NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest-2021, Version-2) / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR507 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of
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NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing
Chamberlain NR 507 Midterm Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology
Question 1. Question : What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?
Increased blood pressure during periods of stress
Bounding pulse felt on palpation
Cyanosis observed on excretion
Murmur heard on auscultation
Question 2. Question : Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection?
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium perfringens
Helicobacter pylori
Treponema pallidum
Question 3. Question : It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding?
Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.
Cancer has spread to regional structures.
Cancer is locally invasive.
Cancer has spread to distant sites
Question 4. Question : Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia?
Aplastic
Sideroblastic
Anemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency
Question 5. Question : When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?
Left lung
Right lung
Trachea
Carina
Question 6. Question : What is the first stage in the infectious process?
Invasion
Colonization
Spread
Multiplication
Question 7. Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include:
Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition
Vomiting and diarrhea
Renal failure and Addison disease
Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease
:
Question 8. Question : Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized?
Dysplasia
Hyperplasia
Myoplasia
Anaplasia
:
Question 9. Question : The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)
Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot
Degrading the fibrin within blood clots
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Question 10. Question : What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections?
Development of antibiotic resistance
Changes in virulence
Changes in pathogenicity
Mutations into different strains
:
Question 11. Question : What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children?
Folic acid deficiency
Iron deficiency
Hemoglobin abnormality
Erythrocyte abnormality
:
Question 12. Question : What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
Globulin
Albumin
Clotting factors
Complement proteins
:
Question 13. Question : Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?
Difficult deflation
Easy inflation
Stiffness
Inability to diffuse oxygen
0 of 2
Question 14. Question : Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
:
Question 15. Question : What is the functional unit of the kidney called?
Glomerulus
Nephron
Collecting duct
Pyramid
:
Question 16. Question : An infant’s hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs occur.
11
9
7
5
:
Question 17. Question : Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?
Infants are obligatory nose breathers.
Their noses are small in diameter.
Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing.
Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s.
:
Question 18. Question : The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
16 and 20
20 and 24
24 and 30
30 and 36
:
Question 19. Question : What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates?
Stimulates antidiuretic hormones.
Inhibits antidiuretic hormones.
Stimulates renin and aldosterone.
Inhibits renin and aldosterone.
:
Question 20. Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include:
Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition
Vomiting and diarrhea
Renal failure and Addison disease
Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease
:
Question 21. Question : Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?
Retropharyngeal abscess
Laryngospasms
Rupturing of the tonsils
Gagging induced aspiration
:
Question 22. Question : When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?
Genital herpes
Chancroid
Syphilis
Chlamydia
:
Question 23. Question : Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?
Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes
CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Memory T lymphocytes
:
Question 24. Question : How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported?
Dissolved in plasma
Bound to hemoglobin
In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2)
Bound to protein
:
Question 25. Question : What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?
Decreased dietary intake
Chronic blood loss
Vitamin deficiency
Autoimmune disease
:
Question 26. Question : In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?
Bruton disease
DiGeorge syndrome
Reticular dysgenesis
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
:
Question 27. Question : Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations?
PRS
QRS
QT interval
P
:
Question 28. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
T lymphocytes
:
Question 29. Question : What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Consolidation
Pulmonary edema
Atelectasis
Bronchiolar plugging
:
Question 30. Question : Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?
Alcohol
Steroids
Antihistamines
Antidepressants
:
Question 31. Question : The only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area is called the:
Proximal convoluted tubules
Distal tubules
Ascending loop of Henle
Descending loop of Henle
:
Question 32. Question : Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
Pulmonary edema
Jugular vein distention
:
Question 33. Question : Apoptosis is a(an):
Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
:
Question 34. Question : The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?
Right-to-left blood shunting
Left-to-right blood shunting
Blood flow from the umbilical cord
Blood flow to the lungs
:
Question 35. Question : If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize?
60 to 70
40 to 60
30 to 40
10 to 20
:
Question 36. Question : Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate?
Principle cells
Podocin cells
Mesangial cells
Intercalated cells
:
Question 37. Question : An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgE
:
Question 38. Question : The coronary ostia are located in the:
Left ventricle
Aortic valve
Coronary sinus
Aorta
:
Question 39. Question : What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?
Initiates the clotting cascade.
Activates platelets.
Stimulates fibrin.
Deactivates fibrinogen.
:
Question 40. Question : Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
Iron
Zinc
Iodine
Magnesium
:
Question 41. Question : What is the role of caretaker genes?
Maintenance of genomic integrity
Proliferation of cancer cells
Secretion of growth factors
Restoration of normal tissue structure
:
Question 42. Question : What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
Low birth weight
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Premature birth
Smoking during pregnancy
:
Question 43. Question : Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:
Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative
Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
Has type A blood and the fetus has type O
Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B
:
Question 44. Question : Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?
Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS)
Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus
Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
:
Question 45. Question : Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure?
Gut
Spleen
Bone marrow
Thymus
:
Question 46. Question : What is the final stage of the infectious process?
Colonization
Invasion
Multiplication
Spread
:
Question 47. Question : Which statement is true concerning the IgM?
IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen.
IgM mediates many common allergic responses.
IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins.
IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta.
:
Question 48. Question : Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?
Peripheral nerves
Parasympathetic fibers
Sympathetic nervous system
Tenth thoracic nerve roots
:
Question 49. Question : Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia
Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia
Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.
:
Question 50. Question : Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?
Bacteria
Fungi
Viruses
Yeasts
:
Question 51. Question : Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections?
Acyclovir (Zovirax)
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir)
Bichloroacetic acid (BCA)
:
Question 52. Question : What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)
1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells)
1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells)
1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells)
:
Question 53. Question : Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)
:
Question 54. Question : What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
Macula densa
Visceral epithelium
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
Filtration slits
:
Question 55. Question : Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants?
Atelectasis and pneumonia
Edema of the hands and feet
Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet
Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly
:
Question 56. Question : A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?
No antigens
No antibodies
Both A and B antigens
Both A and B antibodies
:
Question 57. Question : Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?
Ligase chain reaction (LCR)
Gram-stain technique
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
DNA testing
:
Question 58. Question : Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
Adrenal cortex
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Limbic system
:
Question 59. Question : Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
:
Question 60. Question : Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?
Passive-acquired immunity
Active-acquired immunity
Passive-innate immunity
Active-innate immunity
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