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BIOL 235 final Exam 100% accurate
Erythrocytes contain the enzyme carbonic anhydrase carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the conversion of metabolically produced C)2 and water into carbon... [Show More] ic acid fixed phagocytic macrophages remove most old erythrocytes from circulation Location of fixed phagocytic macrophages narrow capillaries of the spleen Undifferentiated cells called pluripotent stem cells reside in the bone marrow pluripotent stem cells continuously divide and develop myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells to give rise to each of the types of blood cells emigration or diapedesis The process of leukocytes squeezing through the capillary endothelium to exit the vasculature agglutinins genetically-determined glycoprotein and glycolipid antigens found on the surface of an erythrocyte ESV volume of blood in the ventricle after ejection has been completed Increase in ESV when stroke volume is decreased Three cations with important effect on heart function K+, Ca2+, and Na+ Increased blood levels of NA+ blocks Ca2+ inflow and decreases force of contraction Excess in K+ blocks generation of action potentials pharynx serves as a sound resonating chamber, contains tonsils, directs air flow inferiorly larynx passes air form pharynx into windpipe, site of sound production paranasal sinuses resonates sound, not part of the pharynx fauces opening from oral cavity into pharynx tertiary bronchus carries air to a segment of a lung terminal bronchiole carries air directly into a respiratory bronchiole pleural membranes surround the lungs surfactant reduces surface tension at sites of gas exchange alveoli actual sites of gas exchange eupnea normal, quiet breathing costal breathing shallow breathing using just the external intercostal muscles compliance amount of effort required to expand the lungs and chest wall inspiratory capacity tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume, usually about 3600 mL in males vital capacity tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume; usually about 4800 mL in males functional residual capacity residual volume + expiratory reserve volume; usually about 2400 mL in males Henry's law states that the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas and its solubility Bohr effect when pH decreases, O2 saturation of hemoglobin decreases Dalton's law each gas in a mixture of gases exerts its own partial pressure medulla oblongata sets basic rhythm of breathing pons includes the pontine respiratory group Blood is a connective tissue that consists of blood plasma (liquid) plus formed elements (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) Whole blood blood plasma and formed elements Blood plasma proteins, water, other solutes Blood plasma proteins albumins (54%), globulins (36%), fibrinogens (7%) Formed elements red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets Blood cell production hemopoesis, mainly occurs in red bone marrow after birth Reticulocyte from proerythrocyte, ejects nucleus Average lifespan of an erythrocyte 120 days Rate of RBC formation by red blood cells equals the rate of RBC destruction by macrophages Emigration or diapedesis is the process by which phagocytic cells leave blood vessels WBCs use to destroy pathogens lysozyme, defensins, and certain anions Neutrophils are usually the first and most numerous [Show Less]
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BIOL 235 Chapter 6, questions and answers| rated A solutions
What is osteology? The study of bone structure and the treatment of bone disorders Describe the protection function of the skeletal system The ske... [Show More] leton protects internal organs from injury Describe the support function of the skeletal system The skeleton is a structural framework for the body (it supports soft tissues and provides attachment points for tendons) Describe the mineral homeostasis (storage/release) function of the skeletal system Bones store minerals (calcium and phosphorus) that contributes to bone's strength Bones release minerals into the blood to maintain homeostasis and distribute minerals throughout the body Describe how the skeletal system aids in movement Skeletal muscles attach to bones, contract, and pull on bones for movement Describe the triglyceride storage function of the skeletal system Yellow bone marrow consists of adipose cells that store triglycerides (a potential chemical energy reserve) Describe the blood cell production function of the skeletal system Red bone marrow produces red/white blood cells, and platelets (marrow changes to yellow with age) What is a long bone? A bone that has greater length than width What is the diaphysis? The shaft of a long bone (body, main portion) What are the epiphyses? The proximal and distal ends of a long bone What are the metaphyses? Regions between the diaphysis and epiphyses of long bones (in growing bones, each contains a growth plate) What is an epiphyseal plate/line? A layer of hyaline cartilage that allows diaphysis of a long bone to grow in length Once the bone stops growing (age 14-24), cartilage is replaced by bone (creating an epiphyseal line) What is articular cartilage? A layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphysis at joints to reduce friction/absorb shocks (avascular, so damage repair is hard) What is a periostium? The connective tissue sheath and blood supply that surrounds the remainder of a long bone's surface (has an outer fibrous layer and inner osteogenic layer) Help protect bone, aids in fracture repair, nourishes tissue, and acts as attachment point (attached to underlying bone by Sharpey's fibres) What is a medullary (marrow) cavity? A hollow space in the diaphysis of a long bone that contains fatty yellow bone marrow and blood vessels (helps minimize bone weight) What is an endosteum? A thing membrane that lines the medullary cavity in a long bone Why is bone classified as a connective tissue? Bone tissue contains an abundant extracellular matrix (contains water, collagen, and crystal mineral salts) that surrounds widely separated cells Mineral salts combine to form hydroxyapatite crystals which then participate in calcification What are osteoprogenitor cells? Unspecialized bone cells that undergo division (develop into osteoblasts), found along periosteum, endosteum, and canals What are osteoblasts? Bone-building cells that excrete collagen to build extracellular matrix, initiate calcification (become osteocytes when they are trapped in extracellular matrix) What are osteocytes? Mature bone cells (main cells in bone tissue) that maintain metabolism through exchange (cells don't divide, just maintain and monitor tissue) What are osteoclasts? Huge osteogenic cells concentrated in the endosteum (plasma membrane is folded) Participates in resorption (breakdown of extracellular matrix, a normal part of development, maintenance and repair of bone) What is compact bone tissue? The strongest form of bone tissue found beneath periosteum of all bones, makes up most of diaphyses of long bones (has few spaces) What is an osteon (Haversian system)? A structural unit of compact bone (aligned parallel to diaphysis), helps shaft resist bending or fracture under lots of force What is a central (Haversian) canal? Part of an osteon, surrounded by concentric lamellae (mineralized extracellular matrix) that contains blood vessels and nerves Interstitial lamellae are fragments of old, destroyed osteons Perforating (Volkmann's) canals: blood vessels/nerves from the periosteum penetrate compact bone through these canals What are lacunae? Spaces between concentric lamellae (have osteocytes) What are canaliculi? Small channels in compact bone, radiating in all directions from lacunae (filled with extracellular fluid) and connect lacunae to each other/to central canals, provides routes for nutrients/oxygen and waste removal What is spongy bone tissue? Interior part of short, flat, sesamoid bones (protected by compact bone) with light tissue (located where stress is applied from many angles) Also called trabecular/cancellous bone tissue Trabeculae: lamellae set in an irregular pattern of columns located along lines of stress (support/protect red bone marrow) Explain the blood/nerve supply of bones Blood vessels pass into bones from the periosteum (periosteal arteries enter diaphysis through Volkmann's canals) Nerves accompany blood vessels (periosteum has many that can detect pain) Explain the nutrient artery/veins Nutrient artery: passes through nutrient foramen in diaphysis (then branches) Nutrient veins: veins that carry blood away from the long bones (accompany artery) Explain the metaphyseal and epiphyseal arteries/veins Metaphyseal artery: supply red marrow and bone of the metaphyses (veins go opposite direction) Epiphyseal artery: supply red marrow and bone of the epiphyses (veins go opposite direction) Explain the process of ossification (osteogenesis) The process by which bone forms (happens in 4 places) Initial formation is in an embryo/fetus, then growth happens during infancy, childhood/adolescence until adulthood, then bone remodelling and repair of fractures happen throughout life What is intramembranous ossification? A simpler type of bone formation Bone forms directly within mesenchyme (in flat skull/facial bones, mandible, clavicle, and soft spots) What are the 4 steps in intramembranous ossifiation? 1. Development of ossification centre: chemical messages tell mesenchyme to cluster (cluster site is centre), cells differentiate into osteoprogenitor cells then osteoblasts (secrete extracellular matrix) 2. Calcification: secretion stops, osteocytes lie in lacunae, extracellular matrix hardens after mineral salts are deposited 3. Formation of trabeculae: extracellular matrix develops into trabeculae, fuse to form spongy bone around blood vessels 4. Development of periosteum: mesenchyme condenses/develops into periosteum (layer of compact bone replaces spongy bone surface layers and bone is remodelled) What is endochondral ossification? Bone forms within hyaline cartilage that develops from mesenchyme (cartilage is replaced by bone) Most bones are formed this way (easiest to see in long bone) What are the 6 steps of edochondral ossification? 1. Development of the cartilage model: mesenchyme cells cluster into shape of future bone and develop into chondroblasts (secrete extracellular matrix); perichondrium develops around the cartilage model 2. Growth of the cartilage model: chondroblasts become chondrocytes (after burying into extracellular matrix); model grows in length (interstitial/endogenous growth) and thickness (appositional growth) 3. Development of primary ossification centre: bone replaces cartilage (primary ossification proceeds inward, perichondrium forms periosteum, spongy bone trabeculae form) 4. Development of the medullary (marrow) cavity: osteoclasts break down spongy bone and leave a marrow cavity in the diaphysis 5. Development of secondary ossification centre: develop around time of birth, bone formation is similar to primary ossification 6. Formation of articular cartilage/epiphyseal plate: hyaline cartilage becomes articular cartilage Describe the process of bone growth in length Involves 2 steps: 1. Interstitial growth of cartilage on the epiphyseal side of growth plate 2. Replacement of cartilage on the diaphyseal side of growth plate with bone by endochondral ossification What is an epiphyseal (growth) plate? A layer of hyaline cartilage in the metaphysis of a growing bone What are the 4 zones in a growth plate? 1. Zone of resting cartilage: small scattered chondrocytes near epiphysis that anchor the plate to the epiphysis (not involved in bone growth) 2. Zone of proliferating cartilage: larger chondrocytes (stacked like coins) undergo interstitial growth 3. Zone of hypertrophic cartilage: consists of large, maturing chondrocytes in columns 4. Zone of calcified cartilage: consists of dead chondrocytes (since extracellular matrix is calcified), becomes the new diaphysis What is an epiphyseal line? A bony line left when an epiphyseal plate closes (cartilage is replaced by bone) in adulthood Describe the process of bone growth in thickness Called appositional growth (4 steps) 1. Periosteal cells at bone's surface differentiate into osteoblasts (secrete extracellular matrix until it surrounds them), which become osteocytes that form bone ridges 2. Ridges fold/fuse together, the periosteum becomes the edosteum 3. Osteoblasts in endosteum deposit extracellular matrix and form concentric lamellae (fill the tunnel until a new osteon is formed) 4. As the new osteon forms, osteoblasts deposit new circumferential lamellae (increases bone's thickness) What is bone remodelling? The ongoing replacement of old bone with new bone (rate is different depending on the place in the body and a person's lifestyle) New bone is more resistant to fracture than old bone Describe bone resorption and bone deposition Resorption involves removal of minerals and collagen fibres from bone by osteoclasts (destruction of extracellular matrix) Deposition involves addition of minerals and collagen fibres to bone by osteoblasts (formation of extracellular matrix) What factors affect bone growth and remodelling? Bone metabolism depends on minerals (calcium/phosphorus), vitamins (A, C, D, K, B12), hormones and sex hormones What is a fracture? Any break in a bone [Show Less]
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BIOL 235: Chapter 11, questions and answers |graded A+
Describe the relationship between bones and skeletal muscles in the production of body movements. skeletal muscle is attached to bone at origin and insert... [Show More] ion. skeletal muscle contracts and pulls on bone. bones serve as levers. joint act as a fulcrum. load is the weight of the object. Describe how the prime mover, antagonist, synergist and fixator in a muscle group work together to produce movements. Opposing pairs of muscle group, often on opposite side of the body, balance out movement. The agonist and antagonist change roles depending on the movement. If they contract equally then there is stability and no movement. The agonist will initiate a contraction and the antagonist will yield and stretch to that effect. Fixaor stabilze the origin. Synergists support the needs of the prime mover by stabilizing intermediate joints. . describe the characteristics used in the naming of skeletal muscles. combination of word roots of distinctive features. - direction of muscle fascicles (rectus are parallel to midline; transverse are perpendicular to midline; oblique are diagonal to midline) -size (major/ minor or short/long) -shape (deltoid =triangular; trapezius = trapezoid) -action (flexor - decrease joint angle; extensor - increase joint angle) - number of origins (biceps = two origins) list the names, locations and actions of principal skeletal muscles. ... list the origins and insertions of several specific skeletal muscles. ... origin attachment of muscle's tendon onto the stationary bone. usually proximal. insertion attachment of the muscles tendon to the moveable bone. usual distal. belly (body) fleshy part of the tendons between the tendons lever system and leverage (fulcrum, effort, load/resistance) levers - bones (rigid structure that moves around a fixed point (fulcrum) and i acted on by two opposing forces: load and effort fulcrum - joint load/resistance - weight of object + bone holding it effort - of the muscle that needs to contact prime mover or agonist within opposing pairs of skeletal muscles, this one leads the contraction to cause an action antagonist within opposing pair of skeletal muscles, this one yields and stretches to the force of the prime mover (agonist) synergist ("work together") prevent unwanted movement at intermediate joints or aid the movement of the prime mover, these muscles contract and stabilize the intermediate joints. e.g., allow fingers to flex but wrists don't have to. fixator Stabilize the origin of the prime mover, so then the prime movers can act more efficiently. (steady the proximal end of the limb while movement occurs distally. occipitofrontalis: frontal belly and occipital belly Location: Frontal belly superior to the frontal bone. Posterior part called occipital belly superficial to the occipital bone. Action: Anterior frontal belly draws scalp anteriorly (e.g., wrinkles forehead in surprise). Occipital belly draws scalp posteriorly. orbicularis oris (circular mouth) Location: around mouth opening Action: closes and protrudes lips when kissing; compresses lips against teeth; shapes lips during speech. zygomaticus major Location: attaches from zygomatic bone to corner of mouth Action: moves mouth superiorly and laterally buccinator Location: major muscle formation in the cheek Action: compresses the cheek during blowing action e.g. playing trumpet, whistling, sucking, helps chew orbicularis oculi (orb=circular; oculi=eye) Location: cicular path around eye Action: closes the eyes *masseter (chewer) Origin: maxilla and zygomatic arch Insertion: Angle and ramus of mandible Location: Action: Elevates mandible when closing mouth *temporalis (time/temples) Origin: Temporal bone Insertion: Coronoid process and ramus of mandible Action: Elevates and retract mandible Location: Large fan of muscles above the temporal lobe *sternocleidomastoid (streno=breastbone; cleido=clavicle; mastoid=mastoid process of temporal bone) Origin: sternal head; manubrium of sternum; clavicular head; medial third of clavicle. Insertion: Mastoid process of temporal bone and lateral half of superior superior muchal line Location: the big strong muscle that can be felt at the side of the neck Action: flex cervical portion of vertebral column; extend head on atlanto-occipital joint; laterally flex and rotate neck; extension of head *rectus abdominis (rectus=fascicles parallel to midline) Origin: pubic crest and pubic symphysis Insertion: cartilage of ribs 5-7 and xiphoid process Action: Flexes vertebral column, especially lumbar. Compresses abdomen for forces exhalation and to help with child birth and going to the bathroom. external oblique Location: Superficial lateral abdomen. fascicles extend inferiorly and medially. Action: acting together bilaterally to compress abdomen and flex vertebral column; acts unilaterally to flex, rotate vertebral column. internal oblique Location: deeper than external oblique. Action: both act together to compress abdomen and flex vertebral column; acts singly to flex and rotate v. column. esp. lumbar. transversus abdominis (fascicles are perpendicular to the midline) Location: deeper than the internal oblique Action: compresses abdomen diaphragm Location: separates thoractic and abdominal cavity. Action: powers breathing - during inhalation the dome shape contracts and flattens, which increases space in the thoracic cavity. relaxation of the thoracic cause it to move superiorly and decrease vertical dimension of thor. cav. which result in exhalation. external intercostal Location: superficial layer in the spaces between ribs. Action: Elevate thoracic cavity and increases anteroposterior dimension in inhalation; in exhalation this space decreases. internal intercostal Location: deep to the external intercostal; fascicles move inferiorly laterally. . Action: contraction draw adjacent ribs together to decreases dimension of thoracic cavity. *trapezius Location: superficial/ upper back. It extends from the skull and vertebral column to the pectoral girdle (large, flat, triangular). Acion: rotates and stabilizes scapula; can help extend head. Origin: Superior nuchal line of occipital bone, ligamentum nuchae, and spines of C7-T12. Insertion: clavicle and acromion and spine of scapula. *levator scapulae (elevates scapula) Origin: Transverse processes of C1-C4. Insertion: Superior vertebral border of scapula. Location: area between cervix of neck and medial edge of scapula. Action: Elevates scapula and rotates in downward. rhomboid major Location: deep to the trapezius; from the spine T2-T5 to the medial edge /vertebral border of the scapula inferior to the spine. Action: Elevates and abducts scapula, rotates it downward. stabilizes. *pectoralis major Origin: clavicle (clavicular head), sternum, costal cartilages of second to sixth rib and sometimes first to seventh ribs (sternocostal head). Insertion: Greater tubercle and lateral lip of intertubercular sulcus of humerus. Action: adducts and medially rotate arm at shoulder joint; clavicular head flexes arm and sternocostal head extends flexed arm to side of trunk. Location: extend from sternum clavicle are collects with muscles in the upper humerus, below the deltoid. latissimus dorsi (widest + on the back) Location: Beneath T7 extends all the way down the spine and up the sides. forms most of the posterior wall of the axilla. Action: Extend, adducts, and medially rotate arm at shoulder joint. draw arm inferiorly and posteriorly. *deltoid Origin: acromial extremity of clavicle, acromion of scapula, and spine of scapula. Insertion: deltoid tuberosity of humerus. Action: abduct arm at shoulder joint; medially and laterally rotate arm at shoulder. subscapularis Origin: subscapular fossa of scapula. Insertion: Lesser tubercle of humerus. Action: Medially rotates arm at shoulder joint. Location: subscapular fossa - anterior side of scapula. *supraspinatus Origin: Supraspinous fossa of scapula. Insertion: greater tubercle of humerus. Action: Assists deltoid muscle in abducting arm at shoulder joint. Location: above/ superior to the infraspinatus. infraspinatus (infra=below) Location: below suprapinatus on the scapula. Action: Laterally rotates arm at shoulder joint. teres major Location: inferior to the teres minor - scapula to humerus. Action: extends arm at shoulder joint and assists in adduction and medial rotation of arm and shoulder joint. teres minor Location: Inferior/ below the infraspinatus; scapula to humerus. Action: laterally rotates and extends arm. *biceps brachii Origin: Long head originates from tubercle above glenoid cavity of scapula (supraglenoid tubercle). Short head originates from coracoid process of scapula. Insertion: Radial tuberosity of radius and bicipital aponeurosis. Action: Flexes forearm at elbow joint; supinates forearm at radioulnar joints, and flexes arm at shoulder joint. brachialis Location: anterior surface of humerus to the ulna. Action: Flexes forearm at elbow joint. brachioradialis Location: humerus to radius. Action: Flexe forearm at elbow joint; supinates (turns palms anteriorly)and pronates (turns palms postreiorly) forearm at radioulnar joint *triceps brachii Origin: Long head originate from infraglenoid tubercle, a projection inferior to the glenoid cavity of scapula. Insertion: olecranon of ulna. Action: extends forearm at elbow. Action: extends forearm at elbow joint and extends arm at shoulder joint. pronator teres (forearm pronator - turn palms posteriorly0 Origin: Medial epicondyle of humerus and coronoid process of ulna. Insertion: midlateral surface of radius. Action: pronates forearm at radioulnar joints and weakly flexes forearm at elbow joint. supinator (turns palms anteriorly) humerus near elbow to to radius. Action: supinates forearm at radioulnar joint. *flexor carpi radialis (flexor = decrease angle at joint; carpi=wrist; radi=radius) Origin: medial epicondyle of humerus. Location: second and third metacarpals. Action: flexes and abducts hand (radial deviation) at wrist joint palmaris longus (palm + long) Location: humerus to the fascia in the centre of the palm. Action: weakly flexes hand at wrist joint. *flexor carpi ulnaris (flexes + wrist + ulna) Origin: medial epicondyle of humerus and superior posterior border of ulna. Insertion: Pisiform, hamate, and base of fifth metacarpal. Action: Flexes and abducts hand (ulnar deviation) at wrist joint. *flexor digitorum superficialis (flex + fingers/toe + close to the surface) Origin: medial epicondyle of humerus, coronoid process of ulna, and ridge along lateral margin of anterior surface of radius. Insertion: middle phalanx of each finger. Action: flexes middle phalanx of each finger at proximal interphalangeal joint; proximal phalanx of each finger at meta carpophalangeal joint, and hand at wrist joint. extensor carpi radialis longus (increases angle at joint) origin: lateral supracondylear ridge of humerus. Insertion: second metacarpal. Action: extends and abducts hand at wrist joint (ulnar deviation). *extensor digitorum (extension of digits) Origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus. Insertion: distal and middle phalanges of each finger. Action: Extends distal and middle phalanges of each finger at interphalangeal joints, proximal phalanx of each finger at metacarpophalangeal, and hand at wrist joint. *extensor carpi ulnaris Origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus and poterior border of ulna. Insertion: fifth metacarpal. Action: Extends and adducts hand at wrist joint (ulnar deviation). erector spinae ... *psoas major (psoa=muscle of the loin; major=larger) Location: lateral to the Iliacus. Origin: transverse processes and bodies of lumbar vertebrae. Insertion: with iliacas into lesser trochanter of femur. Action: psoas major and iliacus muscles acting together flex thigh at hip joint, rotate thigh laterally, and flex trunk on hip as in sitting up from supine position. Iliacus (Iliac = illium) Location: lliac and sacrum alongside the psoas major into lesser trochanter of femur. Action: works with psoas to flex thigh at hip; flex trunk when sitting up from supine; rotates thigh laterally. *gluteus maximus (glute=rump of but; maximus= largest) Location: superficial to the other smaller muscles in that region. Origin: lliac crest , sacrum, coccyx, and aponeurosis of sacrospinalis. Insertion: IIiotibial tract of fascia lata and superior lateral part of linea aspera (gluteal tuberosity) under greater trochanter of femur. Action: extend thigh at hip joint and laterally rotates thigh. gluteus medius (medius= middle) Location: llium to femur. Action: abducts thigh at hip joint and medially rotates thigh. adductor longus (moves parts closer to midline + long). Location: pubic area to femur. Action: Adducts and flexes thigh at hip joint and rotates thigh. adductor magnus (magnus=large) Location: pubic and ishium area to femur. Action: thigh at hip joint and rotates thigh; anterior part flexes thigh at hip joint, and posterior part extends thigh at hip joint. quadriceps femoris (commonly called the "quads") (quadricep=four heads; femoris=femur) largest muscle in the body. comprised of rectus femoris, vastus lateralis vastus medialis, vastus intermedius. Location: anterior surface and sides of the thighs. Action: extends leg at knee joint *rectus femoris (rectus=fascicle parallel to midline) Location: anterior aspect of the thigh. Origin: anterior inferior iliac spine. Insertion: patella via quadriceps tendon and then tibial tuberosity via patellar ligament. Action: All four heads extend leg at knee joint. Rectus femoris acts alone to flex thigh at hip joint. vastus lateralis Location: on the lateral aspect of the thigh. Action: works as a part of quads to extend leg at knee. vastus medialis Location:medial aspect of the thigh. Action: works as a part of quads to extend leg at knee. vastus intermedius Location: deep to the rectus femoris between the vastus lateralis and vastus medialis. sartorius (tailor's muscle - cross legged position) Location: across the thigh of the hip bone ilium to the medial side of the tibia. Action: flexes leg at knee joint; weakly flexes, abducts, and laterally rotates thigh at hip joint. [Show Less]
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Chapter 1 - BIOL 235 questions and answers with complete top solutions
Anatomy The science of body structures and their relationships Dissection analysis; cutting apart in order to examine. Used to study anatomy ... [Show More] physiology the science of body functions what are the 6 levels of structural organization from smallest of largest. 1. Chemical 2. Cellular 3. Tissue 4. Organ 5. System 6. Organismal Describe the Chemical level of structural organization. atoms and molecules. eg. DNA Glucose Describe the Cellular level of structural organization. cells (molecules combine) eg. nerve cells, muscle cells Describe the Tissue level of structural organization. groups of cells. Describe the organ level of structural organization. tissues join together Describe the system level of structural organization. related organs Describe the organismal level of structural organization. any living individual what are the 4 types of tissue? 1. epithelial - body surface, lines hollow organs and cavities 2. connective - connects, supports, protects organs, distributes blood vessels 3. muscular - moves body parts 4. nervous - carries information what are the 11 systems of the human body? 1. Integumentary 2. Skeletal 3. Muscular 4. Nervous 5. Endocrine 6. Cardiovascular 7. Lymphatic 8. Respiratory 9. Digestive 10. Urinary 11. Reproductive Integumentary system Components: skin, hair, fingernails, toenails, sweat glands, oil gland Skeletal system Protects and supports body organs and provides a framework the muscles use to support movement. Made up of bones and joints Muscular system Consists of skeletal muscles, tendons that connect muscles to bones, and ligaments that attach bones together to form joint Nervous system Composed of neurons (cell, axon, dendrite), central nervous system (brain, spinal cord), peripheral nervous system (nerves of the body). Recieves, interpretes and transmits impulses and responses. Responsible for sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing (five senses), heart rate, breathing, speech, movement. Endocrine system Glands secrete hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells. Cardiovascular system Blood vessels transport blood, which carries oxygen, carbon dioxide, nutrients, wastes, etc. The heart pumps blood. Lymphatic system Composed of red bone marrow, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels; picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood; Involved with immunity; Without the system, the body would swell ad fluid becomes trapped in your tissues Respiratory system A system of organs, functioning in the process of gas exchange between the body and the environment, consisting especially of the nose, nasal passages, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Digestive system Breaks down food, absorbs nutrients, and prepares solid waste for removal from the body. includes the organs of the gastrointestinal tract (mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, anus) Urinary System (excretory system) a system that helps maintain the water and electrolyte (sodium, chloride, potassium) balance within the body; regulates the acid-base balance of the blood, and removes nitrogen-containing wastes(byproducts of the breakdown of proteins and nucleic acids) from the body. Contains the kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra. Reproductive system Composed of structures that form gametes, enable fertilization, support the development of the fetus, and enable the birth of a child. Gonads and associated organs what are the 6 important life processes of the body? 1. Metabolism 2. Responsiveness 3. Movement 4. Growth 5. Differentiation 6. Reproduction Metabolism All of the chemical reactions that occur within an organism. what are the two types of metaboilism. describe Catabolism - breakdown of substances Anabolism - building of substances Responsiveness Body's ability to detect and respond to changes Movement motion of the whole body Growth Increase in body size Differentiation cell development (unspecialized --> specialized) ie. stem cells Reproduction Formation of new cells for tissue growth or production of a new individual Homeostasis A tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry, such as blood glucose, around a particular level intracellular fluid fluid inside cells ICF extracellular fluid fluid outside cells ECF what is another name for extracellular fluid? interstitial fluid Explain the effects of stress on homeostasis most stress is psychological (school,work etc.) and homeostatic changes are mild and temporary and responses of body cells can quickly restore balance. In larger disruptions (poisoning, surgery, infections) the body uses many regulatory systems to restore homeostasis such as nervous system (produces action potentials to organs) endocrine system ( secretes hormones into blood). nerve impulses act quickly, hormones are more slow acting. Work through positive and negative feedback systems. Feedback system cycle of events in which body condition is monitored, evaluated, changed, re-evaluated... Receptor body structure that monitors change in a controlled condition and sends input to a control center control center sets range of values within which a controlled condition should be maintained effector body structure that receives output from the control center and produces a response that changes the controlled condition afferent pathway sends info towards the control center efferent pathway sends info away from the control center describe a negative feedback system reverses a change in the controlled condition (negates the original stimulus) example: increase in BP (caused by external stimulus) - Barroreceptors detect increase pressure - nerve impulses sent to brain - nerve impulses sent from brain to heart and blood vessels - heart rate decreases and blood vessels dialate - blood pressure normalizes Positive feedback strengthens a change in controlled condition example: childbirth - oxytocin is released from the pituitary gland - this causes smooth muscle contraction of the uterus - contraction of the uterus causes oxytocin to be released causing more smooth muscle contractions of the uterus explain the relationship between homeostasis and disease Most people experience good health because their body is able to maintain homeostasis and recover from lifes stressors. If your environment, behaviour or genes interfere with this homeostasis then the body may not be able to recover and disease may ensue. disorder Any abnormality of structure or function. disease A detectable alteration in normal tissue function. symptom Subjective changes in body functions - not apparent to oberver sign objective changes that can observe/measure anatomical position subject stands erect, facing the observer with head level and eyes facing forward. Feet are flat on the ground and directed forward. Upper limbs are at sides with palms turned forward. Body is upright. prone body lying face down supine body lying face up planes imaginary flat surfaces that pass through body parts sagittal plane A vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts midsagittal plane (median plane) the single sagittal plane that divides body into EQUAL L & R halves midline An imaginary line drawn down the center of the body, dividing it into right and left halves. parasagittal plane Divides body into unequal right and left sides frontal (coronal plane) passing through the body side to side to create an anterior and posterior section transverse plane (cross-sectional, horizontal) A horizontal plane that divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) portions, and it cuts perpendicular ( degrees) to the main body axis oblique plane By contrast, passes through the body or an organ at an oblique angle (any other angle than a 90 degree angle-diagonal). section a cut of the body or one of its organs made along one of the planes body cavities spaces within the body that help protect, separate and support internal organs cranial cavity formed by cranial bones and contains brain vertebral (spinal) cavity formed by vertebral column and contains spinal cord and the beginnings of spinal nerves meninges Are three layers of connective tissue that surround the brain and spinal cord to form a complete enclosure (dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater). thoracic cavity chest cavity; contains pleural and pericardial cavities and mediastinum pericardial cavity surrounds the heart; the serous membrane of the pericardial cavity is the pericardium pleural cavity each surrounds a lung; the serous membrane of each pleural cavity is the pleura mediastinum central position of the thoracic cavity between the lungs; extends from sternum to vertebral column and from first rib to diaphragm; contains heart, thymus, esophagus, trachea, and several large blood vessels diaphragm (anatomy) a muscular partition separating the abdominal and thoracic cavities abdominopelvic cavity Contains: abdominal & pelvic cavities abdominal cavity contain stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, small intestine, and most of large intestine; the serous membrane of the abdominal cavity is the peritoneum pelvic cavity contains urinary bladder, portions of large intestine and internal organs of reproduction. viscera organs inside the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities [Show Less]
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Module 4: Problem Set - Part 1, question and answer, 100% accurate
T or F: The cardiovascular system is the study of the organs of the body. False- it is the study of the heart, blood and vessels. T or F: The tough... [Show More] , thick sac that encloses the heart and anchors it to the diagram is the pericardium. True T or F: The abdominal cavity contains the heart. False- pericardial cavity inside the thoracic cavity Which layer of the heart is continuous with the blood vessels linings? Endocardium T or F: The left ventricle faces anteriorly, towards the sternum. False- the right ventricle faces anteriorly (closest to the sternum). Describe the location of the heart to the diaphragm. The diaphragm is located inferior to the heart. (The heart is located superior to the diaphragm.) The two upper chambers of the heart are called_____________. Atria The two lower chambers of the heart are called _______________. Ventricles What is the purpose of the fossa ovalis in a fetus? It allows fetal blood to move directly from right to left atrium, bypassing he undeveloped lungs. The fossa ovalis closes during birth so that the lungs can receive oxygen once the baby is born. Label all heart chambers and valves. What is the purpose of the mitral valve? The mitral valve (bicuspid) controls the flow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle. What is the purpose of veins? Veins carry blood back to the heart. True or False: Veins are primarily responsible for the vessel's ability to control peripheral resistance. False- the arterioles. How does the contraction and relaxation of the arterioles help to control blood pressure? Contracting the arterioles increases the blood pressure through decreasing the available volume. Relaxation of the arterioles decreases blood pressure as the volume increases. What does compliance mean? Stretch with little recoil. What are the three layers of a vessel? Tunica externa (superficial), tunica media, tunica intima (closest to the lumen) True or false: Only arteries contain a tunica media. False- all vessels contain three layers but in differing proportions. Capillaries are interconnected to form _____________. Capillary beds Label all the blood vessels which supply blood to the heart. It is required for you to recognize the orientation of the heart in the picture. For example, what is the artery highlighted in blue in the figure below? Left coronary artery The aortic arch becomes the __________as it moves inferiorly. descending aorta What are the three branches off the aortic arch? Brachiocephalic trunk (right), left common carotid, left subclavian Label all major branches to/from the heart. What is unique about the Circle of Willis? The Circle of Willis has a unique feature of providing alternate circulation in case one of the arteries becomes blocked. Know general location of Circle of Willis in relation to its position in the brain. Label all vessels of the Circle of Willis circulation. For example, what vessel is highlighted in blue below? Internal carotid (left) [Show Less]
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BIO 152 EXAM 4, questions and answers with rated solution
Autotrophs organism that can use raw materials from environment to assemble its own carbon based molecules (green plants and bacteria) Heterotroph... [Show More] s consuming other organisms to obtain essential molecules (animals) light reaction part one of photosynthesis that absorbs energy from light, and transfers it to energy carrier molecules calvin cycle part two of photosynthesis that receives the transferred energy and uses it to make carbon based molecules photons packets of kinetic energy found in light red what color of light has long wavelength and low frequency blue what color of light has short wavelength and high frequency chlorophyll captures waves in plants to give its color. good at absorbing red and blue but can't absorb green (why plants are green) photosynthetic cells where are chloroplasts found in plants thylakoid each of a number of flattened sacs inside a chloroplast, bounded by pigmented membranes on which the light reactions of photosynthesis take place, and arranged in stacks or grana. - photons absorbed in photosystem 2 - energy excites electrons and puts them in higher energy - excited electrons ejected from photosystem 2 and transferred to chain explain step 1 of photosynthesis light energy - when electrons are ejected, water is split to resupply photosystem 2 with more electrons -water produces oxygen gas as byproduct explain step 2 of photosynthesis light energy - excited electrons pass through chain of proteins in thylakoid membrane - excited again when they go through photosystem 1 - transferred to NADP and used to make NADPH (electron carrier) explain step 3 of photosynthesis light energy - protons accumulate inside thylakoid during the entire process which creates gradient (high to low) - ATP synthase allow H+ to move down gradient and make ATP - H+ moved into storm used to produce NADPH explain step 4 of photosynthesis light energy carboxylation step 1 of calvin cycle - CO2 molecule added to 5 carbon ribulose making a 6 carbon intermediate - 6 carbon molecule cut in half by rubisco - 2, 3 carbon molecules formed (3-phosphoglycerate/ PGA) explain step 1 of calvin cycle reduction step 2 of calvin cycle - each 3-PGA is reduced by NADPH - rearranged to triose phosphate (1 out of 6 made is exported out of chloroplast explain step 2 of calvin cycle regeneration step 3 of calvin cycle - regeneration of RUBP - it takes 5 triose phosphates (15 carbons) and one ATP to regenerate three RUPB (5 carbons each) explain step 3 of calvin cycle transpiration what process causes plants to lose most of their water stoma pores on surface of plant leaves that allow for exchange of gases with the environment when guard cells uptake solutes when do the stoma open when solutes are released and water flows out of guard cells when do the stoma close CAM plants plants that store CO2 at night to avoid water loss during the day in a dry envt C4 plants plants that trap CO2 in bundle sheath cells to avoid water loss during the day in hot environments. tracheids type of water-conducting cell in the xylem that conduits from single cell vessel elements water conducting tissue of plants, mostly angiosperms, that conduits from many cells negative what type of pressure does xylem use to pull sap cohesion like molecules bind together, water pulls water, does not matter where at in the plant cavitation spaces fill with air which breaks bonding needed by water to pull other molecules up sources cells that produces/release more photosynthetic product than it uses (mature photosynthetic cells in leaf) sinks any cell that takes in more photosynthetic products than it produces, for use of storage (root cells and reproductive cells) phloem vascular tissue that carries metabolic fuel from sources to sinks sieve elements conducting, elongated cells that maintain plasma membrane, mitochondria, and smooth ER positive what type of pressure does phloem use rhizosphere soil layer that surrounds actively growing roots and is rich in microbial populations that aid in decomposition epidermal cells that create waxy cuticle in leaves macronutrient used in large quantities; low concentration in soil and high concentration in plant (N, P, K) micronutrient used in small quantities; variable concentration in soil and moderate concentrations in plants (Mg, Zn) essential needed by plant because plant can't produce minerals symbiosis when both organisms benefit -plant: increase access to minerals out of reach -fungi: get carbs from plant sporophyte generation generation that is diploid and makes spores through asexual division. specialized in dispersal of offspring gametophyte generation generation formed from the spore. haploid and makes gametes. specialized in genetic recombination between parent and offspring bryophytes plants that are gametophyte dominant angiosperms plants that are sporophyte dominant pollen contains the male gametophyte packaged in protective coat thats no longer dependent on water to disperse pollination dispersal that allows for mixing of genetic material from parent population but does not allow dispersal to new locations double fertilization fertilization of angiosperms which involves the joining of a female gametophyte (megagametophyte, also called the embryo sac) with two male gametes (sperm) seed provides nutrients and protection that travel with offspring during dispersal; offspring don't need to stay attached to parent to live dispersal of seed allows offspring to move to new locations not occupied by parent plants seed germination allows offspring to initiate growth when envt conditions are favorable mitosis plants use what to make sperm a. Allows for different versions of genes to come together in new ways. b. Provides a means for new versions of genes to be introduced to the population. c. Provides a means for offsping to disperse to new locations. Bryophytes use the alternation of generations to sexually reproduce because it: they contain an unfertilized egg which will stay protected why are spores suited for dispersal mitosis plants make gametes via meiosis animals make gametes via meiosis plants make spores via bryophytes Which terrestrial green plant lineage first used spores during its sexual reproductive cycle a. Plants remove essential nutrients from the soil, thus creating pockets of nutrient depletion in the soil. b. Plants excrete protons, thus creating pockets of acidified soil around the roots. c. Plants leak photosynthetic products into the soil, increasing the growth of microbes around the roots. In what ways do plant change the soil properties around their roots? C4 Which of the following forms of photosynthesis is most effective in hot, wet environments? C3 Under ideal conditions, which version of photosynthesis produces the most carbohydrates per amount of energy invested? pits When water moves across from one conducting tube to another, what structure must it pass through if it is in a sieve tube? [Show Less]
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BIOD152 Module 7, questions and answers with verified content
T/F: The kidneys are long, thin muscular tubes False T/F: The bladder drains into the ureters False A person sustained blunt force trauma t... [Show More] o the back at the T5 level with no spinal cord injury. Would you expect the kidneys to be damaged? Why or why not? No, the kidneys lie between T-12 and L-3 Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal capsule The renal capsule is a tough fibrous outer skin of the kidney which protects it from injury and infection Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal adipose capsule Outside of the renal capsule is a fatty layer that protects the kidney from trauma Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal fascia The outer renal fascia is composed of dense, fibrous CT which functions to anchor the kidney in place in the abdominal cavity Renal medulla sections The renal medulla is divided into sections called pyramids that point toward the center of the kidney Outer layer of the kidney and the parts of the nephrons located in this region Cortex- located within the cortex are the glomerular capsule and the PCT and DCT sections of the nephrons These arteries flow in between the renal pyramids Interlobar arteries After filtration occurs, next blood travels into these vessels Efferent arterioles Which of the following is true about the location of the bladder? A. In males, the rectum is anterior to the bladder B. In females, the vagina is behind the bladder C. In females, the bladder sits above the uterus D. In males, the bladder is below the prostate gland E. B&C are true F. A&D are true B. In females, the vagina is behind the bladder Which of the following is false about the location of the bladder? A. In males, the bladder is anterior to the rectum B. In females, the bladder is posterior to the uterus C. In females, the bladder is in between the rectum and the uterus D. In males, the bladder is above the prostate glands E. B&C are false F. A&D are false E. B&C are false: In females the bladder is posterior to the uterus & in females, the bladder is between the rectum and the uterus Describe the purpose of the urethral sphincters -Involuntarily-controlled internal urethral sphincter is located near the bladder and keeps the urethra closed to prevent urine from leaving the bladder -Voluntarily-controlled external urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle and surrounds the urethra as it passes through the pelvic floor Based strictly on anatomical structural differences, are males or females more likely to get a UTI? Explain your answer Females, the female urethra is shorter and only carries urine while the male urethra is about 5 times longer. Since the female urethra is short and the external opening is close to the anus, improper wiping or poor hygiene after defecation can easily carry fecal bacteria into the urethra. Bacteria enter the urethra and travel up to the bladder, causing a urinary tract infection (UTI). A patient was just placed under general anesthesia. He is now awake and telling you he is having a hard time excreting urine. What is most likely causing the difficulty? Urinary retention due to slowed detrusor muscle This region of the male urethra exits the bladder Prostatic This region of the male urethra exits the body Spongy What causes the extremely high blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries The afferent arteriole, which is fed by the interlobular artery, is much larger in diameter than the efferent arteriole. The difference in diameter causes an extremely high blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries Micturition can be controlled consciously because of: Voluntary control over the external urethral sphincter Describe the difference between the two types of nephrons Cortical nephrons are in the cortex region of the kidney, except for a portion of their loop of henle which extends into the medulla. Justamedullary nephrons pass deeply into the medulla because of their location and their longer loops of henle For micturition to occur The internal sphincter relaxes and the external sphincter relaxes This is the pressure that depends upon the amount of proteins in the filtrate Colloid osmotic pressure This is the pressure that depends upon a person's blood pressure from the heart and vessels Hydrostatic pressure Calculate the NFP for your patient given the following values COP: 25 Capsular pressure: 15 Hydrostatic pressure: 50 GFR: 120 (Outgoing forces-incoming forces) HP- (COP+Capsular) 50- (25+15) =10mmHg (net outward pressure) Describe in detail how the kidney controls its own rate of blood flow through the nephron Renal autoregulation: the kidney determines its own blood flow by controlling the diameter of the afferent and efferent arterioles. Due to this autoregulation, the kidney can maintain a constant GFR despite variations in the arterial blood pressure in the rest of the body Describe in detail what happens during an emergency to control the rate of blood to the kidney The renal autoregulatory system becomes superseded by higher level nervous system controls. When the nervous system takes over regulation, the afferent arterioles diameter is narrowed by sympathetic nerve fibers. The release of the hormone epinephrine by the adrenal medulla causes a decrease in renal blood flow and decreases the GFR. Constriction of the renal arteries is only to be used for a short period of time Which of the following statements is true concerning the RAA system? A. It responds when blood pressure becomes too high B. Angiotensinogen is a pre-enzyme produced by the adrenal glands C. Renin is released by the cells inside the nephron D. Renin causes dilation of the afferent and efferent arterioles E. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the liver C. Renin is released by cells inside the nephron Which of the following statements is false concerning the RAA system? A. Aldosterone causes the retention of sodium ions B. It responds when blood pressure becomes too high C. Angiotensin II acts to cause vasoconstriction in blood vessels D. Renin is released by the cells inside the nephron E. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I B. It responds when blood pressure becomes too high The greatest amount of reabsorption occurs in the PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) The greatest amount of ________ occurs in the cells of the PCT Reabsorption T/F: Na+ can leave the ascending limb but not the descending limb True Which of the following is false concerning ADH? A. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus B. ADH is produced in response the dehydration conditions C. ADH retains up to 99% of the water in the filtrate D. ADH does not respond during severe blood loss D. ADH does not respond during severe blood loss Which of the follow is true concerning ADH? A. It is produced by the adrenal glands B. It is produced in response to increase water in the blood C. It retains up to 99% of water in the filtrate D. It is unable to respond during severe blood loss C. It retains up to 99% of water in the filtrate What is countercurrent flow? How does the nephron use this to maintain homeostasis? The movement of fluids in opposite directions through adjacent channels. In the nephron, filtrate flows in one direction through the renal tubules while blood in the adjacent blood vessels flows in the opposite direction. Describe how aldosterone release occurs apart from the RAA system Aldosterone can be released directly in response to high K+ levels or low Na+ ion levels in the extracellular compartment Describe the action of aldosterone on the concentrations of sodium and hydrogen in the filtrate Sodium is removed from the filtrate while hydrogen is pumped inside the filtrate Describe the action of alcohol (diuretic) on urinary output Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH Which of the following is true regarding cardiovascular baroreceptors? A. They are mechanoreceptors found in the aortic arch and carotid sinus B. They are in the lungs and the kidneys C. These are chemoreceptors found in the hypothalamus D. They are regulated by the hypoglossal and spinal accessory cranial nerves A. They are mechanoreceptors found in the aortic arch and carotid sinus Which of the following is an abnormal solute in urine? A. Urea B. Nitrogenous wastes C. Ammonia D. Magnesium E. Bile pigment E. Bile pigment Water in the body is primarily found in what body compartment Intracellular Urine with a pH of 5.0 is Within normal range; acidic The bicarbonate buffer system A. generally takes several days to respond B. is the main buffer system of urine C. is the main buffer system of the interstitial fluid D. cause hypoventilation in the respiratory system E. all of the above C. Is the main buffer system of the interstitial fluid The protein buffer system: A. generally takes several hours to respond B. causes hyperventilation in the respiratory system C. is the main buffer system of the interstitial fluid D. is the main buffer system of the intracellular fluid E. all of the above D. Is the main buffer system of the intracellular fluid A person is hyperventilating. This falls under what control mechanism? Explain what hyperventilation accomplishes Respiratory control mechanism- hyperventilation is an increase in the respiratory rate, helping to remove additional CO2 from the body. In minutes, this mechanism reduces CO2 in the body. Removing CO2 uses up H+ causing the pH to rise (becoming more alkaline) and restores the correct blood pH What control mechanism can remove acids and bases from the body Renal control mechanism (kidneys) Your patient was just admitted to the hospital with emphysema. pH= 6.5 PCO2= 60 mmHg HCO3= 34 mEq/L A. Determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis B. Is this cause respiratory or metabolic? C. Is the condition being compensated? D. If compensated, what is the body doing to compensate? A. Acidosis (pH<7.35) B. Respiratory (PCO2>45mm) C. Yes, increased HCO3 (>26) D. Kidney retention of HCO3 to raise pH Your patient was just admitted to the hospital with renal failure. pH= 7.1 PCO2= 30mm HCO3-= 20mEq/L A. Determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis B. Is the cause respiratory or metabolic? C. Is the condition being compensated? D. If compensated, what is the body doing to compensate? A. Acidosis (pH <7.35) B. Metabolic (HCO3- <22) C. Yes, PCO2 <35mm D. Hyperventilation to increase CO2 elimination [Show Less]
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A&P 2 module 7, questions and answers, A+ content
The urinary system has ____ kidneys, _____ ureters, and _____ bladder. two, two, one Describe the shape, weight and location of the adult kidney. ... [Show More] An adult kidney is bean-shaped, about the size of a can of soup and weighs about 5 ounces. The right kidney lies slightly lower than the left because of the liver's location just above it. Both kidneys are mostly protected by the rib cage because of their location between the T-12 and L-3 vertebra. The ____glands are located on top of each kidney. Adrenal glands Describe the three layers of protective tissue that surround the kidney. The kidney surface is protected by three layers of specialized tissue. The renal capsule is a tough fibrous outer skin of the kidney which protects it from injury and infection. Outside of the renal capsule is a fatty layer that protects the kidney from trauma called the adipose capsule. The outer renal fascia is dense fibrous connective tissue which keeps the kidney in place inside the abdominal cavity. A vertical cross section shows what three regions inside the kidney? the cortex, the medulla, and the pelvis The _____ is a continuous outer region with several cortical columns. Renal cortex The renal medulla is divided into sections called _____. Pyramids Describe the renal pelvis. The renal pelvis constitutes a funnel-shaped tube that connects to the ureter as it leaves the hilus. Trace the flow of blood through the vessels of the kidney from renal artery into the glomerulus and back to the renal vein. (1) Renal artery, (2) Segmental artery, (3) Lobar artery, (4) Interlobar artery, (5) Arcuate artery, (6) Interlobular artery, (7) Afferent arteriole, (8) Glomerular capillaries, (9) Efferent arteriole, (10) Peritubular or Vasa recta capillaries, (11) Interlobular vein, (12) Arcuate vein, (13) Interlobar vein, (14) Renal vein Input from the _______ adjusts the diameter of the renal arteries thereby regulating renal blood flow. sympathetic nervous system Urine is carried from the kidneys to the bladder by thin muscular tubes called ____. ureters ______are sphincters located where the ureters enter the bladder. Ureterovesical valves Describe the three layers of the ureter wall. The inner lining, made of transitional epithelium, is continuous with the kidney's lining. The middle layer is two sheets of muscle, one longitudinal and the other circular. The outer adventitia layer is fibrous connective tissue. Describe the urinary bladder. Compare male and female locations. The urinary bladder is the hollow, muscular, elastic pouch that receives, and stores urine excreted by the kidneys before disposal through the urethra. In males, the base of the bladder lies in front of the rectum and just behind the pubic symphysis. In females, the bladder sits below the uterus and in front of the vagina, so the maximum capacity of the bladder is lower in females than in males. Both ureters open into the bladder via the _____. ureteral orifices Describe the three layers of the bladder. The outer adventitia is fibrous connective tissue, the middle layer is a muscular layer known as the detrusor muscle with inner and outer longitudinal layers and middle circular layer, the inner mucosal layer is composed of transitional epithelium. Transitional epithelium cells are specialized to enable cellular expansion to absorb fluid. Describe the bladder when it is full and when it is empty. The bladder is very elastic, collapsing into it a pyramidal shape when empty. As it is filled by urine, the bladder swells and becomes pear-shaped, rising in the abdominal cavity. Describe the two sphincters of the bladder. The involuntary-controlled internal urethral sphincter is located near the bladder and keeps the urethra closed to prevent urine from leaving the bladder. The voluntary-controlled external urethral sphincter, composed of skeletal muscle, surrounds the urethra as it passes through the pelvic floor. Discuss the differences between the male and female urethra. In males and females, the length and functions of the urethra differ. The female urethra is shorter and only carries urine while the male urethra is about 5 times longer and carries both urine and semen from the body. What are the three regions of the male urethra? The prostatic urethra which runs within the prostate gland, the membranous urethra which runs within the urogenital diaphragm and the spongy (penile) urethra. What is a nephron? The basic structural and functional unit of a kidney. The function of the nephron is to control the concentration of water and soluble materials by filtering the blood, reabsorbing needed materials and excreting the rest as urine. Each nephron consists of: Two parts: the glomerular capsule (renal corpuscle) and the renal tubule. The renal tubule is made of: Three parts: the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), the loop of Henle, and the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). Describe the structure of the renal corpuscle. The renal corpuscle is composed of the glomerulus, a network of tiny blood capillaries surrounded by the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule, a double-walled simple squamous epithelial cup (Figure 10). The glomerular capillaries are extremely porous. The capillary endothelium has fenestrations (pores) which allow certain substances to leave the capillaries. What causes water and solutes to leave the glomerulus? The afferent arteriole, which is fed by the interlobular artery, is much larger in diameter than the efferent arteriole. The difference in diameter causes an extremely high blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries, forcing water and solutes out of the blood, thus making filtration possible. Water and solutes leave the glomerulus, enter the glomerular capsule, and subsequently flow into the renal tubule. Once water and solutes leave the blood and enter the glomerular capsule it is called ____. filtrate ________are found in the cortex region of the kidney, except for a portion of their loop of Henle which extends into the medulla. ______pass deeply into the medulla because of their location and their longer loops of Henle. Cortical nephrons; juxtamedullary nephrons Describe the proximal convoluted tubule The first section of the tubule is a coiled proximal convoluted tubule which is specialized to reabsorb water and many solutes from the glomerular filtrate into the low-pressure peritubular capillaries which surround the renal tubule as well as secrete certain unwanted substances. Describe the loop of Henle. The second section is the hairpin loop of Henle. Initially the loop of Henle has the descending limb followed by the ascending limb. The descending limb allows water loss and the ascending limb allows salt (NaCl) loss. Describe the distal convoluted tubule. The last part of the tubule is the highly coiled distal convoluted tubule which allows for hormonally controlled reabsorption of water and solutes. Mostly the distal convoluted tubule is responsible for the secretion of unwanted substances. What are the three types of capillaries associated with nephrons and their function? The glomerular capillaries, the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta. The glomerular capillaries (glomerulus) are highly coiled capillary beds formed from the afferent arteriole, leaving as the efferent arteriole. The peritubular capillaries closely follow the renal tubules and drain into the interlobular vein. the vasa recta which follow the loops of Henle in the juxtamedullary nephrons of the medulla. Describe the process of micturition. Micturition is the act of emptying the bladder. As urine accumulates, the rugae flatten and the wall of the bladder thins as it stretches, allowing the bladder to store larger amounts of urine without a significant rise in internal pressure. The urge to urinate usually starts when about 200 ml of urine has accumulated, causing distension of the bladder walls which initiates a visceral reflex arc. This causes the detrusor muscle to contract and the internal sphincter to relax forcing stored urine through the internal sphincter into the upper part of the urethra. A person can consciously resist this initial urge to urinate because the external sphincter is voluntarily controlled. As the bladder continues to fill, the desire to urinate becomes stronger. Eventually, if the amount of urine reaches 100% of the bladder's capacity, the voluntary sphincter opens, and micturition occurs involuntarily. What is incontinence? Incontinence is the inability to control micturition voluntarily. What is urinary retention? The inability to expel stored urine How many times a day does the kidney filter through the blood plasma? The kidneys filter the entire blood plasma volume about 60 times each day About how many gallons are filtered vs. excreted as urine? About 47 gallons of glomerular filtrate containing the water, nutrients, and essential ions are removed daily from the blood plasma. By the time filtrate enters the collecting ducts, it contains about only 0.5 gallons of urine, with the other 99% being returned to the blood. What are the three steps of urine formation? For the body to filter the entire blood and then retain the important elements, three processes must take place: filtration, reabsorption and secretion. What is Blood hydrostatic pressure (HP)? It is the amount of pressure found inside the blood in the capillaries, driving fluids out of the glomerular capillary. What is Colloid osmotic pressure (COP)? It is also called oncotic pressure. COP is dependent on the amount of proteins in the plasma. COP opposes blood hydrostatic pressure by driving fluids back into the capillary beds. What is the normal range of COP? Memorize this normal range for the exam The COP needs to remain within a normal range between 25-32mmHg. Memorize this normal range for the exam What is capsular pressure? It also opposes blood hydrostatic pressure and drives fluid back into the glomerular capillaries. Calculate the net filtration pressure for a patient with a blood hydrostatic pressure of 60mmHg, a colloid osmotic pressure of 32mmHg, and a capsular pressure of 18mmHg. Net filtration pressure = (Outgoing forces - incoming forces) = HP- (COP + Capsular pressure) =60mmHg - (32mmHg +18mmHg)) = 10 mmHg (net outward pressure) What prevents blood cells from leaving the glomerular capillaries? The size of the capillary fenestrations prevents passage of blood cells and most blood proteins from leaving across the filter. What is the GFR? It is an amount of blood filtered by the glomerulus over time. What causes an increase in the GFR? a decrease? The GFR is increased by an increase in the arterial (and therefore glomerular) blood pressure in the kidneys. The GFR and is decreased by an increase in glomerular osmotic pressure most often caused by dehydration. What happens if the GFR is too slow? too fast? If flow is too rapid, needed substances cannot be adequately reabsorbed. If flow is too slow, nearly all the filtrate is reabsorbed, including most of the wastes that should be excreted. What are the three mechanisms that regulate renal flow? Renal autoregulation, nervous system control, and hormone control. Which mechanism (above) is the kidney controlling its own rate of flow? Renal autoregulation Describe the nervous system control of the renal flow. When the nervous system takes over regulation, the afferent arterioles diameter is narrowed by sympathetic nerve fibers. The release of the hormone epinephrine by the adrenal medulla causes a decrease in renal blood flow and decreases the GFR. What is the hormonal control mechanism for the renal flow? It is called the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system. *The RAA system has more effects in the body than are discussed in the module text. You will be responsible for knowing what is discussed in the text for the RAA system. The RAA system figure in the module goes into supplemental details about other effects in the body. Angiotensinogen is a pre-enzyme produced by the ___ and freely circulates in the blood. liver When blood pressure drops, the enzyme ____ is released by the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells of the nephron. renin In the ____, angiotensin I is converted to ____. lungs; angiotensin II Once circulating angiotensin II reaches the adrenal cortex, it causes the release of the hormone ____. aldosterone What is reabsorption? The process of fluid and substances moving from the filtrate back into the blood is called reabsorption. True or false: all reabsorption occurs in the renal tubules by diffusion. False: Some ions require active transport. Where does the greatest amount of renal tubular reabsorption occur? In the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). About what percentage of Na+ is reabsorbed in the PCT? The loop of Henle? The DCT? 65%; 25%; 10% (DCT reclaims nearly all when necessary) What is secretion? Secretion involves substances entering the filtrate from the surrounding fluid, allowing for the elimination of undesirable substances What is countercurrent flow? Countercurrent flow is the movement of fluids in opposite directions through adjacent channels. When an osmotic gradient is isosmotic, what does this mean? When the fluid outside and inside have the same osmotic concentrations. What is the concentration of the filtrate in the PCT vs. the bottom of the loop of Henle? 300 mOsm/L; 1200 mOsm/L True or False: The descending and ascending regions of the loop of Henle have the same reabsorption characteristics. False True or False: The concentration of urea is relatively low in the distal convoluted tubule and the cortex regions of the collecting ducts because the tubules in the cortex are permeable to it. False (concentrations are high in the DCT and cortex regions; these cells are impermeable to urea) ADH is secreted by the ____. posterior pituitary True or False: ADH increases water output. False Describe the action of ADH. ADH inhibits urine output by increasing the number of channels in the cells of the collecting ducts. Increasing the channels allows water to pass easily from the filtrate and move into the surrounding interstitial space, eventually returning to blood circulation. Water rapidly leaves the filtrate through the channels in the collecting ducts opened by ADH. ADH retains up to 99% of the water in filtrate, and the kidneys excrete a very small volume of highly concentrated urine. Describe the mechanisms of aldosterone. Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption through the excretion of hydrogen ions (H+). Sodium ions are pumped out of the filtrate while hydrogen ions are pumped inside for excretion. Because water follows salt, Na+ reabsorption also causes water reabsorption. A second action of aldosterone is to increase potassium secretion through sodium-potassium pumps. Na+ is pumped out of the filtrate to be returned to the blood while potassium (K+) is excreted in urine. What are diuretics? Diuretics are substances that act on the nephron to increase urinary output. How do the cardiovascular baroreceptors control the nephron? The cardiovascular baroreceptors are in the aorta and carotid arteries under the control of the vagus and glossopharyngeal cranial nerves. If blood volume (and consequently blood pressure) rises, the baroreceptors inhibit sympathetic nervous system signals to the kidney, dilating the afferent arterioles which carry blood to the glomerulus. This causes a dramatic increase in the filtration rate, increasing the output of water and Na+ which reduces blood volume to quickly normalize the pressure. Describe normal urine. Normal excreted urine is usually clear and pale to deep yellow in color depending on the body's degree of hydration. The normal range of urine pH is 4.5 to 8.0. Urine contains about 95% water with about 5% of solutes of varying amounts. Water is found in what two main compartments? Intracellular and extracellular. True or False: A solution has a pH of 0, which is alkaline. False: The closer to 0, the more acidic a solution. Describe the impact of weak acids on a solution. Weak acids do not significantly contribute to the pH of a solution because in this form, H+ is tightly bound and cannot dissociate to become free H+. What is the normal pH of arterial blood? The normal pH of arterial blood is between 7.35 and 7.45. *Memorize this normal range for the exam. What is the principal method through which acids enter the human body? Cellular metabolism (chemical reactions inside a cell to maintain life) What is an anion? An anion is a negatively charged ion. What are the three major chemical buffer systems in the body? Bicarbonate buffer system for interstitial and plasma fluids; Phosphate buffer system in the urine and intracellular; The protein system is the main buffer of the intracellular fluid. The bicarbonate buffer system is composed of _____and _____. weak carbonic acid (H2CO3); bicarbonate ion (HCO3-). How does the respiratory center control pH? The respiratory center has chemoreceptors in the medulla (of the brainstem) which monitor the level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Bicarbonate is the form in which carbon dioxide is transported in the blood plasma. What happens to cause hyperventilation? hypoventilation? If blood pH begins to fall (becomes more acidic), the respiratory center is excited, causing hyperventilation. If blood pH begins to rise (become more alkaline), the respiratory center is depressed, causing hypoventilation. Which system has the largest impact on the level of pH in the blood? Renal system (kidney secretion or retention of bicarbonate ion). What happens in severe alkalosis? In severe alkalosis the blood pH rises above 7.8, and the nervous system is markedly excited causing extreme nervousness, muscle contraction, convulsion, and death due to cessation of breathing. What happens in severe acidosis? In severe acidosis the blood pH drops below 7.0, and the central nervous system is markedly depressed causing coma and imminent death What are the normal blood serum levels? (for pH, PCO2, HCO3-) Normal pH = 7.35-7.45, Normal PCO2 = 35-45 mm, Normal HCO3- = 22-26 mEq/L For the following blood values given, determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis, whether the cause is respiratory or metabolic and whether the condition is being compensated. pH = 7.7, PCO2 = 23 mm, HCO3- = 24 mEq/L pH = 7.7 (> 7.45) so alkalosis, PCO2 = 23 mm (< 35) so respiratory alkalosis, HCO3- = 24 mEq/L (22-26 (normal) so NOT compensated by renal system) For the following blood values given, determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis, whether the cause is respiratory or metabolic and whether the condition is being compensated. pH = 7.6, PCO2 = 49 mm, HCO3- = 29 mEq/L pH = 7.6 (> 7.45) so alkalosis, PCO2 = 49 mm (> 45) so NOT respiratory alkalosis (BUT compensated by respiratory) so metabolic alkalosis, HCO3- = 29 mEq/L (> 26 so caused by metabolic system) [Show Less]
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A&P 2 module 4, questions and answers, latest updated
T or F: The cardiovascular system is the study of the organs of the body. False- it is the study of the heart, blood and vessels. T or F: The tough... [Show More] , thick sac that encloses the heart and anchors it to the diagram is the pericardium. True T or F: The abdominal cavity contains the heart. False- pericardial cavity inside the thoracic cavity Which layer of the heart is continuous with the blood vessels linings? Endocardium T or F: The left ventricle faces anteriorly, towards the sternum. False- the right ventricle faces anteriorly (closest to the sternum). Describe the location of the heart to the diaphragm. The diaphragm is located inferior to the heart. (The heart is located superior to the diaphragm.) The two upper chambers of the heart are called_____________. Atria The two lower chambers of the heart are called _______________. Ventricles What is the purpose of the fossa ovalis in a fetus? It allows fetal blood to move directly from right to left atrium, bypassing he undeveloped lungs. The fossa ovalis closes during birth so that the lungs can receive oxygen once the baby is born. What is the purpose of the mitral valve? The mitral valve (bicuspid) controls the flow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle. What is the purpose of veins? Veins carry blood back to the heart. True or False: Veins are primarily responsible for the vessel's ability to control peripheral resistance. False- the arterioles. How does the contraction and relaxation of the arterioles help to control blood pressure? Contracting the arterioles increases the blood pressure through decreasing the available volume. Relaxation of the arterioles decreases blood pressure as the volume increases. What does compliance mean? Stretch with little recoil What are the three layers of a vessel? Tunica externa (superficial), tunica media, tunica intima (closest to the lumen) True or false: Only arteries contain a tunica media. False- all vessels contain three layers but in differing proportions. Capillaries are interconnected to form _____________. Capillary beds Label all the blood vessels which supply blood to the heart. It is required for you to recognize the orientation of the heart in the picture. For example, what is the artery highlighted in blue in the figure below? Left coronary artery The aortic arch becomes the __________as it moves inferiorly. descending aorta What are the three branches off the aortic arch? Brachiocephalic trunk (right), left common carotid, left subclavian What is unique about the Circle of Willis? The Circle of Willis has a unique feature of providing alternate circulation in case one of the arteries becomes blocked. Label all vessels of the Circle of Willis circulation. For example, what vessel is highlighted in blue below? Internal carotid (left) True or False: Blood is classified as epithelial tissue. False- connective tissue What is the cell portion of blood called? Formed elements How is serum made? Letting blood sit in a tube until it clots and then centrifuging the sample to separate the solid and liquid portions of the blood. True or false: Osmotic pressure pushes fluid into the tissues. False-pushes fluid into the circulatory system What is the average pH of blood? 7.4 What is the shape of red blood cells? Biconcave disks What is the purpose of hemoglobin? To carry oxygen, which loosely combines with iron inside the hemoglobin What is average life span of a red blood cell? 120 days True or False: Once it dies, all portions of the red blood cell is destroyed and excreted. False- the iron can be recycled and returned to the red bone marrow. True or False: White blood cells are smaller than red blood cells. False What are the contents of pus? The thick, yellowish fluid called pus contains a large proportion of dead white blood cells that have fought the infection and then undergo cell death. What are the three main types of white blood cells? Granulocytes, agranulocytes and lymphocytes. What are platelets? Platelets (thrombocytes) are involved in the process of blood clotting, or coagulation. Platelets are not true "cells", but instead are fragments of a large bone marrow predecessor called a megakaryocyte. What is the coagulation cascade? A series of events to start the blood clotting mechanism What converts prothrombin to thrombin? Prothrombin activator What is the purpose of fibrin? Fibrin threads wind around the platelet plug in the damaged area of the blood vessel and provide the framework for the clot. What is plasmin? As soon as blood vessel repair is initiated, an enzyme called plasmin destroys the fibrin network and restores the fluidity of plasma. What are the pulmonary and system circuits? The right circuit is called the pulmonary circuit, sending deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. The left circuit is called the systemic circuit, sending the oxygenated blood to the cells. What are the inferior and superior vena cavae? They return deoxygenated blood to the right atrium The __________are the only arteries in the body carrying deoxygenated blood away from the heart. pulmonary arteries The pulmonary veins return blood to the ______. Left atrium Diastole refers to ______. Relaxation Systole refers to ______ . Contraction True or False: each heartbeat typically lasts longer than 2 seconds. False (less than 1). True of False: The atria contraction time is much longer than the ventricles. False True or False: The heart sounds are of the valves opening. False How does the nervous system and endocrine system interact with the heart? The heart rate is regulated by the nervous system and endocrine system which can increase or decrease the rate of the heartbeat and blood pressure. What is the purpose of the bulb? The bulb portion is squeezed to inflate the bladder with air. What is the purpose of valves inside the veins? Prevents the backward flow of blood. What portion is the pacemaker of the heart? SA node Following the bundle of His, where does the electrical impulse travel next? Purkinje fibers The impulse of the SA node causes contraction of the ______. Atria What is an EKG? A device used to measure electrical impulses in the heart What is the P-wave? Atrial depolarization and atrial systole What is edema? Fluid accumulation What is pulmonary edema? Fluid in the lungs Hypertension is blood pressure significantly higher than: 120/80 What is atherosclerosis? Accumulation of soft masses of fatty materials inside the arteries. What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus? A stationary blood clot is called a thrombus. If a blood clot dislodges and moves along with blood it is called an embolus. PE is an abbreviation for: Embolism What is the medial term for a heart attack? Myocardial infarction What is angina pectoris? Chest pain (in a heart attack, pain often radiates down the left arm) Name at least one other heart attack symptom: shortness of breath, upset stomach, extreme fatigue, pain or pressure in the chest Streptokinase is a drug given to______. Dissolve a blood clot Name two surgical procedures available to clear clogged arteries. Angioplasty, coronary artery bypass [Show Less]
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Module 5: Problem Set - Part 1, questions and answers with verified content
The lymphatic system is closely connected with what other body system? Cardiovascular system What are lymphatic vessels? The lymphatic vessels tak... [Show More] e up excess tissue fluid and return it to the bloodstream What are three functions of the lymphatic system? (1) The lymphatic vessels take up excess tissue fluid and return it to the bloodstream. (2) Lymphatic capillaries absorb fats and transport them to the bloodstream. (3) The lymphatic system helps with immunity to defend the body against disease. What is lymph? Excess tissue fluid entering the lymphatic capillaries from the interstitial fluid not returned by the cardiovascular system. Describe the flow of lymph. The lymph flows one way, from the lymphatic capillary system to the subclavian veins, where it joins the venous circulation to return to the heart. True or false: Lymph vessels are only found in the lower extremities. False. They are found throughout most sections of the body. Describe the structure of lymph vessels. Lymph vessels have one-way flow valves similar in structure to the large veins of the cardiovascular system. The valves prevent the backward flow of lymph. The return of the lymph fluid into circulation is solely dependent on the squeezing action of skeletal muscles, squeezing the fluid one way through the lymphatic vessels. Label the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains into the ________. Right subclavian vein True or false: The thoracic duct drains fluid from the right arm. False-the left arm Describe the structure of a lymph node. A lymph node is encapsulated in a fibrous connective tissue with many incoming and fewer outgoing lymphatic vessels. Incoming vessels (afferent vessels) flow through a network of sinuses that contain cells. The lymph then flows out of the lymph node through the efferent vessel. The interior of the lymph node is divided into open spaces called nodules, containing lymphocytes and macrophages. The spleen is in what region of the body? The spleen is in the upper left abdomen. What is the function of the spleen? The spleen functions to extract old or defective blood cells and platelets. The spleen also removes debris, foreign matter, bacteria, viruses and toxins from the blood that flows through it. After blood exits the spleen via the splenic vein, where does it travel? Blood leaves the spleen via the splenic vein which flows to the hepatic portal vein (also called the hepatic portal system). The hepatic portal system carries blood drained from the veins of the spleen, intestines, stomach and pancreas to the liver. The hepatic portal vein transports blood into the liver where it is detoxified before returning to general circulation. Label the splenic artery, vein and hepatic portal vein. Locate the thymus and describe its function. The thymus gland is located on anterior surface of the heart. The thymus secretes thymosin and thymopoietin hormones which enable T lymphocytes (T cells) to mature and function as part of the immunity system. Mature T cells attack body cells which are cancerous or infected with pathogens. Locate the tonsils and describe their function. The tonsils (palatine tonsils) are a group of small lymphoid organs in the lateral, posterior portions of the throat. The tonsils gather and destroy bacteria inhaled in air or food. [Show Less]
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