In absorption spectrophotometry:
A) Absorbance is directly proportional to transmittance
B) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to
... [Show More] concentration
C) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length
D) Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration - Answer- Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
Which formula correctly described the relationship between absorbance and %T?
A) A=2-log%T
B) A=2+log%T
C) A= -log%T - 2
D) A=1+log%T - Answer- A=2-log%T
3.
Which element is reduced at the cathode of a Clark polarographic electrode?
A) Silver
B) Oxygen
C) Chloride
D) Potassium - Answer- Oxygen
4.
Which of the following best represents the reference (normal) range for arterial pH?
A) 7.35-7.45
B) 7.42-7.52
C) 7.28-7.68
D) 6.85-7.56 - Answer- 7.35-7.45
5.
What is the normal ration of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood?
A) 1:10
B) 10:1
C) 20:1
D) 30:1 - Answer- 20:1
6.
A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.26; dco2=2.0mmol/L; HCO3-=29mmol/L. These results would be classified as:
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis - Answer- respiratory acidosis
7.
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Aldosterone release
C) Release of epinephrine
D) Bicarbonate excretion - Answer- Hyperventilation
8.
Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap?
A) Diarrhea
B) Hypoaldosteronism
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Renal failure - Answer- Renal failure
9.
Which of the following conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia?
A) Rickets
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Renal failure
D) Hypervitaminosis D - Answer- Rickets
10.
Which of the following conditions is associated with hypokalemia?
A) Addison's disease
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Digoxin intoxication
D) Alkalosis - Answer- Alkalosis
11.
Which of the following condition is associated with hypernatremia?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Hypoaldosteronism
C) Burns
D) Diarrhea - Answer- Diabetes insipidus
12.
Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium?
A) 1.5mmol/L
B) 2.0mmol/L
C) 2.5mmol/L
D) 3.5mmol/L - Answer- 2.5 mmol/L
13.
Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality?
A) Sodium
B) Chloride
C) Bicarbonate
D) Calcium
: - Answer- Sodium
14.
Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis
B) Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus
C) Usually occurs after age 40
D) Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis - Answer- Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis
15.
Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose?
A) Somogyi-Nelson
B) Hexokinase
C) Glucose oxidase
D) Glucose dehydrogenase - Answer- Hexokinase
16.
Creatinine is formed from the:
A) Oxidation of creatine
B) Oxidation of protein
C) Deamination of dibasic amino acids
D) Metabolism of purines - Answer- oxidation of creatine
17.
Urea is produced from:
A) The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
B) Oxidation of purines
C) Oxidation of pyrimidines
D) The breakdown of complex carbohydrates - Answer- The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
18.
Blood ammonia levels are usually measured in order to evaluate
A) Renal failure
B) Acid-base status
C) Hepatic coma
D) Gastrointestinal malabsorption - Answer- Hepatic coma
19.
Select the lipoprotein fraction that carries most of the endogenous triglycerides
A) VDRL
B) LDL
C) HDL
D) Chylomicrons - Answer- VDRL
20.
Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease?
A) Apoprotein A-I
B) Apoprotein B
C) Apoprotein C-II
D) Apoprotein E-IV - Answer- Apoprotein A-I
21.
Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Acute hepatitis
D) Muscular dystrophy - Answer- Pernicious anemia
22.
A patient has a plasma myoglobin level of 10µg/L at admission. Three hours later the myoglobin is 14µ/L and the Troponin I is 0.04µg/L (reference range 0-0.04µg/L). These results are consistent with which condition?
A) Skeletal muscle injury
B) Acute MI
C) Unstable angina
D) No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle injury - Answer- No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle
23.
Select the most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease
A) GLD
B) ALT
C) AST
D) GGT - Answer- GGT
24.
Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with:
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypocalcuria
C) Hypophosphatemia
D) Metabolic alkalosis - Answer- Hypophosphatemia
25.
Which of the following diseases is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia?
A) Cushing's disease
B) Addison's disease
C) Conn's disease
D) Pheochromocytoma - Answer- Conn's disease
26.
The serum TSH level is decreased in:
A) Primary hyperthyroidism
B) Primary hypothyroidism
C) Secondary hyperthyroidism
D) Euthyroid sick syndrome - Answer- Primary hypothyroidism
27.
Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer?
A) CA-15-3
B) CA-19-9
C) CA-125
D) CEA - Answer- CA-125
28.
What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA?
A) Diagnosis of liver cancer
B) Diagnosis of colorectal cancer
C) Screening for cancers of endodermal origin
D) Monitoring for recurrence of cancer - Answer- Monitoring for recurrence of cancer
29.
Which two liver enzymes are seen elevated in hepatobiliary disease?
A) AST and ALT
B) ALP and ALT
C) ALP and GGT
D) AST and GGT - Answer- ALP and GGT
30.
Beriberi is associated with deficiency of:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Niacin
D) Thiamine - Answer- Thiamine
31.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by a marked elevation of:
A) Gastrin
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Pepsin
D) Glucagon - Answer- Gastrin
32.
Scurvy is associated with deficiency of:
A) A
B) C
C) Niacin
D) Thiamine - Answer- C
33.
This trace element plays a key role in protein and nucleic acid synthesis:
A) Manganese
B) Selenium
C) Zinc
D) Copper - Answer- Zinc
34.
In quality control, ±2 standard deviations from the mean include what percent of the sample population?
A) 50
B) 68
C) 95
D) 99.7 - Answer- 95
35.
During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determinations in the morning after awakening and in the evening. Laboratory results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening concentration. This is indicative of
A) Normal finding
B) Cushing syndrome
C) Addison's disease
D) Hypopituitarism - Answer- Normal finding
36.
Given the following results:ALP Slight increaseALT Marked increaseAST Marked increaseGGT Slight increaseThis is most consistent with:
A) Acute hepatitis
B) Chronic hepatitis
C) Obstructive jaundice
D) Liver hemangioma - Answer- Acute hepatitis
37.
Major actions of angiotensin II include:
A) Increased pituitary secretion of renin
B) Increased vasoconstriction
C) Increased parathyroid hormone secretion by the parathyroid
D) Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone - Answer- Increased vasoconstriction
38.
What is the metabolite of ethanol?
A) Benzoylecgonine
B) 6-acetylmorphine
C) Acetaldehyde
D) Carboxylic acid - Answer- Acetaldehyde
39.
What is the gold standard methodology for Toxicology testing?
A) Immunoassay
B) Electrophoresis
C) Liquid Chromatography
D) Mass Spectrometry - Answer- Mass Spectrometry
40.
Calculate the coefficient of variation for a set of data where the mean = 89 mg/dL and 2 standard deviations is
A) 7.7%
B) 7.9%
C) 15.7%
D) 15.8% - Answer- 7.9%
41.
In the condition Kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue?
A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Blood - Answer- Brain
42.
Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid?
A) Aldosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Corticosterone
D) Testosterone - Answer- Aldosterone
43.
Select the main estrogen produced by the ovaries and used to evaluate ovarian function.
A) Estriol
B) Estradiol
C) Epiestriol
D) Hydroxyestrone - Answer- Estradiol
44.
Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the:
A) Skeleton
B) Kidney
C) Intestine
D) Placenta - Answer- Placenta
45.
What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized?
A) 30%
B) 45%
C) 60%
D) 80% - Answer- 45%
46.
Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:
A) Tubular secretion of creatinine
B) Glomerular secretion of creatinine
C) Renal glomerular and tubular mass
D) Glomerular filtration rate - Answer- Glomerular filtration rate
47.
Which of the following readies the uterus for implantation of an embryo?
A) FSH
B) LH
C) hCG
D) Progesterone - Answer- Progesterone
48.
Which of the formulas is correct for creatinine clearance?
A) U/P x V x 1.73/A
B) P/V x U x A/1.73
C) P/V x U x 1.73/A
D) U/V x P x 1.73/A - Answer- U/P x V x 1.73/A
49.
Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption?
A) Aldosterone
B) Anti-Diuretic Hormone
C) Renin
D) Angiotensin II - Answer- Aldosterone
50.
The thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test rules out the diagnosis of mild or subclinical hyperthyroidism if TRH infusion causes:
A) Rise in plasma TSH
B) No rise in plasma TSH
C) Rise in plasma growth hormone
D) No rise in plasma growth hormone - Answer- Rise in plasma TSH
1.
What test is used along with the mean cell volume (MCV) to morphologically classify anemias?
A) red blood count
B) hemoglobin
C) hematocrit
D) red cell distribution width (RDW) - Answer- red cell distribution width (RDW)
2.
Transferrin receptors can be measured and are elevated when:
A) erythropoietin increases
B) transferrin increases
C) iron stores are decreased
D) chronic disease is present - Answer- iron stores are decreased
3.
Mature T cells with cerebriform, clefted nuclei found in the skin and peripheral blood describe:
A) hairy cells
B) prolymphocytes
C) lymphoblasts
D) Sézary cells - Answer- Sezary cells
4.
What condition is most associated with autosplenectomy?
A) abdominal trauma
B) thrombocytopenia
C) sickle cell anemia
D) iron deficiency - Answer- sickle cell anemia
5.
Which of the following has a pyknotic nucleus?
A) Pronormoblast
B) basophilic normoblast
C) polychromatophilic normoblast
D) orthochromic normoblast - Answer- orthochromic normoblast
6.
Depletion of serum haptoglobin indicates:
A) decreased erythropoiesis
B) extravascular hemolysis
C) intravascular hemolysis
D) increased phagocytosis of macrophages - Answer- intravascular hemolysis
7.
The principle energy source for mature red blood cells is:
A) Krebs cycle
B) hexose monophosphate pathway
C) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis
D) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) generated from aerobic glycolysis - Answer- adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis
8.
What important function does 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) perform?
A) maintains iron in the hemoglobin molecule in the ferrous state
B) prevents oxidative injury to the red cell
C) facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue
D) aids in the exchange of membrane lipids with lipids in plasma - Answer- facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue
9.
Which of the following is true of megakaryocytes as they mature?
A) nucleus becomes polyploidy
B) cytoplasmic basophilia becomes more pronounced
C) size decreases
D) nucleoli become more prominent - Answer- nucleus becomes polyploidy
10.
Lymphocytes become transformed when they are:
A) being stimulated by an antigen
B) undergoing mitosis
C) dying
D) moving to secondary lymphoid tissues - Answer- being stimulated by an antigen
11.
What is the basic hemoglobin defect in the thalassemias?
A) One of the globin chains has an amino acid substitution
B) A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels
C) Heme is produced at a lower concentration
D) Iron is not incorporated into the protoporphyrin ring to form heme - Answer- A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels
12.
Why are infants with beta-thalassemia major not ill until approximately 6 months of age?
A) Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin.
B) Infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their small body size.
C) Infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their smaller lung capacity.
D) Infants have a high red count and thus higher hemoglobin from a higher than normal concentration of erythropoietin. - Answer- Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin
13.
A patient has 30% hemoglobin F. Which of the following can be eliminated?
A) four missing genes for alpha chain production
B) heterozygous hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
C) thalassemia intermedia
D) the patient is a normal 1-month-old infant - Answer- four missing genes for alpha chain production
14.
Megaloblastic anemias are caused by a defect in the synthesis of:
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Erythropoietin
D) Heme - Answer- DNA
15.
Pernicious anemia (PA) can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the:
A) presence of hypersegmented neutrophils
B) mean cell volume (MCV)
C) bone marrow findings
D) presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF) - Answer- presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF)
16.
Why is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) important for normal red cell survival?
A) Hemoglobin oxygen affinity is increased in its absence.
B) It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione.
C) It is required for insertion of iron into the protoporphyrin ring to form heme.
D) Alpha chains are produced in excess in its absence. - Answer- It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione
17.
What is the pathogenesis of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)?
A) Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells.
B) Chemicals or heat destroy red blood cells.
C) The spleen sequesters red cells in an attempt to remove abnormal inclusions.
D) Antibodies that activate complement are formed and destroy the red cell membrane. - Answer- Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells
18.
Renal failure is a prominent feature of:
A) hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
B) thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
C) Plasmodium malariae infection
D) march hemoglobinuria - Answer- hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
19.
Moderate to marked target cells are found on a blood smear. Which of the following can most likely be eliminated?
A) hemoglobin C disease
B) hereditary Spherocytosis
C) hemoglobin E disease
D) liver disease - Answer- hereditary spherocytosis
20.
Toxic granulation, Döhle bodies, and vacuolization in neutrophils are often found together in
A) May-Hegglin anomaly
B) bacterial infection
C) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
D) Alder-Reilly anomaly - Answer- bacterial infection
21.
What do all chronic myeloproliferative disorders (MPDs) share?
A) Philadelphia chromosome
B) increased red cell mass
C) increased blood cells; overlapping clinical and laboratory features
D) serious thromboembolic complications - Answer- increased blood cells; overlapping clinical and laboratory features
22.
A patient has an increased red count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit. Which of the following features points to secondary polycythemia over polycythemia vera (PV)?
A) increased white count
B) increased red cell mass
C) bone marrow erythroid hyperplasia [Show Less]