility - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel inelibigble for advancement: -retired -in confinement -failed PRT -non-us citizen -UA -cheatin on exam -fraudulent advancement CAP - CORRECT ANSWER Command Advancement Program -allows CO to advance eligible personnel (E3,4,5) to next paygrade w/o reference to higher authority -must meet adv reqs -#based on command stotal CAP quotas Other methods of advancement - CORRECT ANSWER CMAP RMAP Accelerated Advancement Program Frocking Fleet Sailor of the year Frocking - CORRECT ANSWER promotion to higher paygrade, but not getting the pay increase immediately Duties of the OOD (inport) - CORRECT ANSWER -responsible for the safey and proper operation of the unit -supervise, inspect, control -notify (many more) Common ship logs - CORRECT ANSWER Ship's deck log visitor's log DC closure log Pass down log weapons custody log vehicle log Watch turnover - CORRECT ANSWER offgoing and oncoming watches are responsible for ensuring that the oncoming watch is completely aware of all unusual conditions\ SOPA - CORRECT ANSWER Senior Officer Present Afloat Parts of the Flag and defn - CORRECT ANSWER Fly - horiz. length Hoist - vertical length Canton/Union - any quarter of the flag - usually upper hoist Field - background Dress ship - CORRECT ANSWER Recognize US and foreign anniversaries -national holidays displays - largest ensign, regular ensign, largest union jack on jackstaff Full dress ship - CORRECT ANSWER -includes everything prescribed by dress ship with the addition of a rainbow if signal flags and pennants -national holidays or when directed Up and Overs - CORRECT ANSWER rainbow of signal flags and pennants Morning Colors - CORRECT ANSWER Muster 15-20 min before 0755 -First call, first call to colors -immediately before 0800 "attention" -0800 - hoist smartly -"carry on" after national anthem -3 short blasts Evening Colors - CORRECT ANSWER muster 15-20 prior to sunset -"First call, first call to colors" five min before -"Attention" at sunset -lowered ceremoniously -"carry on" sounded [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Exam 130 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Exam 130 Questions with Verified Answers Antiterrorism Tactical Watch Officer (AATWO) - CORRECT ANSWER Tactically employs assets to de... [Show More] fend the unit against terrorist attacks when in port Engineering Duty Officer (EDO) - CORRECT ANSWER Ready to place the propulsion plant into operation in the event of an emergency Petty Officer of the Watch (POOW) - CORRECT ANSWER Assists the OOD in supervising the watch team Messenger of the Watch (MOOW) - CORRECT ANSWER Performs various routine duties tasked by the OOD or POOW Standing-and-Security Watch - CORRECT ANSWER Assigned for additional and increased physical activity Duty Master-at-Arms - CORRECT ANSWER Enforces standards of good order and discipline Officer of the Deck (OOD) - CORRECT ANSWER Responsible for the unit, watches, and reporting logs Standard Communication Equipment - CORRECT ANSWER 1MC Ship's Service Telephone Handheld Radios Quarterdeck Alarms Sound-Powered Phones Ship's logs in port - CORRECT ANSWER - 19 Operational/navigational entries (accidents, actions, propulsion status) - 10 required personnel entries (arrival/departure of CO) Special Evolution Procedure - CORRECT ANSWER Should have accompanying ship's bill or instruction outlining the exact procedures OOD's Response to Shipboard Emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER - Notifying the crew, CDO, DH, and police - Making log entries - Secure the brow OOD's Response to Security Threat - CORRECT ANSWER - Inform ship security forces - Make log entries - Secure the brow In-Port Security Forces - CORRECT ANSWER - Security Reaction Force (SRF): ensures security of spaces and remains on station - Back-up Reaction Force (BRF): search and secure ship - Reserve Force (RF): team leader decides on deployment of RF Use of Force Continuum Levels - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Presence 2. Verbal Commands 3. Soft Control 4. Hard Control 5. Non-lethal Force 6. Deadly Force Requirements for Deadly Force - CORRECT ANSWER Capability Opportunity Intent Procedures for Colors - CORRECT ANSWER - Every morning at 0800 and evening at sunset - First call 5 minutes before - Attention, music starts - Raise flag and salute - Drop salute, carry on Honors for arriving/departing senior officers - CORRECT ANSWER - Sound bells - Announce short title - Stinger for embarked officers Service Record elements - CORRECT ANSWER - Training and education - Performance - Assignments - FITREPs - Quals - Awards Enlisted: - enlisted contract Purpose of a DIVO notebook - CORRECT ANSWER orientation/relief of an officer and reference for the DIVO Enlisted Advancement Requirements - CORRECT ANSWER - Recommended by the CO - TIR (time in rate) - Training - Citizenship/Security Clearance - PRT - NWAE - Minimum performance criteria Ineligibility for enlisted advancement - CORRECT ANSWER - POW/MIA/Retired - Fraudulent Advancement - In confinement - Revoked or wrong security clearance - Failed ORT - Failed exam Special Advancements Methods - CORRECT ANSWER - Meritorious Advancement Program (MAP): CO advances sailors - Combat Meritorious advancement program (CMAP) - Accelerated Advancement Program - Fleet Sailor of the Year Career Development Board Purpose - CORRECT ANSWER - help sailors learn about career opportunities Reenlistment Incentives - CORRECT ANSWER Guard 2000: guaranteed assignments within a 20 year career Assignment to A School Selective Reenlistement Bonus (SRB) Retirement benefits Education opportunities Commissioning Programs - CORRECT ANSWER Naval Academy NROTC OCS STA-21 LDO/CWO MECP Bibliography for Advancement (Bibs) - CORRECT ANSWER Source of preparation for advancement FITREP/EVAL Components - CORRECT ANSWER Personal info, PFA, command duties, performance traits Occasions for submitting an EVAL/FITREP - CORRECT ANSWER - Periodic - Detachment - Promotion - Special Types of Selection Boards - CORRECT ANSWER Statutory: promotion, selective early retirement board SERB) Administrative: lat transfer, active duty resignation board Screen: occurs at certain milestones in a Sailor's career Informal Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER conducted daily: quarters, uniform inspections, equipment checks Formal Inspection - CORRECT ANSWER Graded, assess shipboard readiness Seabag Inspection - CORRECT ANSWER conducted regularly for E3 and below safety inspection - CORRECT ANSWER electrical, hazmat, respiratory, radiation Zone Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Every space once per quarter, ensures machinery and equipment are operational INSURV - CORRECT ANSWER - once every five years - mandated by Congress Ship Funding Types - CORRECT ANSWER Operating Target (OPTAR): estimate of how much a ship needs to perform tasks Temporary Assigned Duty (TAD) Travel Target (TADTAR): money allocated to support TAD expenses Grants: allocation of funds from TYCOM End of Fiscal Year (EOFY): any remaining OPTAR funds Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL) - CORRECT ANSWER list of items required to achieve maximum capability - equipment - repair parts - consumables Difference between Allowance Parts List (APL) and the Allowance Equipage List (AEL) - CORRECT ANSWER APL: technical characteristics of a single piece of equipment AEL: range of materials to support a system Maintenance Assist Module (MAM) - CORRECT ANSWER Replaceable assemblies, NOT spare parts Material Obligation Validation (MOV) - CORRECT ANSWER verify unfilled quantities of parts requests in order to improve supply chain requests - internal: monthly - external: quarterly Movement Report (MOVEREP) - CORRECT ANSWER Sent before leaving a port or operating area Logistics Requisition (LOGREQ) - CORRECT ANSWER Prior to entering port, ships submit requests for support upon arrival Operational Report (OPREP-3) - CORRECT ANSWER - Special Incident Reporting - PINNACLE: national level interest - NAVY BLUE: high-level military, political, or media interest - UNIT SITREP: notification of an incident Casualty Report (CASREP) - CORRECT ANSWER Reports significant equipment malfunction - CAT 2: update every 30 days - CAT 3: update every 10 days - CAT 4: update every 72 hours Naval Messages Personnel - CORRECT ANSWER User: anyone authorized to draft, release, or process electronic messages Originator: person whose name is sent with the message Releaser: person who releases the message Drafter: person who composes the message Message Precedence - CORRECT ANSWER Routine: 6 hours Priority: 3 hours Immediate: 30 minutes Flash: <10 minutes Naval Communications - CORRECT ANSWER Plain Language Address (PLA): designators used Collective Address Designator (CAD): list of 4 or more linked by CoC Address Indicating Group (AIG): list of 30 or more addresses UCMJ Purpose - CORRECT ANSWER Promote good order and discipline NJP Procedures - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Investigation 2. Referral of charges 3. Disciplinary Review Board (DRB) 4. Executive Officer Inquiry (XOI) 5. NJP 3 types of court martial - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Summary: can only try enlisted // one active duty officer 2. Special: can try anyone under UCMJ for non-capital offenses // one military judge and 4 members 3. General: can try anyone under UCMJ // one judge and 8 members SFTRM - CORRECT ANSWER Surface Force Training and Readiness Manual Stages in a Ship's Lifecycle - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintenance 2. Shakedown 3. Basic (crawl) 4. Advanced (walk) 5. Integrated (run) 6. Sustainment (sprint) Basic Phase - CORRECT ANSWER Train and certify unit in all mission areas and ensure she is able to perform Afloat Training Group (ATG) - CORRECT ANSWER - Assess and grade all certification exercises (CE) - Develop basic phase training plans PESTO - CORRECT ANSWER 1. personnel 2. equipment 3. supply 4. training 5. ordinance 3 Types of Assessments in support of DRRS-N - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Mission essential task 2. Capabilities 3. Core Components of an LES - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Entitlements 2. Deductions 3. Allotments 4. TSP 5. Leave TSP Options - CORRECT ANSWER Traditional: before taxes Roth: after taxes Lifecycle funds: blend of individual funds that adjusts risk depending on target retirement date Leave vs. Liberty - CORRECT ANSWER Leave: days off from work Liberty: weekend liberty, holiday, special PQS Purpose - CORRECT ANSWER Ensures personnel demonstrate required competencies prior to performing specific duties PQS Levels - CORRECT ANSWER 100-fundamentals 200-systems 300- watchstations PQS Watchstanding Levels - CORRECT ANSWER Tasks Emergencies Exams DIVO's Role in Managing PQS Program - CORRECT ANSWER - supervise PQS program and provide guidance - ensure adequate PQS training - support mission readiness by ensuring watchstanding qualification and proficiency Command Duty Officer (CDO) - CORRECT ANSWER - carries out routine of the unit - advises/directs the OOD DIVO Main Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER - supervise maintenance - DIVO notebook - schedule/conduct training - inspections - report repairs Shipboard Organization - CORRECT ANSWER CO | --- CMC XO | DH | DIVO | Divisions Watch organization - CORRECT ANSWER CO | CDO ----- Duty Section Leader | Duty DH ----- OOD ----- ATTWO | | ----- Security Watches DCC POOW | | Eng. Watches MOOW EMIR vs. LORTARP - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted Manning Inquiry Report: notifies PERS-4013 of a unit's concern of enlisted personnel shortages Long Range Training Relief Plan: informs placement officers of officer manning status and requirements Enlisted Distribution and Verification Process (EDVP) - CORRECT ANSWER - managers review info and validate or update PERS-4013 - best reflect the work that each sailor has been assigned ROC vs. POE - CORRECT ANSWER - Required Operational Capability: specifies desired level of achievement of readiness for a particular unit - Projected Operational Environment: level in which the ship is expected to operate Levels of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER In-Depth Deliberate Time Critical Ombudsman - CORRECT ANSWER advisory who helps the CO have a better understanding of the welfare of the command's families 5 steps of ORM process - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify Hazards 2. Assess Hazards 3. Make Risk Decisions 4. Implement controls (admin and physical) 5. Supervise Types of Shipboard Training - CORRECT ANSWER - On the Job Training (OTJ): learn from those who have mastered the skills - Team training: drills and briefs - INDOC - Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS) Fraternization - CORRECT ANSWER Unduly familiar relationships with prohibited individuals Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) - CORRECT ANSWER - Facilitate a culture free of sexual assault - Restricted: only reported to SAPR VA, SARC, Chaplain (no investigation) - Unrestricted: reported to anyone (investigation) Parenthood Leave - CORRECT ANSWER Primary caregiver: 6 wks Secondary Caregiver: 2 wks Maternal Convalescent: 6 wks DAPA Program - CORRECT ANSWER Drug and Alcohol Prevention Advisors - advisory for alcohol and drug matters - responsible for abuse prevention programs Elements of Risk Assessment Code (RAC) - CORRECT ANSWER - severity (CAT I-IV) - probability (CAT A-D) Pregnant Service Women - CORRECT ANSWER - serve on board up to 20th week - cannot transfer for a period of 12 months after delivery Fleet and Family Support Program - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure sailors and families receive quality service - help with work and family life, counseling, advocacy, SAPR TORIS-TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER Training and Operational Readiness Information System: schedule, execute, track, and report all unit training Training Figure of Merit: calculations of TORIS metrics for unit training readiness Catalog of Navy Training Courses (CANTRAC) - CORRECT ANSWER - web database of all available schools in the Navy Planning Board for Training (PBFT) - CORRECT ANSWER - Coordinates ship's training schedule - At least monthly or when the XO directs - Composition: Department Head, Training Officer, CMC, Safety Officer, Damage Control Assistant, Educational Service Officer, Medical Representative Need to know - CORRECT ANSWER required access to classified info in order to perform duties Purpose of OPSEC - CORRECT ANSWER identifies and protects sensitive but unclassified material Electronic Key Management System (EKMS) - CORRECT ANSWER automate the management of electronic key and other COMSEC material For Official Use Only (FOUO) - CORRECT ANSWER unclassified but withheld from the public Information Security (INFOSEC) - CORRECT ANSWER protects information that could reasonably be expected to damage national security Access - CORRECT ANSWER the ability to obtin knowledge of classified information Secret - CORRECT ANSWER Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause SERIOUS DAMAGE to national security Physical Security - CORRECT ANSWER physical measures taken to protect COMSEC material DoD Network Threats - CORRECT ANSWER unintentional: ignorance, bad habits, negligence intentional: hackers, cyber criminals, terrorist EKMS Manager Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER controls, accounts for, issues, destroys, and reports COMSEC material confidential - CORRECT ANSWER Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause DAMAGE to national security Top Secret - CORRECT ANSWER Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause EXCEPTIONALLY GRAVE DAMAGE to national security DIVO Organization - CORRECT ANSWER DIVO | LCPO | LPO ---- Work Center Supervisors Damage Safety | Repair Training Control PO ---- PO --------- Parts PO ------ PO | Division Members Admin Organization - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF SECNAV CNO PACFLT/USFF TYCOM SQUADRON YOUR CO Operational Organization - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF GCC NCC NFC CSG/ESG SQUADRON YOUR CO Transportation Command (TRANSCOM) - CORRECT ANSWER Provide transportation support to other commands Communication Security (COMSEC) - CORRECT ANSWER Denial of unauthorized persons from telecommunications related to national security SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Standard Organization and Regulations Manual European Command - CORRECT ANSWER EUCOM - Europe, Russia, Greenland, Israel 3 Supporting Process to SSOP - CORRECT ANSWER 1. ORM 2. Incident Reporting 3. PBED GCC - CORRECT ANSWER Geographic Combatant Command Functional Combatant Commands - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Special Operation Command (SOCOM) 2. Strategic Command (STRATCOM) 3. Transportation Command (TRANSCOM) 4. Cyber Command (CYBERCOM) 5. Space Command (SPACECOM) 5th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, part of the Indian Ocean 6th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern Part of the Atlantic Ocean and surrounding seas Space Command (SPACECOM) - CORRECT ANSWER coordinates space power Southern Command - CORRECT ANSWER SOUTHCOM - Central and South America, Caribbean 4 PBED Steps - CORRECT ANSWER Plan, Brief, Execute, Debrief CMEO Program - CORRECT ANSWER Command Managed Equal Opportunity - provide an environment free from discrimination/harassment Principles of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Anticipate and manage risks by planning 2. Accept risks when benefits outweigh costs 3. Accept no unnecessary risks 4. Make risk decision at the right level Central Command - CORRECT ANSWER CENTCOM - Middle East, Central Asia, Egypt 4th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER The Caribbean and Surrounding water of Central and South America 10th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Functional Fleet: responsible for the Navy's Cyber Program Strategic Command - CORRECT ANSWER STRATCOM - deter strategic attacks and employ forces DIVO Expectations on a Ship - CORRECT ANSWER - take care of your sailors, equipment, and yourself - manage your time (delegate tasks) NCC - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Component Command Special Operation Command - CORRECT ANSWER SOCOM - provides special operations to other combatant commanders NFC - CORRECT ANSWER Numbered Fleet Commander Indo-Pacific Command - CORRECT ANSWER INDOPACOM - Indo-Asia-Pacific Region 7th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Pacific Ocean and most of the Indian Ocean 2nd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Atlantic Ocean Northern Command - CORRECT ANSWER NORTHCOM - U.S., Alaska, Puerto Rico, Canada, Mexico Six Core Principles of SSOP - CORRECT ANSWER Formality Forceful Backup Procedural Compliance Integrity Questioning Attitude Level of Knowledge Africa Command - CORRECT ANSWER AFRICOM - all of Africa except Egypt FCC - CORRECT ANSWER Functional Combatant Commands 3rd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Pacific Ocean Cyber Command - CORRECT ANSWER CYBERCOM - coordinate cyberspace operations [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Exam 301 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Exam 301 Questions with Verified Answers What happened to the USS Mahan? - CORRECT ANSWER Contactor drove on base and onto the quarter... [Show More] deck without proper credential, took gun from Quarterdeck watch Who is responsible for the safety and security of the ship? - CORRECT ANSWER Duty Section When the OOD is having issues on watch who is the first person they should contact? - CORRECT ANSWER Duty Section Leader Who is the officer designated by the CO to carry out the routine of the unit inport and to supervise the OOD in the safety and general duties of the unit? - CORRECT ANSWER CDO Who carries out the ship's routine and controls access to the ship? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterdeck watch Who can serve as a second pair of eyes on the quarterdeck and double-check the ship's routine Maintains the deck log and supervises the use of the 1MC? - CORRECT ANSWER POOW Who is responsible for conducting periodic musters of restricted crew, supervising the performance of extra duty, and routine inspections of various spaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Duty Master-at-Arms Who is primarily responsible for the safety and proper operation of the unit? - CORRECT ANSWER OOD What are the three words for what the OOD does with the things they are responsible for? - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise, Inspect and Control What is the most important initial action to be taken by the OOD? - CORRECT ANSWER Notify What are the duties of the OOD? (17) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Safety of the ship 2. Reports and Logs 3. Watches 4. Execution of the plan of the day 5. Gangways 6. Ownship's Boats 7. Alarms and Whistles 8. Grooming 9. Security 10. Anti Terrorism Force Protection (ATFP) 11. Pier conditions 12. Quarterdeck search procedures 13. Status of crew aloft, crew over the side, or divers in the water 14. Overall appearance and cleanliness of the ship 15. Honors and ceremonies. 16. Liberty Boats 17. Ship's vehicles Ship board logs are _____ documents. - CORRECT ANSWER Legal What equipment helps the OOD communicate with the crew members? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. 1MC 2. Ship's Service Telephone 3. Handheld Radios 4. 21/24 MC circuit 5. VHF Radios 6. Quarterdeck Alarms 7. Sound-powered phones How long should you arrive prior to taking watch? - CORRECT ANSWER 30 minutes, relieve 15 minutes prior to time When does relieving the watch begin? - CORRECT ANSWER 30 minutes to an hour before watch What things are required to be entered into the ship's log? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Accidental loss of any kind 2. Loss or serious damage to boats, equipage, stores of any kind 3. After an action occurs, enter a full reconstruction with details 4. Any change in major propulsion plant status, setting of special detail, anything effecting the ship's overall status 5. Any accident or injury occurring onboard ship 6. Unauthorized absence 7. Arrests, suspensions from duty, and restorations to duty with date and time of occurrence 8. Arrival/Departure of Commanding Officer 9. All occurrences of honors, ceremonies, and visits What 3 things should you do before OOD watch? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Become familiar to with overall situation 2. Inspect spaces and walk the ship 3. Read all log entries from previous watch What are the 5 points to a 12 o'clock report? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Fuel and water 2. Draft 3. Admin 4. RHIBs 5. Mag Temps - CORRECT ANSWER What 4 pier services must be checked on each watch to ensure integrity? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Phone 2. Power 3. Water 4. Collection Holding Tank (CHT) services What should the OOD do prior to getting underway? - CORRECT ANSWER Drive the checklist until sea and anchor detail is stationed. What does the DIVO notebook have? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. personal data 2. training data 3. a space and equipment responsibly log 4. the watch and battle station to be manned other useful data for the orientation of relieving officer What are some things to hold your people accountable for as a DIVO? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Personal standards 2. Space cleanliness 3. Structural Integrity Whatever interests your boss should ___ ___. - CORRECT ANSWER fascinate you What are 4 basic good starting places as a DIVO? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Basic Damage Control 2. Maintenance Material Management (3-M) Program 3. Basic Watch standing 4. Learn your spaces What are collateral duties? - CORRECT ANSWER Assist with specific trainings, programs, and other events on the ship Where can you find all information on how to be a DIVO? - CORRECT ANSWER SORM In accordance with SORM how often should you walk you spaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Everyday How often should a DIVO do spot checks? - CORRECT ANSWER Once a week What are some examples of principal assistants? - CORRECT ANSWER MPA, BOSUN, STO... What is the order from POTUS of the Navy's administrative chain of command? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. POTUS 2. SECDEF 3. SECNAV 4. CNO 5. FLT/FF CDR (4 Star) 6. Type Commander (2/3 Star) 7. DESRON/ PHIBRON (O-6) 8. Ship CO (O-3 to O-6) What is the order from POTUS of the Navy's operational chain of command? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. POTUS 2. SECDEF 3. CJCS 4. Unified Joint CDR 5. Fleet CDR 6. SG CDR 7. DESRON/ PHIBRON 8. Ship CO How many Unified Commands are there? What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 1. USNORTHCOM 2. USSOUTHCOM 3. USPACOM 4. USAFRICOM 5. USCENTCOM 6. USEUCOM Where is USCENTCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER MacDill AFB, FL Where is USNORTHCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Peterson AFB, CO Where is USSOUTHCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Miami, FL Where is US Special Operations Command located? - CORRECT ANSWER MacDill AFB, FL Where is USAFRICOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Kelley Barracks, Stuttgart, Germany Where is USPACOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Honolulu, HI Where is USEUCOM located? - CORRECT ANSWER Stuttgart, Germany Which Fleet is the biggest fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER 7th fleet Where is US Strategic Command located? - CORRECT ANSWER Omaha, NE Where is US Transportation Command located? - CORRECT ANSWER Scott AFB, Illinois How many operational fleets are there? What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 1. US Fleet Forces (TF 80) 2. Third Fleet 3. Fourth Fleet 4. Fifth Fleet 5. Sixth Fleet 6. Seventh Fleet Where does US Fleet Forces (TF 80) have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Atlantic Ocean, formerly 2nd Fleet Where does Third Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Pacific Ocean Where does Fourth Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER The Caribbean, and surrounding waters of Central and South America; Effective July 1, 2008 Where does Fifth Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER The Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, and part of the Indian Ocean Where does Sixth Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Atlantic Ocean and the Adriatic, Baltic, Barents, Black, Caspian, Mediterranean, and North Seas Where does Seventh Fleet have authority? - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Pacific Ocean and most of the Indian Ocean What fleet is responsible for the Navy's cyber warfare programs and subordinate to USSTRATCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER 10th Fleet Where is 10th Fleet located? - CORRECT ANSWER Fort Meade, MD Who flies the commissioning Pennant? - CORRECT ANSWER Commissioned ships When is a pennant flown on your ship? - CORRECT ANSWER Flag officer or unit commander is afloat When is ship in full-dress? - CORRECT ANSWER On National holidays and when directed by a higher authority What does "closed up" mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Flag is all the way up Who is responsible for ensuring the proper execution of morning and evening colors? - CORRECT ANSWER OOD When should color guard be mustered? - CORRECT ANSWER 15-20 mins prior to 0755 When is "attention" sounded for colors? - CORRECT ANSWER immediately before 8 How should the ensign be hoisted up? - CORRECT ANSWER Smartly What does 3 short blasts of a police-type whistle mean for colors? - CORRECT ANSWER "Carry on" (Terminates ceremony) Who gets a stinger? - CORRECT ANSWER Captains and Commodores attached to your ship When is evening colors? - CORRECT ANSWER 15-20 minutes prior to sunset When is "First call, first call to colors"? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 minutes prior to sunset for evening, 0755 for morning How is the ensign and jack lowered? - CORRECT ANSWER Ceremoniously How many bells are rung for O-5 or O-6? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 How many bells are rung for O-7 or O-8? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 How many bells are rung for O-9 or O-10? - CORRECT ANSWER 8 How do you find out who outranks who in the waterfront? - CORRECT ANSWER Lineal list Bell strikes coincide with what? - CORRECT ANSWER CO's physical presence on ship (stepping on) Does a ship inport render passing honors to an officer passing on the pier? - CORRECT ANSWER yes When do you pass ship honors - CORRECT ANSWER When senior ships pass close aboard (~600yds) What is the rule for blast meanings when passing honors? - CORRECT ANSWER Port even, starboard odd What does one blast mean once ship is at attention? - CORRECT ANSWER hand salute What does two blasts mean once ship is at attention? - CORRECT ANSWER end salute What does three blasts mean once ship is at attention? - CORRECT ANSWER carry on What are the three general things the OOD should do during any emergency? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Call it away 2. Notify CDO and department who can help 3. Log it What is the OOD's main responsibility in all shipboard emergencies? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Notify the appropriate personnel 2. maintain situational awareness 3. log pertinent information in the deck log What are the 6 most common types of DC emergencies? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Flooding 2. Loss of a Firemain 3. Fire 4. Excessive Magazine Temperatures 5. Explosion 6. Toxic Gas What should the OOD do in case of flooding? (7) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Contact CCS/DC Central 2. Ensure the POOW passes the word and rings the bells 3. Ensure that the crew and emergency party are informed 4. Consider going to GQ or Condition II DC if flooding is out of control 5. Suspend all work being done in area of emergency 6. Log the incident in the deck log 7. Notify SOPA and ships in company and coordinate Rescue and Assistance teams from other ships What can a loss of firemain pressure result in? - CORRECT ANSWER Loss of: firefighting, dewatering, cooling water for equipment sonar dome pressurization What should be done if a firemain is lost? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pass word "smoking lamp is out throughout the ship" 2. Notify public works 3. suspend hot work, ordnance and fuel transfer What should you log for a man overboard? - CORRECT ANSWER Log incident with victim's name What do you do for a man overboard? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pass word 2. Assemble personnel to rails 3. Display OSCAR 4. check for injury 5. log What reports will come to OOD during a HAZMAT emergency? - CORRECT ANSWER Time of the spill or discovery Location of the spill Identification of the spilled material Properties and behavior of the spilled material Source of the spill Volume of the spill Anticipated movement of the spill What is a FPCON? - CORRECT ANSWER Force Protection How many FPCONS are there? What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE and DELTA What does BRAVO WAM mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Above BRAVO not quite CHARLIE When is FPCON NORMAL set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when there is no discernible threat of possible terrorist activity When is FPCON ALPHA set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when there is a general threat of terrorist activity against the installation and the personnel The nature and extent are unpredictable When is FPCON BRAVO set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists When is FPCON CHARLIE set? - CORRECT ANSWER Applies when incident occurs or when intelligence indicates that some form of terrorist action against the installation or it the personnel is imminent When is FPCON DELTA set? - CORRECT ANSWER Highest level of threat conditions Applies to the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence indicates terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely What are the deterring factors for FPCON? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Existence 2. Capability 3. Intentions 4. History 5. Targeting 6. Security Environment How long does the first to respond from the SRF have to a security alert have to respond? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 minutes How long does the BRF have to respond to a security alert? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 minutes What does SRF stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Security Reaction Force What does BRF stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Back-up Reaction Force What does RF stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Reserve Force How long does the RF have to respond to station to a security alert? - CORRECT ANSWER 15 minutes What is the most important response as the OOD to any threat? - CORRECT ANSWER NOTIFY appropriate personnel What is a PPR? - CORRECT ANSWER Pre Planned Response What should you set if there is a bomb threat? - CORRECT ANSWER ZEBRA Who should be ordered to investigate for a shipboard security threat? - CORRECT ANSWER DMAA What does the OOD do for an external or civil disturbance? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. 'Security Alert' 2. 'Force Protection Alert' 3. Notify CDO and CO 4. Contact local police 5. Recall gangway watch and pier sentries 6. Secure and remove brow 7. Secure all weather decks to all nonessential personnel 8. Log incident What is a controlled space? - CORRECT ANSWER Contains a security interest that, if lost, stolen, compromised, or sabotaged, can cause grave damage to the command mission or to national security What is done in the event of a controlled space intrusion? (that is unusual) - CORRECT ANSWER have POOW secure the brow What does ATFP stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Antiterrorism Force Protection What does ATTWO stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Anti-Terrorism Tactical Watch Officer Who does the ATTWO report to? - CORRECT ANSWER CDO What does the ATTWO do? - CORRECT ANSWER Tactically employs command assets to defend the unit against terrorist attack when in port What is a Tactical R/T circuit used for? - CORRECT ANSWER For tactical situations What is used to query and warn aircraft? - CORRECT ANSWER MAD (Mil) and IAD (Civ) Warning shots determine _______ - CORRECT ANSWER Intent What is the secondary means for ATFP comms? - CORRECT ANSWER Hand-held two-way radio, R/T circuits What is the primary means for ATFP comms? - CORRECT ANSWER Shipboard telephone system What is the tertiary means for ATFP comms? - CORRECT ANSWER 1MC What is EMCON for? - CORRECT ANSWER To prevent an enemy from detecting, identifying, locating friendly forces What is a Threat Level in regards to ATFP? - CORRECT ANSWER The degree to which the environment is conducive to conducting terrorist operations in a specific country, region or locale How many ATFP threat levels are there? What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 High, Significant, Moderate and Low When is there a high ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER Anti-U.S. terrorists are operationally active When is there a Significant ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER Anti-U.S. terrorists are present, but limited operational capability When is there a Moderate ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER Terrorists are present and no indications of anti-U.S. activity. When is there a Low ATFP Threat Level? - CORRECT ANSWER No group is detected/non-threatening FPCONS are a ______ _______ - CORRECT ANSWER security posture What is SOFA? - CORRECT ANSWER - Agreement between a host country and foreign military forces in that country - Establishes the rights and privileges of foreign personnel present in a host country - Provides guidance in the event of a legal issue arising (Civil or Criminal) What does SOFA stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Status of Forces Agreement What does SOPA stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Senior Officer Present Afloat What is the SOPA? - CORRECT ANSWER Instructions and guidance from the senior officer present What is the definition of Deadly Force? (Memorize) - CORRECT ANSWER Force that a person uses causing, or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily harm. What is serious bodily harm? - CORRECT ANSWER If left untreated could result in death What are the 6 parts of having a Combat Mindset? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Alertness 2. Decisiveness 3. Aggressiveness 4. Speed of Action 5. Self Control 6. Determination How many stages of mental awareness are there? What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 White, Yellow, Orange, Red and Black What mental awareness stage Is the best for watch? - CORRECT ANSWER Yellow What is the White stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER State of total vulnerability; unaware of actions around you. What is the Yellow stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER State of non-specific alert; aware and alert to everything around you. What is the Orange stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER State of specific alert; focus is on a possible threat. What is the Red stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER Mentally prepared to use deadly force; criteria has been met for use of deadly force. What is the Black stage of mental awareness? - CORRECT ANSWER Improper mental condition; individual experiences sensory overload. A person who does not physically resist is a/n ____ type - CORRECT ANSWER Passive A person who does physically resist is a/n ____ type - CORRECT ANSWER Active What is a Passive Compliant subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will follow verbal task directions. What is a Passive Resistor subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will not follow task direction. What is a Active Resistor subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will not follow task direction. Physically resists, but does not attack! What is a Active Aggressor subject? - CORRECT ANSWER Will not follow task direction; physically attacks. How many levels are there in the force continuum? What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 1. Presence 2. Verbal Commands 3. Soft Control 4. Hard Control 5. Non-lethal Force 6. Deadly Force What levels of the force continuum are for a passive subject? - CORRECT ANSWER 1-3 What levels of the force continuum are for an active subject? - CORRECT ANSWER 4-6 What are the 3 requirements for deadly force? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Capability 2. Opportunity 3. Intent Who is authority to arm personnel vested in? - CORRECT ANSWER CO In the case of holstered weapons, a weapon should not be removed from the holster unless there is ________ _________ that use of the weapon may be necessary. - CORRECT ANSWER reasonable expectation When a firearm is discharged, it will be fired with the intent of rendering the person(s) at whom it is fired on are ______ - CORRECT ANSWER discharged incapable (of continuing the activity or course of behavior prompting the individual to shoot.) When should you do warning shots? - CORRECT ANSWER Not at all in U.S. Territory except in an appropriate exercise What are the 4 training requirements for personnel to be armed in the performance of applicable duties? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Weapons qualified IAW OPNAV 3591.1F 2. Non-Lethal Weapons 3. Use of Force and Deadly Force 4. Rules of Engagement (ROE) What are the deadly force conditions? (times where deadly force is an option) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Inherent Right of Self-Defense. 2. Defense of Others. 3. Assets Vital to National Security. 4. Inherently Dangerous Property. 5. National Critical Infrastructure. 6. Public Health or Safety. 7. Serious Offenses Against Persons. 8. Escape. 9. Arrest or Apprehension. (SFRM) What is the goal of the Fleet Response Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER Sailors deploy on ships at the peak of readiness (SFRM) What are the 4 parts of foundation basic phase training? - CORRECT ANSWER Educate, train, asses and certify (SFRM) What are the 4 stages of the ship life cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintain 2. Train 3. Operate 4. Sustain (SMOT) (SFRM) What happens at the end of the ship life cycle? - CORRECT ANSWER Go back to the first phase (SFRM) What does an availability mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Available for maintenance (SFRM) What does AWP stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Availability Work Package (SFRM) Where is work package determined from? - CORRECT ANSWER CSMP (SFRM) How many TSRAs are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 (SFRM) What is the normal timeline for the Fleet Response Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER 27 months (SFRM) What are the phases of the Fleet Response Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintenance Phase 2. Basic Phase 3. Advanced/Integrated Phase 4. Deployment 5. Sustainment Phase (SFRM) How many Readiness Evaluations are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 7 (SFRM) Who is responsible for READ-E 2-7? - CORRECT ANSWER Type Commander (SFRM) What happens in READ-E 1? - CORRECT ANSWER Self assessment by ship's force (SFRM) What is the SFRM? - CORRECT ANSWER The ship's primary tool in navigating through the major components of the Fleet Readiness Training Plan (FRTP). (SFRM) How many chapters are in the SFRM? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 (SFRM) What is the difference between a CNO Availability and a CMAV? - CORRECT ANSWER CMAV is at the homeport and involves smaller maintenance, CNO Availabilities are upgrades and bigger maintenance (SFRM) What are the things to do during the Maintenance Phase? - CORRECT ANSWER Prepare Sailors, Review Programs, Training Plans and Administrative Programs (SFRM) What are the 'PESTO" pillars? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Personnel 2. Equipment 3. Supply 4. Training 5. Ordnance (SFRM) What are the exit criteria from the maintenance phase? - CORRECT ANSWER Ready to train Light off assessment Dock trials and fast cruise What are the 2 Tiers of Basic Phase - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Mobility 2. Unit Tactical How long is the Basic Phase training? - CORRECT ANSWER 20 weeks (21 for BMD) What is the key phrase to the Basic Phase - CORRECT ANSWER ATG led, TYCOM certified What areas of the ship fall into Mobility (Tier 1)? - CORRECT ANSWER Search and Rescue (SAR) Air MOB-E (Mobility-Engineering) MOB-D (Damage Control) MOB-N (Navigation) MOB-S (Seamanship) Explosive Safety FSOM (Medical) AT (Anti-Terrorism) Supply CCC (Communications) 3M What areas of the ship fall into Mobility (Tier 2)? - CORRECT ANSWER AW (Air Warfare) SW (Surface Warfare) Strike BMD Intelligence EW (Electronic Warfare) CRY (Cryptology) USW (Under Sea Warfare) What are the 5 parts that are involved in both Tier 1 and 2 of the Basic Phase? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.0/2.0 - Education 1.1/2.1 - Material and Admin 1.2/2.2 - Theory and Fundamentals 1.3/2.3 - Individual and Team Training 1.4/2.4 - Assessment What happens at the parts of the Basic Phase? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.0/2.0 - Education: Introduction to ATG counterparts and Basic Phase overview. Familiarizes the ship with the process. 1.1/2.1 - Material and Admin Verification of material condition of required systems and equipment. Review of required programs. 1.2/2.2 - Theory and Fundamentals Classroom training on the basics of a warfare area. 1.3/2.3 - Individual and Team Training Practical, hands-on scenarios with over-the-shoulder training starting with individual watchstanders and then incorporating the entire watch team. 1.4/2.4 - Assessment ATG assesses ship's performance in a particular warfare area based on performance in graded events. Once all warfare areas in a Tier are completed and assessed as satisfactory, ATG makes the recommendation to TYCOM for certification and TYCOM certifies the ship. What is a Certification event? - CORRECT ANSWER Assessed once then done for 2 years (like mooring to a buoy) What is a Recurring Event? - CORRECT ANSWER Required Periodic Self-Assessment What are ATG's Responsibilities? - CORRECT ANSWER Training Aid in Assessments and evaluations Maintain easily identified standards What are the elements of effective training? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Regular schedule 2. Professional Instruction 3. Positive leadership 4. Tech Support 5. Personal Interest 6. Quality Control What is a PB4T? - CORRECT ANSWER Planning Board for Training What happens at the PB4T? - CORRECT ANSWER Ship training schedule is coordinated How often does PB4T happen? - CORRECT ANSWER Happens at least monthly or when XO directs How many months does the Long Range Training Plan cover? - CORRECT ANSWER 12 months Who approves the LRTP? - CORRECT ANSWER CO Who reviews the LRTP? - CORRECT ANSWER XO What are the sub plans for the Short Range Training Plan? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly, Monthly and Weekly What happens if you forget to record training? - CORRECT ANSWER IT DIDN'T HAPPEN What are the 4 most important training references? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. SORM 2. SFRM 3. Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR) 4. Fleet Training Management and Planning System (FLTMPS) What is OJT? - CORRECT ANSWER On the job training What is the benefit of OJT? - CORRECT ANSWER Personalized means of developing skills from those that have mastered those skills What are the 3 sections of PQS? - CORRECT ANSWER 100 Level (Fundamentals) 200 Level (Systems) 300 Levels (Watch Stations) What does PQS stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel Qualification Standard What is the TFOM? - CORRECT ANSWER Like a GPA for quals What is TORIS? - CORRECT ANSWER system to train and certify ships What does TORIS stand for - CORRECT ANSWER Training and Operational Readiness Information Service What is ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER process that assists organizations and individuals in making informed risk decisions in order to reduce or offset risk. What is a risk? - CORRECT ANSWER An expression of possible loss in terms of severity & probability What are the 4 principles of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs 2. Accept no unnecessary risk 3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning 4. Make risk decisions at the right level What are the 5 steps to the 5 step ORM process? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify Hazards 2. Asses Hazards 3. Make Risk Decisions 4. Implement Controls 5. Supervise How many ORM severity categories are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 What is the lowest ORM severity category? - CORRECT ANSWER Category IV What is ORM severity Category I? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests What is ORM severity Category II? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard may cause severe injury, illness, property damage, damage to national or service interests or degradation to efficient use of assets What is ORM severity Category III? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage, damage to national, service or command interests or degradation to efficient use of assets What is ORM severity Category IV? - CORRECT ANSWER The hazard presents a minimal threat to personnel safety or health, property, national, service or command interests or efficient use of assets What are the ORM probability categories? What are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 A-D What are the 4 ORM Probability categories and what do they mean? - CORRECT ANSWER A- Likely B- Probably C- May D- Unlikely (to occur) How many Risk assessment codes are there? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 What are the 5 risk assessment codes and what do they mean? - CORRECT ANSWER 1 (most serious) is a probability of A and a severity of I, 5 (least serious) is a probability of D and severity of IV How many levels are there of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. In-Depth 2. Deliberate 3. Time Critical Which ORM level is most effective when done in a group? - CORRECT ANSWER Deliberate What does a DIVO need to do with CASREPs? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Understand the impact of the casualty 2. Take the time to learn the equipment 3. Know how to brief your CASREP Why do CASREPs? - CORRECT ANSWER Report diminished/malfunctioning equipment. Provide advance notice of maintenance, so you get it. When does a malfunction become a casualty? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Cannot be repaired in 48 hours 2. Reduces ability to perform primary/secondary mission (Time + importance) 3. Reduces training command's ability to do mission (For shore commands) What is the minimum classification of a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER Confidential What is the approved way to write a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER MFOM (https://mitsinc.webex.com) What are the categories for CASREPS? - CORRECT ANSWER CAT 2, CAT 3, CAT 4 What is a CAT 2 CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER - Minor degradation in primary mission - Major degradation or total loss of secondary mission - Transmitted Priority Precedence - Updates must be submitted every 30 days What is a CAT 3 CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER - Major degradation in primary or secondary - Transmitted OP Immediate Precedence - Updates must be submitted every 10 days What is a CAT 4 CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER - Total loss of primary mission - Transmitted OP Immediate Precedence - Updates must be submitted every 72 hours How often must a CAT 3 CASREP be updated? - CORRECT ANSWER every 10 days What are the pre-routing procedures for a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. DIVO is informed of casualty Job must be entered and approved in OMMS-NG 2. Generate CASREP using MFOM CASREP Generator 3. Make sure techs and LCPO read over report to ensure technical accuracy 4. Start routing!!! What is the routing process for a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Department Head - Review 2. Operations Officer - Schedule info 3. Supply Officer - Parts info and MILSTRIP 4. Executive Officer - Review 5. CO - Final Approval 6. Finalize CASREP 7. Radio to send out What are the different types of CASREP reports? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Initial 2. Update 3. Correction 4. Cancellation Which type of CASREP report is submitted to correct information included on previous CASREPs? - CORRECT ANSWER UPDATE What is a CASREP Correction report (CASCOR) reported for? - CORRECT ANSWER Report the repair of previously CASREP'd equipment What does DRRS-N stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Readiness Reporting System - Navy Why do we have DRRS-N? - CORRECT ANSWER Provides an accurate, near-real-time means of reporting a diminished combat readiness posture due to a significant PESTO deficiency (Help commanders make informed decisions) What is a MET? - CORRECT ANSWER Mission Essential Status What are the 4 types of DRRS-N assessments? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. MET 2. Capability 3. Core 4. Commander What are the PESTO pillars? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Personnel 2. Equipment 3. Supply 4. Training 5. Ordinance What are the assessment value colors? - CORRECT ANSWER Gray, Green, Yellow and Red What does the Gray assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Not yet assessed What does the Green assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Capable and/or trained up and demonstrated What does the Yellow assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Expected to be good but not demonstrated What does the Red assessment color mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Unable to accomplish task to prescribed standards and conditions What is OARS? - CORRECT ANSWER A measurement of unit Overall Resources and Training What are the two parts of the unit Overall Readiness Assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER OARS and DRRS-N When should DRRS-N assessments be preformed? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Within 24 hours of a significant change in readiness 2. Within 30 days of the last assessment, even if there is no change in readiness 3. Upon unit commissioning / placed "in service special" 4. Turnover of rotational crews 5. Within 24 hours of submitting a C3/C4 CASREP Update affected capability areas 6. Within 24 hours of unplanned change in U/W status (fail to sail, Sortie, Surge Deploy, RTP for repairs) What are common DIVO inspections? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Maintenance and Material Management (3-M) 2. Inspection and Survey (INSURV) 3. Light Off Assessment (LOA) 4. Engineering Operational Certification (EOC) 5. Supply Management Certification (SMC) 6. Aviation Readiness Qualification (ARQ) 7. Aviation Facility Certification (AVCERT) 8. Cruise Missile Tactical Qualification (CMTQ) What is the ATG Tool box? - CORRECT ANSWER Used to prepare for inspections, gives you the checklists (https://atg.ncdc.navy.mil/toolbox/private/index.htm) Who is required to have a seabag inspection prior to transfer? - CORRECT ANSWER E-1/E-2/E-3 What does NAVOSH stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Occupational Safety and Health What area's does the industrial hygiene survey ensure? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Electrical Safety 2. Sight conservation 3. Hazmat 4. Hearing conversation 5. Confined Spaces 6. Lockout/Tagout 7. Trip/Fall Protection 8. Radiation 9. Respiratory What inspection is done to determine and ensure safety and security and to promote good order and discipline? - CORRECT ANSWER Health and Welfare Inspections Who conducts health and welfare inspections? - CORRECT ANSWER Divisional and departmental leadership and/or Master at Arms Who can conduct a Zone Inspection? - CORRECT ANSWER CO, XO, 3MC, DH, DCA, DIVOs, LCPOs What is the periodicity of Zone Inspections? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly What does ZIDL stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Zone Inspection Deficiency List Who conducts Messing and Berthing Inspections and how often? - CORRECT ANSWER The XO, CDO, Section Leader and Master at Arms Conducted everyday What are the 5 phases of the Fleet Response Training Plan - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Sustainment 2. Maintenance 3. Shakedown 4. Basic 5. Integrated/Advanced What is the periodicity of 3-M assessments? - CORRECT ANSWER Once per FRTP (3M Mid-Cycle Assessment (MCA) required 13-17 months after successful 3MC) How often is an INSURV preformed? - CORRECT ANSWER Every 60 months What inspection is done to ensure ship is capable of safely lighting off engines and operating its engineering plant prior to going to sea? - CORRECT ANSWER Light-off Assessment What is the periodicity of LOAs? - CORRECT ANSWER LOA must be conducted if ship undergoes any maintenance period longer than 120 days or if TYCOM deems necessary. What is the purpose of an Engineering Operational Certification? - CORRECT ANSWER To certify ship for all underway engineering operations All inspections should be done FRTP except ______. - CORRECT ANSWER INSURV What inspection is done to assess and certify the shipboard supply mission to include, general stores accountability/sustainability, hazardous materials, and food service accountability/sustainability? - CORRECT ANSWER Supply Management Certification (SMC) What inspection is done to ensure personnel qualifications, training, and readiness of individuals involved with shipboard aviation are current and accurately maintained? - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation Readiness Qualification (ARQ) Who conducts LOA, EOC, SMC, ARQ, AVCERT and CMTQ? - CORRECT ANSWER ATG (Afloat Training Group) What inspection is done to ensure required shipboard aviation facilities and equipment are installed and properly functioning? - CORRECT ANSWER Aviation Facility Certification (AVCERT) What is a Rigorous combat scenario that certifies a ships crew to utilize Harpoon anti ship missiles and Tomahawk land attack missiles? - CORRECT ANSWER Cruise Missile Tactical Qualification (CMTQ) ____ ____ fix equipment. - CORRECT ANSWER Repair parts What is the difference between Equipage and Equipment - CORRECT ANSWER Equipage are things not installed on the ship such as hard hats SCBA... We put in ______ to get parts - CORRECT ANSWER Requisitions What is S-1? - CORRECT ANSWER Stock control What is S-2? - CORRECT ANSWER Food service What is S-3? - CORRECT ANSWER Sales and services What is S-4? - CORRECT ANSWER Disbursing Is MWR supply on the ship? - CORRECT ANSWER NO Who is the liaison between your division and supply? - CORRECT ANSWER Repair Parts Petty Officer What kinds of things are purchased through OPTAR? - CORRECT ANSWER Operational Things (Engines, pumps, consumables..) What kinds of things are purchased through TADTAR? - CORRECT ANSWER Temporary travel or duties (Emergency leave, TDY) What does EOFY stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER End of Fiscal Year Can a CASREP order parts? - CORRECT ANSWER NO What is a proactive tool to prevent a CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER ANORS (Anticipated Not Operationally Ready Supply) _______ is like ANORS except only for parts out of commission that are essential to the ship's mission. - CORRECT ANSWER NORS Where is an equipment requisition job opened? What is the requisition process for equipment breaks? - CORRECT ANSWER OMMS 1. Equipment breaks 2. Open a job in OMMS 3. DH Approves Parts in OMMS 4. TECH EDIT by LS 5. Generates in RSUPPLY 6. Approve/cancel DH 7. Picking Ticket 8.CO signs 9. LS pulls 10. Part issued APL orders what kind of part? - CORRECT ANSWER equipment (Parts) AEL orders what kind of part? - CORRECT ANSWER equipage How many digits is the NSN (National Stock Number? - CORRECT ANSWER 13 What is a really long number/ letter combination? - CORRECT ANSWER MILSTRIP (Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedure) _________ seeks correction (for supply) - CORRECT ANSWER FCFBR (Fleet COSAL Feedback Report) _________ requests item additions/deletions - CORRECT ANSWER ACR (Allowance Change Request) What trades items based on ship needs..? - CORRECT ANSWER ILO (Integrated Logistics Overhaul) What should be done monthly to validate and keep outstanding requisitions in system? - CORRECT ANSWER MOV (Material Obligation Validation) What are the types of MOV annotations? - CORRECT ANSWER V - Valid, material still required C - Cancel, material no longer required R - Received What are some common reasons your part might be canceled by supply? - CORRECT ANSWER > Wrong APL (parts not listed, AEL, ACL) > Ordered in excess of QPA (quantity per application) > Ordered consumables using EMRM (e.g. Tools) > JCN is closed > No response to internal MOV (RPPO issue) > Wrong DLR RIP (remain in place) code > Multiple DLR's per request # > Unauthorized maintenance at shipboard level (SM&R) What are replaceable assemblies required to execute an approved maintenance plan, identifying faults by swapping known-good assemblies for potentially bad ones? - CORRECT ANSWER MAMs What report is made when wrong or less than ordered supplies are received? - CORRECT ANSWER Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)/ Report of Discrepancy (ROD) What is submitted because some received supplies are bad/ not to par? - CORRECT ANSWER Quality Deficiency Report (QDR) What is an item that is in big demand and has been ordered on standby? - CORRECT ANSWER SIM Navy Cash cards cost what? - CORRECT ANSWER 5-7$ What are Navy Managed items which, based on unit cost, annual demand, difficulty of repair, or other economic considerations, have been selected by Inventory Managers (IM) for special inventory control? - CORRECT ANSWER DLR (Depot Level Repairable) What are services? - CORRECT ANSWER MWR bus, CHT trucks [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Exam 88 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Exam 88 Questions with Verified Answers What are the 8 SSOPs - CORRECT ANSWER FPQSFOIL 4 Supporting Processes of SSOP - CORRECT ANS... [Show More] WER Operational risk management (ORM) Planning brief executing debriefing (PBED) Supervisory control Critique and lessons learned reporting List the Administrative Chain of Command (acronyms but know full name) - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS (President of the United States) SECDEF (Secretary of Defense) SECNAV (Secretary of Navy) CNO (Chief of Naval Operations) USFF Commander (U.S. Fleet Forces) TYCOM (Type Commander) PHIBRON (Division Commodore) CO List the Operational Chain of Command (acronyms but know full name) - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS (President of the United States) SECDEF (Secretary of Defense) CJCS (Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff) CC (Combatant Commanders) NCC (Navy Component Command) NFC (Numbered Fleet Commander) ESG (Expeditionary Strike Group Commander) PHIBRON (Division Commodore) CO Who are the geographic commanders - CORRECT ANSWER NORTHCOM SOUTHCOM EUCOM AFRICOM CENTCOM INDOPACOM USSPACECOM NORTHCOM AOR - CORRECT ANSWER US Alaska Puerto Rico Canada Mexico SOUTHCOM AOR - CORRECT ANSWER Central and South America Caribbean EUCOM AOR - CORRECT ANSWER Europe Russia Greenland Israel AFRICOM AOR - CORRECT ANSWER All of Africa except Egypt CENTCOM AOR - CORRECT ANSWER Middle East Central Asia Egypt INDOPACOM AOR - CORRECT ANSWER Indo-Asia-Pacific Region USSPACECOM AOR - CORRECT ANSWER Altitude above 62 miles Who are the functional combatant commanders - CORRECT ANSWER SOCOM (special operations) STRATCOM (strategic) TRANSCOM (transportation) CYBERCOM (cyber) What is EKMS? - CORRECT ANSWER Electronic Key Management System Provides an electronic key management system to track and handle COMSEC material Responsibilities of EKMS - CORRECT ANSWER CO - administer EKMS account and ensure compliance EKMS manager - all actions associated with the handling and safeguarding of COMSEC material 4 Classifications of information and meaning - CORRECT ANSWER TS - exceptionally grave damage (top secret) S - serious damage (secret) C - damage (confidential) CUI - government information needed safeguarding (controlled unclassified information) (orange red blue green) OPSEC purpose - CORRECT ANSWER (Operations Security) Protect Sensitive but unclassified information What is PB4T and how often is it conducted - CORRECT ANSWER Coordinates training schedule of the ship Monthly or sooner per CO What is LRTP - CORRECT ANSWER (Long range training plan) Identify milestones in training and crew development What is SRTP - CORRECT ANSWER (Short range training plan) Detailed planning and scheduling of training What is TORS-TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER A web based tool used to schedule and track all unit level training (Training and Operational Readiness Information Service - Training Figure of Merit) Principles of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost Accept no unnecessary risk Anticipate and manage risk by planning Make risk decisions at the right level 5 step process of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER Identify Hazards Assess Hazards Make Risk Decisions Implement Controls Supervise (I AM IS) Elements of RAC - CORRECT ANSWER Severity (I: Hazard may cause death or grave damage. II: Hazard may cause severe injury, illness, or damage. III: Hazard may cause minor injury, illness, or damage. IV: Hazard presents a minimal threat to safety or health.) Probability (A: Likely to occur immediately B: Probably will occur in time C: May occur D: Unlikely to occur) Different levels of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER In-Depth Deliberate Time Critical Difference between restricted and unrestricted SAPR support - CORRECT ANSWER R - confidential, no investigation UR - disclose incident to command, investigation fraternization - CORRECT ANSWER unduly familiar Family Care Plan Who requires it? - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure care for minors if guardian is on deployment Any instance with a child without a guardian or plan What is ROC - CORRECT ANSWER Required operational capability What we expect a specific ship class to be able to What is POE - CORRECT ANSWER Projected operational environment Description of environment which ship is expected to operate What is SMD - CORRECT ANSWER Ships manpower document Wartime requirements What is AMD - CORRECT ANSWER Activity manpower document Billets authorized What is BBD - CORRECT ANSWER Billet Based Distribution Personnel assigned What is COB - CORRECT ANSWER Current on board Readiness gap equation - CORRECT ANSWER SMD - COB How does BBD apply to the DIVO - CORRECT ANSWER Provide accurate and timely manning information to Fleet personnel managers Allows to reliably asses vacant positions impact on readiness State the purpose of en EMIR - CORRECT ANSWER (Enlisted Manning Inquiry Report) Notifies PERS-4013, TYCOM, ISIC of personnel shortage How to ring in your captain - CORRECT ANSWER State him arriving ring bell 4 times How to render honors to another ship - CORRECT ANSWER Attention sounded 1 blast for Starboard; 2 blasts for Port One blast: Hand Salute Two blasts: Ready, to Three blasts: Carry on In port: a senior officer walking along the pier passes the quarterdeck What tools does OOD have to communicate with on the bridge - CORRECT ANSWER 1MC Ships service telephone Handheld radios Quarterdeck alarms Sound powered phones In Port security forces - CORRECT ANSWER SRF (security reaction force) BRF (back up reaction force) RF (reserve force) Levels of force continuum - CORRECT ANSWER Presence Verbal commands Soft control Hard control Non-lethal force Deadly force Deadly force triangle - CORRECT ANSWER Opportunity Capability Intent Importance of DIVO notebook and contents - CORRECT ANSWER For the relief of an officer and ready reference for the DIVO Personnel & Responsibilities Training & Qualifications DIVO Personnel Record Form Components of service record (name 6) - CORRECT ANSWER Oath of office Enlistment contract FITREP Qualifications Clearance documents Record of emergency Data Maintaining service record - CORRECT ANSWER OMPF Online ability What is the Officer Data card - CORRECT ANSWER Detailed information regarding an officers service history What do enlisted need to advance - CORRECT ANSWER CO recommendation Time in Rate (TIR) Not exceed High Year Tenure Complete Navy training and required schools Meet PRT equirements Pass Navy-Wide Advancement Exam (NWAE) Meet minimum performance criteria Final Multiple Score (FMS) What makes enlisted ineligible to advance - CORRECT ANSWER POW/MIA, Unauthorized Absence (UA), Retired Fraudulent Advancement Cheating, collusion In Confinement Due to civil conviction or court-martial sentence Revoked or Incorrect Security Clearance Failed PRT Failed the Exam Commissioning sources for enlisted - CORRECT ANSWER USNA OCS STA-21 NROTC FITREP ending dates are the _______ day of the month. - CORRECT ANSWER Last EVAL ending dates are the _______ day of the month. - CORRECT ANSWER 15th Mid-Term Counseling due ___ ___ after completion date of FITREP/EVAL - CORRECT ANSWER Six months NOB Report - CORRECT ANSWER Fulfill reporting requirements during period of brief service when a detailed assessment cannot be provided Not greater than 90 days Letter of Extension Report - CORRECT ANSWER Submitted to extend the period of observation of the individual up to 90 days. (Detachment of Individual, Reporting Senior, Periodic, Frocking) Concurrent Reports - CORRECT ANSWER For members fulfilling additional duty or temporary duty Statutory board - CORRECT ANSWER Promotion and SERB Administrative board - CORRECT ANSWER Administrative boards make selections which were once made by committees within Naval Personnel Command (NPC) Screen board - CORRECT ANSWER Occur at certain milestones in a Sailor's career Formal inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Asses shipboard readiness Graded Informal inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Quarters uniform inspections equipment checks Zone inspections and how often - CORRECT ANSWER Ship's Force ensure proper measures are taken to keep machinery, spaces, and equipment operational Every space quarterly 3M inspection and how often - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure 3M program is maintained and maintanence scheduled Conducted by ATG Mid-cycle assessment 11-18 months from last INSURV inspection and how often - CORRECT ANSWER Provide assurance regarding a unit's fitness for service, identify limits to mission capability, and report material deficiencies. At least every 5 years Types of funding to ships - CORRECT ANSWER Operating Target (OPTAR) Temporary Additional Duty Travel Target (TADTAR) Grants End of Fiscal Year (EOFY) OPTAR funding - CORRECT ANSWER Money required to make the ship operate TADTAR - CORRECT ANSWER TAD expenses Grants - CORRECT ANSWER Funds allocated from TYCOM EOFY - CORRECT ANSWER Left over from OPTAR APL vs AEL - CORRECT ANSWER Parts vs equipment (allowance parts/equipage list) What is FEDLOG - CORRECT ANSWER Federal logistics data Interactive query system to find parts What is MOV and how often - CORRECT ANSWER (Material Obligation Validation) Used to verify unfilled quantities of parts requests Internal - monthly External - quarterly 4 Naval messages - CORRECT ANSWER User Originator Releaser Drafter User responsibility - CORRECT ANSWER Draft, release, or process electronically transmitted messages Originator responsibility - CORRECT ANSWER Whose name is associated with the sent message Releaser responsibility - CORRECT ANSWER Release message for command Ensure drafters know content requirements Drafter responsibility - CORRECT ANSWER Composes the message Naval message categories and times - CORRECT ANSWER Routine (R) 6 hours Priority (P) 3 hours Immediate (O) 30 min Flash (F) <10 min Three types of court martial - CORRECT ANSWER Summary Special General What are the six phases of Optimized Fleet Response Plan Goal - CORRECT ANSWER Maintenance Shakedown Basic Advanced Integrated Sustainment (MSBAIS) Components of the PESTO pillars - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel Equipment Supply Training Ordnance What is the Basic Phase of a ship's lifecycle - CORRECT ANSWER Train and certify a unit PESTO readiness Better watchstanders What are the components of a ship's lifecycle - CORRECT ANSWER Sustainment Maintenance Basic Integrated Sustainment Deploy What does the Afloat Training Group (ATF) do? - CORRECT ANSWER -Asses and grader all Certification Exercises -Develop Basic Phase training plans -Crew training What are the three types of ship assessments - CORRECT ANSWER Availability Work Package (AWP) Total Ship's Readiness Assessment (TSRA) Readiness Evaluation (READ-E) What are the different PQS sections/levels? - CORRECT ANSWER 100 - fundamentals 200 - systems 300 - watchstations What is the DIVOs role in PQS? - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise divisional PQS program and provide guidance -PQS completion -WTRP -Records -Training State the purpose of en EMIR - CORRECT ANSWER [Show Less]
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DIVO FUNDAMENTALS Exam 127 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO FUNDAMENTALS Exam 127 Questions with Verified Answers 6 CORE PRINCIPLES - CORRECT ANSWER Formality Forceful Backup Level of Knowledge Integrity ... [Show More] Procedural Compliance Questioning attitude 3 Supporting Principles - CORRECT ANSWER ORM Incident Reporting PEBD SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Outlines standard Navy organization Dictates required ship's bills, instructions, primary and collateral duties, watch organization, divisional/departmental organization, etc. Enables personnel to transfer from ship to ship and expect similar organizations and procedures Each ship tailors the SORM to satisfy specific needs Certain articles cannot be altered ADMINSTRATIVE CHAIN OF COMMAND - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF SECNAV CNO PACTFLT OR USFF TYCOM PHIBRON/DESRON SHIP CO OPERATIONAL CHAIN OF COMMAND - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS SECDEF CJCS COMBATANT COMMANDERS NAVY COMPONENT COMMAND NUMBERED FLEET COMMANDER CSG OR ESG PHIBRON/DESRON SHIP COMMANDER NORTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER AOR: US, Alaska, Puerto Rico, Canada, Mexico NORTHCOM forces can provide civil support, but cannot be directly involved in law enforcement SOUTHCOM - CORRECT ANSWER AOR: Central and South America, Caribbean EUCOM - CORRECT ANSWER AOR: Europe, Russia, Greenland AFRICOM - CORRECT ANSWER AOR: All of Africa except Egypt CENTCOM maintains its traditional relationship with Egypt, but AFRICOM coordinates with Egypt on issues relating to the security of the African continent. CENTCOM - CORRECT ANSWER AOR: Middle East, Central Asia, Egypt and Israel INDOPACOM - CORRECT ANSWER AOR: Indo-Asia-Pacific Region Covers more of the globe of any of the other geographic combatant commands and shares borders with all of the other five geographic combatant commands. Functional Combatant Commands - CORRECT ANSWER U.S. Special Operations Command (SOCOM) U.S. Strategic Command (STRATCOM) U.S. Transportation Command (TRANSCOM) U.S. Cyber Command (CYBERCOM) U.S. Space Command (SPACECOM) Navy Component Commands - CORRECT ANSWER Fleet Forces Command Pacific Fleet Command Military Seaflift Command Naval Forces Central Command Naval Special Warfare Command/10th Fleet Naval Forces Europe/Naval Forces Africa Naval Forces Southern Command/4th Fleet 2nd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Western Half of the Atlantic Ocean Effective: August 24, 2018 3rd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern Half of the Pacific Ocean 4th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER The Caribbean, and surrounding waters of Central and South America Effective: July 1, 2008 5th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Arabian Gulf Red Sea Gulf of Oman Part of the Indian Ocean 6th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Atlantic Ocean Adriatic Sea Baltic Sea Barents Black Sea Caspian Sea Mediterranean Sea North Sea 7th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Pacific Ocean Most of the Indian Ocean 10th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Location: Fort Meade, MD Established in 2010 as US Fleet Cyber Command/10th Fleet Origins from WWII and anti-submarine warfare Responsible for the Navy's cyber warfare programs, subordinate to CYBERCOM and STRATCOM (for space issues) Has operational control over Navy information, computer, cryptologic and space forces DIVO Responsibilities under the SORM - CORRECT ANSWER A division officer is assigned by the commanding officer to lead a division Supervise the performance of the work within the division carrying out the shipboard maintenance and material management. Schedule and conduct training for division personnel. By personal supervision and frequent inspection, ensure that spaces, equipment, and supplies assigned to the division are maintained. Promptly reports to department head repairs which may be required or other defects which need correction. Assigns personnel to watches and duties within division and develop rotation programs. Maintains a division officer notebook Responsible for all administration for the division Ensures damage control equipment, fittings, and check-off lists is assigned. Information Security (INFOSEC) - CORRECT ANSWER The system of policies, procedures, and requirements established to protect information that, if subject to unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to damage the national security of the United States. Operations Security (OPSEC) - CORRECT ANSWER Formal program that identifies and protects sensitive but unclassified information that ensures mission success. Communications Security (COMSEC) - CORRECT ANSWER The protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications related to national security AND ensure the authenticity of such communications. Physical Security - CORRECT ANSWER Physical measures taken to safeguard COMSEC material. NIPRNet - CORRECT ANSWER Non-classified Internet Protocol Network SIPRNet - CORRECT ANSWER Secret Internet Protocol Network KMI - CORRECT ANSWER Key Management Infrastructure EKMS - CORRECT ANSWER Electronic Key Management System; provide an integrated, end-to-end key management and COMSEC material generation, distribution and accounting system CAC - CORRECT ANSWER Common Access Card Clearance - CORRECT ANSWER Eligibility to access classified material based on the information classification level and a valid need-to-know Top Secret (TS) - CORRECT ANSWER Shall be applied to information the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security that the OCA is able to identify or describe Secret (S) - CORRECT ANSWER Shall be applied to information the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security that the OCA is able to identify or describe Confidential (C) - CORRECT ANSWER Shall be applied to information the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security that the OCA is able to identify or describe For Official Use Only (FOUO) - CORRECT ANSWER FOUO is a control marking for unclassified information that may be withheld from the public if disclosure would reasonably be expected to cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected under the Freedom of Information Act. Although not classified, FOUO information should be handled in a manner (typically like Confidential material) that provides reasonable assurance that unauthorized persons do not gain access. FOUO is the most common sub-category of Sensitive but Unclassified (SBU) information. Marking - CORRECT ANSWER All classified information shall be clearly marked with the date and office of origin, the appropriate classification level and all required "associated markings": Identify the source of classification Downgrading/Declassification instructions Warning or other notices Marking is required on all information technology (IT) systems and electronic media, including removable components that contain classified information. Portion Markings - CORRECT ANSWER Mark each portion (e.g., title, section, part, paragraph or subparagraph) of a classified document to show its classification level. Portion markings eliminate any doubt as to which portions of a document is classified, promoting more accurate derivative classification. Place the appropriate abbreviation ("TS" (Top Secret), "S" (Secret), "C" (Confidential), "FOUO" (For Official Use Only), or "U" (Unclassified)), immediately following the portion letter or number, or in the absence of letters or numbers, immediately before the beginning of the portion. Derivative Classification - CORRECT ANSWER Incorporating, paraphrasing, or restating information that is already classified E.g., you writing an email stating the requirements of OPTASK Visual Information (VI) for storyboards of military events OPSEC - CORRECT ANSWER The purpose of OPSEC is to protect sensitive but unclassified information about a mission, operation, or activity. Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) - CORRECT ANSWER Provide an environment free from personal, social, or institutional barriers. Service members must be evaluated only on individual merit, fitness, capability, and performance Each member of the Navy is entitled to be treated with dignity and respect and to work in an environment free of harassment and unlawful discrimination. Promote positive command morale and quality of life (QOL) Formal Complaint - CORRECT ANSWER Six ways to file a formal complaint When the CO is informed of the complaint, they must: Initiate an investigation within 72 hours Identify counseling or legal assistance for all involved in a harassment or discrimination claim Send an OPREP 3 Unit SITREP Navy Equal Opportunity Formal Complaint Form (NAVPERS 5354/2) This is the preferred method NAVREGS Article 1150, Redress of Wrong Committed by a Superior UCMJ Article 138, Complaint of Wrongs against the Commanding Officer Does not include issues covered by specific appellate authority (i.e., Mast, Evals/FITREPs) NAVPERS 1626/7 Report and Disposition of Offense(s) Contacting the Inspector General Communicating with elected officials Informal Complaint - CORRECT ANSWER The Chain of Command is the preferred process to identify, process, and resolve harassment and unlawful discrimination claims within a command. A Service member who desires to resolve a harassment or unlawful discrimination report informally, must notify a member in a position of authority in the CoC of their report orally or in writing. The CoC must inform the Command Climate Specialist or the CMEO Manager, and the report must be documented. The report must be resolved within 14 days utilizing the CoC. Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) - CORRECT ANSWER Facilitate a culture free of sexual assault, through an environment of prevention, education and training, and appropriate accountability. The program shall: Focus on the survivor Be recovery-oriented Standardized Two types of reporting Restricted - CORRECT ANSWER Allows assault survivors to confidentially disclose the incident to SPECIFIC individuals, receive care/treatment, WITHOUT initiating an investigation ONLY be reported to: SAPR VA SARC Qualified Military or civilian Health Care Personnel Chaplain Victim's Legal Counsel These individuals are required to retain confidentiality of the survivor "CATCH" database can be utilized to preserve confidentiality and potentially connect survivors of the same assailant Unrestricted - CORRECT ANSWER Allows assault survivors to disclose the incident to the command, receive care/treatment, initiate an investigation The preferred method to allow the provision of survivor's services and pursuit of accountability If reported to anyone, (other than SARC, SAPR VA, Healthcare personnel), it will immediately be an unrestricted report. Representatives who can take restricted reports can ALSO make unrestricted reports. Survivors can move from a Restricted Report to an Unrestricted Report, but cannot move from an Unrestricted Report to a Restricted Report. Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor - CORRECT ANSWER Command's primary advisor for alcohol and drug matters and reports directly to the CO or XO Responsible for alcohol/drug abuse prevention program information in command indoctrination Provide a means for self-referral for alcohol abuse counseling or treatment Family Advocacy Program - CORRECT ANSWER Established to provide consistent, standardized response to incidents of domestic or child abuse within the Navy Provides clinical assessment, treatment and services for military members and their families involved in incidents of domestic abuse. Fleet and Family Support Program - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure that Sailors and families consistently receive quality services across all Fleet and Family Support Centers (FFSC) Organized into four functional areas to support family readiness Work and Family Life - CORRECT ANSWER 11 programs Counseling, Advocacy and Prevention (CAP) - CORRECT ANSWER 4 programs Exceptional Family Member Program - CORRECT ANSWER EFMP is a mandatory program designed to identify family members with long-term health care or special education needs. Navy Parental Leave Program - CORRECT ANSWER Primary Caregiver Leave 6 weeks Secondary Caregiver Leave 2 weeks Maternity Convalescent Leave 6 weeks (for the birth parent) Navy Marine Corp Relief Society - CORRECT ANSWER The mission of the Navy-Marine Corps Relief Society is to provide, in partnership with the Navy and Marine Corps, financial, educational, and other assistance to members of the Naval Services of the United States, eligible family members, and survivors when in need; and to receive and manage funds to administer these programs. Elements Interest-free loans and grants Scholarships Financial Counseling Budget for Baby Workshops Thrift Shops Visiting Nurse Services Military OneSource - CORRECT ANSWER A confidential DoD-funded program providing comprehensive information on every aspect of military life at no cost to active duty and their families. Resources include but are not limited to: Policy and programmatic information Deployment Reunion Relationship Grief Confidential non-medical counseling services Spouse employment and education CONUS Volunteer Income Tax Assistance Locations Parenting and childhood and much more Authorization Documents - CORRECT ANSWER Authorization documents set forth the minimum manning requirements for both individual ships and classes of ships. Ships Manpower Document (SMD) - CORRECT ANSWER Quantitative and qualitative manpower wartime requirements for an individual ship or class of ships Requirements based on ROC/POE, ship configuration, specific operating profile, and computed workload Commonly called M+1 (manpower requirements needed a month after mobilization date) Activity Manpower Document (AMD) - CORRECT ANSWER Manpower requirement supported by approved funding & end strength (Billets Authorized) Formally called the OPNAV 1000/2 Required Operational Capability (ROC) - CORRECT ANSWER Used to specify desired level of achievement of readiness for a particular level of readiness Projected Operational Environment (POE) - CORRECT ANSWER Description of the environment which the ship is expected to operate, including the military climate ROC/POE - CORRECT ANSWER Current ROC/POE are the most critical elements in developing manpower documents Establish tasking for each class of ships in order to compute the manpower requirements for ship manpower documents Basis for how the manpower system determines the number and skill level of the Navy personnel embarked Description of how the ship will operate at sea, and in which environments Basis for how the manpower system determines the number and skill level of the Navy personnel embarked Individual ship ROC/POEs measured against ROC/POE ship class instruction criteria Serves as inputs for manpower authorization documents Enlisted Manning Inquiry Report - CORRECT ANSWER EMIR message notifies PERS-4013 of a unit's concern of enlisted personnel shortages. The personnel shortage should meet one of the following criteria: Manning: Current on board (COB) manning or projected on board (POB) manning in the applicable rating or closed loop/transitory Navy Enlisted Classification (NEC) code is below Navy manning plan (NMP) or billets authorized (BA). Critical NEC: COB/POB manning for the NEC does not meet approved DRRS-N requirements Readiness: In the opinion of the commanding officer, the personnel shortage has a significant effect on unit readiness. Long Range Training and Relief Plan - CORRECT ANSWER Command informs placement officers of officer manning status and requirements through formal message called LORTARP Manages the ship's Officer Rotation Cycle Typically managed by the XO; sent to PERS-41 Placement Officer Can be a message, Excel spreadsheet, Word document (e-mail generally preferred) service record - CORRECT ANSWER is a file record of a service member which contains documents that reflect on Character Performance Professional Qualifications Fitness All records are maintained electronically - CORRECT ANSWER NAVPERSCOM (BUPERS Online) NSIPS DIVO Notebook - CORRECT ANSWER The SORM establishes the requirement of a Division Officer to create and maintain a notebook consisting of: Personnel & Responsibilities Training & Qualifications DIVO Personnel Record Form The purpose of the notebook is for the orientation/relief of an officer and ready reference for the DIVO CONTENTS There is no overarching instruction dictating what must be included in a DIVO Notebook. The items contained in the notebook are a combination of what ship's/local command instruction require Additional documents are at the discretion of the DIVO Additional documents that may be required/included Awards Evals Counseling (positive and/or negative) Extra Military Instruction (EMI) Leave/Request Chits Watch, Quarter & Station Bill Watch Team Replacement Plan Different components of the service record Enlisted - CORRECT ANSWER Enlistment Contract Administrative remarks Performance evaluations Training and Education Qualifications Awards Adverse Information - CORRECT ANSWER Any adverse information shall not be entered into a record without first offering the member an opportunity to review and/or submit a statement Exceptions Non-judicial Punishment Court-martial conviction Unauthorized absence Officer - CORRECT ANSWER Consists of 21 individual categories Appointments and Promotions Fitness reports Training and Education Awards Official Orders Official Photo All officers are required within 3 months of each promotion Service Khakis Title board with member's information How to maintain electronic record (e.g. NSIPS) - CORRECT ANSWER Leaders must instill a sense of responsibility in the Sailor for the correctness, management, and updating of his/her own service record. If you find an error in your OMPF, you should request a correction to your service record. Several documents are required for both Enlisted and Officer promotions Incorrect, missing, or outdated documents may result in unfavorable review of the member Types Official Military Personnel File - CORRECT ANSWER Stored in the Electronic Military Personnel Record System Accessed online Consists of permanent documents including: Accession Training and Education Performance and Discipline Decoration and Awards Assignments Reflects documents that have been received, reviewed, and accepted as official Professional Data Online - CORRECT ANSWER Performance Summary Record: Summarizes professional performance history and personal decorations information Officer (Enlisted) Summary Record Performance Summary Report Record of all previous service member's FITREP/EVALs Duty station Reporting Senior's Name Traits Promotion status Dates of report Should be continuous Officer Data Card - CORRECT ANSWER Specific, detailed information regarding an Officer's service history Personal information Designator and Promotion History Billet/Duty Station History Naval Officer Billet Code (NOBC) Service and Civilian Education Advanced Qualification Designations Electronic Training Jacket View of career information Training Education Qualifications Certifications Concurrent Reports - CORRECT ANSWER For members fulfilling additional duty or temporary duty Not directly observed by the regular reporting senior NOB - CORRECT ANSWER Fulfill reporting requirements during period of brief service when a detailed assessment cannot be provided not greater than 90 days Letter of Extension - CORRECT ANSWER Submitted to extend the period of observation of the individual up to 90 days. Detachment of Individual, Reporting Senior, Periodic, Frocking Statutory Boards - CORRECT ANSWER Statutory boards include promotion (including special and spot promotion), selective early retirement (SERB), and the various continuation boards. Review of records, preparation of brief sheets by principle reviewer Formal record review by the briefer assigned to review and brief your record That reviewer briefs the board All members vote Electronic (Service Record) The electronic service record (CD) contains a member's EVALs/FITREPs, picture, personal awards, and other matters of official record. Officer Summary Record (OSR) & Performance Summary Record (PSR) The OSR and PSR include a career resume containing a summary of the information in the member's service record. Correspondence Statutory boards can consider any correspondence submitted to the boards about their records. Administrative Boards - CORRECT ANSWER Administrative boards work in the same manner as statutory boards, except for those boards requiring an application package, which are reviewed by board members. These include the limited duty officer/chief warrant officer (LDO/CWO), and Lateral Transfer/Redesignation. Screen Boards - CORRECT ANSWER Occur at certain milestones in a Sailor's career Usually don't require the Sailor to initiate, but some may require an application to be considered Promotion board Augmentation board Department head school selection board Post-graduate school selection board Sub-specialty selection board Administrative Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Primary purpose is to determine and to ensure the security, military fitness, or good order and discipline of the unit and crew Ensure the command is properly equipped, maintaining proper standards of readiness, sanitation and cleanliness, or personnel are present/fit for duty Health and Welfare Gives permission to go through people's personals for the purpose of health and wellness Messing and Berthing MAC and XO Quarters Good to see how your sailors are doing May be conducted daily, or as directed by instruction Zone Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Ship's Force ensure proper measures are taken to keep machinery, spaces, and equipment operational and in a satisfactory state of preservation Requires involvement of the entire CoC Minimum: every space once per quarter DIVO responsibilities Ensure PMS Space Inspection check has been completed and is within periodicity Correct noted deficiencies from pre-inspection Write jobs as needed Conduct pre-inspection and document all noted discrepancies Ensure cleanliness of space PRIOR to inspection Ensure everything is unlocked Assign personnel to present spaces for inspection Review previous reports and ensure discrepancies have been corrected Correct noted deficiencies Safety Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) Program Addresses the maintenance of safe and healthy conditions in the workplace Industrial Hygiene Survey ensures shipboard compliance in the following programs: Electrical Safety - Sight conservation Hazmat -Hearing conversation Confined Spaces -Lockout/Tagout Trip/Fall Protection -Radiation Respiratory 3M Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER •Ensure the 3M program is properly managed and maintenance is properly scheduled/accomplished •Two phases -3M Program Assessment -PMS Assessment •Conducted by ATG •A mid-cycle assessment -11-18 months from last assessment Operating Target (OPTAR) - CORRECT ANSWER Operating Target (OPTAR): an estimate of the amount of money required by a ship to perform their assigned tasks/functions Maintenance/Repair - Equipment maintenance related material (EMRM) Other - used to purchase consumables Money comes from the Navy Temporary Additional Duty (TAD) Travel Target (TADTAR - CORRECT ANSWER money allocated to support TAD expenses (schools, emergency leave, travel) Anytime your ship has to put somebody on a plane for a school or travel - money comes out of this budget Grants - CORRECT ANSWER Allocation of funds from TYCOM To perform day-to-day maintenance and administrative activities Money comes from TYCOM Augment: - CORRECT ANSWER additional allowance, usually an increase in OPTAR funds Ran out of shit - use augments to get those needs End of Fiscal Year (EOFY) - CORRECT ANSWER Any remaining OPTAR funding that was not spent during the fiscal year Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL) - CORRECT ANSWER Lists the items required to achieve maximum, self-supporting capability for an extended period of time Verified equipment/components to be installed on ships in order to perform its operational mission Repair parts/tools required for operation, overhaul, and repair of the equipment/components Consumables necessary for safety, care and upkeep of the ship Provides guidance on specific items to be carried (range) Provides guidance on quantity of those items to be carried (depth) Allowance Parts List (APL) - CORRECT ANSWER list technical characteristics of a single piece of installed equipment or machinery, and its supply information Significant maintenance repair parts that are expected to fail during normal operation (predicted or actual) EXAMPLE: Valve, Fire Pump, or Gun Allowance Equipage List (AEL) - CORRECT ANSWER Range of items or materials to support system or capability and it's supply information items required onboard for operation include repair parts required for maintenance EXAMPLE: VBSS, Force Protection or Flight Deck Equipment list all the equipment parts for a mission area APLS and AELs are documented in the COSAL Material Obligation Validation MOV - CORRECT ANSWER "Invalid requisitions and MOV processing are ongoing problems that require close attention at all management levels" - 4400.1 Used to verify unfilled quantities of parts requests in order to improve supply chain requests, and ensure sound financial management practices MOVs are conducted: Internal - monthly External - quarterly Validates outstanding requisitions in order to take appropriate actions prior to the quarterly scheduled MOV cycle. General administration (GENADMIN) - CORRECT ANSWER Administrative information OPREP-5 - CORRECT ANSWER Submitted daily underway to update equipment status, number of personnel onboard, fuel and food amounts, and significant events Movement Report (MOVREP) - CORRECT ANSWER Sent before leaving a port or an operating area Logistics Requisition (LOGREQ) - CORRECT ANSWER Prior to entering port, ships submit a request for support needed upon arrival (i.e., predicted arrival time, fuel, food and water requirements) Unlock the funding Operational Reports (OPREP-3) - CORRECT ANSWER Special incident reporting (PINNACLE, NAVY BLUE, SITREP) Sitrep - CORRECT ANSWER (unit level) Navy Blue - CORRECT ANSWER (national media interest; ran into whale) Pinnacle - CORRECT ANSWER (national interest - president; active shooter on-base ) Casualty Report (CASREP) - CORRECT ANSWER Provides an accurate, near-real-time means of reporting a diminished combat readiness posture due to a significant equipment malfunction User - CORRECT ANSWER Anyone authorized to draft, release, or process electronically transmitted messages Originator - CORRECT ANSWER The authority whose name is associated with the sent message Releaser - CORRECT ANSWER The individual authorized to release message for command Ensure drafters know the content requirements of messages Drafter - CORRECT ANSWER Individual who composes the message Must include correct addressee(s), classification, priority and content Precedent codes - CORRECT ANSWER Routine "R" 6 hours Priority "P" 3 hours Immediate "O" 30 min Flash "Z" <10 min Explain the steps leading to captain's mast - CORRECT ANSWER Investigation (by Command Master at Arms, Preliminary Inquiry, or Command Investigation) Referral of charges Disciplinary Review Board (DRB) •Established to provide a means of maintaining good order and discipline, correcting minor disciplinary infractions, promoting positive behavior, and ensuring correct military bearing for enlisted members of the command. Comprised of E7-E9 assigned by the command master chief Board does not have authority to award punishment, but serves as a fact-finding and advisory body by investigating the alleged violations as presented by the assigned IO. It does have the authority to recommend dismissal, extra military instruction (EMI), or a referral to Captain's Mast. Executive Officer Inquiry (XOI) XO may screen a case by either holding a formal hearing or reviewing the record and the report chit of the accused. At the XO's screening, the accused is again advised of the right to refuse NJP and demand a trial by court-martial (with the exception of sailors attached to sea commands). Once the XO has conducted an inquiry, he or she can either refer the case to a Captain's Mast or dismiss the case. Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP) - CORRECT ANSWER Any CO may impose disciplinary punishment for minor offenses without a court-martial Any person within their command Subject to specific limitations based on the rank/paygrade and the scope/duration of the punishment Any person may request trial by court-martial, EXCEPT those who are attached or embarked on a vessel At CO's mast, the accused may have character witnesses present. The division officer (DIVO), leading chief petty officer (LCPO), and leading petty officer (LPO) of the accused will be asked to comment on the performance of the accused. The CO will issue findings of whether the member is guilty or not guilty and award a punishment. Each step is a filter to ensure the infraction and the details surrounding the infraction warrant Captain's Mast. Summary Court-Martial (ENLISTED ONLY) - CORRECT ANSWER Promptly adjudicate minor offences under a simple disciplinary proceeding Special Court-Martial (ENLISDTED AND OFFICER) - CORRECT ANSWER Composed of a military judge and four members May try any person subject to the UCMJ for noncapital offenses and some capital offenses General Court-Martial - CORRECT ANSWER May try any person subject to the UCMJ for any offense Surface Force Training and Readiness Manual (SFTRM) - CORRECT ANSWER Discretionary - CORRECT ANSWER Voluntarily made payments limited to 6 Deposits to a financial institution, dependent or relatives Payment of insurance, mortgage or child support Deposits into the Savings Deposit Program Non-Discretionary - CORRECT ANSWER Involuntary payments OR payments that the member cannot adjust the amount Repayment of loans or other indebtedness Charitable contribute Deductions - CORRECT ANSWER Government sponsored retirement savings and investment plan Differences in rules governing based on Blended Retirement System. Member may make contributions to a Traditional or Roth TSP Traditional is taken out before taxes; Roth is money taken after Initial contributions from assigned percentage of Basic Pay Can also contribute 1-100% of any incentive pay, special pay, or bonus pay Total contributions must not exceed Internal Revenue Code contribution limit Entitlements - CORRECT ANSWER Basic Allowance for Housing Offsets the cost of housing when not in government-provided housing Depends upon duty station location, pay grade and whether you have dependents BAH Calculator BAH entitlements for single E-6 and junior dependent upon CO and BQ availability Other Entitlements Family Separation Allowance Receive when away from dependents >30 days $250 per month Cash Clothing Replacement Allowance For Enlisted only Annual for replacement of uniforms based on normal wear and tear Imminent Danger For service members in designated areas (not to exceed $225 per month) Daily, prorated basis (only get paid for the days you are eligible) Incentive Pay Dependent upon the location, job, expertise, and eligibility Designed to encourage members to seek particular duties and/or assignments Overseas Allowances Overseas Housing Allowance Cost of Living Allowance Offset housing expenses at overseas duty locations in privately leased housing When government-leased or on-base housing is not available Maximum Rental Allowance - covers the rent up to a max amount Utility/Recurring maintenance Allowance set amount to cover utilities Overseas Cost of Living Allowance (COLA) Offsets the higher overseas prices of non-housing goods and services Rate is based Location, currency exchange rate, unique expenditures if dependents reside in the same duty station Roth - CORRECT ANSWER Money taken after taxes Money taken after taxes - CORRECT ANSWER money is taken out before taxes 100 Level (Fundamentals) - CORRECT ANSWER fundamental knowledge from technical manuals, instructions, and procedures necessary to understand the basic principles related to that particular subject 200 Level (Systems) - CORRECT ANSWER designed to familiarize the sailor with the systems that will be required to operate at the watch/workstation 300 Level (Watchstanding) - CORRECT ANSWER lists the tasks that are required to satisfactorily perform in order to achieve the final PQS qualification for a particular watch/workstation Prerequisites - CORRECT ANSWER Requirements to be completed prior to final qualification school other qualifications 100 and/or level items some prerequisites may need to be completed before starting work on a qualification standard Task - CORRECT ANSWER Routine tasks or conditions that are to be performed by the individual Infrequent Tasks - CORRECT ANSWER Tasks or conditions that are not completed during a typical Abnormal Conditions and Emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER Abnormal Conditions Recognition of trouble symptoms or situations which will required special attention Emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER event (or series of events) that will cause damage to equipment or personnel Watches and Exams - CORRECT ANSWER Watches typically must observe or be supervised in standing of the final watch station Be watched as you complete the task adequately DIVO role and responsibilities for the PQS - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise divisional PQS program and provide guidance PQS completion WTRP (watch team replacement plan) Records Training Ensure adequate, PQS related training within the division Make sure PQS Is relevant to your division Support mission readiness by ensuring watch standing qualification and proficiency [Show Less]
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DIVO Fundamentals Exam 208 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Fundamentals Exam 208 Questions with Verified Answers what is the SORM - CORRECT ANSWER -outlines standard Navy organization department head res... [Show More] ponsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER -represents the CO in all matters pertaining to that department -assigns personnel to station and duties within the department -coordinates the department safety program with the units safety officer -organize and train dept for battle readiness (PQS/damage control) DIVO responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER -lead a division -maintain a DIVO notebook -schedule and conduct training or division personnel -supervise the performance of the work within the division carrying out the shipboard maintenance and material management LPO responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER -designated by the division officer and assists the division officer in administering, supervising and training division personnel -assigns division personnel to daily tasks -oversees the accomplishments of division priorities -submission of requisitions required to maintain allowances and perform preventative and corrective maintenance Work Center Supervisor Responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER -responsible to the DH, via the DIVO, for 3M system operation within the work center -prepares PMS Administrative CoC - CORRECT ANSWER operational CoC - CORRECT ANSWER geographic combatant commands - CORRECT ANSWER NORTHCOM -AOR: US, Alaska, Puerto Rico, Canada, Mexico SOUTHCOM -Central and South America, Caribbean EUCOM -Europe, Russia, Greenland AFRICOM -All of Africa except egypt CENTCOM -middle east, central asia, egypt, israel INDOPACOM -indo-asia-pacific-region SPACECOM -altitude greater than 62 miles Functional Combatant Commands - CORRECT ANSWER -SOCOM -STRATCOM -TRANSCOM -CYBERCOM numbered fleets - CORRECT ANSWER 2nd (Western half of Atlantic) 3rd (Eastern half of Pacific), 4th (Caribbean) 5th (Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman) 6th (Eastern half of Atlantic) 7th (Western half of the Pacific and Indian Ocean), 10th (Cyber Warfare) what is classified information - CORRECT ANSWER classified material in any manner, document, product, or substance on or in which classified information is recorded or embodied *APPLIES TO ALL PERSONNEL Elements of cyber security - CORRECT ANSWER Physical security - Physical measures taken to safeguard COMSEC material. INFOSEC - System of policies, procedures, and requirements established to protect information that could cause damage to the national security of the US. COMSEC - Protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunication. clearance - CORRECT ANSWER eligibility to access classified material based on the information classification level and valid need to know information security - CORRECT ANSWER Top Secret -exceptionally grave damage Secret -serious damage confidential -damage controlled unclassified info(CUI) - PII marking - CORRECT ANSWER -portion marking: place appropriate abbreviation marking (TS/S/C) physical security measures - CORRECT ANSWER At a minimum, any classified material shall be physically stored with the following considerations: -In a General Services Administration (GSA) approved safe/vault -Storage areas with high security padlocks, or GSA-approved combination locks physical security for secret - CORRECT ANSWER material shall either be in a location that is under continuous protection/guard, -inspected every 4 hours, -intrusion detection system with a response of under 15 minutes from an alarm. physical security for top secret material - CORRECT ANSWER -material shall either be in a location that is under continuous protection/guard, inspected every 2 hours, have an intrusion detection system with a response of under 15 minutes from an alarm, OR an installed electromechanical cypher combination lock. operations security - CORRECT ANSWER the purpose of OPSEC is to protect sensitive but unclassified information about a mission, operation, or activity *loose lips sink ships river city - CORRECT ANSWER provides procedures to continuously control communication paths to/from ship/shore systems for the purpose of OPSEC and Force Protection EKMS - CORRECT ANSWER electronic key management -designed to automate the management of electronic key and other types of COMSEC material EKMS manager - CORRECT ANSWER -responsible for all actions associated with the receipt, handling, issue, safeguarding, accounting, and disposition of COMSEC material assigned to an EKMS account unintentional threats - CORRECT ANSWER -ignorance of users -bad habits -forgetting to update network security patches intentional threat - CORRECT ANSWER -hacker -insider threat -terrorist -cyber criminals -social engineering cyber incidents - CORRECT ANSWER Cross domain violation -connecting a computer to a network that is of a different classification cyber event -attempt to conduct malicious cyber attack at a command cyber incident - series of coordinated events designed to maliciously attack a command or the DoD OOD responsibilities for security hygiene - CORRECT ANSWER physical security -enforce access lists -monitor for unauthorized removal of classified material -monitor for individuals bringing in unauthorized devices information security -do not put classified information on the quaterdeck -do not allow FOUO information to leave ship without auth shipboard training organization - CORRECT ANSWER who is required to attend PB4T - CORRECT ANSWER long range training plan (LRTP) - CORRECT ANSWER used to identify milestones that play a significant role in the training and development of the crew -annual employment schedule (12 months outs) short range training plan (SRTP) - CORRECT ANSWER -mechanism for detailed planning and scheduling of training -quarterly -monthly -weekly training records - CORRECT ANSWER -maintained by DIVO(notebook) and R-ADM -must be recorded CANTRAC - CORRECT ANSWER -catalogue of navy training courses -web database of all available schools in the navy on the job training (OJT) - CORRECT ANSWER personalized means of developing skills from those that have mastered those skills indoctrination (INDOC) - CORRECT ANSWER -programs for newly reporting personnel -clearly state command policy and inform the individual that he or she is apart of the command striker - CORRECT ANSWER rate entry training - Undesignated Seaman (SN) through self-study and OJT will choose a rate to strike. Once chosen, individuals can request time to experience training outside their division or department. -Must pass their rating exam in order to become a rated Sailor team training - CORRECT ANSWER -accomplished through drills or griefs both in port and at sea -led by specific training teams OFREP - CORRECT ANSWER optimized fleet response plan personnel qualification standard (PQS) - CORRECT ANSWER a compilation of the minimum knowledge and skills that an individual must demonstrate to qualify to stand watch or perform other specific duties PQS levels - CORRECT ANSWER -100 level (fundamentals) -200 level (system) -300 level (watch stations) TORIS-TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER training and operational readiness information service(TORIS) training figure of merit(TFOM) used to track unit level training TORIS_TFOM and the DIVO - CORRECT ANSWER -check FOM and RE periodicities training not documented=training not held ORM - CORRECT ANSWER a process that assists commands and individuals in making informed risk decisions in order to increase the probability of mission success hazard - CORRECT ANSWER a condition with the potential to cause death, personal injury, property damage or mission degradation risk - CORRECT ANSWER the chance of an adverse outcome expressed in terms of severity and probability principles of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER -accepts risk when benefits outweigh the costs -accept no unnecessary risk -anticipated and manage risk by planning (PBED) -make risk decisions at the right level ORM 5 step process - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify hazards 2. Assess hazards -severity and probability 3. Make risk decisions 4. Implement controls -administrative/physical 5. Supervise severity categories - CORRECT ANSWER CATEGORY I - The hazard may cause death, loss of facility/asset or result in grave damage to national interests CATEGORY II - The hazard may cause severe injury, illness, property damage, damage to national or service interests or degradation to efficient use of assets CATEGORY III - The hazard may cause minor injury, illness, property damage, damage to national, service or command interests or degradation to efficient use of assets CATEGORY IV - The hazard presents a minimal threat to personnel safety or health, property, national, service or command interests or efficient use of assets probability categories - CORRECT ANSWER CATEGORY A - Likely to occur immediately. Expected to occur frequently to an individual item or person or continuously to a fleet, inventory, or group. CATEGORY B - Probably will occur in time. Expected to occur several times. CATEGORY C - May occur. Can reasonably be expected to occur some time. CATEGORY D - Unlikely to occur. levels or ORM - CORRECT ANSWER -in depth(lots of time) -deliberate(ample time) -time critical(little time) IRM - CORRECT ANSWER individual risk management RAC - CORRECT ANSWER Risk Assessment Code. Matrix used to determine the level of the risk after determining the risks' Severity and Probability. 1-critical 2-serious 3 moderate 4minor 5 negligible CMEO - CORRECT ANSWER command managed equal opportunity -provide an environment free from personal, social, or institutional barriers CMEO informal report - CORRECT ANSWER a service member who desires to resolve a harassment or unlawful discrimination report informally, must notify a member in a position of authority in the CoC of their report orally or in writing the report must be resolved within 14 days utilizing the CoC CMEO reporting - CORRECT ANSWER UCMJ138 inspector general fraternization - CORRECT ANSWER unduly familiar personal relationships between enlisted/officer, student/instructor, chief/junior enlisted same command personal relationship that does not respect the bounds of acceptable senior subordinate-relationship SAPR - CORRECT ANSWER sexual assault prevention and response facilitate a culture free of sexual assault, through an environment of prevention, education and training and appropriate accountability restricted reporting - CORRECT ANSWER -allows assault survivors to confidentially disclose the incident to specific individuals, receive care/treatment, WITHOUT initiating an investigation report to: SAPR VA, SARC, qualified healthcare professional, chaplain, victims legal counsel SAPR unrestricted reporting - CORRECT ANSWER allows assault survivors to disclose the incident to the command, receive care/treatment, initiate an investigation reported to anyone other than list above Navy Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Control - CORRECT ANSWER provide comprehensive alcohol and other drug abuse prevention and control policies DAPA - CORRECT ANSWER drug and alcohol program advisor commands primary advisor for alcohol and drug matters and reports directly to the CO or XO DAAR - CORRECT ANSWER drug and alcohol abuse reports submitted within 30 days of referral drugAAR are filed in service members permanent service record family advocacy program - CORRECT ANSWER Program provided by the FFSP (counseling and advocacy) Established to provide consistent, standardized response to incidents of domestic or child abuse within the Navy primary goals of FAP - CORRECT ANSWER -prevention -rehab -consistent/appropriate response -victim safety/support -command accountability command fitness leader responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER -conduct PFA -ensure certification and competency of command members to conduct the PFA -oversee FEP ombudsman - CORRECT ANSWER - Navy-wide program established to help ensure that families have the information necessary to meet the challenges of a military lifestyle. Advisor who helps COs have a better understanding of the welfare of the command's families. fleet family support program - CORRECT ANSWER ensure that sailors and families consistently receive quality services across all fleet and family support centers 4 functional areas 1/work and family life 2/counseling, advocacy and prevention 3/SAPR 4/navy gold star program exceptional family member program - CORRECT ANSWER EFMP is a mandatory program designed to identify family members with long-term health care or special education needs. •EFMP assists Navy families with special needs to include: Developmental Requirements Special Education Requirements Accessibility/Adaptive Equipment Specific Mental Health Conditions family care planning - CORRECT ANSWER Due to the nature of our work, service members cannot always be present to care for dependents Ensure proper care for minor children or adult dependents during any time the member is unavailable •Especially important for single, separated, divorced or dual military members with minor children parenthood - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Parental Leave Program Primary Caregiver Leave6 weeks Secondary Caregiver Leave 2 weeks Maternity Convalescent Leave6 weeks (for the birth parent navy marine corps relief society - CORRECT ANSWER The mission of the Navy-Marine Corps Relief Society is to provide, in partnership with the Navy and Marine Corps, financial, educational, and other assistance to members of the Naval Services of the United States, eligible family members, and survivors when in need; and to receive and manage funds to administer these programs. military one source - CORRECT ANSWER A confidential DoD-funded program providing comprehensive information on every aspect of military life at no cost to active duty and their families. manpower document relationships - CORRECT ANSWER ROC - CORRECT ANSWER Required Operational Capability Used to specify desired level of achievement of readiness for a particular level of readiness POE - CORRECT ANSWER Projected Operational Environment Description of the environment which the ship is expected to operate, including the military climate ROC and POE - CORRECT ANSWER Description of how the ship will operate at sea, and in which environments -Basis for how the manpower system determines the number and skill level of the Navy personnel embarked -Individual ship ROC/POEs measured against ROC/POE ship class instruction criteria -Serves as inputs for manpower authorization documents authorized documents - CORRECT ANSWER - ships manpower document (SMD) -activity manpower document (AMD) SMD - CORRECT ANSWER Quantitative and qualitative manpower wartime requirements for an individual ship or class of ships •Requirements based on ROC/POE, ship configuration, specific operating profile, and computed workload •Commonly called M+1 (manpower requirements needed a month after mobilization date) AMD - CORRECT ANSWER Manpower requirement supported by approved funding & end strength (Billets Authorized) •Formally called the OPNAV 1000/2 billet based distribution - CORRECT ANSWER provides accurate and timely manning information to Fleet personnel managers via the web right people on the right ship at the right time EMIR - CORRECT ANSWER enlisted manning inquiry report notifies PERS-4013 of a units concern of enlisted personnel shortages. meet the following criteria: MANNING, CRITICAL NEC,READINESS LORTARP - CORRECT ANSWER Long Range Training and Relief Plan Command informs placement officers of officer manning status and requirements through formal message called LORTARP -Manages the ship's Officer Rotation Cycle in port watch organization - CORRECT ANSWER CDO responsibility in port - CORRECT ANSWER -carry out routine of the unit in port -advise/direct OOD in general duties and safety of the unit -receive 8 o'clock report ATTWO in port - CORRECT ANSWER Tactically employs assets to defend the unit against terrorist attack when in port - Coordinates waterborne and shoreside ATFP security efforts Engineering duty officer in port - CORRECT ANSWER Same duties as the EOOW underway, in addition to managing the duty section - Must be ready at all times to place the propulsion plant into operation in the event of emergency POOW in port - CORRECT ANSWER Assist the OOD in supervising the watch team - Maintains the deck log and supervises the use of the 1MC - Can serve as a second pair of eyes on the quarterdeck and double-check the ship's routine MOOW - CORRECT ANSWER Messenger of the Watch performs various routine duties tasked by the OOD/POOW. Primary contact when visitors request access to the ship. sounding and security watch - CORRECT ANSWER Assigned for additional physical security, alert for evidence of sabotage, theft, and hazards. Reports to OOD hourly. duty master at arms - CORRECT ANSWER responsible for conducting periodic musters of restricted crew, supervising emi, and routine berthing inspections duties of the OOD - CORRECT ANSWER They are primarily responsible for the safety, security, and proper operation of the unit • Carry out the ship's routine ensuring the CO, XO, DHs are informed of circumstances that require changes to that routine -safety of the ship -reports and logs -mooring lines and ground tackle -1MC standard comms equipment - CORRECT ANSWER -1MC -Ship's Service Telephone -Handheld Radios -Quarterdeck Alarms -Sound-powered phones Shipboard Logs In Port - CORRECT ANSWER maintain log books that record the events of the day or help maintain situational awareness over the ship -contains chronological record of events that occured during the watch required entries in log book - CORRECT ANSWER THERE ARE 19 REQUIRED OPERATIONAL/NAVIGATIONAL ENTRIES -accidents -actions -propulsion plant THERE ARE 10 REQUIRED PERSONNEL ENTRIES -arrival/departure of the CO -honors, ceremonies, and visits -unexplained or unauthorized absences third substitution pennant - CORRECT ANSWER -absence of the CO -absence of the XO if the CO is on leave Senior Officer Present Afloat (SOPA) - CORRECT ANSWER -officer in charge of the other ships in port -usually ship whose CO is most senior -responsible for all matters which affect the commands collectively -all cues taken from SOPA including colors, pier sentry, scheduling and pier cleanliness -ensure uniformity and coordinated efforts SOFA - CORRECT ANSWER peacetime documents and therefore do not address the rules of war, the Laws of Armed Conflict, or the Laws of the Sea. • shipboard emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER general quarters chemical attacks collision main role of the OOD in port - CORRECT ANSWER recognize and control emergency situations by: -notify cew(1MC) -notify CDO -make appropriate log entries -coordinated off ship support loss of firemain - CORRECT ANSWER Loss of firefighting capability - Loss of dewatering ability - Loss of cooling water for engineering and combat systems equipment - Sonar dome pressurization • Pass the word, "the smoking lamp is out throughout the ship" • Suspend all hot work, ordnance handling, and fuel transfers types of in port personnel emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER -man overboard -medical emergency in port man overboard - CORRECT ANSWER Pass the word - Immediately cease active sonar, rotating screws, cycling rudders, or any active pumping operations - Assemble all duty personnel to the rails, and toss life rings as necessary - Display the OSCAR flag in order to notify nearby boats and ships • Send runner to nearby ships to notify (especially if those ships are active on sonar or turning screws) force protection - CORRECT ANSWER The Navy's force protection program is designed to reduce vulnerability of DON military and civilian personnel, facilities, and ships. - The OOD has many responsibilities and actions in response to shipboard security threats - The ship's crew must be prepared to take action to counter threats security threat - CORRECT ANSWER As OOD, you are a key watchstander and coordinator in the event of a security threat - Must be familiar with security forces and the assistance they provide to you and your watch team levels of force protection conditions - CORRECT ANSWER shipboard security threats - CORRECT ANSWER levels or use of force continuum - CORRECT ANSWER what needs to be met before deadly force - CORRECT ANSWER CAPABILITY: the ability or means to inflict death or serious bodily harm OPPORTUNITY when a weapon or explosive device is in effective range to cause death or serious bodily harm INTENT demonstrated through aggressive actions or lack of compliance; the desire or willingness to cause death , serious bodily harm in port security forces - CORRECT ANSWER security reaction force (SRF) -ensures the security of predetermined spaces and remains on station until directed by the ATTWO Back up reaction force (BRF) -search and secure the ship, based on the threat and as directed by the ATTWO Reserve Force (RF) -team leader will decide on deployment of the RF based on the threat and required ship response union jack - CORRECT ANSWER symbolizes the cumulative strength of our nation and of our navy where the whole is greater than the sum of its parts flown from the foc'sle COLORS - CORRECT ANSWER half masting - CORRECT ANSWER raise all the way to the top then brought the half mast how to ring on CO - CORRECT ANSWER ding ding ding ding (shipname) arriving/departing/returning stinger passing honors - CORRECT ANSWER dipping the ensign - CORRECT ANSWER sign of respect for ships; U.S. Navy ships never initiate, only respond dress ship - CORRECT ANSWER Largest Ensign on the flagstaff, Regular ensign from each masthead, Largest union on the jack staff sideboys - CORRECT ANSWER The number of sideboys is equivalent to the number of bells rung embarking the ship - CORRECT ANSWER Prior to stepping on the ship salute the flag and Salute the OOD and request permission to board the ship Elements of an Enlisted Service Record - CORRECT ANSWER Consists of 18 categories, such as: - Enlistment Contract - Administrative remarks - Performance evaluations - Training and Education - Qualifications - Awards elements of officer service record - CORRECT ANSWER consists of 18 indiv categories -enlistment contract -administrative remarks -performance evaluations -training and education -qualification -awards methods to maintain a service record - CORRECT ANSWER consists of 21 indiv categories -appointments and promotions -fitness reports -training and education -awards -official orders Purpose of DIVO Notebook - CORRECT ANSWER -required by SORM -personnel and responsibilities -training and qualification -DIVO personnel record form the purpose of the notebook is for the orientation/relief of an officer and ready reference for the DIVO officer data card - CORRECT ANSWER -specific, detailed information regarding an officers service history -personal information -designator and promotion history -billet/duty station history officer summary record - CORRECT ANSWER -summarizes major information found in the ODC -personal information -designator and promotion history -current billet/duty station -education -NOBC and AQD performance summary report - CORRECT ANSWER record all previous service members FITREP/EVALS -should be continuous NSIPS - CORRECT ANSWER Navy Standard Integrated Personnel System the navys primary point of entry for pay and personnel transitions striker - CORRECT ANSWER sailor in an apprenticeship pay grade training toward a particular rating general requirements for advancement - CORRECT ANSWER Be recommended by the commanding officer (CO) • Have the required Time in Rate (TIR) - Not exceed High Year Tenure • Complete Navy training and required schools (dependent on rate) • Citizenship or security clearance requirements • Meet Physical Readiness Test (PRT) requirements • Pass Navy-Wide Advancement Exam (NWAE) • Meet minimum performance criteria - Equation for Final Multiple Score (FMS) Final Multiple Score (FMS) - CORRECT ANSWER Advancement Ineligibility - CORRECT ANSWER - POW/MIA, UA, retired -fraudulent advance. -in confinement -revokes or incorrect security clearance -failed PRT -failed the Exam Meritorious Advancement Program (MAP) - CORRECT ANSWER frocking - CORRECT ANSWER administrative authorization to assume the title and wear the uniform of the next higher pay grade education opportunities - CORRECT ANSWER -navy college -defense activity for non traditional education support -tuition assistance -post 9/11 GI bill -USMAP commissioning programs - CORRECT ANSWER - USNA - NROTC - STA-21 - OCS - LDO/CWO - MECP When are FITREPS due? - CORRECT ANSWER -FITREP ending dates are the last day og the month -EVAL ending dates are the 15th of the month -midterm counseling die 6 months after completion dates of FITREP/EVAL Occasion for Report - CORRECT ANSWER -periodic (annual continuity) -detachment -promotion -special concurrent reports - CORRECT ANSWER for members fulfilling additional duty or temporary duty -not directly observed by the regular reporting senior NOB - CORRECT ANSWER Fulfill reporting requirements during period of brief service when a detailed assessment cannot be provided - not greater than 90 days letter of extension - CORRECT ANSWER Submitted to extend the period of observation of the individual up to 90 days. - Detachment of Individual, Reporting Senior, Periodic, Frocking selection boards - CORRECT ANSWER -statutory boards -administrative boards -screen boards statutory board - CORRECT ANSWER • Statutory boards include promotion (including special and spot promotion), selective early retirement (SERB), and the various continuation boards. administrative boards - CORRECT ANSWER • Administrative boards make selections which were once made by committees within Naval Personnel Command (NPC) or by Placement • Example: Graduate Education Voucher (GEV), Active Duty Redesignation Board screen boards - CORRECT ANSWER • Occur at certain milestones in a Sailor's career • Usually don't require the Sailor to initiate, but some may require an application to be considered informal inspection - CORRECT ANSWER -quarters -uniform inspection -equipment inspections formal inspection - CORRECT ANSWER -graded -assess shipboard readiness seabag inspection - CORRECT ANSWER The Navy Uniform Seabag inspection shall be conducted at regular intervals for E3 and junior to ensure that each sailor has a full and complete military seabag safety inspections - CORRECT ANSWER NAVOSH program -addresses the maintenance of safe and healthy conditions in the workplace -electrical safety -hazmat -confined spaces sight/hearing conservation administrative inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Primary purpose is to determine and to ensure the security, military fitness, or good order and discipline of the unit and crew Ensure the command is properly equipped, maintaining proper standards of readiness, sanitation and cleanliness, or personnel are present/fit for duty - Health and Welfare - Messing and Berthing - Quarters Zone Inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Ship's Force ensure proper measures are taken to keep machinery, spaces, and equipment operational and in a satisfactory state of preservation • Requires involvement of the entire CoC • Minimum: every space once per quarter DIVO responsibilities in zone inspections - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure PMS Space Inspection check has been completed and is within periodicity - Correct noted deficiencies from pre-inspection • Write jobs as needed - Conduct pre-inspection and document all noted discrepancies - Ensure cleanliness of space PRIOR to inspection - Ensure everything is unlocked - Assign personnel to present spaces for inspection - Review previous reports and ensure discrepancies have been corrected - Correct noted deficiencies • Write jobs for as needed 3M assessment - CORRECT ANSWER -ensure the 3M program properly managed and maintained is properly scheduled/accomplished 2 phases: -3M program assessment -PMS assessment (prevention) a mid cycle assessment (11-18 months from last assessment ) INSURV (inspection and survey) - CORRECT ANSWER Provide assurance regarding a unit's fitness for service, identify limits to mission capability, and report material deficiencies. • Conducted at least every 5 years - SFTRM requires once in a ship's lifecycle Afloat Training Group (ATG) - CORRECT ANSWER RPPO - CORRECT ANSWER Repair Parts Petty Officer is a non-supply liaison between supply and their division FEDLOG - CORRECT ANSWER FEDERALLOGISTICS DATA interactive query system using the following criteria -part number -national item identification number (NIIN) -national stock number (NSN) -master repairable item list (MRIL) (basic management data necessary for preparing requisitions) DLR - CORRECT ANSWER Depot Level Repairable program primary objective is to improve availability of parts and improve fleet readiness turn in replacement items(exchange) MAM - CORRECT ANSWER maintenance assist module replaceable assemblies required to execute an approved maintenance plan, identifying by swapping known good assemblies for potentially bad ones If required to REMAIN-IN-PLACE to keep a critical system in operation, requires CO's permission. MOV - CORRECT ANSWER Material Obligation Validation Used to verify unfilled quantities of parts requests in order to improve supply chain requests, and ensure sound financial management practices MOVs are conducted: - Internal - monthly - External - quarterly APL - CORRECT ANSWER allowance parts lists Lists technical characteristics of a single piece of installed equipment or machinery, and its supply information - Significant maintenance repair parts that are expected to fail during normal operation (predicted or actual) - EXAMPLE: Valve, Fire Pump, or Gun AEL - CORRECT ANSWER allowance equipage list Range of items or materials to support a system or capability, and it's supply information - Items required onboard for operation - Include repair parts required for maintenance - EXAMPLE: VBSS, Force Protection or Flight Deck Equipment types of naval messages - CORRECT ANSWER adminsitrative (GENADMIN/OPREP-5) operational/tactical (INDIGO/EXORD/OPTASK) admin messages - CORRECT ANSWER -MOVREP -LOGREQ -OPREP-3 -CASREP MOVREP - CORRECT ANSWER To collect and distribute ship location data to operational and administrative commanders - To monitor safe and timely arrival of units - To provide accurate location for SAR missions • Required submitted 24-48 hours before getting underway (+/-4 hours) LOGREQ - CORRECT ANSWER Prior to arrival in port, the CO shall make known to the appropriate naval authority the logistical requirements for the ship during period in port. • Submitted at least 48-hours prior to arrival OPREP-3 - CORRECT ANSWER These reports are used to provide timely information on critical situations and military operations. competent authority. • PINNACLE report is used to report all incidents having national level interest • NAVY BLUE report is used for incidents having high-level military, political, or media interest. • UNIT SITREP is used to provide operational commanders and higher authority notification of an incident. CASREP - CORRECT ANSWER Types of CASREPS - CORRECT ANSWER Initial Update Correction Cancellation Reporting Requirements - CORRECT ANSWER Within 24 hours of a significant change - Change in overall rating value (Yes, Qualified, No) • Within 30 days of the last assessment • Within 24 hours of submitting a C3/C4 Casualty Report (CASREP) - Update affected capability areas • Within 24 hours of unplanned change in underway (U/W) status (fail to sail, sortie, surge deploy, RTP for repairs) • Turnover of rotational crews message fundamentals - CORRECT ANSWER categories is messages - CORRECT ANSWER message processing - CORRECT ANSWER addressing messages - CORRECT ANSWER PLA-plain language address -sent to a particular ship CAD-collective address designator -goes to all ships in DESRON AIG - CORRECT ANSWER address indicating group lists of 30+ specific and frequently used addresses common messages that use AIG Alerts - Air defense warning - Severe weather warnings - Intel summaries - MOVREPs - CASREPs UCMJ - CORRECT ANSWER NJP - CORRECT ANSWER Non-Judicial Punishment leadership tool providing military commanders a prompt and essential means of maintaining good order and discipline minor offenses does no constitute a criminal conviction NJP Process - CORRECT ANSWER -preliminary inquiry -referral of charges -DRB -XOI -NJP search and seizure - CORRECT ANSWER Probable Cause with Authorization - Probable Cause without Authorization - No Probable Cause with Authorization court martial - CORRECT ANSWER a court composed of military personnel, for the trial of those accused of violating military law 3 types: summary, special, general factors that determine types: severity of offense, rank of accused summary court martial - CORRECT ANSWER Tries minor offenses For enlisted members only One officer acts as judge Limited punishment special court martial - CORRECT ANSWER Tries intermediate offenses Military judge / 3 members (minimum) Limited Punishments general court martial - CORRECT ANSWER Optimized Fleet Response Plan - CORRECT ANSWER 36 Month cycle. 6 phases -maintenance -shakedown -basic -advanced -integrated -sustainment PESTO - CORRECT ANSWER personnel, equipment, supply, training, and ordnance pillars dictate exit criteria for each phase (fundamental tenets) AWP - CORRECT ANSWER availability work package -material assessment and correction of critical material issues -identification and documentation of all CNO availability requirements -developed months in advance TSRA - CORRECT ANSWER Total Ship Readiness Assessment Readiness-focused material condition assessments scheduled and managed by the TYCOM and executed by the Regional Maintenance Center (RMC). *if equipment is working and functioning properly (material condition) READ-E - CORRECT ANSWER Assess, validate, or certify a ship's readiness across full spectrum of manning, material, and training - Provide periodic feedback to the appropriate ISIC/TYCOM - Multiple, complementary assessments consolidated into distinct evaluation periods. • there are 7 maintenance phase - CORRECT ANSWER Establishes a material foundation that will support Basic Phase training, subsequent operations, and maintenance and modernization to meet the ship's expected service life YARDS shakedown phase - CORRECT ANSWER Verify the ship's material condition is able to support Basic Phase training All systems meet established material conditions - Ready to support follow-on operational tasking • ship can get underway successfully basic phase - CORRECT ANSWER Train and certify a unit in all mission areas and ensure she is able to perform as a single cohesive unit. Complete Certification Events (CEs) learn how to get underway as a single unit ATG - CORRECT ANSWER will assess and grade all Certification Exercises (CE's) - Enter assessment data into TORIS the standard of what a ship needs to operate safely advance phase - CORRECT ANSWER Progress individual unit war fare skill set through multi-unit tactical warfare training start working with other units integrated phase - CORRECT ANSWER Combine individual unit warfare skill sets into a single cohesive strike group or mission-oriented deployable unit INSURV material inspection or TYCOM mid cycle inspection sustainment phase - CORRECT ANSWER focuses on maintaining a unit's proficiency to support operational requirements. Maintain PESTO readiness certification criteria - CORRECT ANSWER DRRS - CORRECT ANSWER Defense Readiness Reporting System DRRS assessment levels - CORRECT ANSWER mission essential task: a task is necessary indispensable, or critical to the success of a units mission capabilities: comparable to the naval warfare mission areas Care: highest unit level assessment LES - CORRECT ANSWER leave and earning statement entitlements - CORRECT ANSWER -basic pay BAS-offset cost of meals BAH-offset cost of housing(OHA/COLA) deductions - CORRECT ANSWER -income based taxes -group life insurance - thrift savings plan - CORRECT ANSWER Government sponsored retirement savings and investment plan - Differences in rules governing based on Blended Retirement System. traditional vs roth - CORRECT ANSWER Member may make contributions to a Traditional or Roth TSP - Traditional is taken out before taxes; Roth is money taken after allotments - CORRECT ANSWER discretionary -voluntary made payments non discretionary -involuntary payments leave - CORRECT ANSWER chargeable -leave that the member uses which is deducted from the total leave balance unchangeable -Leave the member uses which is not deducted from a total leave balance liberty - CORRECT ANSWER - Regular • Routinely authorized absence, which lasts from the end of normal working hours until the start of normal working hours the following day - Weekend • Follows the patter of Regular liberty, but which encompasses the regular American work week (End of day Friday, until start of day Monday) - Special • Granted outside of regular liberty periods for unusual reasons Navy wide PQS program - CORRECT ANSWER Ensures personnel demonstrate required competencies prior to performing specific duties • Delineates the minimum knowledge, skills, and abilities that an individual must demonstrate before standing watches or performing other specific duties. DIVO role in PQS - CORRECT ANSWER supervise divisional PQS program and provide guidance -PQS completion -WTRP -Records -Training PQS sections - CORRECT ANSWER 100 level fundamental 200 level systems(equipment) 300 level (watch stations) what is a PQS - CORRECT ANSWER PQS is a qualification process for officer, enlisted, government civilians, and contract civilian personnel and is used when certification to a minimum level of competency is required prior to qualifying to perform specific duties. RADM - CORRECT ANSWER [Show Less]
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DIVO FUND Exam 194 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO FUND Exam 194 Questions with Verified Answers Describe the six core principles of SSOP - CORRECT ANSWER Formality, Forceful backup, Procedural comp... [Show More] liance, Integrity, Questioning attitude, Level of Knowledge Describe the three supporting processes to SSOP - CORRECT ANSWER Operational risk management, incident reporting, Planning Briefing Executing Debriefing (PBED) Describe the four steps of the plan, Brief, Execute, Debrief (PBED) Process - CORRECT ANSWER 5Ws. Constrains, restraints, purpose, limitations, available assets, risks. Briefs are clear and concise, go/no go criteria. Debrief: assessment culture, rankless nameless, feedback should be actionable. Explain the need to continuously instill these two processes in the surface navy - CORRECT ANSWER ????? Division organization - CORRECT ANSWER Function of DIVO - CORRECT ANSWER Take care of sailors, take care of equipment, take care of yourself Describe the responsibilities and authority of the department head, division officer, leading chief petty officer, leading petty officer, and work center supervisor IAW the SORM - CORRECT ANSWER DH: organize and train department, oversee admin, department safety, inspect personnel and material, maintenance, supervise training. DIVO: see other card LCPO: assigns division personnel to tasks, submits requisitions, supervises cleaning duties, assists divo. Work center soup: responsible to DH via DIVO, for 3m and proper training. Navy Operational Chain of Command - CORRECT ANSWER LIST the Geographic/Functional Combatant Commands, and their applicable AOR - CORRECT ANSWER NORTHCOM: AOR: US, Alaska, Puerto Rico, Canada, Mexico SOUTHCOM: •AOR: Central and South America, Caribbean EUCOM: AOR: Europe, Russia, Greenland, Israel AFRICOM: AOR: All of Africa except Egypt CENTCOM: (AOR): Middle East, Central Asia, Egypt INDOPACCOM: AOR: Indo-Asia-Pacific Region SORM - CORRECT ANSWER -Outlines standard Navy organization -Dictates required ship's bills, instructions, primary and collateral duties, watch organization, divisional/departmental organization, etc. -Enables personnel to transfer from ship to ship and expect similar organizations and procedures -Each ship tailors the SORM to satisfy specific needs •Certain articles cannot be altered numbered Fleet Commands and their applicable areas of responsibility (AOR) - CORRECT ANSWER 3rd fleet: Eastern half of Pacific 2nd fleet: Western half of Atlantic 4th fleet: South america and Caribbean 6th fleet: eastern half of Atlantic and Med, Baltic, Black, Caspian and North seas 5th fleet: Red sea, Gulf of Oman, Indian Ocean 7th fleet: Western half of Pacific and half of Indian ocean 10th fleet: FT Meade, MD (cyber command) Navy Admin COC - CORRECT ANSWER State the purpose of OPSEC - CORRECT ANSWER identifies and protects sensitive but unclassified information that pertains to the mission Identify and discuss categories of classified materials - CORRECT ANSWER TS: exceptionally grave damage S: serious damage C: damage FOUO: may be withheld from public if could cause foreseeable harm List and describe physical security, network security, information security and comms security - CORRECT ANSWER physical: safes, walls, locked doors network: comms: deny unauthorized people information derived from telecommunications related to national security and ensure authenticity of such comms info: policies, procedures and requirements to protect to information that could damage national security if disclosed Identify threats to DoD networks - CORRECT ANSWER Unintentional threat (bad habits, forgetting to update, etc) Intentional (hacker, insider threat, cyber crime, etc) Identify access and need to know - CORRECT ANSWER Access: ability/opportunity to obtain knowledge of classified information need to know: recipient requires access to classified info to do their job Clearance: eligibility to access AND need to know Describe EKMS and EKMS manager responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER Electronic key management system: integrated end to end key management and COMSEC material generation and accounting. Manager responsible for all actions associated with COMSEC material. STATE the responsibilities of a ship's leadership in the development and execution of a Divisional Training Program - CORRECT ANSWER Keep a record (DIVO notebook, etc), track what NECs are necessary, gained and losses of personnel, etc DISCUSS the function and composition of the Planning Board for Training (PBFT) - CORRECT ANSWER establishes long term objectives to ensure readiness STATE the purpose of the following types of training: OJT, Indoctrination, Shore-based schools, GMT, Team Training, PQS, Rating entry training (Strikers), and the OFRP - CORRECT ANSWER schools give NEC, ojt develops skills personally, indoc clearly states command policy, strikers prepared unrated seamen for a rate to strike (must pass rating exam), team training (drills, briefs). DISCUSS the function/importance of the Catalogue of Navy Courses (CANTRAC) - CORRECT ANSWER web database of all schools in the navy DESCRIBE the purpose and function of TORIS-TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER Training and operational readiness information service: used to schedule, execute, track, display, report all unit level training. TYCOM uses to gauge proficiency metrics. Training figure of merit: calculation of TORIS metrics for overall unit readiness. provides CO with a diagnostic tool to tailor training. identify principles of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER accept risk when benefit outweighs cost, accept no unnecessary risk, anticipate and manage risk by planning, make risk decisions at right level 5 step ORM process - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify hazards 2. Assess hazards 3. Make risk decisions 4. Implement controls 5. Supervise elements of RAC - CORRECT ANSWER Severity categories and probability categories different levels of ORM - CORRECT ANSWER In depth, deliberate, time critical EXPLAIN the elements and functions of the ship's Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Program - CORRECT ANSWER provide environment free of personal, social or institutional barriers. Informal report and formal report. Formal report triggers investigation within 72 hours. EXPLAIN the resources available to the Drug and Alcohol Program Advisors (DAPA) and the effect it can have on retention - CORRECT ANSWER provide alcohol and drug use prevention poiciecs. zero tolerance for drugs. DAPA can provide alcohol abuse counseling or treatment from self report DISCUSS the naval policy on fraternization, pregnant servicewomen, single parents, military couples, sexual harassment, and Sexual Assault Prevention and Response (SAPR) - CORRECT ANSWER Frat: unduly familiar. no officer to enlisted, no relationships that compromise CoC. couples: parents: 6 weeks for primary care giver pregnant: man continue to serve until week 20, deferred from all transfers for 12 months, limited duty, no adverse fitreps SAPR: restricted and unrestricted reporting, zero tolerance policy. admin sep at first substantiated claim. IDENTIFY the fundamentals of the Fleet and Family Support Program - CORRECT ANSWER •Ensure that Sailors and families consistently receive quality services across all Fleet and Family Support Centers (FFSC) •Organized into Four functional areas to support family readiness -Work and Family Life •11 programs -Counseling, Advocacy and Prevention •4 programs -SAPR -Navy Gold Star Program EXPLAIN the role of the Ombudsman - CORRECT ANSWER Advisor and go between for ship and families IDENTIFY the purpose and contents of the ship's manpower authorization documents - CORRECT ANSWER Required Operational Capability: specify desired level of achievement for level of readiness. Projected Operational Environment: where is the ship expected to operate? Ships manpower document: quantitative and qualitative manpower wartime requirements based on ROC/POE. Activity manpower document: manpower supported by approved funding (billets authorized) IDENTIFY the purpose of the ship's divisional manning documents - CORRECT ANSWER ???? STATE the purpose and contents of the Enlisted Distribution and Verification Process (EDVP) - CORRECT ANSWER activity manning manavers will review manning info in My Navy Assignment (MNA) and Billet based distribution (BBD). each alignment should reflect the sailors NEC, rank and rate to best assign them. IDENTIFY the watch organization and the duties and responsibilities of each in port watchstander - CORRECT ANSWER CDO: eight o'clock reports, advise and direct OOD, ships daily routine. OOD: ships routine, safety and security of unit, report to CDO or CO ATTWO: security of ship EOOW: monitor propulsion plant POOW: ships log, 1MC MOOW: go getter Sounding and security: report to OOD, look for sabotage and other hazards Duty master at arms: good order and discipline DISCUSS the relationship between the in port watchstanders and the chain of command (CoC) - CORRECT ANSWER CDO reports to CO, OOD reports to CDO. POOW assists OOD IDENTIFY the standard communications equipment used by the OOD in port - CORRECT ANSWER 1MC, service telephone, radio, alarms, sound powered phones. STATE the procedures for maintaining the ship's logs in port - CORRECT ANSWER record events day to day, legal record, written by POOW verified by OOD. 19 required entries, basically any accident, action, change in propulsion plant status, honors, UA, arrival of CO. LIST the tasks and responsibilities for assuming a watch in port - CORRECT ANSWER arrive early and become familiar with situation. inspect spaces and examine log before taking over. DISCUSS the procedures for special evolutions in port - CORRECT ANSWER •Weapons' handling •Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) •Divers •Personnel working aloft/Over the side •Refueling and defueling •Active sonar operations •Testing rudders or main engines DISCUSS the procedures for routine evolutions in port - CORRECT ANSWER •Twelve O'Clock Reports •Working Parties •Newly Reporting Personnel •Ship Visits •Pumping the Bilge •Dumping Trash •Noise Regulations •Pumping Collection and Holding Tank (CHT) •Pier Sweepers Eight O'Clock Reports STATE the general duties and responsibilities of the OOD in port in response to shipboard emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER Notify crew or duty station, making log entry, coordinating off ship support, following command guidance instruction EXPLAIN the duties and responsibilities of the OOD in port in response to security threats - CORRECT ANSWER Inform ship security forces, secure brow, deck log entries, obey direction of ATTWO. STATE the purpose of the in port security force - CORRECT ANSWER Secure the ship against security threats LIST the levels of the Use of Force Continuum and DESCRIBE the requirements for deadly force - CORRECT ANSWER Presence, Verbal commands, soft control, hard control, non lethal force, deadly force. Must have capability, intent and opportunity STATE the procedures for morning and evening colors - CORRECT ANSWER 0800. first call 5 min prior, no word over 1MC. attention, music starts, close up flag, salute, drop salute carry on. evening at sunset EXPLAIN the proper honors for arriving and departing senior officers - CORRECT ANSWER Announce any officer O5 and senior. sound bells, announce short title, stinger for embarked officers when step foot onboard. DESCRIBE the procedures for passing honors - CORRECT ANSWER If flag officer comes within 600 yards, sound attention and render hand salute. Passing honors: 1.Junior ship: 1 or 2 blasts 2.Senior ship: 1 or 2 blasts 3.Junior ship: 1 blast 4.Senior ship: 1 blast 5.Senior ship: 2 blasts 6.Junior ship: 2 blasts 7.Senior ship: 3 blasts 8.Junior ship: 3 blasts dipping the ensign LIST the elements of an Enlisted /Officer Service Record - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted: •Consists of 18 individual categories -Enlistment Contract -Administrative remarks -Performance evaluations -Training and Education -Qualifications -Awards also adverse information •Consists of 21 individual categories -Appointments and Promotions -Fitness reports -Training and Education -Awards -Official Orders plus official photo SUMMARIZE the methods to maintain a Service Record - CORRECT ANSWER Self service ESR account on NSIPS. Should also be maintained in binder STATE the purpose of a DIVO Notebook - CORRECT ANSWER •The SORM establishes the requirement of a Division Officer to create and maintain a notebook consisting of: -Personnel & Responsibilities -Training & Qualifications -DIVO Personnel Record Form •The purpose of the notebook is for the orientation/relief of an officer and ready reference for the DIVO IDENTIFY the general requirement for enlisted advancement - CORRECT ANSWER Recommendation by CO, Time in rate, complete navy training and schools, PRT, Navy wide advancement exam, Final score multiple. LIST the circumstances that render enlisted personnel ineligible for advancement - CORRECT ANSWER POW/MIA, UA, Retirement, cheating, in confinement, failed prt, failed exam IDENTIFY methods for advancement other than the normal requirements - CORRECT ANSWER Meritorious advancement, CMAP, accelerated advancement program, sailor of the year. DESCRIBE the purpose of a Career Development Board - CORRECT ANSWER ensure Sailors are provided necessary guidance to make informed career decisions, based on Navy policies, programs and procedures. Supports optimal development of professional skills (military and technical) to enhance individual upward mobility, job satisfaction, and the retention of better qualified personnel DISCUSS reenlistment incentives - CORRECT ANSWER Guard 2000 (guaranteed assignments), A school (specific rating), SRB (bonus), education opportunities, retirement benefits. DISCUSS commissioning programs for enlisted personnel - CORRECT ANSWER Navy academy, NROTC, Seaman to admiral program, OCS, Medical enlisted commissioning program DISCUSS content of a Bibliography for Advancement (Bibs) - CORRECT ANSWER single source for their preparation for exam DEFINE the components of an Evaluation/Fitness Report - CORRECT ANSWER Reason for report, time period of observation, reporting senior, PFA, achievements and duties, individual performance traits, specific comments on performance, promotion recommendation. DISCUSS why the Navy uses EVALs/FITREPs - CORRECT ANSWER U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1129, requires that records be maintained on naval personnel "which reflect their fitness for the service and performance of duties" DISCUSS the occasions for submitting an EVAL/FITREP - CORRECT ANSWER Periodic, detachment, promotion, special. DESCRIBE the types of selection boards - CORRECT ANSWER Statutory: promotion, selective early retirement and continuation. Admin: Graduate, active duty re designation board. Screen boards: milestones in career STATE the purpose of Quarters, Informal Inspections, and Formal Inspections with ship personnel. - CORRECT ANSWER Assess shipboard readiness, discover hazards, evaluate performance etc DISCUSS inspections and the responsibilities of the division officer as it relates to those inspections -Seabag Inspection -Safety Inspection -Administrative Inspection -3M and Zone Inspection -INSURV - CORRECT ANSWER 3M and zone inspections: every space once per quarter, ensure PMS is complete, correct deficiencies by writing a job, ensure cleanliness, ensure everything is unlocked, review previous reports, assign personnel to spaces. INSURV: ensure 3M is properly managed STATE the major functions of a ship's supply organization - CORRECT ANSWER Material support, food service, ships store, disbursing DESCRIBE the types of material management funding available to ships - CORRECT ANSWER Operating target (OPTAR) estimate of money required by ship to perform tasks. TAD: Travel and training Grants: funds allocated from TYPCOM EOFY: return what you didn't use STATE the purpose and content of the Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL) - CORRECT ANSWER lists items required to achieve max self supporting capability (verified equipment to be installed, repair parts and tools, consumables) **Range and depth** DISCUSS the function and importance of the Allowance Parts List (APL) and the Allowance Equipage List (AEL) - CORRECT ANSWER ALP lists specific parts (valve, pump, gun) AEL lists materials to support capability (VBSS, flight deck equipment) DISCUSS the purpose and use of the Federal Catalog System (FEDLOG) - CORRECT ANSWER query system listing part number, id number, stock number for each part. EXPLAIN the periodicity and purpose of a Material Obligation Validation - CORRECT ANSWER used to verify unfilled quantities of parts requested in order to improve supply chain requests (internal monthly, external quarterly) IDENTIFY the purpose and requirements of naval messages - CORRECT ANSWER MOVREP: monitor safe and timely arrivals of units LOGREQ: logistical requirements for ship while in port Special incident reporting: timely info on critical situations EXPLAIN the responsibilities of personnel involved with drafting, routing, and releasing Naval Messages - CORRECT ANSWER •User -Anyone authorized to draft, release, or process electronically transmitted messages •Originator -The authority whose name is associated with the sent message •Releaser -The individual authorized to release message for command -Ensure drafters know the content requirements of messages •Drafter -Individual who composes the message -Must include correct addressee(s), classification, priority and content EXPLAIN the message precedence for the following: -Routine, Priority, Immediate, Flash - CORRECT ANSWER R - 6 hours P - 3 hours O (immediate) - 30 min Z (flash) - 10 min DISCUSS the purpose and use of Address Indicating Groups (AIG) and Collective Address Designators (CAD) in Naval communications - CORRECT ANSWER •List of 30+ specific and frequently used addressees •Must be used 15 or more times a year to exist Reduces the size of the heading EXPLAIN the standard subject identification code (SSIC) - CORRECT ANSWER •4 or 5 digit code representing the subject of the document •Required on all Department of Navy (DON) correspondence •Quick and accurate way to file and retrieve documents •13 major subject groups -Broken into Primary, Secondary, and tertiary divisions IDENTIFY the major concepts of the Uniform Code of Military Justice - CORRECT ANSWER •The following Navy personnel are subject to the UCMJ: -Active Duty Personnel -Reservists -Midshipmen at the Naval Academy -Retired personnel who are entitled to pay Common articles: 15: NJP 31: self incrimination 31b: informing of rights 32: preliminary hearing 85: desertion 86: UA 87: missing movement 92: failure to obey order 113: DUi 120: rape 128: assault 133: conduct unbecoming 134: general article IDENTIFY the basic procedures for non-judicial punishment - CORRECT ANSWER -Investigation (by Command Master at Arms, Preliminary Inquiry, or Command Investigation) -Referral of charges -Disciplinary Review Board (DRB) -Executive Officer Inquiry (XOI) -Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP) DISCUSS the three types of courts-martial - CORRECT ANSWER Summary: can only try enlisted, not below grade of O3. lower offenses Special: military judge and 4 members General: military judge and 8 members, most severe punishments EXPLAIN the goals of the SFTRM - CORRECT ANSWER Train watchstander, provide path to readiness. IDENTIFY the stages in a ship's lifecycle - CORRECT ANSWER Maintenance phase, shakedown phase, basic phase, advanced phase, integrated phase, sustainment phase DISCUSS the Basic Phase and its components - CORRECT ANSWER Improve units pesto readiness, train and certify in all mission areas, demonstrate proficiency in completion of Certification events DISCUSS Afloat Training Group (ATG) roles in training - CORRECT ANSWER Assess and grade CE. develop basic phase training plans. develop assessments LIST the PESTO pillars of DRRS-N and which afloat databases feed into them - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel, equipment, supply, training, ordnance List the three types of assessments conducted in support of DRRS-N requirements - CORRECT ANSWER Mission essential task, capabilities, core IDENTIFY the individual components of a LES - CORRECT ANSWER Entitlements, Deductions, TSP, Allotments, Leave DISCUSS available Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) options - CORRECT ANSWER Roth or traditional, 1-100% of incentive pay. 5 Investment funds (G, F, C, S, I), L income is a loan from TSP, L fund is life cycle fund. 2% times years served times base pay after 20 years. Automatic 1% contribution plus 4% matching after 2 years UNDERSTAND life insurance coverage - CORRECT ANSWER Low cost term life insurance, 400,000 for service member at cost of $28 a month, FSGLI is 100,000 per spouse, may be increased to not exceed that of service member DEFINE leave and liberty - CORRECT ANSWER Leave is an authorized absence for a period of time for which you are charged or not charged depending on the circumstances, liberty is routinely authorized absence at end of working hours, also weekend liberty and special liberty (usually does not exceed 3 days) DISCUSS and identify 100, 200, and 300 level Personnel Qualification Standard/Job Qualification Requirement (JQR) line items - CORRECT ANSWER 100: Fundamentals 200: Systems 300: Watch stations DISCUSS specific requirements within the PQS watchstanding level - CORRECT ANSWER •Prerequisites: to be completed prior to final qual (100 levels, schools) •Tasks: routine conditions that are performed by individual •Infrequent Tasks: conditions that are not completed during typical watch (UREP) •Abnormal Conditions: trouble situations requiring special attention •Emergencies: event that will cause damage to equipment or personnel •Watchstanding: must observe or be supervised in watch station •Examinations: demonstrate knowledge of PQS DESCRIBE the Division Officer's role in managing the PQS program - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise divisional PQS, ensure adequate training within division, support mission readiness by ensuring watchstander proficiency 6 core principles of SSOP - CORRECT ANSWER -Formality -Forceful Backup -Procedural Compliance -Integrity -Questioning Attitude -Level of Knowledge [Show Less]
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DIVO Management Exam 64 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
DIVO Management Exam 64 Questions with Verified Answers PBED - CORRECT ANSWER Plan, Brief, Execute, Debrief What is the purpose of PBED? - CORRECT AN... [Show More] SWER to encourage feedback to prevent repeating mistakes SSOP - CORRECT ANSWER Sound Shipboard Operating Principles What are the eight core principles of SSOP? - CORRECT ANSWER - Procedural Compliance - Questioning Attitude - Forceful Backup - Formality - Level of Knowledge - Integrity - Ownership - Self-sufficiency What are the four supporting principles of SSOP? - CORRECT ANSWER - ORM - Supervisory Control - PBED/P5 - Critique and Lessons Learned Reporting P5 - CORRECT ANSWER Plan, Practice, Perform, Progress, Promulgate SORM - CORRECT ANSWER Standard Organization and Regulations Manual Administrative CoC - CORRECT ANSWER 1. POTUS 2. SECDEF 3. SECNAV 4. CNO 5. PACFLT 6. TYCOM 7. DESRON/PHIBRON 8. Ship CO Operational CoC - CORRECT ANSWER 1. POTUS 2. SECDEF 3. Geographic Combatant Commanders 4. Navy Component Command 5. Numbered Fleet Commander 6. CSG or ESG Commander 7. DESRON/PHIBRON 8. Ship CO What are the geographic combatant commands? - CORRECT ANSWER - NORTHCOM - SOUTHCOM - EUCOM - AFRICOM - CENTCOM - INDOPACOM - USSPACECOM What are the functional combatant commands? - CORRECT ANSWER - SOCOM - STRATCOM - TRANSCOM - CYBERCOM 3rd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER eastern half of the Pacific Ocean 2nd Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER western half of the Atlantic Ocean 4th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER the Caribbean, and surrounding waters of Central and South America 6th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER eastern half of the Atlantic Ocean and the Adriatic, Baltic, Barents, Black, Caspian, Mediterranean, and North Seas 5th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, and part of the Indian Ocean 7th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Pacific Ocean and most of the Indian Ocean 10th Fleet - CORRECT ANSWER Cyber What are the Navy Component Commands? (8) - CORRECT ANSWER - Fleet Forces Command - Pacific Fleet Command - Military Sealift Command - Naval Forces Central Command - Naval Special Warfare Command - Fleet Cyber Command/10th Fleet - Naval Forces Europe/Naval Forces Africa - Naval Forces Southern Command/4th Fleet What are the responsibilities of a DIVO? - CORRECT ANSWER - schedule and conduct training for division personnel - maintain a DIVO notebook - responsible for all administration for the division What is the relationship between the DIVO and Chief? - CORRECT ANSWER - united front INFOSEC - CORRECT ANSWER policies, procedures, and requirements established to protect information OPSEC - CORRECT ANSWER identifies and protects sensitive but unclassified information COMSEC - CORRECT ANSWER protective measures to deny unauthorized persons and ensure the authenticity of communications Physical Security - CORRECT ANSWER physical measures take to safeguard COMSEC material What are the classification levels? - CORRECT ANSWER - Top Secret - Secret - Confidential - Controlled Unclassified Information Top Secret - CORRECT ANSWER expected to cause exceptionally grave damage Secret - CORRECT ANSWER expected to cause serious damage EKMS Manager responsibilities - CORRECT ANSWER controls, accounts for, issues, destroys, and reports COMSEC material Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) - CORRECT ANSWER government information that must be handled using safeguarding or dissemination controls Confidential - CORRECT ANSWER expected to cause damage What is EKMS? - CORRECT ANSWER provides integrated, end-to-end key management and COMSEC material generation, distribution, and accounting system EKMS - CORRECT ANSWER Electronic Key Management System What are examples of threats to the DoD Networks? - CORRECT ANSWER - hackers - insider threat - state sponsored attack - terrorist - cyber criminals - curious/bored individuals - malicious code - social engineering PBFT - CORRECT ANSWER Planning Board for Training Who has to be present for PBFT? - CORRECT ANSWER - XO - Department Heads - Training Officer - Safety Officer - Damage Control Assistant - Education Services Officer - Command Master Chief - Medical Rep How often does PBFT occur? - CORRECT ANSWER at least monthly or when the XO directs What is OJT? - CORRECT ANSWER On the Job Training - personalized means of developing skills from those that have mastered those skills What is INDOC? - CORRECT ANSWER Indoctrination - program for newly reporting personnel What are Strikers? - CORRECT ANSWER undesignated Seamen who must pass their rating exam in order to become a rated Sailor What is Team Training? - CORRECT ANSWER accomplished through drills or briefs both in port and at sea OFRP - CORRECT ANSWER Optimized Fleet Response Plan TORIS-TFOM - CORRECT ANSWER Training and Operational Readiness Information Service - Training Figure of Merit What is TORIS? - CORRECT ANSWER a web based tool used to schedule, execute, track, display, and report all unit level training What is TFOM? - CORRECT ANSWER calculation of TORIS metrics for overall unit training readiness What is the purpose of TORIS-TFOM? - CORRECT ANSWER track the ship's level of training What are the principles of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER - accept the risk when benefits outweigh the cost - accept no unnecessary risk - anticipate and manage risk by planning - make risk decisions at the right level What are the 5 steps to the ORM process? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify hazards 2. Assess hazards 3. Make risk decisions 4. Implement controls 5. Supervise What are the severity categories? - CORRECT ANSWER Category I - loss of ability to accomplish mission Category II - significantly degrades mission capability Category III - degraded mission capability Category IV - little or no adverse impact What are the probability categories? - CORRECT ANSWER Category A - frequent to occur Category B - likely to occur immediately Category C - occasionally will occur in time Category D - seldom may occur Category E - unlikely to occur What are the levels of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER - in depth - deliberate - time critical What two factors develop RAC? - CORRECT ANSWER probability and severity ROC - CORRECT ANSWER Required Operational Capability - desired level of achievement of readiness POE - CORRECT ANSWER Projected Operational Environment - description of the environment which the ship is expected to operate ROC and POE - CORRECT ANSWER basis for how the manpower system determines the number and skill level of the Navy personnel embarked EMIR - CORRECT ANSWER Enlisted Manning Inquiry Report - notification of manning deficiency - Manning: COB/POB manning NEC below BA - Critical NEC: COB/POB for NEC doesn't meet requirements - Readiness: CO thinks there's personnel shortage Where are EMIRs submitted to? - CORRECT ANSWER PERS-4013 What are examples of duties of the OOD? - CORRECT ANSWER - execution of the POD - ATFP - ship's position What are the standard comms equipment on a ship? - CORRECT ANSWER - 1MC - Ship's service telephone - handheld radios - quarterdeck alarms - sound powered phones What are the in port watches? - CORRECT ANSWER - Command Duty Officer - ATTWO - Engineering Duty Officer - Petty Officer of the Watch - Messenger of the Watch What are the in port security forces? - CORRECT ANSWER - Security Reaction Force (SRF) - Back-up Reaction Force (BRF) - Reserve Force (RF) What is in the force triangle? - CORRECT ANSWER - Capability: ability to inflict damage - Opportunity: within range - Intent: acts of aggression What is the process for a senior officer arriving on the ship? - CORRECT ANSWER - sound bells - announce short title - stinger for embarked officers What is the range for ships passing honors? - CORRECT ANSWER 600 yards [Show Less]
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Fundamentals Practice Exam 83 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Fundamentals Practice Exam 83 Questions with Verified Answers The nurse observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to... [Show More] his knee. What action should the nurse take first? A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. B. Instruct the client regarding the need for the covering. C. Reapply the covering after filling with fresh ice. D. Ask the client how long the ice was applied to the skin. - CORRECT ANSWER A The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive? A. 31 gtt/min. B. 62 gtt/min. C. 93 gtt/min. D. 124 gtt/min. - CORRECT ANSWER C. 93 gtt/min The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10 pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The nurse plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min? A. 42 gtt/min. B. 83 gtt/min. C. 125 gtt/min. D. 250 gtt/min. - CORRECT ANSWER C. 125 gtt/min Which assessment data provides the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube? - CORRECT ANSWER C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the nurse that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse? A. Reassure the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma appearance in time. B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. C. Offer to contact a member of the local ostomy support group to help him with his concerns. D. Encourage the client to handle the stoma equipment to gain confidence with the procedure. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes A female client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. The nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in the last two hours. What action should the nurse take first? A. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline. B. Reposition the client on her side. C. Advance the nasogastric tube an additional five centimeters. D. Administer an intravenous antiemetic prescribed for PRN use. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Reposition the client on her side A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take? A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time. B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider. C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube. D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling. - CORRECT ANSWER C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube A male client tells the nurse that he does not know where he is or what year it is. What data should the nurse document that is most accurate? - CORRECT ANSWER D. Is disoriented to place and time A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER A. Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the nurse to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is the A. Arms. B. Upper torso. C. Head. D. Feet. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Upper torso In developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, the nurse should remember that confusion in the elderly A. is to be expected, and progresses with age. B. often follows relocation to new surroundings. C. is a result of irreversible brain pathology. D. can be prevented with adequate sleep. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Often follows relocation to new surroundings A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge? The client - CORRECT ANSWER C. demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly A client who is 5'5 tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER B. "What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?" During the initial assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement? - CORRECT ANSWER D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention? A. Apply a condom catheter. B. Apply a skin protectant. C. Encourage increased fluid intake. D. Assess for bladder distention. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Assess for bladder distention A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? - CORRECT ANSWER D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m. B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. C. Before breakfast, before lunch and before dinner. D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner. - CORRECT ANSWER B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's IV infusion pump? - CORRECT ANSWER B. 63 ml/hr When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action should he nurse implement first? - CORRECT ANSWER B. Note which actions were not implemented Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status? - CORRECT ANSWER A. Chocolate pudding The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? A. If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol. B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat. C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week. D. My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase. - CORRECT ANSWER C. "I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week" An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin a long-term weight loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide? A. Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program. B. Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you want to eat more. C. Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class. D. Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation. - CORRECT ANSWER A. "Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program." The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler? A. Immediately after exhalation. B. During the inhalation. C. At the end of three inhalations. D. Immediately after inhalation. - CORRECT ANSWER B. During inhalation An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, is infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min prescribed for a client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump? A. 30 B. 60 C. 120 D. 180 - CORRECT ANSWER D. 180 The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to administer? A. ½ tablet. B. 1 tablet. C. 1½ tablets. D. 2 tablets. - CORRECT ANSWER C. 1 1/2 tablets The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2ml. Haw many ml shoudl the nurse administer - CORRECT ANSWER B. 1.5 ml Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How much heparin has the client received? A. 11,000 units. B. 13,000 units. C. 15,000 units. D. 17,000 units. - CORRECT ANSWER A. 11,000 units The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take? A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate. B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin. C. Infuse 10 percent dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr. D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml.hr Examination of a client complaining of itching on his right arm reveals a rash made up of multiple flat areas of redness ranging from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. How should the nurse record this finding? A. Multiple vesicular areas surrounded by redness, ranging in size from 1 mm to 0.5 cm. B. Localized red rash comprised of flat areas, pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. C. Several areas of red, papular lesions from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in size. D. Localized petechial areas, ranging in size from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Localized red rash comprised of flat areas, pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence - CORRECT ANSWER C. "It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready.: The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that this client understands the dietary restrictions? A. Tossed salad, low-sodium dressing, bacon and tomato sandwich. B. New England clam chowder, no-salt crackers, fresh fruit salad. C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, a slice of cherry pie. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll and vanilla ice cream The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute? A. 80 B. 8 C. 21 D. 25 - CORRECT ANSWER C. 21 An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings though a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for administration of the bolus tube feedings? A. Prone. B. Fowler's. C. Sims'. D. Supine. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Fowler's Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves? A. Maintain thumb at a ninety degree angle. B. Hold hands with fingers down while gloving. C. Keep gloved hands above the elbows. D. Put the glove on the dominant hand first. - CORRECT ANSWER Keep gloved hands above the elbows The nurse is teaching a client with numerous allergies how to avoid allergens. Which instruction should be included in this teaching plan? A. Avoid any types of sprays, powders, and perfumes. B. Wearing a mask while cleaning will not help to avoid allergens. C. Purchase any type of clothing, but be sure it is washed before wearing it. D. Pollen count is related to hay fever, not to allergens. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Avoid any types of sprays, powders, and perfumes A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? - CORRECT ANSWER B. "Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation." The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. After suctioning the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow secretions return. What action should the nurse implement next? A. Encourage the client to cough to help loosen secretions. B. Advise the client to increase the intake of oral fluids. C. Rotate the suction catheter to obtain any remaining secretions. D. Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding "stronger pain medications." What initial action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction. B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema. D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration The nurse assigns a UAP to obtain vital signs from a very anxious client. What instructions should the nurse give the UAP? A. Remain calm with the client and record abnormal results in the chart. B. Notify the medication nurse immediately if the pulse or blood pressure is low. C. Report the results of the vital signs to the nurse. D. Reassure the client that the vital signs are normal. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Report the results of the vital signs to the nurse Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse? A. That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed. B. Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site. C. We will increase the temperature 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm. D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat. - CORRECT ANSWER D. "The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat." When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Loosen the right wrist restraint An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment? A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes. B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall. C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred. D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred. - CORRECT ANSWER C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occured The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment. B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff. C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs. D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care? - CORRECT ANSWER D. Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client - CORRECT ANSWER D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts. B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility. C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, which action should the nurse perform next? A. Determine the etiology of the problem. B. Prioritize nursing care interventions. C. Plan appropriate interventions. D. Collaborate with the client to set goals. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Determine the etiology of the problem What is the most important reason for starting IV infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults - CORRECT ANSWER B. A decreased flow rate could result in the formation a thrombosis The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next? A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes. B. Flush the tube with water. C. Administer the medications as prescribed. D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Flush the tube with water A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement? A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form. B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule in the morning. C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose. D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300 While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement? - CORRECT ANSWER A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly An adult male client with a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is tired of taking antihypertensive meds and will be trying meditation instead. What should the nurse say? - CORRECT ANSWER A. "It is important that you continue your medication while learning to meditate." The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein? A. A college-age track runner with a sprained ankle. B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. C. A school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes. D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer. - CORRECT ANSWER B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day old infant A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs? A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited. B. Blood transfusions are forbidden. C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed. D. A vegetarian diet must be followed. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Blood tranfusion are forbidden When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices? A. Complimentary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment. B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects. C. Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices. D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complimentary healing practices. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjuction with conventional practices A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe. C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli. D. Offer a medication-free period so that the client can do daily activities. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94-88% while ambulating. Base on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can translate into her native language her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take? A. Explain that anyone who speaks her language can answer her questions. B. Provide a translator only in an emergency situation. C. Ask a family member or friend of the client to translate. D. Request and document the name of the certified translator. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Request and document the name of the certified translator An African-American grandmother tells the nurse that her 4-year-old grandson is suffering with "miseries." Based on this statement, which focused assessment should the nurse conduct? A. Inquire about the source and type of pain. B. Examine the nose for congestion and discharge. C. Take vital signs for temperature elevation. D. Explore the abdominal area for distension. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Inquire about the source and type of pain The nurse notices that the mother a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the nurse take? A. Talk directly to the child instead of the mother. B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child. C. Ask another nurse to interview the mother now. D. Tell the mother politely to look at you when answering. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child The nurse notices that the Hispanic parents of a toddler who returns from surgery offer the child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray. Other liquids, including gelatin, popsicles, and juices, remain untouched. What explanation is most appropriate for this behavior? A. The belief is held that the "evil eye" enters the child if anything cold is ingested. B. After surgery the child probably has refused all foods except broth. C. Eating broth strengthens the child's innate energy called "chi." D. Hot remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "cold" condition. - CORRECT ANSWER D. "Hot" remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "Cold" condition Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent? A. Height in inches or centimeters. B. Weight in kilograms or pounds. C. Triceps skin fold thickness. D. Upper arm circumference. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Upper arm circumference A client is receiving a cephalosporin antibiotic IV and complains of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse observes erythema, swelling, and a red streak along the vessel above the IV access site. Which action should the nurse take at this time? A. Administer the medication more rapidly using the same IV site. B. Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the medication. C. Notify the healthcare provider before administering the next dose. D. Give the client a PRN dose of aspirin while the medication infuses. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Initiate an alternate site for the IV infusion of the medication On admission, a client presents a signed living will that includes a Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) prescription. When the client stops breathing, the nurse performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and successfully revives the client. What legal issues could be brought against the nurse? A) Assault. B) Battery. C) Malpractice. D) False imprisonment. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Battery A resident in a skilled nursing facility for short-term rehabilitation after a hip replacement tells the nurse "I don't want any more blood taken for those useless tests." Which narrative documentation should the nurse enter in the client's medical record? - CORRECT ANSWER C. Healthcare provider notified of client's refusal to have blood specimens collected for testing At the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who is admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). When should the nurse document the client's findings? A) At the beginning, middle, and end of the shift. B) After client priorities are identified for the development of the nursing care plan. C) At the end of the shift so full attention can be given to the client's needs. D) Immediately after the assessments are completed - CORRECT ANSWER D. Immediately after the assessments are completed A Sub-Saharan African widowed immigrant woman lives with her deceases husband's brother and his family, which includes the brother-in-law's children and the widow's adult children, Each family member speaks fluent English. Surgery was recommended for the client. What is the best plan to obtain consent for surgery for this client? - CORRECT ANSWER D. Tell the surgeon that the brother-in-law will decide after explanation of the proposed surgery is provided to him and the widow Which response by a client with a nursing diagnosis of "Spiritual distress," indicates to the nurse that a desired outcome measure has been met? - CORRECT ANSWER C. Accepts that punishment from God is not related to illness During shift change report, the nurse receives report that a client has abnormal heart sounds. Which placement of the stethoscope should the nurse use to hear the client's heart sounds? - CORRECT ANSWER B. Use the stethoscope bell over the valvular areas of the anterior chest A nurse is preparing to give meds through a nasogastric feeding tube. Which nursing action should prevent complications during administration? - CORRECT ANSWER A. Mix each med individually During the admission interview, which technique is most efficient for the nurse to use when obtaining information about signs and symptoms of a client's primary health problem? - CORRECT ANSWER C. Closed-ended questions The nurse witnesses the signature of a client who has signed an informed consent. Which statement best explains this nursing responsibility? A. The client voluntarily signed the form. B. The client fully understands the procedure. C. The client agrees with the procedure to be done. D. The client authorizes continued treatment. - CORRECT ANSWER A. The client voluntarily signed the form An older client who is a resident in a long term care facility has been bedridden for a week. Which finding should the nurse identify as a client risk factor for pressure ulcers? - CORRECT ANSWER D. Rashes in the axillary, groin, and skin fold regions During a visit to the outpatient clinic, the nurse assesses a client with severe osteoarthritis using a goniometer. Which finding should the nurse expect to measure? A. Adequate venous blood flow to the lower extremities. B. Estimated amount of body fat by an underarm skinfold. C. Degree of flexion and extension of the client's knee joint. D. Change in the circumference of the joint in centimeters. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Degree of flexion and extension of the client's knee joint The nurse is completing a mental assessment for a client who is demonstrating slow thought processes, personality changes, and emotional lability. Which area of the brain controls these neuro-cognitive functions? A. Thalamus. B. Hypothalamus. C. Frontal lobe. D. Parietal lobe. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Frontal lobe An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP? A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg. B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap. C. Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first? - CORRECT ANSWER B. Nutritional History A client who has been NPO for 3 days is receiving an infusion of D5W 0.45 - CORRECT ANSWER C. Document in the medical record that these normal findings are expected outcomes Secobarbital (Seconal) 150 mg is prescribed at bedtime for a male client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The scored tablets are labeled 0.1 gram/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth) - CORRECT ANSWER 1.5 What action should the nurse implement when accessing an implanted infusion port for a client who receives long term IV meds - CORRECT ANSWER B. Insert a Huber-point needle into the port During the daily nursing assessment, a client begins to cry and states that the majority of family and friends have stopped calling and visiting. What action should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER A. Listen and show interest as the client expresses these feeling The nurse plans to obtain health assessment information from a primary source. Which option is a primary source for the completion of the health assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER A. Client The nurse is using a genogram while conducting a client's health assessment and past medical history. What information should the genogram provide? - CORRECT ANSWER A. Genetic and familial health disorders [Show Less]
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Fundamentals Exam 1 Practice 45 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Fundamentals Exam 1 Practice 45 Questions with Verified Answers 1. A patient's outcome was to have a pain level of 4 out of 10, 30 minutes after receivi... [Show More] ng medication. 30 minutes later the patient reported a pain level of 3 out of 10. Has the outcome been: a. Met b. Not met c. Partially met d. Not enough information - CORRECT ANSWER A 2. A patient's outcome at the end of the shift is to ambulate down the hall and back twice. By the end of the shift the patient was able to ambulate once. Since the outcome was not met, what would be the best recommendation to change the care plan? a. Go to the doctor and ask for advice b. Change the care plan to ambulating once per shift c. Change the care plan to ambulating three times per shift d. Continue the care plan to ambulate twice per shift - CORRECT ANSWER D 3. Which of the following is an example of an appropriately written assessment intervention for a post appendectomy patient experiencing pain at 7/10? a. Help patient ambulate every 2 hours b. Assess patient for pain at the beginning of every shift, after giving mediation, and when patient complains of pain c. Take patient's health history and vital signs d. Administer pain medications - CORRECT ANSWER B 4. Which of the following is an example of an appropriately written assessment intervention? a. Patient will ambulate down the hall 2x daily b. The patient was able to ambulate down the hall 2x daily c. Administer pain medications regularly and assess patient's pain d. The patient's pain is 7/10 - CORRECT ANSWER C Expected outcome should be written following which five step guideline? a. Specific, medications, availability, response, time b. Selective, measureable, availability, reasonable, treatment c. Measurable, achievable, reasonable, time, selective d. Selective, medications, achievable, response, treatment - CORRECT ANSWER C 6. Which of the following is a correct expected outcome of a nursing diagnosis? a. Patient will have no crackles in lower lobes b. Patient will feel better c. Patient will ambulate the hall 3 times and back by the end of my shift d. Patient will experience a decrease in pain level - CORRECT ANSWER C 7. What are the 3 parts of the nursing diagnosis? a. Temperature, Pulse, respirations b. Problem, etiology, symptoms c. Medical diagnosis, defining characteristics, health perception d. Medical diagnosis, MAR, potential risks - CORRECT ANSWER B 8. Which of the following is the correctly written first part of the nursing diagnosis? a. Arthritis pain b. Status post historectomy c. Dermatitis inflammation d. Impaired skin integrity - CORRECT ANSWER D 9. When taking a patient's health history, the nurse nods to certain information trying to show acceptance or agreement. What non-verbal cue is the nurse demonstrating? a. Physical appearance b. Gestures c. Touch d. Posture - CORRECT ANSWER B 10. Which nonverbal skill would suggest the patient could be physically or emotionally ill? a. Open posture b. Nodding while listening c. Maintaining eye contact d. Lack of grooming - CORRECT ANSWER D 11. You are going into surgery and your nurse says, "I'm sure you're going to be fine!" What type of interviewing trap is this? a. Giving unwanted advice b. Leading or biased question c. Providing false assurance d. Talking too much - CORRECT ANSWER C 12. What is an example of a leading question? a. How much do you smoke per day? b. How long have you smoked for? c. Have you ever smoked? d. You don't smoke do you? - CORRECT ANSWER D 13. What would you say when assisting the narrative through clarification? a. "Uh-huh" b. "Tell me what you mean by that?" c. "It seems like every time you feel stomach pain you have some type of stress in your life" d. Remain silent - CORRECT ANSWER B 14. During the interview process, what type of response encourages the patient to continue with their story? * technically all answers would encourage the patient to keep talking a. Reflection b. Facilitation c. Silence d. Clarification - CORRECT ANSWER B 15. Which of the following questions are considered open-ended? a. Is there anything else you need to tell me? b. Do you have difficulty breathing while performing daily activities? c. Do you eat a balanced diet? d. Are you currently living with anyone? - CORRECT ANSWER A 16. Which statement reflects the goal of a close-direct question? a. A further explanation b. A long, detailed response c. One that may or may not be relevant to the topic d. A concise yes or no answer - CORRECT ANSWER D 17. A physician came into the room and interrupted the interview while a nurse was taking a patient's health history. What type of factors would this situation be that influenced the communication? a. External factor b. Internal factor c. Physical environment d. Ability to listen - CORRECT ANSWER A 18. Which of the following nursing actions is considered an external factor? a. Being tolerable to a patients weakness b. Equal status eating c. Ability to listen d. Body language - CORRECT ANSWER B 19. What is the purpose of providing cross cultural care? a. It helps recognize expected findings for that culture b. It provides data that supports cultural sensitive and appropriate care for the patients c. It helps distinguish the difference between objective and subjective data d. It allows you to make accurate nursing diagnosis and know what care to give - CORRECT ANSWER B 20. Who should provide culturally sensitive care when assessing? a. Pharmacist b. Nurse c. House keeper d. Casey Pachall - CORRECT ANSWER B 21. Which is include in a focused database? *good question a. Limited or short term problem for a mini database b. Labs, health history and full physical c. Analysis of previous issues after treatment d. Rapid data collection for lifesaving measures - CORRECT ANSWER A 22. Which type of data would you collect for a patient who came into the hospital with a collapsed lung? a. Focus database b. Follow up database c. Total health database d. Emergency database - CORRECT ANSWER D 23. Which statement about the four types of data collection is true? a. A complete database is more focused than problem centered b. Follow up data involves rapid collection c. Complete database is only objective data d. Complete database is used to formulate nursing diagnosis and nursing process - CORRECT ANSWER D What is the correct sequence? A Percussion, auscultation, inspection, palpation B Auscultation, palpation, percussion, inspection C Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation D Palpation, auscultation, inspection, percussion - CORRECT ANSWER C You as the nurse observe that a patient is incoherent and confused. What type of data is this? • Subjective • Personal History • Objective data • Present data - CORRECT ANSWER C While assessing your patient he informs you that his arm is itchy and he had developed a rash. This is: • Objective data • Subjective data • Formulating diagnostic hypothesis • Onset - CORRECT ANSWER B At what step in Diagnostic reasoning would you use symptom analysis to obtain missing information? • Formulating diagnostic hypothesis • Gathering data relative to tentative hypothesis • Evaluating each hypothesis with new data collected • Attending initially available cues - CORRECT ANSWER B In response to the patient's complaint of poor sleep, the nurse asks: how many hours of sleep a patient gets, what time he sleeps, what time he wakes. This is which step of diagnostic reasoning: • Attending to initially available cues • Formulating diagnostic hypothesis • Gather data relative to tentative hypothesis • Evaluating each hypothesis with new data collected - CORRECT ANSWER C The nurse hears the patient say "I've had a bloody nose for 3 days." • Attending to initially available symptoms • Formulating diagnostic hypothesis • Gather data relative to tentative hypothesis • Attending to initially available signs. - CORRECT ANSWER A The nurse determines the patient's lack of respirations and inability to sleep are related. What step in diagnostic reasoning? • Attending to available cues • Formulating diagnostic hypothesis • Gathering data relative to hypothesis • Evaluating each hypothesis with new data collected. - CORRECT ANSWER B Identify a first priority problem: • The patient complains of acute pain • The patient appears confused and disoriented. • The patient has not peed in 8 hours. • The patients potassium levels are abnormal. - CORRECT ANSWER D An organized method of giving individualized nursing care that focuses on identifying and treating unique responses of individuals or groups to actual or potential health problems? • Written Care Plan • Nursing Process • Functional Health Patterns • Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER B What does the D in the nursing process stand for? • Documentation • Duration • Database • Diagnosis - CORRECT ANSWER D A patient comes into the hospital with a sudden, life-threatening onset of pulmonary distress. What kind of data collection would you use to get a health history? • Follow up Database • Complete • Focused/problem-centered • Emergency - CORRECT ANSWER D This type of data collection is used for gathering information about a limited or short-term problem such as sudden change in blood pressure. • Emergency database • Focused or problem-centered database • Complete total health database • Follow up database - CORRECT ANSWER B Which type of data collection is used to formulate nursing diagnosis and the nursing process? • Emergency database • Complete (total health) database • Follow up DB • Focused/problem-centered - CORRECT ANSWER B How would you apply the nursing process to cultural sensitivity? • Assessment: assume info about patient based on their religion. • Planning; plan nursing care based on your previous experience with the same culture. • Implantation: care for patient the way you would want to be cared for. • Evaluation: consider how culture has altered your outcome. - CORRECT ANSWER D You walk into your patient's room and realize that they only speak Spanish. What action do you take? • Have the patient's family answer health history. • Find the patient a translator • Try and communicate using your Spanish • Speak loudly and slowly - CORRECT ANSWER B What is the best reason for why a nurse would want to provide culturally sensitive care? • Provide best possible care for the patient. • Make the patient feel more comfortable • To not offend the patient • To provide the best possible care that is both appropriate and comfortable to the patient. - CORRECT ANSWER D Identify which of the following nursing actions is an internal factor • Ensuring privacy with your patient • Preventing disruptions by posting a sign on • Listening to your patient and paying attention to their nonverbal cues. • Turning off TV to omit distractions. - CORRECT ANSWER C Why can note taking be considered a disadvantage? • It breaks eye contact too often • It shifts attention away from the patient • It interrupts the narrative flow and impedes observation. • All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER D In an appropriately written outcome includes which criteria? • Short measurable, achievable, realistic, timeable. • Specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, timeable. • Short, moderately realistic, analgesic, and tolerable. • Smart, mediating, arithmetic, realistic, testable. - CORRECT ANSWER B A patient's goal was to ambulate 3 times, feed herself, and have a pain level of 3 out of 10. At the end of the day, the patient ambulated 3 times, ate by herself, and had a pain level of the 2/10. Has the goal been: • Met • Partially met • Unmet • Not sufficient info to determine. - CORRECT ANSWER A A nurse has 2 patients. One has a low Oxygen saturation and gasping for air while the other has a pain of 6/10. She attends to the first patient. Which critical thinking skill is this? • Distinguishing normal from abnormal s/s • Diagnosing actually and potential problems • Setting priorities • Identifying assumptions - CORRECT ANSWER C A patient's pulse is 48 beats per minute. Which of the following patients would you identify this as unexpected? • 18 year old high school soccer player • 32 y/o man who is sleeping • 50 year old man taking anti-anxiety medication • 44 year old women who has just eaten breakfast. - CORRECT ANSWER D [Show Less]
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Business Analysis Fundamentals Exam Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Business Analysis Fundamentals Exam Questions with Verified Answers business analytics - CORRECT ANSWER is the process of using quantitative methods to ... [Show More] derive meaning from data in order to make informed business decisions. descriptive - CORRECT ANSWER the interpretation of historical data to identify trends and patterns predictive - CORRECT ANSWER the use of statistics to forecast future outcomes prescriptive - CORRECT ANSWER the application of testing and other techniques to determine which outcome will yield the best result in a given scenario more informed decision-making, greater revenue, improved operational efficiency - CORRECT ANSWER benefits of business analytics information processing - CORRECT ANSWER refers to the manipulation of digitized information by computers and other digital electronic equipment, know collectively as information technology transactional - CORRECT ANSWER focus on data item processing analytical - CORRECT ANSWER focus on reporting, analysis, transformation and decision support data - CORRECT ANSWER raw facts, value or elements. _________ is conceived of as symbols or signs, representing stimuli or signals information - CORRECT ANSWER the result of organizing data that provides context and meaning knowledge - CORRECT ANSWER information that provides insights thus making it useful and actionable wisdom - CORRECT ANSWER the soundness of an action or decision with regard to the application of experience, information, knowledge, and good judgement DIKW model - CORRECT ANSWER shows how the human mind can move raw data up to higher planes by progressive organization tacit knowledge - CORRECT ANSWER knowledge embedded in the human mind through experience jobs. explicit knowledge - CORRECT ANSWER knowledge codified and digitized in books, documents, reports, memos, etc. Documented information that can facilitate action. knowledge that is easily identified, articulated, shared and employed. non analytical query, descriptive analysis, what if analysis, reasoning and correlation, fuzzy decision - CORRECT ANSWER examples of analysis [Show Less]
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