Chain of custody. - Answer- Beginning with the moment the specimen is collected and transported to the laboratory, to the analysis itself and the
... [Show More] reporting of the results, must be documented by a process known as
Quality control - Answer- A process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through the use of control specimens.
Accuracy - Answer- Describes how close a test result is to the true value.
Calibration - Answer- The comparison of an instrument measurement or reading to a known physical constant.
Category C - Answer- What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics?
These agents have the third-highest priority and include emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future because of availability, ease of production and dissemination?
Category A. - Answer- Agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses are classified as
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens - Answer- What regulation that became law in 1992, requires that laboratories develop, implement, and comply with a plan that ensures the protective safety of laboratory staff to potential infectious blood-borne pathogens and manage and handle medical waste in a safe and effective manner?
Electric equipment. - Answer- Class C fire extinguishers are used for
Category B. - Answer- Agents brucellosis, epsilon toxin, food contaminants, glanders, melioidosis, psittacosis, Q fever, and ricin toxin are classified as
Safety Data Sheets - Answer- Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) are now called:
Pictograms - Answer- The GHS brings with it a new chemical labeling standard using ____________.
2015 - Answer- All chemical manufacturers and distributors must comply with all of the new provisions in the revised standards by June 1 ______________.
16 - Answer- The new Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) will require ______ specific sections, ensuring consistency in the presentation of the information.
Material safety data sheet (MSDS). - Answer- Reference materials about the individual chemical are provided by all chemical manufacturers and suppliers by means of
Type I - Answer- For qualitative chemistry procedures and for most procedures done in hematology, immunology, microbiology, and other clinical test areas, this type of water is suitable. This type of water is used for general lab tests that do not require Type I water.
Celsius plus 273 - Answer- How do you convert Celsius to Kelvin?
RBC - Answer- In the calculation of MCV = HCT x 10/___?
40X objective - Answer- The objective that should never have oil used on it is the
Flourescent. - Answer- The microscope commonly used in cellular biology that has the ability to distinguish between living and dead cells and monitor activity within living cells is the
Kohler illumination. - Answer- The most common method of illuminating specimens on a microscope is
a hematoma. - Answer- Failure to apply sufficient pressure to the venipuncture site could result in
Blood gases, slides/smear, EDTA tubes, other additive minicontainers, and serum containers - Answer- Order of draw for capillary specimens:
contact, airborne, and droplet. - Answer- Transmission-based precautions are divided into three basic categories:
Lipemic specimens - Answer- What is milky-white in color and may interfere with chemical determinations such as triglyceride assay?
cephalic, basilic and median cubital. - Answer- The three veins that are typically used for venipuncture are the
intravenous lines, edema, scarring or burn patients, dialysis patients, and mastectomy patients. - Answer- Five specific situations may result in a difficult venipuncture or may be the sources of preanalytical error. They are:
Ion-selective electrode (ISE) potentiometry - Answer- What uses a glass ion-exchange membrane for sodium assay and a valinomycin neutral-carrier membrane for potassium assay and has been incorporated into many automated chemistry analyzers?
Mercury arc and deuterium discharge - Answer- Which lamps are most common when working in the ultraviolet region?
Turbidimetry - Answer- The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods?
Drug testing - Answer- Which of the following is one of the most common clinical applications of GC-MS analysis?
Kidney failure - Answer- There are five stages of chronic kidney disease. In looking at the results of a glomerular filtrate rate of 13 ml/min per 1.73 m2, which stage would you say this patient was in?
Glomerulus - Answer- Which of the following is part of the nephron and mainly functions to filter incoming blood?
Creatinine clearance - Answer- The calculation of which of the following renal function tests are becoming the standard laboratory method for determining glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
AST - Answer- The reduction of oxaloacetate to malate by malate dehydrogenase is used in the measurement of which enzyme?
Jaundice - Answer- What is the yellow discoloration of the plasma, skin, and mucous membranes that is caused by the abnormal metabolism, accumulation, or retention of bilirubin called?
Porphyrins - Answer- What compound shows a strong absorbance near 400 nm and often displays a characteristic orange-red fluorescence?
Type 2 - Answer- Non-insulin dependent diabetes, is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia and is called "adult-onset diabetes" is
Acetoacetic acid - Answer- In fat catabolism (the phase of metabolism in which fats are broken down for energy), what is produced first?
Liver - Answer- Every function in the living cell depends on proteins. Most of the plasma proteins are synthesized in what organ?
Enzymatic Law - Answer- What is the most accurate answer for enzyme activity on a diluted 1:4 specimen with a 500 u value?
. LDH-5 - Answer- Due to LDH nonspecificity, it is best to separate into isoenzyme fractions. LDH can be separated into five major fractions. Disorders of skeletal muscle will show elevated levels of which LDH isoenzyme?
TnI - Answer- The patient presented at the clinic after returning from a fishing trip. Chief complaint is left-sided anterior chest pain that started 3 days ago. Patient states no injury. Which cardiac test would give the physician the best picture of diagnosis?
IU - Answer- What is the recommendation of the Enzyme Commission of the International Union of Biochemistry for reporting enzyme results?
Lipase - Answer- Which enzyme is used almost exclusively for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
Lipase - Answer- What is an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester linkage of fats to produce alcohols and fatty acids? It is found primarily in the pancreas.
Glucagon - Answer- What is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas, is the major hormone that opposes the action of insulin, increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen (glycogenolysis) by the liver?
Insulin and glycogen. - Answer- The pancreas contains islets of Langerhans, which produce
Thyroxine - Answer- Which hormone is classified as an example of an amino acid-related hormone?
Chylomicrons - Answer- __________ give serum its characteristic milky appearance (lipemia) when blood is drawn after a meal.
Triglyceride and HDL - Answer- If testing of a lipoprotein profile in a non-fasting state, then which of the following tests can be used?
Azotemia. - Answer- A significant increase in the plasma concentrations of urea and creatinine, in kidney insufficiency, is known as
Magnesium - Answer- What is the fourth most abundant cation in the body and second most abundant intracellular ion? In addition, this electrolyte has high concentrations found in bone and muscle.
Aminoglycosides - Answer- Which type of antibiotic would you see tested only on inpatients because they are not well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract?
Alpha-fetoprotein - Answer- Which tumor marker is an abundant serum protein and normally synthesized by the fetal liver?
pharmacokinetics. - Answer- The mathematics modeling of drug concentration in circulation which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen is
Human chorionic gonadotropin - Answer- This marker is strongly suggestive of pregnancy or a malignant tumor such as endodermal sinus tumor, teratocarcinoma, choriocarcinoma, molar pregnancy, testicular embryonal carcinoma, or oat cell carcinoma of the lung.
Digoxin - Answer- Many cardiac conditions are treated with drugs, but only a few require TDM. The two classes of drugs that need monitoring are the cardiac glycosides and the antiarrhythmics. Which drug belongs to the glycosides?
CA 15-3 - Answer- The main purpose of this assay is to monitor breast cancer patients after mastectomy. It is positive in patients with other conditions, including liver disease, some inflammatory conditions, and other carcinomas.
Bilirubin - Answer- What is derived from the iron-containing heme portion of hemoglobin, which is released from the breakdown of RBCs?
C-reactive protein (CRP) - Answer- An inflammation sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassays is
Immunosuppressive - Answer- Which class of drugs plays a role in determining the success of any transplant program?
Antiepileptic - Answer- The drug phenobarbital is a slow-acting barbiturate that effectively controls several type of seizures and is considered which class of drug?
Troponin. - Answer- A complex of three proteins that bind to the thin filaments of striated cardiac or skeletal muscle and regulate muscle contraction is
deep blue to purple - Answer- Gram positive organisms after gram staining appear ___________________.
Gram positive bacilli, gram negative bacilli, gram positive cocci, gram negative cocci - Answer- Most bacteria can be divided into what four distinct groups based on gram stain results?
Antisepsis - Answer- What is the process used to decrease the number of microorganisms that are present on the skin?
Taxonomy - Answer- What is the study of the classification process?
that exist inside the body of animals and can cause endogenous infections. - Answer- Endogenous anaerobes are organisms
Gram positive - Answer- What is the term for bacteria that stain purple/blue as a result of retention of crystal violet-iodine complex?
one end of the bacterial cell, both ends of the bacterial cell, the entire cell surface. - Answer- Flagella are located on
Prokaryotes - Answer- What cells do not have a nucleus or any membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria, and their ribosomes are a smaller size than eukaryotic ribosomes?
Hemoglobinopathies. - Answer- Disorders in which the presence of structurally abnormal hemoglobin is considered to play an important role pathologically are called
Megaloblastic anemias - Answer- What macrocytic anemias are the results of vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, or a combination of both?
Poikilocytosis. - Answer- Alteration in shape which include: spherocytes, schistocytes, sickle cells, drepanocytes, ovalocytes, and target cells is called
Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) - Answer- This is one of the most useful procedures for distinguishing immune from nonimmune mechanisms that can underlie hemolytic anemias. What test is used to detect RBCs that have been coated with antibodies?
Evaluate the overall quality of the blood film, estimate the leukocyte count, and scan the blood film for abnormal cells and clumps of platelets. - Answer- Low power examination (10x objective) includes the following:
Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation - Answer- In simplified terms, iron-deficiency anemia may result from the following:
Sudan black B (BBB) - Answer- Which cytochemical stain is used in differentiating the cell lineage of malignant cells in the bone marrow that stains phospholipids, neutral fats, and sterols?
Promyelocyte - Answer- As the neutrophil matures, the characteristics that help distinquish the cell also change. Which neutrophil has reddish purple primary granules, also called nonspecific or azurphilic granules?
Anemia, Polycythemia, Multiple myeloma - Answer- Which physiologic conditions make it difficult to make a good blood smear due to the abnormal composition of the blood?
(Leukocyte count x100)/(100 + # of NRBC) - Answer- Nucleated erythrocytes may falsely elevate leukocyte count which a correct leukocyte count must be performed as a corrective procedure. Which of the below is the correct formula?
Myeloperoxidase - Answer- Which cytochemical stain is the most sensitive and specific stain for granulocytes?
Large center square - Answer- When counting platelets using the unopette system (a manual method), which area is used to count on the Neubauer hemacytometer?
1% ammonium oxalate solution - Answer- To perform the manual platelet count, whole blood is diluted with what solution using the unopette system?
Megakaryocytes - Answer- When performing a bone marrow differential count, which cell is not included?
Chorea and undulant fever - Answer- In the vast majority of infections, there is at least some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?
Westergren method - Answer- What has been selected as the method of choice by the Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) for measuring erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate - Answer- What measures the rate of setting of erythrocytes in diluted human plasma?
Analyze serial dilutions of linearity check material multiple times to minimize effects of imprecision - Answer- The following procedure describes linearity determination for each direct measured parameter on a hematology analyzer.
Levey-Jennings chart - Answer- When a new lot number of controls are used with a hematology analyzer, the new control material must be tested and plotted to establish the mean and the control limits. How is this plotted?
Impedance - Answer- Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on increased resistance that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field?
Microcytic erythrocytes - Answer- When evaluating erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left of the erythrocyte series should correspond to the following type of erythrocytes?
Plasma. - Answer- The total volume of blood in an average adult is about 6 L, or 7% to 8% of the body weight. About 45% of this amount is composed of red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes); the remaining 55% is the liquid fraction
New methylene blue - Answer- Using this stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes.
Plasma (top layer), buffy coat (grayish white cellular layer composed of white blood cells and platelets), red blood cells (bottom layer). - Answer- When a preserved blood specimen is allowed to stand for a time, the components will settle into the following three distinct layers:
Platelet count, platelet aggregation assays, platelet adhesion, and clot retraction - Answer- Current tests for platelets include:
Closure time (CT) - Answer- What is a test system to assess platelet-related primary hemostasis with greater accuracy and reliability than bleeding time?
Extrinsic pathway - Answer- Prothrombin time measures which pathway?
Fibrinogen. - Answer- The APTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II and
Thrombin time - Answer- What laboratory test has the following characteristics? Its purpose is plasma factors. It measures concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage III and monitors coumarin therapy.
Labile coagulation factor. - Answer- The activity of factor V in plasma deteriorates even when the plasma is frozen; it is the most unstable of the coagulation factors and is also known as
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). - Answer- Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-dimers associated with
rothrombin group - Answer- What measures factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Secondary hemostasis - Answer- What results in the formation of a blood clot because coagulation factors present in the blood interact, forming a fibrin network and a thrombus, to stop the bleeding completely? Slow lysis of the thrombus begins, and final repair to site of the injury takes place.
Plasmin. - Answer- The active enzyme that is responsible for digesting fibrin or fibrinogen is
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) - Answer- What provides an alternative to immunofluorescent assays and uses nonisotopic label, which offers the advantage of safety and demonstrates specificity, sensitivity, and rapidity? This method is popular for waived, over the counter testing.
Heterophil antibodies - Answer- What are defined as antibodies that are stimulated by one antigen and react with an entirely unrelated surface antigen present on cells from different mammalian species?
Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA). - Answer- If the antibody directed toward the agent being assayed is fixed firmly to a solid matrix, either to the outside of a spherical plastic or metal bead or some other solid matrix, the system is called
Southern blot - Answer- What molecular technique can determine single-base mutations that include sickle cell anemia and hemophilia A?
Rapid plasma regain (RPR) - Answer- What is the widely used nontreponemal serological test?
. Direct immunofluorescent assay - Answer- What is the technique that uses a conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent microscope?
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) agglutination test - Answer- What is based on the reaction between patient antibodies in the serum, known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived from human gamma globulin (IgG)?
Agglutination - Answer- What is the term applied to aggregation of particulate test antigens?
Precipitation - Answer- What is the term used to describe the aggregation of soluble test antigens?
Antigenicity - Answer- What is influenced by molecular size, foreignness, shape of the molecule, and chemical composition?
Patient cells - Answer- What is the source of antigen for performing the forward group ABO/D typing?
A - Answer- If you mix an unknown antigen (patient red cell) with a known antibody (Anti-A) and get visible agglutination, which unknown antigen is detected?
IgG - Answer- The antiglobulin test is important because it detects what antibodies that have attached to red cells either in vivo or in vitro but do not demonstrate visible agglutination in testing?
perform a pre-warm technique. - Answer- One method to avoid reactivity with a cold antibody is
Patient serum with donor cells - Answer- During a major side crossmatch compatibility for packed red blood cells, what is used for testing?
Patient identification error - Answer- If during an immediate spin crossmatch, if the results are incompatible what is likely the cause?
Anti-D - Answer- The immune serum globulin that is given to D negative pregnant mothers is to prevent production of which antibody following delivery?
30 mL - Answer- What is the maximum amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) D positive fetal red cells a women is allowed to lose for one dose of RhIG?
Elution - Answer- IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in a solution to test specificity. What process is this?
H - Answer- A person who is said to be a secretor is an individual that has the Se allele and expresses the soluble form of which antigen in their secretions?
Weak D positive - Answer- When performing an antihuman globulin test that is positive for Anti-D and negative for Rh control, how would you interpret the results?
A condition when a mother makes an antibody to red cell antigens from the fetus. - Answer- Which of the following statements is true regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
Age, Genetic make-up, Route of inoculation - Answer- The primary immune response is elicited as the first exposure to a foreign antigen and is influenced by the characteristics of the antigen and immune response. What are some host properties contributing to the immune response?
phenoytpe. - Answer- The physical expression of inherited traits is determined by reacting red cells with known antisera and observing for the presence or absence of hemagglutination is
Weiner - Answer- Which theory with regards to Rh believes that each parent gives one Rh gene but that alleles at one gene locus are responsible for expression of their system antigens on the red cell?
Landsteiner's rule. - Answer- The rule of stating that normal, healthy individuals possess ABO antibodies to the ABO blood group antigens that are absent from their red cells is termed
Asian - Answer- Which population in the U.S. has the highest frequency of the group B phenotype?
D-galactose. - Answer- The immunodominant sugar for the B antigen is
sensitization - Answer- The binding of an antibody or complement component to a red cell is the definition of
. antigen. - Answer- A substance that is foreign and binds specifically to an antibody or a T-cell receptor is a definition of
Recording data on appropriate log - Answer- Which of the following is an example of good record keeping in Blood Banking?
Polycythemia, Hemochromatosis, Porphyrias - Answer- A therapeutic phlebotomy is performed on a patient to withdraw blood from a patient for medical reasons. Which of the following is a common indication of therapeutic phlebotomy?
Calibration - Answer- If I wanted to standardize an instrument to help eliminate errors, that could harm a patient or donor, what is the process?
Degree to which a measurement represents the true value. - Answer- Which of the following is a definition of accuracy in blood banking?
Irradiated red blood cells - Answer- Which blood product would be best for a patient that the physician is concerned about that has graft versus host disease (GVHD)?
35 days - Answer- Whole blood units are stored at 1 - 6oC for how many days if collected in CPDA-1?
4 hours - Answer- Pooled platelets that have been stored at 20-24oC expire within how many hours?
a. Final volume
b. Unique number assigned to pool
c. Name of preparing facility - Answer- The blood bank industry adopted a standard of labeling units. What are the specific labeling requirements in addition to the standard for pooled components?
Apheresis - Answer- What is a method of blood collection where whole blood is removed from a donor and separated into components and that one or more components are retained and the other is returned to the patient?
Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and occasionally Staphylococcus aureus. - Answer- The most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis in children are
Phenylethyl alcohol agar - Answer- What is essentially sheep blood agar with phenylethyl alcohol added?
3% CO2 - Answer- A candle jar will provide what atmospheric condition?
Lowenstein-Jensen medium - Answer- What medium is best for the Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Klebsiella pneumoniae - Answer- What gram negative rod is associated with lobar pneumonia in hospitalized patients?
test for the presence of beta-lactamase enzyme in a bacterial isolate. - Answer- A cefinase disk may be used to
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Answer- A 10 year old child presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of severe ear pain. The child had been swimming in the lake several days earlier. The culture from the ear grew a gram negative rod with a grapelike odor. The colonies were flat and spreading with rough edge and a metallic sheen. It was indole negative and oxidase positive. What is the likely organism?
Fusobacterium nucleatum - Answer- An isolate from a properly collected abscess yields an anaerobic, gram-negative bacillus with tapered ends. The colonies were breadcrumb-like, indole positive, nitrate negative, vancomycin resistant, kanomycin susceptible and colistin susceptible. The most likely identification is
Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Answer- A 20 year old male presents to the Emergency room with heavy urethral discharge that had been present for 3 days. He has been sexually active with several partners and has used no contraceptives. A culture of the discharge grows gram negative diplococci with adjacent sides that are flattened and is oxidase positive. What is the likely organism?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Answer- Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA) inhibits the growth of gram negative organisms except
Bile solubility test - Answer- With the addition of a bile salt, sodium desoxycholate, the lytic process is accelerated with this test, what is this test?
Enterobius vermicularis - Answer- Most laboratories use the clear cellophane tape method to collect and prepare this specimen for examination
Streak plate method - Answer- What method is used for quantitating the growth of microorganisms in the urine and is the classic culture method typically used in many clinical laboratories?
Streptococcus pneumoniae - Answer- Which of the following organisms is commonly tested for β-lactamase production by the cefinase method?
The resistance patterns of the institution do not need to be regarded in the selection of antibiotics to report. - Answer- When deciding which antimicrobial agents to test and report on, an isolate which of the following statements is NOT true?
antibodies bound to enzymes - Answer- Enzyme-linked immunoassays (ELISA) employ the use of _______________ to produce a visible end point.
Sedimentation - Answer- What procedure uses gravity or centrifugation and allows recovery of all protozoa, egg, and larvae present in the specimen?
detection of the toxins A and B by PCR test on a diarrheal specimen. - Answer- Clostridium difficile disease can be diagnosed by
flatworms. - Answer- The phylum Platyhelminthes are
Ehrlichia chaffeensis - Answer- What is a gram negative, obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies in monocytic white cells (human monocytic ehrlichiosis)? [Show Less]