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Bundle for PATHO 370 exam 100% accurate answers
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patho 370 - week 2 questions and answers graded A+
What is type I hypersensitivity and antigen form? IgE and soluble antigen What is type II hypersensitivity? IgG OR IgM and cell-bound antigen ... [Show More] What is type III hypersensitivity? IgG AND IgM and soluble antigen What is type IV hypersensitvity? T Cells and soluble or cell-bound antigen What is type I hypersensitivity mechanism of activation? -Allergen-specific IgE antibodies bind to mast cells via their Fc receptor. -When the specific allergen binds to the IgE, cross-linking of IgE induces degranulation of mast cells. What is type II hypersensitivity mechanism of activation? -IgG or IgM antibody binds to cellular antigen, leading to complement activation and cell lysis. -IgG can also mediate ADCC with cytotoxic T cells, natural killer cells, macrophages and neutrophils. What is type III hypersensitivity mechanism of activation? - Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited on tissues. - Complement activation provides inflammatory mediators and recruits neutrophils. -Enzymes released neutrophils damage tissue. What is type IV hypersensitivity mechanism of activation? - TH1 cells secrete cytokines, which activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells. What is a type I hypersensitivity reaction? - Local and systemic anaphylaxis -Seasonal hay fever - Food allergies - Drug allergies What is a type II hypersensitivity reaction? - RBC destruction after transfusion with mismatched blood types during hemolytic disease of the newborn What is a type III hypersensitivity reaction? - Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis -Rheumatoid arthritis -Systemic lupus erythematosus What is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? - Contact dermatitis -Type I diabetes mellitus -Multiple sclerosis (slowest) What is excessive immune response? A type of alteration in immune function: over or hyper-function of immune system What is deficient immune response? A type of alteration in immune function: ineffective immune response What is autoimmunity? Immune system attacks own tissues What is the cause of autoimmunity? Abnormal excessive immune responses toward own tissues. What is the MHC gene? (HLA) Appear to increase risk of autoimmune disorders females at higher risk What is hypersensitivity? -Describes the mechanism of injury -May or may not involve autoimmunity What is the treatment of autoimmunity? Individualized immunosuppressive therapy - 1. Corticosteroids and cytotoxins (MTX) 2. Tumor necrosis factor inhibitors and immunomodulators - (Monoclobal Antibodies (MAB)) 3. Therapeutic plasmapheresis What is the mechanism of treatment for type I hypersensitivity of IgE blocker therapy? Inhibits binding of IgE to mast cells (Only for Type I) What is the mechanism of treatment for hypersensitivity of antihistamines? Block the effects of histamine What is the mechanism of treatment for hypersensitivity of epinephrine? (counter effects of Histamine) -Adrenergic agent given subQ or IV during acute allergic reactions -Highly allergic people can carry an EpiPen What is the mechanism of treatment for hypersensitivity of Beta-adrenergic? Decrease broncho-constriction What is the mechanism of treatment for hypersensitivity of corticosteroids? Decrease inflammatory response What is the mechanism of treatment for hypersensitivity of anticholinergics? Block parasympathetic system What is leukemia? Circulating tumors that primarily involve blood and bone marrow What is lymphoma? tends to localize in lymph tissues; is often disseminated to other sites at diagnosis What is plasma cell myeloma? malignant transformation of B-cell plasma cells; likes to form localized tumors in bony structures What are the most common clinical manifestations of hematologic neoplasms? -Anemia -Thrombocytopenia -Leukopenia --Neutropenia What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma/(ALL) most common of? Primarily a children's disorder: most common malignancy in children What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma/(ALL) peak incidence? Between 3 and 7 years; 2nd peak: middle age What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma/(ALL) symptom onset? -Abrupt -Bone pain, bruising, fever, infection -Children may refuse to walk---why? (Hematothrosis: low platelets) -Loss of appetite, fatigue, abdominal pain -Enlarged spleen, liver, lymph nodes -3% may present with CNS signs What is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma/(ALL) prognosis and treatment? - 85% 5-year survival rate in children; 30% to 50% in adults (Better prognosis in children than adults) -Certain forms of ALL more responsive to therapy -Chemotherapy for remission induction What is Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) average onset? 40-50 years/Adult What is Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) characterized by? malignant granulocytes that carry the Philadelphia chromosome (Ph+): Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22 to creates a new fusion gene: bcr/abl (increases cell proliferation and reduces apoptotic cell death) What is Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) usual clinical presentation? -High granulocyte count on the CBC -Splenomegaly What is Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) anti-bcr/abl therapy (imatinibi)? reduce number of leukemic cells with bcr/abl type to undetectable levels What does Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) not respond well to? chemotherapy: poor overall survival time, untreated patients have median survival 2 years What does Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL) accounted for? 30% of all cases of leukemia in the United States — most common What is pathogenesis of Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL)? 95% are malignant B-cell precursors --Follows an indolent course; asymptomatic --Usually found by accident in routine blood examinations What is another pathogenesis of Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL)? 5% associated with more aggressive T-cell transformation What are the symptomatic of Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL)? -Fatigue, weight loss, anorexia -Increased susceptibility to infections -B & T cells divide uncontrollably and rapidly What happens when malignant lymphocytes invade lymphoid tissues and bone marrow in Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL)? disrupts function -Lymphadenopathy: Enlarged, painless lymph nodes -Splenomegaly: Enlarged spleen -Hepatomegaly: enlarged liver What happens in bone marrow infiltration in Chronic Lymphoid Leukemia (CLL)? -Reduces production of red blood cells/platelets---s/s?? -Preponderance of lymphoid cells What is the pathogenesis of Plasma Cell Myeloma (Multiple Myeloma)? - Malignant plasma cells produce excessive identical monoclonal antibodies -Accumulate in the bloodstream -Detected by serum protein electrophoresis -Large amount of one type of antibody; forms a characteristic spike **Think CRAB What does CRAB stand for in multiple myeloma? -hyperCalcemia, -Renal insuff, -Anemia, -Bone lytic lesions/Back pain What is Bence Jones protein? -Malignant plasma cells produce light-chain antibody fragments that accumulate in blood and urine --Helps confirm diagnosis --Can accumulate in kidneys and damage them What are the pathologic fractures common in Plasma Cell Myeloma (Multiple Myeloma)? -Bone destruction releases calcium into bloodstream -hypercalcemia What is the most clinical manifestation caused by in Plasma Cell Myeloma (Multiple Myeloma)? Most clinical manifestation caused by bone/renal damage What is the diagnosis based on for Plasma Cell Myeloma (Multiple Myeloma)? -Monoclonal antibody peak -Presence of Bence Jones protein -Hypercalcemia -Evidence of bone lesions What are the cells in Hodgkin Disease? B cells What are the cells for non-hodgkin? B, T & NK cells What are the risk factors in Hodgkin Disease? Epstein-Barr Virus (EB virus) What are the risk factors in non-hodgkin? -Burkitt lymphoma -Epstein-barr virus -HIV What is the histology of Hodgkin Disease? Reed-sternberg cells What is the growth/metastasis in Hodgkin Disease? contiguous lymphatic pathways (grow/spread in predictable way) What is the growth/metastasis in non-hodgkin? Non-predictable What is the initial place/common place for Hodgkin Disease? cervical nodes What is most common for Hodgkin Disease? Single node or localized node chain What is most common for non-hodgkin? spread What is the treatment for Hodgkin and non-hodgkin disease? radiation and chemo What is the survival rate of Hodgkin Disease? >85% What is the survival rate of non-hodgkin? about 50% What does Hodgkin disease represent? Represents about 30% of malignant lymphoma What is the life span of Hodgkin disease? Occurs across life span; half of cases between ages 20 and 40 years What is higher incident in males for Hodgkin disease? males; also have worse prognosis What is malignant disorder of lymph nodes of Hodgkin disease characterized by? -Reed-Sternberg cells -Originate from B cells in germinal centers of lymph nodes --Malignant but grow/spread in predictable way; sets HD apart from other lymphomas How does Hodgkin disease metastasizes along? contiguous lymphatic pathways (Predictable metastasis route) What is frequently found in Hodgkin disease? Epstein-Barr virus in genome of transformed Reed-Sternberg cells; may be important in pathogenesis of HD Where is Hodgkin disease present in? single node or localized node chain What is the most common treatment for Hodgkin disease? Radiation therapy but if disease is disseminated = chemotherapy What are B-Cell, T-Cell, and NK-Cell Lymphoma (Non-Hodgkin) pathogenesis and clinical manifestations? -Similar to other malignancies -Tumor cells derived from single mutant precursor cell and are clonal -Viruses suspected in development of some lymphomas (e.g., Burkitt lymphoma and Epstein-Barr virus) -5-year survival rate: 50% What are two serious oncologic emergencies in B-Cell, T-Cell, and NK-Cell Lymphoma (Non-Hodgkin)? -Superior vena cava obstruction -Spinal cord compression What are other complications in B-Cell, T-Cell, and NK-Cell Lymphoma (Non-Hodgkin)? -infection -bone metastasis -joint effusions What is aplastic anemia? Stem cell disorder characterized by reduction of hematopoietic tissue, fatty marrow replacement, and pancytopenia (low RBC, WBC, and platelets) ** What is aplastic anemia caused by? toxic, radiant, or immunologic injury to the bone marrow stem cells What is aplastic anemia diagnosed with? bone marrow biopsy What is the age group for aplastic anemia? young (15-25) or old (>60) What is the treatment for aplastic anemia? - Determine efficacy of bone marrow transplantation ** - Administer immunosuppressive therapy or stimulate hematopoiesis and bone marrow regeneration What is the prognosis for aplastic anemia? Fatal unless bone marrow transplant successful What is iron deficiency anemia? - Most common nutritional deficiency in the world -Insufficient iron for hemoglobin synthesis What are the sign and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia? - Pica (craving for nonfood substances such as dirt, clay, ice, laundry starch, cardboard, or hair) -Koilonychias (spoon-shaped nails) -Blue sclerae What is MCV? mean corpuscular volume - average volume and size of individual red blood cells What is MCHC? mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration - checks the average amount of hemoglobin in a group of red blood cells What is ferritin? 1. Iron-protein complex 2. Cellular storage protein for iron 3. Acute phase reactant What is transferrin? A plasma protein that transports iron through the blood to the liver, spleen and bone marrow. What is iron deficiency anemia insufficient in? Hypochromic, microcytic RBCs; low MCV, MCH, and MCHC What serum decreases in iron deficiency anemia? Serum ferritin level decreased; serum iron level decreased; total iron binding capacity (TIBC) increased What is the treatment for iron deficiency anemia? - Oral administration of ferrous sulfate or intravenous ferric gluconate (only in severe cases); continue for 4-6 months ** -Treat underlying cause What is iron deficiency anemia prognosis? Excellent What is Anemia Related to Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) or Folate Deficiency? Disruption in DNA synthesis of blast cells produces megaloblasts (macrocytic *) What is pernicious anemia in Anemia Related to Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) or Folate Deficiency? Pernicious anemia due to lack of intrinsic factor leading to vitamin B12 deficiency What are folate deficiencies from? -Folate deficiencies from dietary deficiencies, alcoholism, cirrhosis, pregnancy, or infancy --Low folate levels associated with neural tube deficits What are the clinical manifestations of Anemia Related to Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) or Folate Deficiency —Macrocytic? Pernicious anemia -Low RBC, WBC, and platelet counts with increased -MCV; megaloblastic dysplasia -Peripheral nerve degeneration -Shillings test indicates low B12 -Gastric analysis reveals achlordydria (absence of hydrochloric acid in the gastric secretions) -Megoblastic madness What is the treatment for Anemia Related to Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) or Folate Deficiency? -B12: administer B12 parenterally or orally and potassium supplements -For folate: administer folic acid What is sickle cell anemia? Genetically determined defect of hemoglobin synthesis resulting in hemoglobin instability and insolubility What is the pathogenesis of sickle cell anemia? - Sickled cells cause vascular occlusion - Severe anemia, RBCs of different shapes and sizes, recurrent painful episodes Sickle cell anemia is common in who? African American What is the treatment of sickle cell anemia? of choice is stem cell transplant (cures) What is the prognosis of sickle cell anemia? death if no/unsuccessful transplant What is hemolytic disease of the newborn? Fetal RBCs cross placenta, stimulate production of maternal antibodies against Rh+ antigen on fetal RBC not inherited from mother (mother: Rh- blood type) What happens when maternal antibodies cross in hemolytic disease of the newborn? the fetal circulation causing destruction of fetal cells -ABO incompatibility most common -Rh incompatibility more clinically relevant What is the treatment of hemolytic disease of the newborn? - Standard dose of anti-Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to the mother before or after delivery -Severe cases, in utero blood transfusion and early delivery What is the prognosis of hemolytic disease of the newborn? Death, possible retardation, or barely perceptible hemolytic process What is hematopoiesis? blood cell formation- stem cells---reticulocytes (erythroblasts) --mature red blood cells (erythrocytes) What is erythropoietin (EPO)? hormone that stimulates RBC production Where is erythropoietin (EPO) made? adults - kidney fetus/newborn - liver and kidney -renal disease causes anemia What are the functions and results of erythropoietin (EPO)? Functions - bone marrow Results - erythrocyte production What are the nutritional requirements for Erythropoiesis? adequate amounts of iron, protein, vitamins, and minerals How is the absorption of B12 in Erythropoiesis? In small intestine requires intrinsic factor, which is produced by the parietal cells of the stomach. (pernicious anemia—IF deficiency) What does iron need in Erythropoiesis? Hemoglobin What does folate and b12 deficiencies lead to in Erythropoiesis? impaired DNA synthesis in erythroid cells because the vitamins are coenzymes of key reactions in cellular metabolism Where is B12 stored? liver What happens in red cell destruction? Intestinal bacteria convert conjugated bilirubin into urobilinogen; excreted primarily in the stool but also in urine What is vitamin k deficiency normal bleeding time? ... What is pernicious anemia caused by? deficiency of intrinsic factor (deficiency of vit B-12) [Show Less]
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PATHO 370 QUIZ 3 questions and answers, latest updated 2023
Which is a major determinant of diastolic blood pressure? vascular resistance Which best defines systolic blood pressure? occurs during ventricula... [Show More] r contraction Which term is determined by stroke volume, speed of ejection, and arterial distensibility? pulse pressure Cardiac output is the product of both stroke volume and heart rate Which receptor is responsible for innervation of the arterioles? α-1 Which statement is true about baroreceptors? an increase in pressure causes an increase in impulse discharge. What is another name for vasopressin? antidiuretic hormone Which term is used to identify hypertension that has a specific disease as its cause? secondary Which situation causes an increase in blood pressure? intracerebral hemorrhage Which statement is true regarding hypertension during pregnancy? Cardiac output (CO) is reduced by 40% to 60% during pregnancy. Which statement is true regarding hypertension? High blood pressure can be associated with headache and seizures Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) can be indirectly estimated with the use of which blood pressure measurement? diastolic pressure Aortic and carotid baroreceptors are activated by ___________, resulting in ___________. decreased blood pressure; an increase in cardiac output (CO), systemic vascular resistance (SVR), heart rate (HR), and blood pressure The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) alters blood pressure in response to decreased perfusions to the kidney What stimulates the release of renin? (Select all that apply.) Renal hypoperfusion Sympathetic activation Decreased sodium delivery What causes vasodilation? (Select all that apply.) Nitric oxide Histamine Kinins Which is a risk factor associated with hypertension? (Select all that apply.) Age African-American race History of tobacco smoking Which condition is an endocrine disorder that causes elevated blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) Cushing disease Hyperthyroidism Systemic blood pressure is determined by which factor(s)? (Select all that apply.) Heart rate (HR) Stroke volume (SV) Cardiac output (CO) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) Risk factors for the development of high blood pressure are which of the following? (Select all that apply.) Age Race Diet Weight High blood pressure can be treated with lifestyle modification related to which of the following? (Select all that apply.) Decreased sodium intake Relaxation techniques Weight management Exercise Atherosclerosis predisposes to a number of processes that are factors in myocardial ischemia. These processes include Thrombus formation Abnormal vascular regulation by endothelial cells in small vessels of the heart contributes to Ischemic heart disease What is the marker of choice for detecting a myocardial infarction? Elevated serum levels of cardiac troponin In a patient with mitral stenosis, cardiac catheterization findings would indicate increased pressure in the left atria Which condition may result in chronic pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right-sided heart failure? mitral valve stenosis The primary cause of sudden cardiac death is usually due to ventricular dysrhythmia What factor causes a congenital heart disease to produce cyanosis? right-to-left shunting of blood Which clinical manifestation differentiates myocardial infarction (MI) from angina pectoris? (Select all that apply.) Radiating chest pain ST-segment changes on the ECG Elevated serum levels of troponin The pathologic changes that occur in the development of coronary atherosclerotic lesions include cell damage resulting from which of the following? (Select all that apply.) The effects of oxidized lipids An inflammatory response The formation of plaques Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A ventricular septal defect Right ventricular hypertrophy Obstructed right ventricular outflow An aorta positioned above the ventricular septal opening Which medication classification is used to decrease preload in patients with heart failure? diuretics A patient with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which terms appropriately describes this clinical manifestation? paroxysmal nocturnal Which left atrial pressure readings indicates a risk of increased capillary filtration that results in the clinical manifestations of pulmonary edema? 25 mm hg A patient has a regular heart rate of 54 beats/min. The nurse would document this rhythm as bradycardia Atrial fibrillation is best described as when Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate A common cause of heart failure is which of the following? (Select all that apply.) Coronary artery disease Cardiomyopathy Hypertension A patient is admitted to the hospital with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) Cough Dyspnea Crackles in lungs [Show Less]
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WCU Pathophysiology 370 Final questions and answers with complete answers
Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for a. respiratory depression. b. narco... [Show More] tic dependency. c. sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. d. allergic reaction. c. sphincter of Oddi dysfunction A patient is admitted to the hospital with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) a. Cough b. Dyspnea c. Bradypnea d. Crackles in lungs e. Peripheral edema a. Cough b. Dyspnea d. Crackles in lungs Which offers the best prognosis for the cure of cancer? a. Surgery b. Radiation c. Early detection d. Chemotherapeutic agents c. Early detection Early detection of cancer, while it remains localized, is associated with the best prognosis for a cure. The majority of patients with solid tumors are treated surgically, which can be curative in some localized cancers. Ionizing radiation is used for two principal reasons: to kill tumor cells that are not resectable because they are located in a vital or inaccessible area, and to kill tumor cells that may have escaped the surgeon's knife and remain undetected in the local area. Chemotherapeutic agents are not selective for tumor cells, and a certain amount of normal cell death also occurs. A heart that has to pump harder in order to effectively circulate blood is likely to undergo which type of cellular adaptation? a. Atrophy b. Metaplasia c. Hypertrophy d. Hyperplasia c. Hypertrophy A characteristic of benign prostatic hypertrophy includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Urgency b. Hesitancy c. Low back pain d. Weak urine flow e. Incomplete bladder emptying b. Hesitancy d. Weak urine flow e. Incomplete bladder emptying What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.) a. Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints b. Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints c. Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules d. Swelling of at least one wrist joint e. Morning stiffness in joints a. Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints b. Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints c. Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules e. Morning stiffness in joints Atrial fibrillation is best described as when a. The P wave precedes, follows, or is buried in the QRS complex b. Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate c. An atrial rate of 240 to 350 beats/min in a sawtooth pattern of atrial depolarization is seen d. P waves occurs earlier than normal, preceded by a P wave with a normal QRS configuration b. Disorganized and irregular atrial waves are accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate - Atrial fibrillation is described as disorganized and irregular atrial waves accompanied by an irregular ventricular rate. - Escape rhythms can present with a P wave that precedes, follows, or is buried in the QRS complex. - Atrial flutter is typically manifested by a rapid atrial rate of 240 to 350 beats/min and a characteristic saw-tooth pattern of atrial depolarizations. - Premature atrial complexes (PAC) are characterized by P waves that occur earlier than normal, preceded by a P wave with a normal QRS configuration. Cardiac output is the product of both a. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) and systemic vascular resistance (SVR) b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and pulse pressure c. Pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure (MAP) d. Stroke volume and heart rate d. Stroke volume and heart rate Which statement is true regarding rheumatoid arthritis? a. It is a localized disease. b. Its prevalence is affected by climate. c. It affects men three times more than women. d. The majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid factor. d. The majority of the patients test positive for rheumatoid factor. The study of specific characteristics and functions of a living organism and its parts is called a. Psychiatry b. Physiology c. Homeostasis d. Pathophysiology b. Physiology Which statement is true regarding cystic fibrosis? a. It is autosomal-dominant. b. It affects endocrine glands. c. It is common in African Americans. d. It is the most common genetic disease in the United States. d. It is the most common genetic disease in the United States. Which cell is from myeloid lineage? (Select all that apply.) a. B cells b. Platelets c. Monocytes d. Natural killer cells e. Granulocytes b. Platelets c. Monocytes e. Granulocytes - Platelets, monocytes, and granulocytes are from myeloid lineage - B cells and natural killer cells are lymphoid Which statement is true regarding cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer. b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host. c. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones. d. Anaplasia means more differentiated cells. e. Metastasis means less differentiated cells. a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer. b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host. The greater the degree of anaplasia, the more aggressive the malignant tumor. Malignant tumors, if left untreated, have the potential to kill. Benign tumors often grow slowly than malignant ones. Anaplasia is a lack of cell differentiation. Metastasis means the invasion of cancer to distant sites. Which is a pathophysiologic change that is consistent with Alzheimer disease? (Select all that apply) a. Amyloid plaques b. Epileptogenic focus c. Focal cerebral infarct d. Neurofibrillary tangles e. Abnormal serotonin system a. Amyloid plaques d. Neurofibrillary tangles Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles occur in the brains of Alzheimer patients and are found at autopsy. Neural thread proteins (tau protein) have a normal function and stabilize microtubules. In Alzheimer disease, they are chemically altered and twist into paired helical filaments known as neurofibrillary tangles. Epileptogenic focus is associated with seizure disorder. Focal cerebral infarct is a stroke occurring in a localized area of the brain. Abnormalities in the cholinergic system are associated with Alzheimer disease; serotonin abnormalities are found in depression. Which statement regarding chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is a true statement? a. It is not seen in children. b. It represents 30% of all cases of leukemia. c. The average age of onset is older than 70 years. d. Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome. d. Affected persons carry the Philadelphia chromosome. Philadelphia chromosome occurs in this leukemia. CML occurs occasionally in children and adolescents. CML represents approximately 15% of all cases of leukemia in the US. The average age of onset is between 40-50 years. Which term is used to describe an excess of red blood cells? a. Anemia b. Polycythemia c. Pancytopenia d. Granulocytopenia b. Polycythemia - Polycythemia is an excess of red blood cells. - Anemia is a deficiency of red blood cells. - Pancytopenia is a decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. - Granulocytopenia is a decrease in platelets It is true that acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) is a. Incurable b. More curable in adults c. Primarily diagnosed in children d. Generally seen in adults older than 70 years c. Primarily diagnosed in children ALL is primarily a disorder occurring in children. ALL is highly curable in children, less so in adults. Peak incidence is between ages 3-7 years of age. A second rise occurs in middle age An enlarged thyroid gland produces a colloid goiter when a. Lack of iodine prevents formation of thyroid-stimulating hormone without stopping T4 and T3 production b. Lack of iodine prevents T4 and T3 but without stopping thyroglobulin formation c. Excessive iodine suppresses thyroid-stimulating hormone, T4, and T3 formation d. Dietary iodine is insufficient and replaced with iodized salt b. Lack of iodine prevents T4 and T3 but without stopping thyroglobulin formation Which is a modifiable risk factor for prevention of atherosclerosis? a. Smoking b. Genetics c. Gender d. Age a. Smoking What physiologic abnormality is characteristic of emphysema? a. Collapse of the proximal airways b. Trapping of air in the distal air sacs c. Widespread occurrence of bronchial plugs d. Extensive inflammation of the lower airways b. Trapping of air in the distal air sacs Which condition constitutes an emergency situation? a. Phimosis b. Hydrocele c. Epididymitis d. Testicular torsion d. Testicular torsion Which term is used to describe the histologic characterization of tumor cells? a. Staging b. Grading c. Cachexia d. Angiogenesis b. Grading Which is a risk factor associated with hypertension? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Caucasian race c. African-American race d. High potassium intake e. History of tobacco smoking a. Age c. African-American race e. History of tobacco smoking Normal aging produces a rising systolic pressure over the course of a lifetime, whereas diastolic pressure increases for approximately 50 years, levels off during the sixth decade, and remains stable or declines later on. African Americans are predisposed to hypertension. Also, tobacco use has been shown to increase the risk of hypertension. Being Caucasian is not a known risk factor for hypertension. Diets high in fat and sodium, and low in potassium have been found to increase the risk of developing hypertension. Which component of the blood is responsible for protecting the body by phagocytosis of micro-organisms and other debris? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Plasma proteins b. Leukocytes Leukocytes protect the body by phagocytosis of micro-organisms and other debris. They also participate in antibody formation. Platelets are essential in clot formation. Erythrocytes are responsible for transporting oxygen. Plasma proteins contribute to blood viscosity and blood pressure. A diagnosis of cryptorchidism indicates that the client has a. An undersized penis b. An undescended testis c. A misplaced urethral meatus opening d. Foreskin that is not in its normal position b. An undescended testis Risk factors for the development of high blood pressure are which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Race c. Diet d. Weight e. Chronic illness a. Age b. Race c. Diet d. Weight The older a person is, the less elastic the blood vessels are, which results in higher systemic vascular resistance. High blood pressure occurs two to three times more frequently in the African American population than in the Caucasian population. Diets high in fat and sodium have been associated with hypertension. An association with elevated body mass index and high blood pressure has been noted; however, the exact mechanism is unclear. Chronic illness will not necessarily result in hypertension. The pathologic changes that occur in the development of coronary atherosclerotic lesions include cell damage resulting from which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. A decrease in smooth muscle cells b. A chronic calcium buildup c. The effects of oxidized lipids d. An inflammatory response e. The formation of plaques c. The effects of oxidized lipids d. An inflammatory response e. The formation of plaques Clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume deficit include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased postural blood pressure b. Flat neck veins c. Weight loss d. Dizziness e. Vomiting. f. Oliguria a. Decreased postural blood pressure b. Flat neck veins c. Weight loss d. Dizziness f. Oliguria Which cellular change is seen with chronic bronchitis? a. Increased eosinophils b. Decreased CD8 T lymphocytes c. Decreased interleukin-8 levels d. Atrophy of bronchial glands a. Increased eosinophils A patient exposed to herpes simplex virus has been exhibiting symptoms that suggest an inflammation of the brain. This type of infection is referred to as a. Brain abscess b. Encephalitis c. Bacteremia d. Meningitis b. Encephalitis Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain and is most commonly caused by viral infection. Brain abscesses act like space-occupying lesions and are often caused by pus-forming bacteria. Bacteremia is bacteria in the blood. Meningitis is an infection of the cerebrospinal fluid and can be either bacterial or viral. Clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Positive Trousseau sign b. Positive Chvostek sign c. Hyperactive reflexes. d. Muscle twitching e. Constipation f. Paresthesias a. Positive Trousseau sign b. Positive Chvostek sign c. Hyperactive reflexes. d. Muscle twitching f. Paresthesias [Show Less]
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PATH 370- Quiz 1, questions and answers all correct
Proto-oncogenes normal cellular genes that promote growth The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because ... [Show More] of tumor necrosis factor Metaplasia is the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in permanent damage and death The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the DNA The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is intracellular accumulations C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is streptococcal infection After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of tertiary prevention An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of secondary prevention After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will kill rapidly dividing cells The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is energy and repair The effect of stress on the immune system may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except necrosis Coagulative necrosis is caused by interrupted blood supply Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by norepinephrine A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of primary prevention A disease that is native to a particular region is called endemic Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is calcium Reperfusion injury to cells involves formation of free radicals All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except aldosterone Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including Burkitt lymphoma Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular death (T/F) When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic True The effects of excessive cortisol production include immune suppression Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types (T/F) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive. False A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of secondary prevention After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor is malignant Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is cigarette smoking Carbon monoxide injures cells by reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin The primary effect of aging on all body systems is decreased functional reserve Allostasis is best defined as the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being Which is not normally secreted in response to stress? insulin In general, with aging, organ size and function decrease Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except pupil constriction The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as subclinical [Show Less]
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PATH 370 - In Class quiz 2 (ch. 10, 11, 13, 14, 15) questions and answers
Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease Christmas The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene c... [Show More] alled bcr-abl Anemia related to vitamin B12 or folate deficiency is chracterized by what laboratory features? (Select all that apply.) RBC counts of 500,000 to 750,000 cells/mm3 WBC counts of 4000 to 5000 cells/mm3 A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is elevated total iron-binding capacity The most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is erythropoietin administration The patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia. As part of treatment, the patient must undergo chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is infection The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type IV Regarding iron deficiency anemia, what laboratory features are typically decreased? (select all that apply) MCV MCH MCHC Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury? systemic lupus erythematosus Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease? myeloma A patient is diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia. The patient's lab results would most likely indicate a decrease in (select all that apply) granulocytes platelets red blood cells RhoGam (an Rh antibody) would be appropriate in an Rh-________ woman with an Rh-________ antibody titer carrying an Rh-______fetus. negative;negative;positive Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n) deficient immune response The cause of the most common form of anemia is iron deficiency Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is mast cells A patient is diagnosed with stage III non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is preparing to undergo treatment. Which treatments may be used to treat this patient's cancer? (select all that apply) Radiation Bone marrow transplant Chemotherapy Monocional antibody therapy One of the cardinal features of sickle cell anemia includes acute and chronic dysfunction of which organs? (select all that apply) Spleen bones brain lungs Which diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem? (select all that apply) Renal failure cirrhosis systemic lupus erythematosus ovarian cancer A cause of thrombocytopenia includes chemotherapy Thalassemia may be confused with iron deficiency anemia because they are both microcytic [Show Less]
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WEEK 7 PATHO 370 questions and answers latest updated 2023
WEEK 7 PATHO 370 questions and answers latest updated 2023
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MIDTERM PATHO 370 questions and answers graded A+ |latest updated
1 After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of a. primary prevention.... [Show More] b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention .d. disease treatment. c A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage. a. prodromal b. latent c. sequela d. convalescence b A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. disease treatment. b what clinical course would you see SIGNS & SYMPTOMS? PRODROMAL A disease that is native to a particular region is called a. epidemic. b. endemic. c. pandemic. d. ethnographic. b C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is a. genetic susceptibility. b. pharyngitis. c. streptococcal infection. d. a sore throat. c The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred as a. latent. b. subclinical. c. prodromal. d. convalescence. b When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic a. true b. false a primary level of prevention prevention before you ever have a disease; immunization Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by? a. norepinephrine. b. cortisol. c. glucagon. d. ACTH. a Allostasis is best defined as a. steady-state. b. a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism. c. the process by which the body heals following disease. d. the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival andwell-being. d Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following except? a. allostasis. b. resistance. c. alarm. d. exhaustion. a All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except? a. aldosterone. b. cortisol. c. norepinephrine. d. epinephrine. a Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is a. stressful lifestyle. b. high-fat diet .c. cigarette smoking .d. urban pollutants. c The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity. true or false? true After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will a. kill rapidly dividing cells. b. have minimal side effects. c. selectively kill tumor cells. d. stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer. a The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is a. energy and repair. b. invoke resting state. c. produce exhaustion. d. set a new baseline steady-state. a Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in a. stress reduction. b. permanent damage and death. c. movement into the resistance stage. d. exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system. b The effect of stress on the immune system a. is unknown. b. has been demonstrated to be non-existent in studies. c. most often involves enhancement of the immune system. d. may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system. d Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to (Select all that apply.) a. decreased urinary output. b. increased blood potassium. c. increased sodium retention. d. increased blood volume. e. decreased blood pressure. a c d Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.) a. cardiovascular disease. b. depression. c. impaired cognitive function. d. autoimmune disease. e. overactive immune function. a b c d Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of (Select all that apply.) a. catecholamines. b. ACTH c. glucocorticoids. d. immune cytokines. e. TSH. a b c d An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed a. atrophy. b. hypertrophy. c. metaplasia d. inflammation. b The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is a. hydropic swelling. b. lactate production. c. metaplasia. d. intracellular accumulations d All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except a. necrosis. b. metaplasia. c. atrophy. d. hyperplasia. a The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is a. necrosis. b. metaplasia. c. atrophy. d. dysplasia d Proto-oncogenes a. are normal cellular genes that promote growth b. are irregular cellular genes that promote irregular growth a [Show Less]
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WCU PATHO 370 - CHAPTER 1 questions and answers with complete top solutions
Etiology Cause of disease. Study of causes or reasons for phenomena, identifies casual factors acting in concert that provoke a particular disease or inju... [Show More] ry. Idiopathic Cause is unknown. Iatrogenic Cause results from medical treatment. Risk factor A factor that when present, increases the likelihood of disease. Pathogenesis Development or evolution of disease, from initial stimulus to ultimate expression of manifestations of disease. Symptoms Subjective feeling or abnormality of the body (can NOT see or palpate). Example: pain. Signs Objective or observed manifestation of disease (CAN see). Syndrome A set of signs and symptoms not yet determined to delineate a disease and occur together. Latent period Time between exposure and first appearance of signs/symptoms; latent period also refers to period during illness when signs/symptoms become mild or silent. Prodromal period Time during first signs/symptoms appear or onset of disease occurs. Subclinical stage Patient functions normally, disease processes are well established Acute clinical course Short-lived, may have severe manifestation Chronic clinical course May last months or years, sometimes following acute Illness Symptomatic and debilitating stage of a disease. Remission Decrease in severity, signs or symptoms; may indicate disease is cured. Exacerbation Increase in severity, signs or symptoms Convalescence Stage of recovery after a disease, injury, or surgical procedure Sequela Subsequent pathologic condition resulting from an acute illness Sensitivity Probability that a test will be positive when applied to a person with a particular condition Specificity Probability that a test will be negative when applied to a person without a particular condition Validity Degree to which a measurement reflects the true value of what it intends to measure Predictive value Extent to which a test can differentiate between presence or absence of a person's condition Epidemiology Study of the patterns of disease involving populations Endemic disease Native to a local region Epidemic disease Spread to many people at the same time Pandemic disease Spread to large geographic areas Primary prevention vaccinations, altering susceptibility; reducing exposure for susceptible persons Secondary prevention early detection, screening, and management of disease Tertiary prevention rehabilitation, supportive care, reducing disability, and restoring effective functioning following disease [Show Less]
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PATHO 370 Final questions and answers with verified content
Signs and symptoms of ureteral (kidney) stones flank pain, sweating, nausea, vomiting, and hematuria What is the common composition of renal calcul... [Show More] i? calcium crystals polycystic kidney disease condition in which the kidney contains many cysts and is enlarged; the cysts will alter kidney function glomerulonephritis inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney; immune complex reaction resulting in alterations in the glomerular capillary structure and function; mediated by IgE Major sign/symptom of renal cancer hematuria What forms renal calculi in patients with gouty arthritis? uric acid Acute pyelonephritis infection of the renal pelvis usually from an ascending UTI; inflammation that does not result in scarring or fibrosis What is the common bacteria that causes a UTI? E. coli Chronic Pyelonephritis infection of the renal pelvis that has scarring and fibrosis and can result in chronic kidney disease; associated with reflux or processes that lead to urine stasis clinical manifestations of acute pyelonephritis CVA tenderness, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, anorexia clinical manifestations of chronic pyelonephritis abdominal or flank pain, fever, malaise, anorexia what are the three phases of tubular necrosis? prodromal phase, oliguric phase, post oliguric phase clinical presentation of the prodromal phase? normal or declining urine output & BUN creatinine begin to rise, clinical presentation of the oliguric phase? oliguria, decreased GFR, hypervolemia (dialysis may be required) clinical presentation of the postoliguric phase? postoliguric phase represents renal recovery; urine volume begins to increase and tubular function begins to improve fluid volume deficit until kidneys recover renal osteodystrophy in end-stage renal disease elevated phosphorus and PTH causes alterations in the bone and mineral metabolism; kidneys are unable to reabsorb the calcium and the bones will begin to break down anemia in end-stage renal disease kidneys produce erythropoietin, which is needed to make RBC; a lack of erythropoietin will decrease the RBC count What are some common causes of CKD? diabetes and hypertension What is the cause for acute tubular necrosis? ischemia leads to acute tubular necrosis What are some secondary conditions associated with end-stage chronic renal disease anemia, malnutrition, bone and mineral disorders, electrolyte imbalances, metabolic acidosis, uremic syndrome, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease what is the most frequent and initial symptom of bladder cancer? hematuria What can vesicoureteral reflux lead to? recurrent cystitis Who is more prone to UTIs? sexually active women ureterocele cystic dilation of the distal end of the ureter stress urinary incontinence urine is involuntarily lost with increases in intraabdominal pressure; occurs due to a weakening of the pelvic muscles what are some common causes of stress urinary incontinence? obesity, childbirth related trauma, pelvic surgery, diabetes Urgency Urinary Incontinence involuntary sudden leakage of urine along with immediately feeling the need to urinate again; caused by a weakening of the detrusor muscle Cystitis inflammation of the bladder lining What are the causes of cystitis? caused by infection, chemical irritants, stones, or trauma What is chryptorchidism a risk factor for? testicular cancer chryptorchidism failure of the testicles to descend into the scrotum testicular torsion twisting of the spermatic cord causing decreased blood flow to the testis and can lead to ischemia making the patient at risk for necrosis what are the clinical manifestations of testicular torsion? severe sudden pain on the testis, swelling of the scrotum, nausea and vomiting signs and symptoms of prostatic enlargement (BPH) Prostate tissue increases and can compress the urethra and bladder outlet causing urinary retention, obstruction to flow, decreased stream, hesitancy or difficulty initiating stream, interruption of stream, and infection caused by retention amenorrhea absence of menstruation metrorhagia bleeding between periods hypomenorrhea deficient amount of menstrual flow oligomenorrhea infrequent menstruation polymenorrhea increased frequency of menstruation menorrhagia increased amount and duration of flow dysfunctional uterine bleeding Abnormal endometrial bleeding not associated with tumor, inflammation, pregnancy, trauma, or hormonal effects dysmenorrhea painful menstruation pregnancy induced hypertension characterized by high blood pressure and edema along with protein in the urine hyperemesis gravidarum severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy that can cause severe dehydration in the mother and fetus placenta previa placenta implanted abnormally over the internal cervical opening abruptio placentae premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall spontaneous abortion when the fetus and placenta deliver before the 28th week of pregnancy; commonly called a miscarriage what are clinical manifestations of uterine prolapse? vaginal discomfort, discomfort walking or sitting, difficulty urinating, bleeding, ulceration of the cervix from friction endometriosis endometrial tissue located outside the uterus; ectopic tissue can periodically rupture and bleed; repeated irritation causes the formation of dense tissue adhesions leiomyoma benign uterine tumor composed of muscle and fibrous tissue; growth is enhanced by high estrogen and growth hormone levels vulvovaginitis inflammation of the vulva and vagina caused by candida albicanas What does gastroesophageal varices present with? a history of alcoholism with hematemesis and profound anemia portal hypertension the elevation of blood pressure within the portal venous system esophageal varices is associated with? portal hypertension What is the mortality rate for a patient with ruptured esophageal varices? high mortality rate what syndrome is seen after gastric bypass surgery? dumping syndrome what can be a cause of stomatitis? chemotherapy What 3 things does H. pylori cause? chronic gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, gastric carcinoma H. pylori type of bacteria that can cause an infection in the stomach Necrotizing enterocolitis Serious inflammatory condition of the intestines. What age group does necrotizing enterocolitis effect? premature infants What is ulcerative colitis associated with? bloody diarrhea ulcerative colitis chronic inflammation of the colon with presence of ulcers What is a warning sign of colon cancer? change in bowel habits; diarrhea, constipation, black tarry stools Celiac Sprue malabsorptive disorder from a reaction to gluten-containing foods; lack the enzymes to break down gluten and cannot absorb the nutrients Barrett's esophagus preneoplastic condition the results from uncontrolled GERD hiatal hernia protrusion of a part of the stomach upward through the opening in the diaphragm; presents with heartburn What does a patient with gastric ulcers (peptic ulcers) present with? epigastric pain that is relieved by food; can also present with heartburn What does a patient with appendicitis present with? acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation Rebound tenderness pain that increases when pressure (as from a hand) is removed; hallmark of appendicitis What sex is more common to have gallstones? female What does untreated acute cholecystitis lead to? gangrene Cholecystitis inflammation of the gallbladder pancreatitis inflammation of the pancreas; associated with alcoholism What can chronic cholecystitis lead to? biliary sepsis, calcified gallbladder, and porcelain gallbladder What are gallstones composed of? cholesterol What serum levels are associated with pancreatitis? elevated amylase and lipase; inflammation of the pancreas leads to elevated enzyme levels that are made in the pancreas What does chronic pancreatitis lead to? diabetes mellitus How is hepatitis B transmitted? blood and semen What levels would be elevated in the urine for hepatitis? urine bilirubin What is a presentation of increase bilirubin? jaundice What surface antigen is associated with acute hepatitis B? hepatits B surface antigen (HBsAg) What is a common finding of liver disease? jaundice steatohepatitis accumulation of fat in the liver cells What can excess growth hormone lead to in adults? acromegaly What does excess growth hormone lead to in children? giantism What is diabetes insipidus a result of? inadequate ADH secretion What is the hallmark of diabetes insipidus? high output of clear urine What inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormone? iodine deficiency [Show Less]
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Patho 370 Quiz #1,questions and answers| latest updated
Etiology the cause of a disease or condition (initiation of disease) *closely related to pathogenesis ->maintaining disease-) Pathophysiology Stud... [Show More] y of abnormal conditions "disease" Oxygen helps carry _______ to ________ ________in body ATP, every cell Signs Objective information visible to the eye Symptoms Subjective information, "feelings that are not visible, only felt" Thrombosis a Stationary clot Embolism a traveling clot (never move sight where suspect clot is present, clot can travel to the heart or lungs and create blockage) Pulmonary embolism a clot that cannot pass through the capillaries in the lungs (SOB will be present) Pathogenesis Maintenance of disease Development or evolution of a disease, from initial stimulus to the ultimate expression of disease Latent period time between exposure and infection Prodromal period When signs and symptoms first appear & pathogen begins to multiply Exacerbation Increase in severity of S&S Remission Decrease in severity of S&S, "getting well" Epidemiology The study of patterns of disease among human population for the purpose of establishing programs t prevent and control their spread Endemic disease found in local areas only (ex: malaria only found in Africa bc of rivers infested with virus carrying mosquitoes) Pandemic Rapid spread of a disease throughout many countries Epidemic Rapid spread of a disease to a lot of people suddenly Levels of prevention Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Primary level (level of prevention) Reduce exposure and alter susceptibility to disease (avoid crowds, get vaccinated) Secondary level (level of prevention) Early detection of disease (pap smear, breast exam, screenings) Tertiary level (level of prevention) Rehabilitation (forms of rehab) Active Immunization Injected with a non live virus,, so that you develop your own antibodies against virus Passive Immunization Live virus/antibodies injected into person Antibodies Immunoglobin Homeostasis Equilibrium state in human body, "level of balance" General Adaptation Syndromes (GAS) Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion Alarm (G.A.S.) *Fight or flight response *-SURVIVE- *Release of cortisol, epinephrine and sympathetic response Resistance (G.A.S.) Bodies return to homeostasis after state of alarm Exhaustion (G.A.S.) Body is unable to return to homeostasis after state of alarm (Sickness: progression, dehydration, fainting, etc.) Stressors (types) Physical, Chemical or emotional stress Stressors pathway (Via anterior pituitary gland) Excite receptors, -detected by HYPOTHALUMUS- Releases CRH to stimulate ANTERIOR PITUITARY GLAND (secretes ACTH, which goes into bloodstream) then stimulates ADRENAL CORTEX (outer adrenal gland) , which releases CORTISOL & ALDOSTERONE (glucocorticoids) -Once this stage(anterior pituitary) is activated, the alarm stage progresses to a state of resistance- Hypothalamus simultaneously... releases CRH to stimulate sympathetic nervous system and anterior pituitary gland Stressors pathway (Via sympathetic nervous system) Hypothalamus releases CRH to stimulate Sympathetic nervous system, which stimulates the ADRENAL MEDULLA (inner adrenal gland) which secretes EPINEPHRINE & NOREPHRINE (catecholamines) causing "flight or fight" response (alarm) SURVIVAL MODE Cell injury is both... reversible & irreversible Hydropic swelling water follows sodium, more sodium inside cell means more water-causing swelling in cells- Active transport Requires ATP -movement of substance form low to high concentration- Example: Sodium pump (moves molecules against their concentration gradient) Passive transport No ATP required Example: Alveoli in lungs when they exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide Ischemia a decrease in blood flow to an organ or part of body, especially in heart muscles Examples of reversible cell injury Ischemia, Hyopic swelling Examples of irreversible cell injury Necrosis (zero blood flow, zero oxygen) Myocardial Infarction Complete obstruction of heart due to blood clot & fate deposits AKA: Heart attack Coagulate blood clot Caseous necrosis example TB FAT necrosis Hemorrhagic Pancreatitis -pancreas normally secretes lipase to help digest fats- Liquefaction Necrosis Brain necrosis Coagulation Blood clotting -blood changes from liquid to gel- Cellular Adaptation ability for cell to adapt to stress Ex: weight lifting Hypertrophy Cells become enlarged Ex: Weight lifters Atrophy Cells become smaller Ex: Flaccid muscles when you don't use them Hyperplasia Increase in cell number Metaplasia When one type of cell converts to another type of cell Dysplasia Cell becomes disorganized in shape, arrangement and size. Can convert to cancer (pre-neoplastic- leads to becoming malignant) Benign non-cancerous Malignant cancerous - can metastasize to blood, lymph nodes, contiguity, bone- Lipoma benign fatty mass (tumor) Liposarcoma malignant tumor of fat Carcinoma cancerous tumor Lymphoma malignant tumor of lymph nodes and lymph tissue Neoplastic New growth Cachexia severe form of malnutrition Angiogenesis New blood vessel formation (can be good or bad) (bad for cancer growth) -we need to find how to deprive cancer cells of blood flow so they die off- Idiopathic unknown cause Pathophysiology the study of how disease processes affect the function of the body Anatomy studies.. structure Physiology studies... function Clinical manifestations signs and symptoms Tachycardia fast heart rate Bradycardia slow heart rate Carcinogenesis the initiation of cancer formation Somatic Death Characterized as he absence of respiration or heartbeat -short period after somatic death occurs, resuscitation may take place- Allostasis The bodies ability to maintain a stable physiological environment by adjusting and changing to meet internal and external demands. Iatrogenic produced by a physician (the unexpected results from a treatment prescribed by a physician) Most common tumor suppressor gene P53 Stage where patient functions normally although diseases well established Subclinical stage Effects of excessive cortisol production are... Immune suppression Persistence in the alarm stage will ultimately result in Permanent damage and death Cellular component most susceptible to radiation injury is DNA Proto-oncogenes normal cells that promotes growth overactivation promotes oncogene (tumor related cells) Apoptosis Programmed Cell Death Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are called... Carcinomas Extreme cold injures cells by... Peripheral nerve damage from rebound vasodilation Crystallization of cellular components Ischemic injury from vasoconstriction [Show Less]
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