The statistic that is the laboratory's best estimate of the analyte's true value for a specific level of control is - Answer- Mean
An abrupt
... [Show More] demonstrated change in the mean is a - Answer- Shift
The difference between the expectation of a test result and an accepted reference method is referred to as - Answer- Bias
The statistical process in the medical laboratory used to monitor and evaluate the analytical process that produces patient results is - Answer- Quality control
The statistic that quantifies how close numerical QC values are in relation to each other is - Answer- Standard deviation
Under CLIA law, the process of testing and adjusting an instrument or test system to establish a correlation between the measured response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measuredby the test procedure is - Answer- Calibration
A substance or constituent for which the laboratory conducts testing is - Answer- an analyte
A phrase used to describe the location where testing is performed (such as the bedside) is known as - Answer- Point of care testing
What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system? - Answer- FDA
TLA means - Answer- total laboratory automation
Given %T, how is absorbance calculated? - Answer- 2-log%T
The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that the vast majority of atoms in a flame absorb energy at a characteristic wavelength is - Answer- atomic absorption
Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as - Answer- Good clinical laboratory practices (GCLP)
Common hazards in the laboratory include - Answer- - biological
- chemical
- radiological
Material Safety Data Sheets (M.S.D.S.) are now called - Answer- safety data sheets
Prohibiting mouth pipetting is an example of - Answer- a workplace control
All of the following are bloodborne pathogens except - Answer- epstein barr virus
How can you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit? - Answer- [Celsius * (9/5)] + 32
What is the molarity of an unknown HCL solution with a specific gravity of 1.10 and an assay percentage of 18.5%? (Atomic weights: H = 1.00794, Cl = 35.4527)
Specific gravity x Assay percentage = grams of compound/mL - Answer- 5.6M
The microscope objective in the 40X range is the - Answer- high power
Common light bulbs used as light sources in microscopes include all except - Answer- Lithium
One of your best friends just had some lab work done and calls you asking you to get her a copy of her results. What should you do? - Answer- Tell your friend that you are not able to do that.
Which of the following actions is appropriate when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is delivered to the laboratory's specimen processing area? - Answer- Deliver the specimens immediately to the appropriate testing areas.
With the new advances in capillary punctures equipment, where is the most appropriate place to perform a capillary blood collection on a newborn? - Answer- Medial plantar surface of the heel
You are getting ready to draw a CBC, PT and CMP on an eight year old. While explaining the procedure to the patient, the child asks you if it is going to hurt. How should you respond? - Answer- Tell them it's like a pinch that might sting and it's OK to cry but it is important that they hold still.
A gel separator tube is received with orders for a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) and serum Glucose test. How should this request be handled? - Answer- Centrifuge the specimen once it has clotted and deliver it to chemistry for the serum glucose test. The DAT will need to be recollected because this is not the appropriate specimen.
Which of the following characterizes reversed-phase liquid-liquid chromatography? - Answer- Mobile phase is polar relative to the nonpolar stationary phase
Which of the following are the two methods used to characterize monoclonal proteins? - Answer- IEP and IFE
Which of the following uses a graphite cylinder to hold the sample? - Answer- Flameless atomic absorption spectrophotometer
The amount of wavelength isolation is a function of the monochromator type and of which of the following? - Answer- Width of entrance and exit slits
Which lamps are most common when working in the ultraviolet region? - Answer- Mercury arc and deuterium discharge
In what manner is the dye uptake by a sample following electrophoresis and staining related to the sample concentration? - Answer- Directly proportional
POCT devices use a variety of analytical principles such as reflectance, spectrophotometry, fluorescence, and ________. - Answer- PCR
A high-protein diet may cause a - Answer- prerenal plasma urea increase.
The most common methods for uric acid measurement utilize uricase to catalyze the oxidation of uric acid to which of the following? - Answer- Allantoin
Which compound comprises about 40-50% of total non-protein nitrogen? - Answer- Urea
The reduction of oxaloacetate to malate by malate dehydrogenase is used in the measurement of which enzyme? - Answer- AST
Which is used as the indicator enzyme in the measurement of ALT? - Answer- LD
The reference range of urobilinogen is - Answer- 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours.
The Embden-Myerhof pathway, hexose monophosphate shunt, and glycogenesis all begin with the conversion of glucose to what? - Answer- Glucose-6-phosphate
Glucocorticoids and which of the following are produced by the adrenal gland and are responsible for increasing plasma glucose? - Answer- Epinephrine
What is the order of serum protein migration at pH 8.6 toward the anode? - Answer- Albumin, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, β- globulins, γ-globulins
What is the protein portion of an enzyme? - Answer- apoenzyme
AST is commonly measured by a coupled enzymatic reaction using which of the following as the indicator? - Answer- Malate dehydrogenase
The relationship among enzyme, substrate, and product may be expressed as - Answer- E + S → ES → E + P
AST is classified as a(an) - Answer- transferase
Which of the following enzymes is considered more specific for pancreatic disorders? - Answer- LPS
The RAS regulates blood pressure and which of the following? - Answer- Sodium balance
In which of the following organs does PTH act to enhance the 1α-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy vitamin D? - Answer- Kidneys
Parathyroid glands increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes in levels of which of the following? - Answer- Calcium
Which of the following apolipoproteins is associated primarily with HDL? - Answer- Apo A-I
Which of the following serum lipoprotein concentration patterns is seen on average with pre-menopausal women when compared with men? - Answer- Higher HDL-C and lower total cholesterol and triglyceride levels
Which of the following respond to changes in osmolality? - Answer- Hypothalamus
Serum calcium levels are regulated by PTH, calcitonin, and which other hormone? - Answer- Vitamin D
Serum copper levels less than the reference interval and increased urinary levels describe which condition? - Answer- Wilson's disease
Common enzymatic methods for alcohol determination measure the production of which of these? - Answer- NADH
Which of the following is a semi-synthetic opiate with 2-3 times the analgesic potency of its parent compound, morphine? - Answer- Heroin
Which of the following can be detected in the urine following passive inhalation? - Answer- THC-COOH
Which of the following is the most active metabolite of vitamin D? - Answer- 1,25 (OH)2 D3
Due to the variable cross-reactivity with immunoassays, positive results are considered to be presumptive positives with which class of drugs? - Answer- Amphetamines
The use of automated systems to do lamellar body counts because they are about the same size as which of the following? - Answer- Platelets
A drug that metabolizes in the liver to a large degree before it reaches the blood stream has undergone which type of metabolism? - Answer- First-pass
The purposes of TDM are to ensure that the drug dosage provides the maximum therapeutic benefit and which of the following? - Answer- Identify when the drug is outside the therapeutic range
Which of the following results from incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood? - Answer- HDN
Which of the following is the single most important factor in TDM? - Answer- Timing of specimen collection
Which of the following is a drug that requires metabolic processes to transform it into the physiologically active form? - Answer- Prodrug
Peripheral erythrocytes - Answer- - are the most numerous.
- are biconcave disks.
- have a color due to hemoglobin.
The body maintains an adequate number of cells to perform its functions and is referred to as tissue _______ - Answer- homeostasis.
Which of the following is true for a normal patient? - Answer- - An adult with a hematocrit above 61% is a critical level.
- An adult will have 25-40% lymphocytes.
- A newborn will have a 42-60% hematocrit.
Concerning blood smears and their staining, which of the following is TRUE? - Answer- To be stained later, a slide must first be dipped in methanol.
In humans, a white blood cell is also known as a(n) - Answer- Leukocyte
A general use (WBC differential) hematology stain is - Answer- Wright's Stain
During staining of a blood smear, what error imparts a too blue hue? - Answer- Too much blood on the slide
Drabkin's hemoglobin reagent is no longer used because it contains - Answer- cyanide.
Megaloblastic erythrocytes have an abnormal developmental sequence. As they develop, cells of the megablastic sequence have a more open or immature chromatin pattern in the nucleus, referred to as - Answer- asynchronous maturation.
A group of anemias that demonstrate mild to severe microcytosis and hypochromia are disorders in the synthesis of globin, a component of the hemoglobin molecule and are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis are - Answer- thalassemias
The principal adult hemoglobin, hemoglobin A contains - Answer- two alpha and two beta chains.
When performing the Westergren method, fresh anticoagulated blood collected in sodium citrate is the preferred anticoagulant. What is the ratio of blood to sodium citrate? - Answer- 4 vol of blood to 1 vol of sodium citrate
Polychromatic RBCs have different - Answer- colors
A hemoglobin analysis - Answer- is an oxygen-carrying capacity test, an indirect test.
A neutrophil can also be called a - Answer- - poly.
- PMN.
- seg.
Lymphopenia is - Answer- a deficiency of lymphocytes in the blood.
An immature granulocyte with a nonsegmented nucleus is a (an) - Answer- band
To perform the manual platelet count; whole blood is diluted with what solution using the Unopette® System? - Answer- 1% ammonium oxalate solution
If the platelet count is reported in SI units, a normal platelet count is - Answer- 1.5-4.0 x 1011/μL.
What is used as a fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen? - Answer- 10% buffered formalin fixative
In conjunction with a bone marrow aspirate, what other tests should be performed for correspondence of results? - Answer- CBC
Which genetic defect is found with chronic myelogenous leukemia and is detected through molecular tests? - Answer- BCR/ABL1
A hazy body fluid is diluted for a manual hemacytometer count. From 1 mL of diluting fluid, twenty lambda (20μ) is removed. Twenty lambda of the mixed body fluid is added and remixed. The manual count has been diluted by a factor of - Answer- 50
20 lambda is removed from 1,000 lambda and replaced by the same amount of body fluid. Thus, 1000 is divided by 20, equaling a dilution factor of 50.
The Hemoglobin S solubility test uses anticoagulated whole blood, mixed with the lysing agent, saponin, and a reducing agent, sodium dithionite. Hemoglobin is released and then reduced. Blood containing hemoglobin S gives a solubility test of - Answer- a red turbid liquid
When evaluating erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left of the erythrocyte series should correspond to the following type of erythrocytes? - Answer- Microcytic erythrocytes
While collecting a sample of blood for hematology testing, what is the possible outcome of laboratory results if the tube was not inverted during collection? - Answer- Falsely decreased cell counts
Light scatter, light excitation, and florescent signal emissions are all used in which type of cell count testing? - Answer- Flow cytometry
What consist of (1) the physical effect of surrounding tissue, which tends to close and seal the tear in the injured vessel, and (2) the biochemical effects of certain tissue factors that are released from the injured tissue and reacts with plasma and platelet factors? - Answer- Extravascular effects
What results in the formation of a blood clot because coagulation factors present in the blood interact, forming a fibrin network and a thrombus, to stop the bleeding completely? Slow lysis of the thrombus begins, and final repair to the site of the injury takes place. - Answer- Secondary hemostasis
The APTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II and - Answer- fibrinogen
A platelet count above the normal reference range is termed - Answer- thrombocytosis
The doctor suspects a chronically malnourished patient has scurvy because of bleeding gums. He would order tests for - Answer- Vitamin C
The physician in the emergency department has a patient that might have a pulmonary embolism (PE) and calls you to ask what coagulation test would be the best to rule out this diagnosis. - Answer- D-dimer
What symptoms would you expect to see from a patient that had decreased function of the fibrinolytic system? - Answer- Excessive thrombosis
Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-dimers associated with - Answer- Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
What has these characteristics: purpose is plasma factors; measures concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage III; monitors coumarin therapy. - Answer- Thrombin Time
Which of the following laboratory tests would be consistent for a patient that had a factor VIII deficiency or hemophilia A? - Answer- Normal PT, prolonged aPTT
What measures factors II, VII, IX, and X? - Answer- Prothrombin group
A doctor's office calls needing help ordering tests for fibrinolysis but can not recall which test to order. You advise them of the tests for - Answer- plasmin and plasminogen.
What is a mathematical indicator of responsiveness of the PT testing system to deficiencies of the Vitamin K coagulation factors? - Answer- International sensitivity index (ISI)
Graft rejection is - Answer- destruction of grafted tissue by attacking lymphocytes.
A 3-year-old boy was playing in the dirt. His mother stopped him and immediately cleaned his hands with an alcohol-based hand sanitizer. Which of the following beneficial processes could the mother actually be hindering? - Answer- Exposure to foreign antigens causing selection of thymocytes that are only capable of recognizing non-self antigens
A young man has been having unprotected sex. About 1 month after one of these encounters he notices a painless lesion on his penis. The "sore" does not really hurt or ooze so he ignores it. During a sports physical 2 weeks later his physician notices this lesion and calls it a chancre. The physician tests the patient for the organism Treponema pallidum. In the event that the test is positive, the patient should be diagnosed with - Answer- primary syphilis.
A patient tests negative for rheumatoid factor. The patient does have symptoms consistent with rheumatoid arthritis. The physician should - Answer- Do further testing because the RF test is negative in approximately 25% of patients who have the disease.
A new FDA-approved assay which detects a stable region of the toxin A gene is based on - Answer- LAMP (Loop-Mediated Isothermal Amplification).
Antinuclear antibodies are - Answer- autoantibodies that bind to contents of cell nuclei.
Which of the following would be the best reason to use the Directogen™ Meningitis Combo Test latex agglutination test for detection of bacterial antigens in CSF instead of a culture and gram stain only? - Answer- The latex agglutination test gives faster results than the culture and can allow the physician to prescribe appropriate antibiotics sooner.
Toxin A/B produced by Clostridium difficile is - Answer- detected in stool for a positive test.
When performing the Directogen™ Meningitis Combo Test on Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF), the test card or slide should be rotated on a mechanical rotator for 10 minutes at 100rpm ± 2rpm. The procedure requires use of a moistened humidifying cover during this rotation period. Which of the following is most likely to occur if you forget to use the moistened humidifying cover? - Answer- False positive due to evaporation bring the latex bead closer together
Antinuclear antibodies are used in the diagnosis of - Answer- au [Show Less]