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AMT MT/MT ASCP/AMT/AMT MLT Exam Bundle
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AMT MT Study Guide latest updated (Graded A)
The three major phases of laboratory testing that a QA program should evaluate include
a. mean, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation.
b. pr... [Show More] e-op, operative, and post-op.
c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
d. outpatient, inpatient, and non-patient. - Answer- c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
The process by which test results achieve the same high levels of accuracy and precision that can be reproduced across measurement systems, laboratories and time is referred to as
a. laboratory process control.
b. laboratory calibration.
c. laboratory standardization.
d. laboratory verification. - Answer- c. laboratory standardization.
What characteristics/functions do calibrators have?
a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested.
b. They monitor the quality of reagents.
c. They monitor the quality of the sample.
d. They prevent equipment failure. - Answer- a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested.
An abrupt demonstrated change in the mean is a
a. shift.
b. trend.
c. variance.
d. deviation. - Answer- a. shift.
Qualitative examinations are those that
a. qualify for waived testing.
b. produce non-numerical results.
c. do not require quality control.
d. do not require proficiency testing. - Answer- b. produce non-numerical results.
A property of a test that is used to describe its quality (such as accuracy, precision, sensitivity, etc.) is a
a. performance characteristic.
b. performance enhancement.
c. performance verification.
d. performance specification. - Answer- a. performance characteristic
Under CLIA law, the process of testing and adjusting an instrument or test system to establish a correlation between the measured response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measuredby the test procedure is
a. calibration.
b. calibration verification.
c. a challenge.
d. quality control. - Answer- a. calibration.
What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system?
a. CMS
b. FDA
c. CDC
d. OSHA - Answer- b. FDA
Certain moderate complexity microscopy tests (such as urine sediment evaluation and skin scrapings) commonly performed by healthcare providers in the office setting are classified as
a. provider moderate complexity tests.
b. provider exempt status.
c. provider personnel testing.
d. provider performed microscopy. - Answer- d. provider performed microscopy.
Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as
a. CLIA Law.
b. Quality Assurance Plan (QAP).
c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
d. Total Quality Management (TQM). - Answer- c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
Devices based on electrophoretic principles are used in the clinical laboratory to perform all of the following except to
a. measure quantities of various proteins in plasma, urine, and CSF.
b. separate enzymes into their component isoenzymes.
c. identify antibodies.
d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. - Answer- d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum.
The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is
a. flourometry.
b. atomic absorption.
c. spectrophotometry.
d. photometry. - Answer- c. spectrophotometry.
Given %T, how is absorbance calculated?
a. log %T - 2.
b. log %T + 2.
c. 2 + log %T.
d. 2 - log %T. - Answer- d. 2 - log %T.
Prohibiting recapping of needles is an example of
a. a workplace control.
b. an engineering control.
c. a best practice in the workplace.
d. a human resources requirement. - Answer- a. a workplace control.
The majority of all centrifuge accidents result from
a. electrical malfunctions.
b. faulty mechanisms.
c. user error.
d. crowded work conditions. - Answer- c. user error.
Material Safety Data Sheets (M.S.D.S.) are now called
a. Chemical Safety Sheets.
b. Safety Data System.
c. Material Data System.
d. Safety Data Sheets. - Answer- d. Safety Data Sheets.
In order for a laboratory to handle TB sputum and TB materials, the laboratory must operate at a
a. biosafety level of 2+ or 3.
b. biosafety level 4.
c. location where air exchange is continuous.
d. location where fume hood exhausts are monitored daily. - Answer- a. biosafety level of 2+ or 3.
What is the molarity of an unknown HCL solution with a specific gravity of 1.10 and an assay percentage of 18.5%? (Atomic weights: H = 1.00794, Cl = 35.4527)
a. 203.5 M
b. 36.5 M
c. 5.6 M
d. 5.2 M - Answer- c. 5.6 M
1.10 * 0.185 = 0.2035 g/mL
0.2035 g/mL * 1000 = 203.5 g/L
Molarity = (g/L) / molecular weight (MW)
203.5 / 36.5 = 5.6 M
MCV = HCT * 10/(?)
a. MCHC
b. MCV
c. RBC
d. MCH - Answer- c. RBC
A substage lens of the microscope that focuses light on the slide specimen is the
a. condenser.
b. aperture.
c. C-mount.
d. diaphragm. - Answer- a. condenser.
The magnification of a microscope is determined by the
a. high power objective multiplied by the low power objective.
b. thickness of the condenser.
c. powers of the eyepiece and objective.
d. fine focus adjustment. - Answer- c. powers of the eyepiece and objective.
You have just completed morning rounds when you realize that you have an unlabeled tube in your tray. You are certain you know what patient the tube belongs to. How should you proceed?
a. After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen.
b. After sorting the tubes, you see what specimen is missing so label your unlabeled tube with that patient's information.
c. Discard the tube and hope know one realizes there is a missing specimen.
d. Discard all your tubes and redraw everyone to make sure all the specimens are correct. - Answer- a. After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen.
You are working in receiving and receive urine specimens with the following labels. Select the label that contains the required labeling elements for a primary specimen.
a. Name: Jane Deer
DOB: 3-6-3
Room #: 123
Collect time/date: 0550 7/6/13
b. Name: Deer, JR
DOB: 3/6/2003
Location: clinic
Collect time/date: 0550 7/6/13
c. Name: Deer, Jane Ray
DOB: 3/6/2003
Hospital number: 234345
Collect time/date: 0550 7/6/2013
d. Name: Deer, Jane
DOB: 3/6/2003
Hospital number:
Collect time/date: 0500 7/6/2013 - Answer- c. Name: Deer, Jane Ray
DOB: 3/6/2003
Hospital number: 234345
Collect time/date: 0550 7/6/2013
A gel separator tube is received with orders for a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) and serum Glucose test. How should this request be handled?
a. Centrifuge the specimen and aliquot some serum into another tube for chemistry. Then send the tube to blood bank for the DAT.
b. Centrifuge the specimen once it has clotted and deliver it to chemistry for the serum glucose test. The DAT will need to be recollected because this is not the appropriate specimen.
c. Have both tests recollected since this is not an appropriate specimen for either test.
d. Send the specimen to blood bank first for the DAT and ask them to send it on to chemistry when they are through. - Answer- b. Centrifuge the specimen once it has clotted and deliver it to chemistry for the serum glucose test. The DAT will need to be recollected because this is not the appropriate specimen.
Within what time frame should a urine specimen that does not contain preservative be processed for a routine urinalysis if it is stored at room temperature?
a. Within one hour of collection
b. Within two hours of collection
c. Within four hours of collection
d. Within five hours of collection - Answer- b. Within two hours of collection
Which of the following actions is appropriate when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is delivered to the laboratory's specimen processing area?
a. Refrigerate the specimens immediately.
b. Deliver the specimens to the testing area along with routine specimens when it is convenient.
c. Deliver the specimens immediately to the appropriate testing areas.
d. Incubate the specimen until routine testing can take place. - Answer- c. Deliver the specimens immediately to the appropriate testing areas.
Which of the following characterizes reversed-phase liquid-liquid chromatography?
a. Mobile phase is nonpolar relative to the polar stationary phase
b. Mobile and stationary phases are nonpolar
c. Mobile and stationary phases are polar
d. Mobile phase is polar relative to the nonpolar stationary phase - Answer- d. Mobile phase is polar relative to the nonpolar stationary phase
The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods?
a. Turbidimetry
b. Nephelometry
c. Chemiluminescence
d. Bioluminescence - Answer- a. Turbidimetry
Which of the following labels is used in the detection of electrochemiluminescence?
a. Acridinium esters
b. Dioxetane
c. Tritium
d. Ruthenium III - Answer- d. Ruthenium III
POCT devices use a variety of analytical principles such as reflectance, spectrophotometry, fluorescence, and ________.
a. ESI
b. IFE
c. RIA
d. PCR - Answer- d. PCR
The amount of wavelength isolation is a function of the monochromator type and of which of the following?
a. Width of entrance and exit slits
b. Height of entrance and exit slits
c. Width of entrance and height of exit slits
d. Height of entrance and width of exit slits - Answer- a. Width of entrance and exit slits
Which of the following is one of the most common clinical applications of GC-MS analysis?
a. Drug testing
b. Screening for genetic disorders
c. Confirmation of inborn errors of metabolism
d. Antiretroviral testing - Answer- a. Drug testing
An immunoassay methodology using either europium or phycobiliproteins would use which detection method?
a. Gamma counter
b. Luminometer
c. Fluorometer
d. Photometer - Answer- c. Fluorometer
What is the relationship between plasma creatinine and muscle mass?
a. Inversely proportional
b. Approximately equal
c. Directly proportional
d. Exactly equal - Answer- c. Directly proportional
A high-protein diet may cause a
a. prerenal plasma urea increase.
b. postrenal plasma urea increase.
c. prerenal plasma urea decrease.
d. postrenal plasma urea decrease. - Answer- a. prerenal plasma urea increase.
Catabolism of which of the following results in the formation of uric acid?
a. Proteins
b. Pyrimidines
c. Porphyries
d. Purines - Answer- d. Purines
Jendrassik-Grof or Evelyn-Malloy are the most commonly used methods to measure
a. Fructose
b. Bilirubin
c. Urea
d. Cholesterol - Answer- b. Bilirubin
The reference range of urobilinogen is
a. 0.1-1.0 mg/dL every 2 hours.
b. 0.1-1.0 µmol/L every 2 hours.
c. 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours.
d. 0.1-1.0 Babson units every 2 hours. - Answer- c. 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours.
Which is used as the indicator enzyme in the measurement of ALT?
a. LD
b. AST
c. ALP
d. CK - Answer- a. LD
Which of the following is the formation of glucose-6-phosphate from sources other than carbohydrates?
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycolysis
c. Glycogenolysis
d. Glycogenesis - Answer- a. Gluconeogenesis
With which enzyme does carbohydrate metabolism begin?
a. Pancreatic amylase
b. Lactate dehydrogenase
c. Salivary amylase
d. Phosphofructokinase - Answer- c. Salivary amylase
A serum electrophoretic pattern showing a β-γ bridge would likely be from a patient with
a. liver cirrhosis.
b. nephritic syndrome.
c. inflammation.
d. myelomatosis. - Answer- a. liver cirrhosis.
Which of the following associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct?
a. CK-MM and Reye's syndrome
b. CK-BB and muscular dystrophy
c. CK-MB and inflammatory heart disease
d. CK-MB and acute renal failure - Answer- c. CK-MB and inflammatory heart disease
What is the protein portion of an enzyme?
a. Holoenzyme
b. Zymogen
c. Apoenzyme
d. Isoenzyme - Answer- c. Apoenzyme
AST is classified as a(an)
a. oxidoreductase.
b. transferase.
c. hydrolase.
d. isomerase. - Answer- b. transferase.
Elevations in ALP levels are seen in hepatobiliary and which other disorders?
a. Kidney
b. Lung
c. Pancreas
d. Bone - Answer- d. Bone
Which enzyme catalyzes the interconversion of lactate and pyruvate?
a. PK
b. LD
c. GP
d. CK - Answer- b. LD
Anterior pituitary hormones include LH, FSH, TSH, GH, and
a. ACTH and cortisol.
b. Inhibin and IGF-1.
c. ACTH and prolactin.
d. E2 and T3. - Answer- c. ACTH and prolactin
Parathyroid glands increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes in levels of which of the following?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Calcium - Answer- d. Calcium
Growth hormone is an amphibolic hormone because it directly influences which processes?
a. Both anabolic and catabolic
b. Only anabolic
c. Only catabolic
d. Neither anabolic nor catabolic - Answer- a. Both anabolic and catabolic
Which of the following lipoproteins transfers triglycerides from the intestine to the liver?
a. CM
b. LVDL
c. LDL
d. HDL - Answer- a. CM
n most enzymatic methods for cholesterol measurement, cholesterol oxidase reacts with free cholesterol to produce which of the following?
a. Cholesteryl esters
b. NADH
c. H2O2
d. Cholestenone - Answer- c. H2O2
Ionized calcium is measured on automated systems by which of the following methods?
a. CPC
b. AAS
c. TLC
d. ISE - Answer- d. ISE
Which of the following is the immediate precursor to angiotensin II?
a. Renin
b. Angiotensinogen
c. Angiotensin III
d. Angiotensin I - Answer- d. Angiotensin I
Which of the following is the method of choice for confirmation testing following a positive opiate drug screening result?
a. AAS
b. HPLC
c. Immunoassay
d. GC-MS - Answer- d. GC-MS
Chronic exposure to organic mercury is cumulative because most of it is bound to which of the following?
a. Adipose tissue
b. Neuronal proteins
c. Renal tubules
d. Splenic tissue - Answer- b. Neuronal proteins
Formic acid formed by the metabolism of methanol is responsible for which of the following?
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Optic neuropathy
c. Renal tubular damage
d. Severe CNS symptoms - Answer- b. Optic neuropathy
Serum copper levels less than the reference interval and increased urinary levels describe which condition?
a. Wilson's disease
b. Addison's disease
c. Cushing's syndrome
d. Reye's syndrome - Answer- a. Wilson's disease
Which of the following is a functional test used to assess fetal lung maturity?
a. L/S ratio
b. PG
c. FSI
d. Lamellar body counts - Answer- c. FSI
Which of the following determinations is used to assess the total body lead poisoning burden?
a. Zinc protoporphyrin
b. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
c. GFR
d. Whole blood lead - Answer- d. Whole blood lead
Which of the following is a semi-synthetic opiate with 2-3 times the analgesic potency of its parent compound, morphine?
a. Codeine
b. Fentanyl
c. Heroin
d. Tramadol - Answer- c. Heroin
The dose that would be predicted to produce a toxic effect in 50% of a population is represented by which of the following?
a. ED50
b. LD50
c. TD50
d. ID50 - Answer- c. TD50
Due to the variable cross-reactivity with immunoassays, positive results are considered to be presumptive positives with which class of drugs?
a. MDMA
b. THC
c. Amphetamines
d. Phencyclidine - Answer- c. Amphetamines
The purposes of TDM are to ensure that the drug dosage provides the maximum therapeutic benefit and which of the following?
a. Identify the standard dose
b. Identify when the drug is outside the therapeutic range
c. Determine the efficiency of absorption
d. Determine the route of administration - Answer- b. Identify when the drug is outside the therapeutic range
What is the final product of hepatic ethanol metabolism?
a. Acetaldehyde
b. Acetone
c. Acetic acid
d. Acetate - Answer- c. Acetic acid
Which of the following is a good indicator of chronic malnutrition?
a. Transferrin
b. Transtryretin
c. C-reactive protein
d. Albumin - Answer- d. Albumin
When conducting a manual leukocyte count, what area of the Neubauer hemacytometer is used to count cells?
a. Center square only
b. 4 corner squares
c. 4 corner and center of center square
d. All 9 squares - Answer- d. All 9 squares
The average life span of an erythrocyte is 120 days; the aging cells are removed from the circulation by
a. spleen.
b. liver.
c. pancreas.
d. gallbladder. - Answer- a. spleen.
You are reviewing a blood smear and come across the cells seen below. Based on this slide, what are the cells and what could the possible diagnoses be?
a. Normal red blood cells, there is nothing wrong with this patient
b. Elliptocyte that are seen in hereditary elliptocytosis
c. Howell-Jolly bodies that are seen in has hemolytic anemia
d. Stippled red blood cells that are seen in lead poisoning. - Answer- d. Stippled red blood cells that are seen in lead poisoning.
What type of cell is a precursor of the non-nucleated mature red cells in the blood?
a. Rouleaux
b. Megaloblast
c. Reactive cells
d. Nucleated red cells - Answer- d. Nucleated red cells
When held up to the light, a properly stained blood smear will have what color?
a. Deep blue at the feathered edge
b. Light pink-purple at the feathered edge
c. Bright red at the feathered edge
d. Light aqua at the feathered edge - Answer- b. Light pink-purple at the feathered edge
In humans, a white blood cell is also known as a(n)
a. carbinocyte.
b. erythrocyte.
c. thrombocyte.
d. leukocyte. - Answer- d. leukocyte.
Decreased leukocyte counts are seen in the CBC in cases of
a. inflammation.
b. metabolic intoxication.
c. viral infections.
d. anxiety. - Answer- c. viral infections.
Microcytic/hypochromic anemia is most commonly caused by
a. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
b. lead poisoning.
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency.
d. iron deficiency. - Answer- d. iron deficiency.
During the CBC differential, the tech has observed the erythrocytes are smaller than the nucleus of mature lymph and they have an increased central pallor. These erythrocytes will be described as
a. normocytic, hyperchromic.
b. normocytic, normochromic.
c. microcytic, normochromic.
d. microcytic, hypochromic. - Answer- d. microcytic, hypochromic.
In simplified terms, iron deficiency anemia may result from the following
a. Increased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), decreased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or decreased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation
b. Increased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation
c. Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), decreased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or decreased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation
d. Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation - Answer- d. Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation
Megaloblastic erythrocytes have an abnormal developmental sequence. As they develop, cells of the megablastic sequence have a more open or immature chromatin pattern in the nucleus, referred to as
a. asynchronous maturation.
b. iron deficiency anemia.
c. thalassemias.
d. sideroblastic anemias. - Answer- a. asynchronous maturation.
Drabkin's hemoglobin reagent is no longer used because it contains
a. cyanide.
b. caustic.
c. cobalt. [Show Less]
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AMT MLT Exam Study Guide/Practice Test #2 (solved)
Chain of custody. - Answer- Beginning with the moment the specimen is collected and transported to the laboratory, to the analysis itself and the reporting... [Show More] of the results, must be documented by a process known as Quality control - Answer- A process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through the use of control specimens. Accuracy - Answer- Describes how close a test result is to the true value. Calibration - Answer- The comparison of an instrument measurement or reading to a known physical constant. Category C - Answer- What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics? These agents have the third-highest priority and include emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future because of availability, ease of production and dissemination? Category A. - Answer- Agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses are classified as Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens - Answer- What regulation that became law in 1992, requires that laboratories develop, implement, and comply with a plan that ensures the protective safety of laboratory staff to potential infectious blood-borne pathogens and manage and handle medical waste in a safe and effective manner? Electric equipment. - Answer- Class C fire extinguishers are used for Category B. - Answer- Agents brucellosis, epsilon toxin, food contaminants, glanders, melioidosis, psittacosis, Q fever, and ricin toxin are classified as Safety Data Sheets - Answer- Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) are now called: Pictograms - Answer- The GHS brings with it a new chemical labeling standard using ____________. 2015 - Answer- All chemical manufacturers and distributors must comply with all of the new provisions in the revised standards by June 1 ______________. 16 - Answer- The new Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) will require ______ specific sections, ensuring consistency in the presentation of the information. Material safety data sheet (MSDS). - Answer- Reference materials about the individual chemical are provided by all chemical manufacturers and suppliers by means of Type I - Answer- For qualitative chemistry procedures and for most procedures done in hematology, immunology, microbiology, and other clinical test areas, this type of water is suitable. This type of water is used for general lab tests that do not require Type I water. Celsius plus 273 - Answer- How do you convert Celsius to Kelvin? RBC - Answer- In the calculation of MCV = HCT x 10/___? 40X objective - Answer- The objective that should never have oil used on it is the Flourescent. - Answer- The microscope commonly used in cellular biology that has the ability to distinguish between living and dead cells and monitor activity within living cells is the Kohler illumination. - Answer- The most common method of illuminating specimens on a microscope is a hematoma. - Answer- Failure to apply sufficient pressure to the venipuncture site could result in Blood gases, slides/smear, EDTA tubes, other additive minicontainers, and serum containers - Answer- Order of draw for capillary specimens: contact, airborne, and droplet. - Answer- Transmission-based precautions are divided into three basic categories: Lipemic specimens - Answer- What is milky-white in color and may interfere with chemical determinations such as triglyceride assay? cephalic, basilic and median cubital. - Answer- The three veins that are typically used for venipuncture are the intravenous lines, edema, scarring or burn patients, dialysis patients, and mastectomy patients. - Answer- Five specific situations may result in a difficult venipuncture or may be the sources of preanalytical error. They are: Ion-selective electrode (ISE) potentiometry - Answer- What uses a glass ion-exchange membrane for sodium assay and a valinomycin neutral-carrier membrane for potassium assay and has been incorporated into many automated chemistry analyzers? Mercury arc and deuterium discharge - Answer- Which lamps are most common when working in the ultraviolet region? Turbidimetry - Answer- The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods? Drug testing - Answer- Which of the following is one of the most common clinical applications of GC-MS analysis? Kidney failure - Answer- There are five stages of chronic kidney disease. In looking at the results of a glomerular filtrate rate of 13 ml/min per 1.73 m2, which stage would you say this patient was in? Glomerulus - Answer- Which of the following is part of the nephron and mainly functions to filter incoming blood? Creatinine clearance - Answer- The calculation of which of the following renal function tests are becoming the standard laboratory method for determining glomerular filtration rate (GFR). AST - Answer- The reduction of oxaloacetate to malate by malate dehydrogenase is used in the measurement of which enzyme? Jaundice - Answer- What is the yellow discoloration of the plasma, skin, and mucous membranes that is caused by the abnormal metabolism, accumulation, or retention of bilirubin called? Porphyrins - Answer- What compound shows a strong absorbance near 400 nm and often displays a characteristic orange-red fluorescence? Type 2 - Answer- Non-insulin dependent diabetes, is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia and is called "adult-onset diabetes" is Acetoacetic acid - Answer- In fat catabolism (the phase of metabolism in which fats are broken down for energy), what is produced first? Liver - Answer- Every function in the living cell depends on proteins. Most of the plasma proteins are synthesized in what organ? Enzymatic Law - Answer- What is the most accurate answer for enzyme activity on a diluted 1:4 specimen with a 500 u value? . LDH-5 - Answer- Due to LDH nonspecificity, it is best to separate into isoenzyme fractions. LDH can be separated into five major fractions. Disorders of skeletal muscle will show elevated levels of which LDH isoenzyme? TnI - Answer- The patient presented at the clinic after returning from a fishing trip. Chief complaint is left-sided anterior chest pain that started 3 days ago. Patient states no injury. Which cardiac test would give the physician the best picture of diagnosis? IU - Answer- What is the recommendation of the Enzyme Commission of the International Union of Biochemistry for reporting enzyme results? Lipase - Answer- Which enzyme is used almost exclusively for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis? Lipase - Answer- What is an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester linkage of fats to produce alcohols and fatty acids? It is found primarily in the pancreas. Glucagon - Answer- What is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas, is the major hormone that opposes the action of insulin, increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen (glycogenolysis) by the liver? Insulin and glycogen. - Answer- The pancreas contains islets of Langerhans, which produce Thyroxine - Answer- Which hormone is classified as an example of an amino acid-related hormone? Chylomicrons - Answer- __________ give serum its characteristic milky appearance (lipemia) when blood is drawn after a meal. Triglyceride and HDL - Answer- If testing of a lipoprotein profile in a non-fasting state, then which of the following tests can be used? Azotemia. - Answer- A significant increase in the plasma concentrations of urea and creatinine, in kidney insufficiency, is known as Magnesium - Answer- What is the fourth most abundant cation in the body and second most abundant intracellular ion? In addition, this electrolyte has high concentrations found in bone and muscle. Aminoglycosides - Answer- Which type of antibiotic would you see tested only on inpatients because they are not well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract? Alpha-fetoprotein - Answer- Which tumor marker is an abundant serum protein and normally synthesized by the fetal liver? pharmacokinetics. - Answer- The mathematics modeling of drug concentration in circulation which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen is Human chorionic gonadotropin - Answer- This marker is strongly suggestive of pregnancy or a malignant tumor such as endodermal sinus tumor, teratocarcinoma, choriocarcinoma, molar pregnancy, testicular embryonal carcinoma, or oat cell carcinoma of the lung. Digoxin - Answer- Many cardiac conditions are treated with drugs, but only a few require TDM. The two classes of drugs that need monitoring are the cardiac glycosides and the antiarrhythmics. Which drug belongs to the glycosides? CA 15-3 - Answer- The main purpose of this assay is to monitor breast cancer patients after mastectomy. It is positive in patients with other conditions, including liver disease, some inflammatory conditions, and other carcinomas. Bilirubin - Answer- What is derived from the iron-containing heme portion of hemoglobin, which is released from the breakdown of RBCs? C-reactive protein (CRP) - Answer- An inflammation sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassays is Immunosuppressive - Answer- Which class of drugs plays a role in determining the success of any transplant program? Antiepileptic - Answer- The drug phenobarbital is a slow-acting barbiturate that effectively controls several type of seizures and is considered which class of drug? Troponin. - Answer- A complex of three proteins that bind to the thin filaments of striated cardiac or skeletal muscle and regulate muscle contraction is deep blue to purple - Answer- Gram positive organisms after gram staining appear ___________________. Gram positive bacilli, gram negative bacilli, gram positive cocci, gram negative cocci - Answer- Most bacteria can be divided into what four distinct groups based on gram stain results? Antisepsis - Answer- What is the process used to decrease the number of microorganisms that are present on the skin? Taxonomy - Answer- What is the study of the classification process? that exist inside the body of animals and can cause endogenous infections. - Answer- Endogenous anaerobes are organisms Gram positive - Answer- What is the term for bacteria that stain purple/blue as a result of retention of crystal violet-iodine complex? one end of the bacterial cell, both ends of the bacterial cell, the entire cell surface. - Answer- Flagella are located on Prokaryotes - Answer- What cells do not have a nucleus or any membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria, and their ribosomes are a smaller size than eukaryotic ribosomes? Hemoglobinopathies. - Answer- Disorders in which the presence of structurally abnormal hemoglobin is considered to play an important role pathologically are called Megaloblastic anemias - Answer- What macrocytic anemias are the results of vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, or a combination of both? Poikilocytosis. - Answer- Alteration in shape which include: spherocytes, schistocytes, sickle cells, drepanocytes, ovalocytes, and target cells is called Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) - Answer- This is one of the most useful procedures for distinguishing immune from nonimmune mechanisms that can underlie hemolytic anemias. What test is used to detect RBCs that have been coated with antibodies? Evaluate the overall quality of the blood film, estimate the leukocyte count, and scan the blood film for abnormal cells and clumps of platelets. - Answer- Low power examination (10x objective) includes the following: Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation - Answer- In simplified terms, iron-deficiency anemia may result from the following: Sudan black B (BBB) - Answer- Which cytochemical stain is used in differentiating the cell lineage of malignant cells in the bone marrow that stains phospholipids, neutral fats, and sterols? Promyelocyte - Answer- As the neutrophil matures, the characteristics that help distinquish the cell also change. Which neutrophil has reddish purple primary granules, also called nonspecific or azurphilic granules? Anemia, Polycythemia, Multiple myeloma - Answer- Which physiologic conditions make it difficult to make a good blood smear due to the abnormal composition of the blood? (Leukocyte count x100)/(100 + # of NRBC) - Answer- Nucleated erythrocytes may falsely elevate leukocyte count which a correct leukocyte count must be performed as a corrective procedure. Which of the below is the correct formula? Myeloperoxidase - Answer- Which cytochemical stain is the most sensitive and specific stain for granulocytes? Large center square - Answer- When counting platelets using the unopette system (a manual method), which area is used to count on the Neubauer hemacytometer? 1% ammonium oxalate solution - Answer- To perform the manual platelet count, whole blood is diluted with what solution using the unopette system? Megakaryocytes - Answer- When performing a bone marrow differential count, which cell is not included? Chorea and undulant fever - Answer- In the vast majority of infections, there is at least some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions? Westergren method - Answer- What has been selected as the method of choice by the Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) for measuring erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? Erythrocyte sedimentation rate - Answer- What measures the rate of setting of erythrocytes in diluted human plasma? Analyze serial dilutions of linearity check material multiple times to minimize effects of imprecision - Answer- The following procedure describes linearity determination for each direct measured parameter on a hematology analyzer. Levey-Jennings chart - Answer- When a new lot number of controls are used with a hematology analyzer, the new control material must be tested and plotted to establish the mean and the control limits. How is this plotted? Impedance - Answer- Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on increased resistance that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field? Microcytic erythrocytes - Answer- When evaluating erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left of the erythrocyte series should correspond to the following type of erythrocytes? Plasma. - Answer- The total volume of blood in an average adult is about 6 L, or 7% to 8% of the body weight. About 45% of this amount is composed of red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes); the remaining 55% is the liquid fraction New methylene blue - Answer- Using this stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes. Plasma (top layer), buffy coat (grayish white cellular layer composed of white blood cells and platelets), red blood cells (bottom layer). - Answer- When a preserved blood specimen is allowed to stand for a time, the components will settle into the following three distinct layers: Platelet count, platelet aggregation assays, platelet adhesion, and clot retraction - Answer- Current tests for platelets include: Closure time (CT) - Answer- What is a test system to assess platelet-related primary hemostasis with greater accuracy and reliability than bleeding time? Extrinsic pathway - Answer- Prothrombin time measures which pathway? Fibrinogen. - Answer- The APTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II and Thrombin time - Answer- What laboratory test has the following characteristics? Its purpose is plasma factors. It measures concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage III and monitors coumarin therapy. Labile coagulation factor. - Answer- The activity of factor V in plasma deteriorates even when the plasma is frozen; it is the most unstable of the coagulation factors and is also known as Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). - Answer- Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-dimers associated with rothrombin group - Answer- What measures factors II, VII, IX, and X? Secondary hemostasis - Answer- What results in the formation of a blood clot because coagulation factors present in the blood interact, forming a fibrin network and a thrombus, to stop the bleeding completely? Slow lysis of the thrombus begins, and final repair to site of the injury takes place. Plasmin. - Answer- The active enzyme that is responsible for digesting fibrin or fibrinogen is Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) - Answer- What provides an alternative to immunofluorescent assays and uses nonisotopic label, which offers the advantage of safety and demonstrates specificity, sensitivity, and rapidity? This method is popular for waived, over the counter testing. Heterophil antibodies - Answer- What are defined as antibodies that are stimulated by one antigen and react with an entirely unrelated surface antigen present on cells from different mammalian species? Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA). - Answer- If the antibody directed toward the agent being assayed is fixed firmly to a solid matrix, either to the outside of a spherical plastic or metal bead or some other solid matrix, the system is called Southern blot - Answer- What molecular technique can determine single-base mutations that include sickle cell anemia and hemophilia A? Rapid plasma regain (RPR) - Answer- What is the widely used nontreponemal serological test? . Direct immunofluorescent assay - Answer- What is the technique that uses a conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent microscope? Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) agglutination test - Answer- What is based on the reaction between patient antibodies in the serum, known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived from human gamma globulin (IgG)? Agglutination - Answer- What is the term applied to aggregation of particulate test antigens? Precipitation - Answer- What is the term used to describe the aggregation of soluble test antigens? Antigenicity - Answer- What is influenced by molecular size, foreignness, shape of the molecule, and chemical composition? Patient cells - Answer- What is the source of antigen for performing the forward group ABO/D typing? A - Answer- If you mix an unknown antigen (patient red cell) with a known antibody (Anti-A) and get visible agglutination, which unknown antigen is detected? IgG - Answer- The antiglobulin test is important because it detects what antibodies that have attached to red cells either in vivo or in vitro but do not demonstrate visible agglutination in testing? perform a pre-warm technique. - Answer- One method to avoid reactivity with a cold antibody is Patient serum with donor cells - Answer- During a major side crossmatch compatibility for packed red blood cells, what is used for testing? Patient identification error - Answer- If during an immediate spin crossmatch, if the results are incompatible what is likely the cause? Anti-D - Answer- The immune serum globulin that is given to D negative pregnant mothers is to prevent production of which antibody following delivery? 30 mL - Answer- What is the maximum amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) D positive fetal red cells a women is allowed to lose for one dose of RhIG? Elution - Answer- IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in a solution to test specificity. What process is this? H - Answer- A person who is said to be a secretor is an individual that has the Se allele and expresses the soluble form of which antigen in their secretions? Weak D positive - Answer- When performing an antihuman globulin test that is positive for Anti-D and negative for Rh control, how would you interpret the results? A condition when a mother makes an antibody to red cell antigens from the fetus. - Answer- Which of the following statements is true regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? Age, Genetic make-up, Route of inoculation - Answer- The primary immune response is elicited as the first exposure to a foreign antigen and is influenced by the characteristics of the antigen and immune response. What are some host properties contributing to the immune response? phenoytpe. - Answer- The physical expression of inherited traits is determined by reacting red cells with known antisera and observing for the presence or absence of hemagglutination is Weiner - Answer- Which theory with regards to Rh believes that each parent gives one Rh gene but that alleles at one gene locus are responsible for expression of their system antigens on the red cell? Landsteiner's rule. - Answer- The rule of stating that normal, healthy individuals possess ABO antibodies to the ABO blood group antigens that are absent from their red cells is termed Asian - Answer- Which population in the U.S. has the highest frequency of the group B phenotype? D-galactose. - Answer- The immunodominant sugar for the B antigen is sensitization - Answer- The binding of an antibody or complement component to a red cell is the definition of . antigen. - Answer- A substance that is foreign and binds specifically to an antibody or a T-cell receptor is a definition of Recording data on appropriate log - Answer- Which of the following is an example of good record keeping in Blood Banking? Polycythemia, Hemochromatosis, Porphyrias - Answer- A therapeutic phlebotomy is performed on a patient to withdraw blood from a patient for medical reasons. Which of the following is a common indication of therapeutic phlebotomy? Calibration - Answer- If I wanted to standardize an instrument to help eliminate errors, that could harm a patient or donor, what is the process? Degree to which a measurement represents the true value. - Answer- Which of the following is a definition of accuracy in blood banking? Irradiated red blood cells - Answer- Which blood product would be best for a patient that the physician is concerned about that has graft versus host disease (GVHD)? 35 days - Answer- Whole blood units are stored at 1 - 6oC for how many days if collected in CPDA-1? 4 hours - Answer- Pooled platelets that have been stored at 20-24oC expire within how many hours? a. Final volume b. Unique number assigned to pool c. Name of preparing facility - Answer- The blood bank industry adopted a standard of labeling units. What are the specific labeling requirements in addition to the standard for pooled components? Apheresis - Answer- What is a method of blood collection where whole blood is removed from a donor and separated into components and that one or more components are retained and the other is returned to the patient? Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and occasionally Staphylococcus aureus. - Answer- The most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis in children are Phenylethyl alcohol agar - Answer- What is essentially sheep blood agar with phenylethyl alcohol added? 3% CO2 - Answer- A candle jar will provide what atmospheric condition? Lowenstein-Jensen medium - Answer- What medium is best for the Mycobacterium tuberculosis? Klebsiella pneumoniae - Answer- What gram negative rod is associated with lobar pneumonia in hospitalized patients? test for the presence of beta-lactamase enzyme in a bacterial isolate. - Answer- A cefinase disk may be used to Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Answer- A 10 year old child presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of severe ear pain. The child had been swimming in the lake several days earlier. The culture from the ear grew a gram negative rod with a grapelike odor. The colonies were flat and spreading with rough edge and a metallic sheen. It was indole negative and oxidase positive. What is the likely organism? Fusobacterium nucleatum - Answer- An isolate from a properly collected abscess yields an anaerobic, gram-negative bacillus with tapered ends. The colonies were breadcrumb-like, indole positive, nitrate negative, vancomycin resistant, kanomycin susceptible and colistin susceptible. The most likely identification is Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Answer- A 20 year old male presents to the Emergency room with heavy urethral discharge that had been present for 3 days. He has been sexually active with several partners and has used no contraceptives. A culture of the discharge grows gram negative diplococci with adjacent sides that are flattened and is oxidase positive. What is the likely organism? Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Answer- Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA) inhibits the growth of gram negative organisms except Bile solubility test - Answer- With the addition of a bile salt, sodium desoxycholate, the lytic process is accelerated with this test, what is this test? Enterobius vermicularis - Answer- Most laboratories use the clear cellophane tape method to collect and prepare this specimen for examination Streak plate method - Answer- What method is used for quantitating the growth of microorganisms in the urine and is the classic culture method typically used in many clinical laboratories? Streptococcus pneumoniae - Answer- Which of the following organisms is commonly tested for β-lactamase production by the cefinase method? The resistance patterns of the institution do not need to be regarded in the selection of antibiotics to report. - Answer- When deciding which antimicrobial agents to test and report on, an isolate which of the following statements is NOT true? antibodies bound to enzymes - Answer- Enzyme-linked immunoassays (ELISA) employ the use of _______________ to produce a visible end point. Sedimentation - Answer- What procedure uses gravity or centrifugation and allows recovery of all protozoa, egg, and larvae present in the specimen? detection of the toxins A and B by PCR test on a diarrheal specimen. - Answer- Clostridium difficile disease can be diagnosed by flatworms. - Answer- The phylum Platyhelminthes are Ehrlichia chaffeensis - Answer- What is a gram negative, obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies in monocytic white cells (human monocytic ehrlichiosis)? [Show Less]
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MT ASCP/AMT Exam Final Assessment Questions and Answers
In absorption spectrophotometry: A) Absorbance is directly proportional to transmittance B) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to concentra... [Show More] tion C) Percent transmittance is directly proportional to the light path length D) Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration - Answer- Absorbance is directly proportional to concentration Which formula correctly described the relationship between absorbance and %T? A) A=2-log%T B) A=2+log%T C) A= -log%T - 2 D) A=1+log%T - Answer- A=2-log%T 3. Which element is reduced at the cathode of a Clark polarographic electrode? A) Silver B) Oxygen C) Chloride D) Potassium - Answer- Oxygen 4. Which of the following best represents the reference (normal) range for arterial pH? A) 7.35-7.45 B) 7.42-7.52 C) 7.28-7.68 D) 6.85-7.56 - Answer- 7.35-7.45 5. What is the normal ration of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood? A) 1:10 B) 10:1 C) 20:1 D) 30:1 - Answer- 20:1 6. A patient's blood gas results are as follows: pH = 7.26; dco2=2.0mmol/L; HCO3-=29mmol/L. These results would be classified as: A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis - Answer- respiratory acidosis 7. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis? A) Hyperventilation B) Aldosterone release C) Release of epinephrine D) Bicarbonate excretion - Answer- Hyperventilation 8. Which of the following conditions will cause an increased anion gap? A) Diarrhea B) Hypoaldosteronism C) Hyperkalemia D) Renal failure - Answer- Renal failure 9. Which of the following conditions is associated with hypophosphatemia? A) Rickets B) Multiple myeloma C) Renal failure D) Hypervitaminosis D - Answer- Rickets 10. Which of the following conditions is associated with hypokalemia? A) Addison's disease B) Hemolytic anemia C) Digoxin intoxication D) Alkalosis - Answer- Alkalosis 11. Which of the following condition is associated with hypernatremia? A) Diabetes insipidus B) Hypoaldosteronism C) Burns D) Diarrhea - Answer- Diabetes insipidus 12. Which of the following values is the threshold critical value for low plasma potassium? A) 1.5mmol/L B) 2.0mmol/L C) 2.5mmol/L D) 3.5mmol/L - Answer- 2.5 mmol/L 13. Which electrolyte level best correlates with plasma osmolality? A) Sodium B) Chloride C) Bicarbonate D) Calcium : - Answer- Sodium 14. Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus? A) Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis B) Is the most common form of diabetes mellitus C) Usually occurs after age 40 D) Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis - Answer- Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis 15. Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose? A) Somogyi-Nelson B) Hexokinase C) Glucose oxidase D) Glucose dehydrogenase - Answer- Hexokinase 16. Creatinine is formed from the: A) Oxidation of creatine B) Oxidation of protein C) Deamination of dibasic amino acids D) Metabolism of purines - Answer- oxidation of creatine 17. Urea is produced from: A) The catabolism of proteins and amino acids B) Oxidation of purines C) Oxidation of pyrimidines D) The breakdown of complex carbohydrates - Answer- The catabolism of proteins and amino acids 18. Blood ammonia levels are usually measured in order to evaluate A) Renal failure B) Acid-base status C) Hepatic coma D) Gastrointestinal malabsorption - Answer- Hepatic coma 19. Select the lipoprotein fraction that carries most of the endogenous triglycerides A) VDRL B) LDL C) HDL D) Chylomicrons - Answer- VDRL 20. Which apoprotein is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease? A) Apoprotein A-I B) Apoprotein B C) Apoprotein C-II D) Apoprotein E-IV - Answer- Apoprotein A-I 21. Which condition produces the highest elevation of serum lactate dehydrogenase? A) Pernicious anemia B) Myocardial infarction C) Acute hepatitis D) Muscular dystrophy - Answer- Pernicious anemia 22. A patient has a plasma myoglobin level of 10µg/L at admission. Three hours later the myoglobin is 14µ/L and the Troponin I is 0.04µg/L (reference range 0-0.04µg/L). These results are consistent with which condition? A) Skeletal muscle injury B) Acute MI C) Unstable angina D) No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle injury - Answer- No evidence of myocardial or skeletal muscle 23. Select the most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease A) GLD B) ALT C) AST D) GGT - Answer- GGT 24. Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with: A) Hypocalcemia B) Hypocalcuria C) Hypophosphatemia D) Metabolic alkalosis - Answer- Hypophosphatemia 25. Which of the following diseases is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma, or hyperplasia? A) Cushing's disease B) Addison's disease C) Conn's disease D) Pheochromocytoma - Answer- Conn's disease 26. The serum TSH level is decreased in: A) Primary hyperthyroidism B) Primary hypothyroidism C) Secondary hyperthyroidism D) Euthyroid sick syndrome - Answer- Primary hypothyroidism 27. Which of the following is the best analyte to monitor for recurrence of ovarian cancer? A) CA-15-3 B) CA-19-9 C) CA-125 D) CEA - Answer- CA-125 28. What is the primary clinical utility of measuring CEA? A) Diagnosis of liver cancer B) Diagnosis of colorectal cancer C) Screening for cancers of endodermal origin D) Monitoring for recurrence of cancer - Answer- Monitoring for recurrence of cancer 29. Which two liver enzymes are seen elevated in hepatobiliary disease? A) AST and ALT B) ALP and ALT C) ALP and GGT D) AST and GGT - Answer- ALP and GGT 30. Beriberi is associated with deficiency of: A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin C C) Niacin D) Thiamine - Answer- Thiamine 31. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by a marked elevation of: A) Gastrin B) Cholecystokinin C) Pepsin D) Glucagon - Answer- Gastrin 32. Scurvy is associated with deficiency of: A) A B) C C) Niacin D) Thiamine - Answer- C 33. This trace element plays a key role in protein and nucleic acid synthesis: A) Manganese B) Selenium C) Zinc D) Copper - Answer- Zinc 34. In quality control, ±2 standard deviations from the mean include what percent of the sample population? A) 50 B) 68 C) 95 D) 99.7 - Answer- 95 35. During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determinations in the morning after awakening and in the evening. Laboratory results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening concentration. This is indicative of A) Normal finding B) Cushing syndrome C) Addison's disease D) Hypopituitarism - Answer- Normal finding 36. Given the following results:ALP Slight increaseALT Marked increaseAST Marked increaseGGT Slight increaseThis is most consistent with: A) Acute hepatitis B) Chronic hepatitis C) Obstructive jaundice D) Liver hemangioma - Answer- Acute hepatitis 37. Major actions of angiotensin II include: A) Increased pituitary secretion of renin B) Increased vasoconstriction C) Increased parathyroid hormone secretion by the parathyroid D) Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone - Answer- Increased vasoconstriction 38. What is the metabolite of ethanol? A) Benzoylecgonine B) 6-acetylmorphine C) Acetaldehyde D) Carboxylic acid - Answer- Acetaldehyde 39. What is the gold standard methodology for Toxicology testing? A) Immunoassay B) Electrophoresis C) Liquid Chromatography D) Mass Spectrometry - Answer- Mass Spectrometry 40. Calculate the coefficient of variation for a set of data where the mean = 89 mg/dL and 2 standard deviations is A) 7.7% B) 7.9% C) 15.7% D) 15.8% - Answer- 7.9% 41. In the condition Kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue? A) Brain B) Liver C) Kidney D) Blood - Answer- Brain 42. Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid? A) Aldosterone B) Cortisol C) Corticosterone D) Testosterone - Answer- Aldosterone 43. Select the main estrogen produced by the ovaries and used to evaluate ovarian function. A) Estriol B) Estradiol C) Epiestriol D) Hydroxyestrone - Answer- Estradiol 44. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the: A) Skeleton B) Kidney C) Intestine D) Placenta - Answer- Placenta 45. What is the percentage of serum calcium that is ionized? A) 30% B) 45% C) 60% D) 80% - Answer- 45% 46. Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the: A) Tubular secretion of creatinine B) Glomerular secretion of creatinine C) Renal glomerular and tubular mass D) Glomerular filtration rate - Answer- Glomerular filtration rate 47. Which of the following readies the uterus for implantation of an embryo? A) FSH B) LH C) hCG D) Progesterone - Answer- Progesterone 48. Which of the formulas is correct for creatinine clearance? A) U/P x V x 1.73/A B) P/V x U x A/1.73 C) P/V x U x 1.73/A D) U/V x P x 1.73/A - Answer- U/P x V x 1.73/A 49. Which hormone controls sodium reabsorption? A) Aldosterone B) Anti-Diuretic Hormone C) Renin D) Angiotensin II - Answer- Aldosterone 50. The thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) stimulation test rules out the diagnosis of mild or subclinical hyperthyroidism if TRH infusion causes: A) Rise in plasma TSH B) No rise in plasma TSH C) Rise in plasma growth hormone D) No rise in plasma growth hormone - Answer- Rise in plasma TSH 1. What test is used along with the mean cell volume (MCV) to morphologically classify anemias? A) red blood count B) hemoglobin C) hematocrit D) red cell distribution width (RDW) - Answer- red cell distribution width (RDW) 2. Transferrin receptors can be measured and are elevated when: A) erythropoietin increases B) transferrin increases C) iron stores are decreased D) chronic disease is present - Answer- iron stores are decreased 3. Mature T cells with cerebriform, clefted nuclei found in the skin and peripheral blood describe: A) hairy cells B) prolymphocytes C) lymphoblasts D) Sézary cells - Answer- Sezary cells 4. What condition is most associated with autosplenectomy? A) abdominal trauma B) thrombocytopenia C) sickle cell anemia D) iron deficiency - Answer- sickle cell anemia 5. Which of the following has a pyknotic nucleus? A) Pronormoblast B) basophilic normoblast C) polychromatophilic normoblast D) orthochromic normoblast - Answer- orthochromic normoblast 6. Depletion of serum haptoglobin indicates: A) decreased erythropoiesis B) extravascular hemolysis C) intravascular hemolysis D) increased phagocytosis of macrophages - Answer- intravascular hemolysis 7. The principle energy source for mature red blood cells is: A) Krebs cycle B) hexose monophosphate pathway C) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis D) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) generated from aerobic glycolysis - Answer- adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis 8. What important function does 2,3-biphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) perform? A) maintains iron in the hemoglobin molecule in the ferrous state B) prevents oxidative injury to the red cell C) facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue D) aids in the exchange of membrane lipids with lipids in plasma - Answer- facilitates the delivery of oxygen to tissue 9. Which of the following is true of megakaryocytes as they mature? A) nucleus becomes polyploidy B) cytoplasmic basophilia becomes more pronounced C) size decreases D) nucleoli become more prominent - Answer- nucleus becomes polyploidy 10. Lymphocytes become transformed when they are: A) being stimulated by an antigen B) undergoing mitosis C) dying D) moving to secondary lymphoid tissues - Answer- being stimulated by an antigen 11. What is the basic hemoglobin defect in the thalassemias? A) One of the globin chains has an amino acid substitution B) A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels C) Heme is produced at a lower concentration D) Iron is not incorporated into the protoporphyrin ring to form heme - Answer- A structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels 12. Why are infants with beta-thalassemia major not ill until approximately 6 months of age? A) Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin. B) Infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their small body size. C) Infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their smaller lung capacity. D) Infants have a high red count and thus higher hemoglobin from a higher than normal concentration of erythropoietin. - Answer- Infants are protected by their high concentration of fetal hemoglobin 13. A patient has 30% hemoglobin F. Which of the following can be eliminated? A) four missing genes for alpha chain production B) heterozygous hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin C) thalassemia intermedia D) the patient is a normal 1-month-old infant - Answer- four missing genes for alpha chain production 14. Megaloblastic anemias are caused by a defect in the synthesis of: A) DNA B) RNA C) Erythropoietin D) Heme - Answer- DNA 15. Pernicious anemia (PA) can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the: A) presence of hypersegmented neutrophils B) mean cell volume (MCV) C) bone marrow findings D) presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF) - Answer- presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor (IF) 16. Why is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) important for normal red cell survival? A) Hemoglobin oxygen affinity is increased in its absence. B) It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione. C) It is required for insertion of iron into the protoporphyrin ring to form heme. D) Alpha chains are produced in excess in its absence. - Answer- It is required to regenerate reduced glutathione 17. What is the pathogenesis of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)? A) Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells. B) Chemicals or heat destroy red blood cells. C) The spleen sequesters red cells in an attempt to remove abnormal inclusions. D) Antibodies that activate complement are formed and destroy the red cell membrane. - Answer- Microthrombi and fibrin formed on damaged endothelial cells trap and break red cells 18. Renal failure is a prominent feature of: A) hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) B) thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) C) Plasmodium malariae infection D) march hemoglobinuria - Answer- hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) 19. Moderate to marked target cells are found on a blood smear. Which of the following can most likely be eliminated? A) hemoglobin C disease B) hereditary Spherocytosis C) hemoglobin E disease D) liver disease - Answer- hereditary spherocytosis 20. Toxic granulation, Döhle bodies, and vacuolization in neutrophils are often found together in A) May-Hegglin anomaly B) bacterial infection C) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome D) Alder-Reilly anomaly - Answer- bacterial infection 21. What do all chronic myeloproliferative disorders (MPDs) share? A) Philadelphia chromosome B) increased red cell mass C) increased blood cells; overlapping clinical and laboratory features D) serious thromboembolic complications - Answer- increased blood cells; overlapping clinical and laboratory features 22. A patient has an increased red count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit. Which of the following features points to secondary polycythemia over polycythemia vera (PV)? A) increased white count B) increased red cell mass C) bone marrow erythroid hyperplasia [Show Less]
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AMT MT Certification Exam with complete solutions
standard deviation - Answer- The statistic that quantifies how close numerical QC values are in relation to each other is: Precision - Answer- The repro... [Show More] ducibility of a value upon repeated measurements is referred to as: Accuracy - Answer- The closeness of a measurement to its true value is referred to as: MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) are now called - Answer- Safety Data Sheets (SDS) Level-Jennings chart - Answer- A graphical presentation of run to run or day to day quality control values is a: Quality indicator - Answer- Established measures used to determine how well an organization meets needs and operational performance expectations is referred to as: Calibration Verification - Answer- Under CLIA law, the assaying of materials of known concentration in the same manner as patient samples to substantiate the instrument or test system's calibration throughout the reportable range for the patient test result is: FDA (Food and Drug Administration) - Answer- What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system? Analyte - Answer- A substance or constituent for which the laboratory conducts testing is: Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP) - Answer- Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories. Hook effect - Answer- Concentration of antigen (analyte) exceeds the amount of the antibody present in the reaction. polyacrylamide gel - Answer- Electrophoresis support material that separates proteins on the basis of charge and molecular size Fluorometer - Answer- An immunoassay methodology using either europium or phyconiliproteins would use which detection method? Mass Spectrometer - Answer- Instrument that ionizes the target molecule then separates and measured the mass-to-charge ratio. Chelation of Calcium in EDTA tube - Answer- Prevents the coagulation by inhibiting coagulation. Ruthenium III - Answer- Which label used in detection of electrochemiluminescence? Valinomycin - Answer- Key membrane component for potassium selective electrode. PCR - Answer- POCT devices use a variety of analytical principles such as reflectance, spectrometry, fluorescence, and _________. Turbidimetry - Answer- Measurement of the decrease of intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods? Flame-less atomic absorption spectrophotometer - Answer- Uses a graphite cylinder to hold the sample Cystatin C - Answer- Substance has been shown to be unaffected by diet, gender, race, age, or muscle mass and useful in detecting renal disease? mL/min - Answer- Creatinine Clearance is reported in units of: AST - Answer- The reduction of oxaloacetate to malate dehydrogenase is used in the measurement of which enzyme? LD - Answer- Used as an indicator enzyme in the measurement of ALT Directly proportional - Answer- What is the relationship between plasma creatinine and muscle mass? They contain a known amount of analyte being tested. - Answer- What characteristic/functions do calibrator have? Produce non-numerical results - Answer- Qualitative examinations are those that: A workplace control - Answer- Prohibiting recapping of needles is an example of: Prevention of breakage - Answer- Most critical step in microscope maintenance is: type 2 diabetes - Answer- Which type of diabetes mellitus may be characterized by insulin resistance with an insulin secretory defect? C-reactive protein (CRP) - Answer- What rises first in response to inflammation? Apoenzyme - Answer- protein portion of an enzyme Transferase - Answer- AST is classified as a(n) Lipase (LPS) - Answer- Which of the following enzymes considered more specific for pancreatic disorders? 1 umole of substrate per min - Answer- An International Unit (IU) is defined as the amount of enzyme that will catalyze which of the following? Cystic Fibrosis - Answer- Pancreatitis, pancreatic carcinoma, and which either pancreatic disease are the major medical conditions of this organ? Cholesterol - Answer- Common precursor for all adrenal steroids? Glucagon - Answer- Produced in the alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Chylomicrons - Answer- Lipoproteins that transfer triglycerides to the liver. Chylomicrons - Answer- Metabolism occurs in the exogenous pathway renal failure - Answer- Hyperkalemia may be caused by this condition: Vitamin D - Answer- Serum calcium levels are regulated by PTH, calcitonin, and which other hormone? CSF/serum albumin index - Answer- The integrity of blood-brain barrier may be determined by which index? THC-COOH - Answer- Can be detected in urine following passive inhalation. Timing of specimen collection - Answer- Most important factor in TDM First-Pass - Answer- A drug that metabolizes in the liver to a large degree before it reaches the blood stream has undergone this type of metabolism: Wilson's Disease - Answer- Serum copper levels than the reference interval increased urinary levels described in which condition? urine - Answer- Specimen of choice for arsenic, if exposure took place less than 1 week ago? 250 times greater - Answer- The binding affinity for hemoglobin for carbon monoxide when compared with that for oxygen is approximately: Albumin - Answer- Good indicator of chronic malnutrition hCG - Answer- Has not been cleared by the FDA for use as a tumor marker NADH - Answer- Common enzymatic methods for alcohol determination measure the production of: Cyclosporine - Answer- Immunosuppressant drugs include tacrolimus, sirolimus, and ________. CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) - Answer- (most widely used tumor marker): Used in management of gi tumors (colon cancer), adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lover and lung Erythrocyte size, hgb level, RBC count, HCT - Answer- RBC indices are affected by: CO2 - Answer- Hemoglobin transports which gas from tissues to the lungs? oil immersion - Answer- The WBC and RBC morphology is examined under which lens? nucleated red blood cell (NRBC) - Answer- What cell would cause a falsely elevated white blood cell count? buffy coat - Answer- The visible white-colored layer between RBC's and the plasma in a manually spun crit tube or when anticoagulated blood is left to stand RBC's just touching - Answer- WBC differential is done in an area of the slide where the: hemoglobin analysis - Answer- Is an oxygen-carrying capacity test, an indirect test Westergren method - Answer- Method of choice by CLSI for measuring ESR Macrocytic - Answer- Erythrocytes that are larger than normal cell size Thalessemia - Answer- A component of the hemoglobin molecule and are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis microhematocrit tube - Answer- A glass or plastic tube of a small diameter is used in the determination of a packed cell volume measurement poikilocytosis - Answer- Erythrocytes that are sickle cell shaped, drepanocytes, are also Hemoglobin A1 - Answer- Form of hemoglobin most frequently (95-98%) found in adults Nuclear Characteristics - Answer- Peripheral leukocyte identification aids include: Normal peripheral smear - Answer- 0-5% bands, 50-60% neutrophils, 50-60% in a newborn, 0-1 basophils in adult Sudan Black B stain - Answer- Cytochemical stain used in differentiating the cell lineage of malignant cells in the bone marrow that stains phospholipids, neutral fats, and sterols Sodium citrate tube - Answer- Patient clumping in EDTA require patient to collect a_________________to determine correct platelet count Chorea and Indulant fever - Answer- No increase in ESR due to these conditions Southern Blot - Answer- NOT used to diagnose Sickle Cell Anemia Western Blot, hemoglobin electrophoresis, solubility - Answer- Tests used to diagnose Sickle Cell Anemia New Methylene Blue Method - Answer- What supravital stains bind, neutralize, and cross-link ribonucleic acid (RNA) BCR/ABL1 - Answer- What genetic is found with chronic myelogenous leukemia and is detected through molecular tests? 10% buffered formalin fixative - Answer- What is used as a fixative fo fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen? Wavelength - Answer- For cell counters using light scatter, the lighter term is monochromatic. This means the light only had one _____________________. Flow cytometry - Answer- Light scatter, light excitation, and fluorescent signal emissions are all used in which type of cell count testing? Plasmin - Answer- The active enzyme that is responsible for digesting fibrin or fibrinogen Factor X, II, VI and Factor IX - Answer- Blood clotting factors that are Vitamin K dependent normal PT, prolonged PTT - Answer- Consistent for a patient that had a factor VIII deficiency or hemophilia A Thrombin Time (TT) - Answer- Purpose is plasma factors, measures concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage III; monitors Coumadin therapy Heparin - Answer- The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor which drug therapy? D-dimer - Answer- Test used to rule out pulmonary embolism Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) - Answer- Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-Dimers associated with ___________. Reports qualitative and quantitative results for the D fragment - Answer- d-dimer rapid tests Prothrombin group - Answer- What measures factors II, VII, I , X? Bleeding time - Answer- Tests for vascular factors include the capillary fragility test and __________. Excessive thrombosis - Answer- What symptoms would you expect to see from a patient that had decreased function of the fibrinolytic system? Closure Time (CT) - Answer- What is the test system to assess platelet-related primary Hempstead is with greater accuracy and reliability than bleeding time? prothrombin - Answer- What is synthesized by the liver through the action of Vitamin K? graft rejection - Answer- Destruction of grafted tissue by attacking lymphocytes Latent syphilis stage - Answer- The stage of syphilis infection in which a patient does not exhibit any symptoms but is still potentially infectious is called ___________. Direct fluorescent immunoassay - Answer- 1. Antibody labeled with flour oh Rome directed against the desired antigen is added to a slide with the specimen that potentially contains the desired antigen being tested for... 2. Following incubation, the slide is washed. 3. The slide is observed under a fluorescent microscope. Rubella antibody IgM response - Answer- Usually occurs within 3 weeks after rash and pose-vaccination autoimmune disorders - Answer- Antinuclear antibodies are used in the diagnosis of: indirect immunofluorescence - Answer- One of the most commonly used tests for Antinuclear Antibodies NAAT (nucleic acid amplification test) - Answer- Current laboratory testing method for toxin A/B that can be used for either primary or confirmatory testing is: Pregnancy immunochromatographic cassette tesfs - Answer- B-hCG binds to the monoclonal anti-B-hCG complexed to an indicator such as colloidal gold particles usually in shape of line or plus sign Reverse passive agglutination - Answer- - particles are coated with antibody - used for specific microbial antigen Direct immunoflourescent assay (DFA) - Answer- Technique is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent muscroscope. Nosocomial diarrhea - Answer- C. difficile is leading cause of: LAMP (loop-mediated isothermal amplification) - Answer- Detects a stable region of the toxin A gene is based on: Streptozyme test, if positive, by ASO - Answer- Test most likely not to miss potential antibodies produced against streptococcal antigens RA agglutination test - Answer- What is based on the reaction between patient antibodies in the serum, known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived human gamma globulin (IgG)? Visible - Answer- Light most commonly emitted as__________. Phenotype - Answer- The physical expression of inherited traits determined by reacting red cells with known anti sera and observing for the presence of hemagglhtination is: Weiner's Theory - Answer- With regard to Rh believes that each parent gives one Rh gene but the alleles at one gene locus are responsible for expression of their system antigens on the red cell D-galactose - Answer- Immunodominant sugar of B antigen Have an anti-A in their plasma or serum - Answer- Individuals with blood type group B Only receive type O blood - Answer- If you have have Type O blood, you can: The ABO antigens are encoded by one genetic locus which has 3 allelic forms and a child - Answer- Receives 1 of the 3 from each parent agglutination and hemolysis - Answer- Blood grouping depends on observable antigen/antibody reactions such as: Blood grouping serology is mainly concerned with: - Answer- The humoral response that leads to production of antibody in the plasma. Alexander S. Weiner - Answer- The Rh, or Rhesus, group was discovered in 1937 with the assistance of: Group AB individuals - Answer- Have no antibodies in their plasma or serum ABO antigens on RBCs reacting with their specific antibodies in plasma - Answer- The basic procedures for blood typing are based on: passive immunity - Answer- Is produced in a body other than your own Innate or nonspecific immunity - Answer- Immunity is the defense system with which you were born Antigens - Answer- ___________ substances that can induce a specific immunologic resistance. Immunity - Answer- Protection afforded by exposure to infectious illness. Include recipient serum or plasma, donor red cells, an additive to enhance antibody reactions and incubation. - Answer- If a recipient has red cell antibodies, the compatibility procedure should: Warm autoantibody - Answer- When performing a screen cell and antibody panel as part of a cross match, if all screening cells, panel cells and compatibility test are reactive at the anti human globulin phase, what is this a characteristic of? A foreign substance - Answer- The immune system of an Rh negative mother with an Rh positive fetus treats the Rh positive fetal cells as: Cross into the mother's bloodstream through the placenta - Answer- During pregnancy, red cells from the unborn baby: polyethylene glycol - Answer- PEG is another antibody enhancement medium and stands for: Abnormal concentrations of serum proteins, altered serum-protein ratios, high molecular weight volume expanders - Answer- Rouleaux may be caused by: Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS) - Answer- LISS is an antibody reaction enhancement medium and stands for: GVHD (graft vs host disease) - Answer- May occur after an allogenic transplant of bone marrow or stem cells Having cancer treatments, who have had a transplant, with bleeding during the surgical procedure - Answer- Platelets are administered to patients: 1. Stable up to 42 days in proper refrigeration , 2. used in traumas, surgery, anemia treatments and other blood loss - Answer- Red cells from donors are: Transfusion related complicatiins - Answer- Include infection transmission, alloimmunization and immunohematologic reactions Anti-A or Anti-B antibodies - Answer- Are almost always capable of causing rapid destruction of incompatible transfused red cells. GVHD - Answer- graft vs. host disease Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be used - Answer- To treat patients with hemophilia, von Willibrand disease and other coagulation abnormalities Red cells, platelets, plasma, cryoprecipitates - Answer- One unit of donor blood can help multiple people. Some components from whole blood are: Stable 5 days at room temperature with constant agitation - Answer- Platelets from whole blood are: The transfusion process has: - Answer- 5 steps- recipient ID, sample ID, choose component and prepare, issue product from BB, verify recipient at bedside and begin transfusion 1. Prior to donation 2. And the donated unit is tested using 9 laboratory tests, 3. By a set of standard questions to determine their health status. - Answer- Donors are screened: Between 1-6 degree C - Answer- Red blood cells must be stored: Plasma must be stored: - Answer- -18 degree C or colder Common pili function to - Answer- Help bacteria attach to host's cell's surfaces Ziehl-Neelsen - Answer- Which acid fast method uses carbol-fuchsia as the primary stain, a mixture of 3% hydrocholoric acid and 95% ethanol as the decolonizer, and methylene blue as the counter stain? Auramine-Rhodamine - Answer- Stains used in the detection of mycobacteria thick peptidoglycan layer with numerous two hour acid cross-linkages - Answer- The property of certain bacterial cell walls that enables them to resist decolonization during gran staining is: 1. One end of the bacterial cell 2. Both ends of the bacterial cell 3. The entire cell surface - Answer- Flagella are located on: poikilocytosis - Answer- variation in shapes anisocytosis - Answer- variation in RBC size Porphobilinogen - Answer- What is the normal, colorless precursor of the porphyrins? trichamonas - Answer- A pear shaped flagellate with an undulating membrane commonly found in urine sediment is: Acetest - Answer- What is a tablet test for acetone and acetoacetic acid, based on a color reaction with sodium nitroprusside? Glucose - Answer- What is NOT normally found in urine. Pollens, azoles, and candins - Answer- Options for treating fungal infections include drugs from the following classes: Cryptococcus - Answer- India ink may be used to visualize capsules which are transparent by bright-field illumination alone. This stain is used to detect which fungal organisms? Staphylococcus spp. Resistance to clindamycin - Answer- A D-zone test is used to determine. Cefoxitin - Answer- Which of the following antibiotics can be used as a surrogate marker of resistance to oxacillin with Staphylococcus aureus? restriction enzymes - Answer- Which of the following is not a component of standar polymerase chain reaction? Particle agglutination - Answer- Streptococcal grouping tests are an example of: A cefinase disk may be used to: - Answer- Test for the present of beta-lactamase enzyme in bacterial isolate Differential & Selective media - Answer- MacConkey agar is cla [Show Less]
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AMT PRACTICE TEST 2023 (SOLVED)
pathogens that thrive in the absence of oxygen are called? - Answer- Anaerobes A communicable disease that does not have to be reported to the county he... [Show More] alth department is? - Answer- Streptococcus The term esophagogastritis means inflammation of the? - Answer- esophagus and stomach The structure in the body that lays over the larynx like a lid and prevents food from entering the trachea is the ? - Answer- Epiglottis Proper interaction with pediatric patients includes the following EXCEPT? - Answer- Talking in the same tone and volume as you would use with an adult A urine test that compares the weight of urine to that of distilled water is? - Answer- Specific gravity A patient is noncompliant if he or she: - Answer- Refuses to follow prescribed orders A telephone call that the medical assistant can handle is? - Answer- A hospital admitting clerk with the room number for a newly admitted patient If a certain number of patients are scheduled to come in for an appointment at the beginning of the same clock hour this ? - Answer- Wave scheduling When alphabetically filing, which of the following is last? -John A. Hall -John A. Hale -John A. Haley -John A. Halee -John A. Halley - Answer- John A. Halley The salutation of a letter is placed? - Answer- Two lines below the inside address Medical expenses resulting from a back injury while at work are submitted to? - Answer- Workers' compensation A ledger is also used as a patients? - Answer- Posting The book containing procedure and service codes performed by doctors and medical personnel is the? - Answer- Current procedural terminology Ringworm is an example of a disease caused by? - Answer- Fungus The faint tapping sounds heard as the blood pressure cuff initially deflates are recorded as the? - Answer- Systolic pressure A forceps is an instrument used to? - Answer- Grasp tissue The ECG lead that measures the difference in electrical potential between the right arm and left arm is? - Answer- Lead l Medicare Part B does not cover? - Answer- Hospital charges The vacuum tube used to collect blood so the blood will clot in the tube is? - Answer- Red An intravenous pyelogram is used to examine the? - Answer- Kidneys and bladder Passive exercise means that the patient? - Answer- Does not move the body part without assistance When nutrients are initially taken into the body it is called? - Answer- Ingestion The muscle used for an injection located in the thigh is the ? - Answer- Vastus lateralis Emergency treatment for third-degree burns is? - Answer- Covering the victim and notifying EMS A patients implied consent usually covers? - Answer- Blood transfusion The medical term that means "within a vessel" is? - Answer- Intravascular An organ located in the left upper quadrant is the ? - Answer- Spleen Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication? - Answer- body language a patient who is sight impaired would benefit from patients educational training materials that are produced as? - Answer- braille materials when the medical assistant is dealing with a difficult caller on the phone, he or she should first? - Answer- determine the problem and the appropriate staff that can help the abbreviation used in an appointment book to indicate a patient is coming to see the physician about a medical problem already treated is? - Answer- F/U an outguide used in filing is a ? - Answer- folder inserted in the file to hold the place of a file in use the inside address of a professional letter includes the? - Answer- recipients address written without areviations the person covered by a benefits plan is the? - Answer- insured the listing of charges for a medical practice is the? - Answer- fee schedule the withholding from an employee's paycheck for social security and medicare is required under which law? - Answer- FICA a yeast infection that causes vaginitis is - Answer- Candida a respiration rate that falls within the average adult? - Answer- 20 per minute proper technique to ensure package sterility includes using ? - Answer- a dry, undamaged sterile package AC interference in an ECG tracing means ? - Answer- there is electrical interference in the room the clear liquid portion of whole blood is? - Answer- plasma to convert milligrams to grams ? - Answer- divide by 1,000 diabetic coma is due to.? - Answer- lack of insulin an arthrogram is the radiographic visualization of - Answer- a joint diathermy is an example of an agent that incorporates the use of ? - Answer- deep heat which of the following conditions would benefit from a low-purine diet? - Answer- gout antihypertensive medications are associated with the treatment of - Answer- high blood pressure a laceration appears as a? - Answer- jagged cut res ipsa loquitur is a latin term that means which of the following? - Answer- the thing speaks for itself the medical term meaning inflammation of the bone is - Answer- osteitis the superior vena cava is the - Answer- vein that carries blood from the upper body back to the heart basic communication requires a message and - Answer- sender and receiver the term facsimile refers to - Answer- fax a matrix is a - Answer- appointment book schedule with blocked out periods of time the most common method used to chart the patients medical record is - Answer- SOAP the salutation of a letter is the - Answer- greeting coordination of benefits means? - Answer- one insurance plan will work with other insurance pans to determine how much each pays ICD-9 codes that identify medical problems for reasons other than illness or injury are known as - Answer- V-codes when a bank uses the term NSF, it means that? - Answer- there is not enough funds/money to cover the amount of the check the proper time and temperature for sterilizing instruments is? - Answer- 30 minutes at 250 degrees F the fwlers position is used for - Answer- patient with difficulty breathing the abbreviation OU is no longer in use. Instead of using OU, which of the following should be written? - Answer- both eyes which of the following is the finer or smaller suture? - Answer- 10-0 the V1 ECG lead is located? - Answer- at the fourth intercostal space right of the sternum which of the following is a proper site for a capillary puncture? - Answer- tip of ring finger the abbreviation used to indicate that a patient should be fasting for an exam is? - Answer- NPO KUB is an x-ray examination of the ? - Answer- urinary system cold applied to part of the body causes the effect of? - Answer- vasoconstriction a patient with arteriosclerosis would benefit from which of the following diets? - Answer- low cholesterol the first action to control bleeding or hemorrhage is to ? - Answer- apply direct ppressure the term enteritis means inflammation of the? - Answer- small intestine an example of active immunity is - Answer- producing antibodies as a result of having a disease when a person refuses to acknowledge the loss of a loved one, this type of behavior is? - Answer- denial the computer device that displays the written data is the ? - Answer- monitor when the doctor is late and not yet at the office the medical assistant should - Answer- offer waiting patients an opportunity to reschedule The "O" in the SOAP method of charting includes the - Answer- blood pressure reading the retain insurance coverage, the individual must pay the cost of the insurance, which is the ? - Answer- premium CPT is an abbreviation of the reference manual used for? - Answer- billing insurance companies for prcedures the best way to ensure that patients pay for services is to - Answer- ask for a payment of services at the time of the office visit acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by - Answer- a virus the pulse point located on the top of the foot is the - Answer- doralis pedis an instrument required on a suture tray is a - Answer- needle holder the ECG grounding lead is attached to the - Answer- RL a urine specimen that is collected after eating is a called? - Answer- postprandial a myelogram is an x-ray examination of the ? - Answer- spinal cord a physician orders amoxicillin 1Gm to be divided into four equal doses, available is amoxicillin 250gm/5ml. How many milliliters will the patient receive for each dose? - Answer- 5mL dyspepsia refers to - Answer- difficult digestion the perineum is the ? - Answer- floor of the pelvis respondeat superior refers to - Answer- a physicans responsibility for the actions of his staff the proper angle of the needle to the skin when administering a subcutaneous injection is? - Answer- 45 degree angle which of the following is not considered for use on the skin for cleaning? - Answer- acetone which of the following instruments is used to evaluate lung capacity - Answer- spirometer the process by which nutrients transfer from gastrointestinal system into the blood is referred to as? - Answer- absorption the classification of drugs used to relieve pain - Answer- analgesic the device used to check vision is - Answer- snellen chart a wound that results from scraping the skin is a - Answer- abrasion when several tubes of blood are to be drawn which is drawn first? - Answer- blood culture tubes the parenteral method of an administration of medication means that the drug is - Answer- injected [Show Less]
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AMT Practice Exam with complete solutions
An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the? - Answer- Hip The kidneys are located behind is the? - Answer- Peritoneum During swallowing, the lary... [Show More] nx is covered by the? - Answer- Epiglottis The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is? - Answer- Keratin Where do you find the pulse from the patient's dorsalis pedis artery? - Answer- Top of foot The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called the? - Answer- cerebral cortex Where is the stomach located? - Answer- Under the diaphragm The site of fertilization is usually the? - Answer- Fallopian tube Egg cells are produced where? - Answer- ovarian follicles The outer layer of the skin is the? - Answer- Epidermis the largest glandular organ in the body is the? - Answer- liver The mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid is called? - Answer- Conjunctiva What is the medical term for "baby" teeth? - Answer- Deciduous Where is chyme produced? - Answer- stomach When a muscle contracts, it becomes? - Answer- shorter and thicker Where do peristaltic waves occur? - Answer- Esophagus The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is? - Answer- Pepsin The axial skeleton consists of ____ bones? - Answer- 80 Approximately 60% of the plasma proteins are formed by? - Answer- Albumins Urine is formed in the? - Answer- Nephron The outer ear includes the? - Answer- Ear canal The lining of the uterus is called the? - Answer- Endometrium The major function of the circulatory system is? - Answer- Transportation The right lung is divided into how many sections? - Answer- 3 The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the? - Answer- Renal pelvis The hormone responsible for ovulation is? - Answer- LH The internal folds of the stomach are known as? - Answer- Rugae The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery? - Answer- Aorta Sperm & Egg cell maturity begin at? - Answer- Puberty The body part that matches with the popliteal artery is the? - Answer- Leg The combining form "hist/o" means? - Answer- Tissue Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging? - Answer- Presbyopia The medical term for inflammation of the liver is? - Answer- Hepatitis Encephalopathy is defined as? - Answer- Any dysfunction of the brain The medical term for a toothache is? - Answer- Dentalagia The suffix meaning "inflammation" is? - Answer- Itis "Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges", defines the term? - Answer- Aneurysm In a patient's progress note you see that the physician has used the term "necrosis" regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to? - Answer- Dead tissue A hernia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called? - Answer- Rectocele A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is? - Answer- Bolus Which of the following means pertaining to after meals? - Answer- Postprandial An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is? - Answer- Ascites Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day. - Answer- QID What term is best associated with cancer that has spread to other organs of the body? - Answer- Metastasis Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population? - Answer- Gerontologist "Ostomy" is a? - Answer- Suffix The term "myotomy" means incision into? - Answer- A muscle Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as? - Answer- Sialadenitis The medical term for indigestion is? - Answer- Dyspepsia Which term is best described as "destruction by burning"? - Answer- Electro cauterization The combining form that means "red" is? - Answer- Erythro The abbreviation "QID" means? - Answer- four times per day Low blood pressure is? - Answer- Hypotension The prefix "ad" menas - Answer- to add to Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum? - Answer- Proctologist The abbreviation for "prescription" is? - Answer- Rx The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities? - Answer- Suspected child abuse The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from? - Answer- Civil and criminal liability Which of the following terms indicates consent in which there is an understanding of the treatment that will be performed, why it should be performed, any alternative methods of treatment, and the risks and benefits of the treatments discussed? - Answer- Informed The Controlled Substances Act is a United States law that regulates controlled drugs. The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilities of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substances, EXCEPT - Answer- Prescribing controlled drugs A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures? - Answer- Blood test Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure? - Answer- Ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file Translated as "the thing speaks for itself", which of the following is evidence showing that negligence by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plaintiff? - Answer- Res ipsa loquitur Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records? - Answer- Subpoena duces tecum HIPAA requires covered entities to submit medicare clams - Answer- through electronic data exchange A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patient's legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patient's condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decide whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent? - Answer- Informed consent In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16-year-old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments? - Answer- Being an emancipated minor Which of the following cases would best exemplify the concept of res ipsa loquitur? - Answer- A surgeon leaves a sponge in a patient's abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery The criteria of "duty owed, dereliction of duty, direct cause, and damages" are used in reference to which of the following situations? - Answer- Assessing the possibility of negligence The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of - Answer- electronic exchange of patient information. Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness to produce records for a trial? - Answer- Subpeona duces tecum Substitution of another surgeon without the patient's consent when the patient has already received anesthesia and has no idea that a substitution has been made is called - Answer- Ghost surgery A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of - Answer- Invasion of privacy Which statement best describes the practice known as "fee splitting"? - Answer- It is the unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients. Dr. Martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara. Mrs. O'Hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery. Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O'Hara's appendectomy. The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patient's consent is the unethical situation known as - Answer- Ghost surgery If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of? - Answer- Fee splitting Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the "Hierarchy of Needs". Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we can move on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs" starting from the bottom to the top? - Answer- Physiological needs, Safety and Security, Love and belonging, Esteem and recognition, Self-actualization Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross' stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages? - Answer- Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called - Answer- Restating This type of listening is highly recommended for health care providers and patients in communicating needs. It involves participation in a conversation with another by means of repeating words and phrases or giving approving or disapproving nods. - Answer- Active listening Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient? - Answer- Maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dL When educating your patient, which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis? - Answer- avoid compression stockings Patient education for preventing Lyme disease includes all of the following except - Answer- Remove a tick by squeezing or crushing the tick with tweezers When explaining drug use terminology to the patient, prophylactic is best explained as - Answer- preventing the occurrence of a condition (e.g. vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases) Instructing patients in the collection of a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education? - Answer- On the second motion, cleanse directly across the meatus, back-to-front, using another antiseptic wipe With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect? - Answer- Iron- nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called - Answer- coordination of benefits. The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called - Answer- a pre-existing conditions waiver. Medicare Part B covers - Answer- Prescription medical equipment Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated - Answer- 80% of approved amount Medical sole proprietorship, partnerships, groups, and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured person's home, business, or car, without regards to the insured person's actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called - Answer- Liability insurance The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the - Answer- Itemized statement Workers' Compensation insurance provides benefits for - Answer- Occupational injuries In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co-payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is - Answer- Medicare Part D Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule? - Answer- Capitated Traditional health insurance plans that pay for all or a share of the cost of covered services, regardless of which physician, hospital, or other licensed healthcare provider is used. Policyholders and their dependents choose when and where to get healthcare services. - Answer- Indemnity Plan A range of usual fees in the same community is the? - Answer- Prevailing fee Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the - Answer- Physician An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies. - Answer- Fiscal intermediary Types of health insurance and plan benefits: This type of benefit covers catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury. This insurance takes over when basic medical, hospitalization, and surgical benefits end. - Answer- Major medical Where are the diagnosis codes found that are descriptive of the disease or condition presented by the patient? - Answer- ICD code A payment method used by many managed care organizations in which a fixed amount of money is reimbursed to the provider for patients enrolled during a specific period of time, no matter what services are received or how many visits are made. - Answer- Capitaiton A person who holds a health benefit plan is a? - Answer- Subscriber A specific amount specified by an insurance plan that the patient must pay toward the charge for professional services rendered is the? - Answer- Copayment Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should - Answer- Refer all inquires to the collection agency The petty cash fund may be used? - Answer- For small incidental items Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column? - Answer- Insurance write-offs If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a - Answer- net profit of $2,000 The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the? - Answer- Payee An employer is required to make payments for which one of the following? - Answer- FUTA Regulation Z of the Truth in Lending Act is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission and is a part of the Consumer Credit Protection Act. When a physician agrees and accepts payment in installments, the physician must provide a disclosure statement about finance charges even if no finance charges are involved. What is the minimum number of installments in this Regulation? - Answer- More than four installments Employers are required by law to withhold certain amounts from employees' earnings. These amounts must be reported and forwarded to the IRS to be applied toward payment of income tax. The Income Tax Withholding is also known as? - Answer- W-4 Which statement below is true with respect to an emancipated minor? - Answer- An emancipated minor is responsible for his or her own medical bill This bookkeeping entry occurs when a patient has paid in advance or when an overpayment or duplicate payment has been made. - Answer- Credit balance When a bankruptcy notice is received in the office it is beneficial to? - Answer- Submit a form to the court trustee Things that are owed or debt are called? - Answer- Liabilities When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those? - Answer- That have not cleared the bank The words "for deposit only" specify what type of endorsement? - Answer- Restricitve Summaries identifying which patient accounts are 30, 60, 90, and 120 days overdue include? - Answer- Age Analysis Which of the following is the correct way to write the first line of an inside address in a letter to Susan Martin, a pediatrician? - Answer- Susan Martin, MD An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients begins from the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patient's treatment. This approach is known as? - Answer- Empathy To prevent backpain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended? - Answer- Keep feet together Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets? - Answer- Demographic Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter? - Answer- July 27, 2011 A method of prioritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called - Answer- Triage Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area? - Answer- Invite the patient into a room out of the reception area When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to? - Answer- call the patient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called? - Answer- An itinerary When patients arrive at the physician's office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the? - Answer- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to? - Answer- Leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule It is recommneded that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place in the medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to? - Answer- pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle. Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the follwoing medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest. Select the correct terminal digit order sequence. (1) 06 14 06 (2) 06 06 06 (3) 06 05 06 (4) 05 01 06 - Answer- (4), (3), (2), (1) A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patient's medical record. She understands that corrections in the medical record are made by? - Answer- drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it. Medical records in this medical office are filed alphabetically. Arrange the following names in alphabetical order to prepare them for filing. Select the sequence of the numbers correctly that alphabetizes the names. (1) Smith, James (2) Smithson, Jane (3) Smithy, J. (4) Smithe, John - Answer- (1), (4), (2), (3) Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)? - Answer- The physician or medical facility which initiated and developed the record When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should? - Answer- Document the failed appointment in the patient's chart The signature of the treating physician, medical assistant, or other healthcare provider on the medical record indicates that the record is accurate. This is called? - Answer- Authentication The cleansing process used to remove debris such as blood, tissue, and other body fluids from medical instruments or equipment is called? - Answer- Sanitation Monica is responsible for sterilizing instruments. She places a biological sterilization indicator into the autoclave to test the effectiveness of the sterilization process. What information is provided by the biological sterilization indicator? - Answer- The presence of spores in the auto clave Sterile field rules include all of the following EXCEPT? - Answer- sterile team members do not need to face each other. [Show Less]
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Microbiology Review Questions and Answers for MLT AMT Exam Questions and Answers
Binomial Name Is Written How ? - Answer- First letter capitalized, underlined or italicized, second word lowercased Endotoxins: - Answer- released upon ... [Show More] cell death What Are Biosafety Level 1 Agents ? - Answer- Agents that required only standard good lab techniques Type Of Media Designed To Support The Growth Of A Wide Range Of Microorganisms Is: - Answer- Nutritive Type Of Media Designed To Distinguish Microorganisms On The Basis Of Certain Growth Characteristics: - Answer- Differential Ambient Air, Which Contains 21% Oxygen And a Small Amount Of Carbon Dioxide Is The Environmental Condition For What Type Of Organism: - Answer- Aerobes All Of The Following Information Should Be Included In A Direct Microscopic Examination Of A Gram Stained Culture Smear Report: - Answer- Shape and morphological arrangement of bacterial cells, gram stain reaction, WBCs and squamous epithelial cells What Organisms' Natural Habitat Is Part Of The Human Microbiota ? - Answer- Candida app. The Natural Habitat For Aspergillus Spp. Is: - Answer- Found in plants in most parts of the world The Natural Habitat For Blastomyces App. Is: - Answer- Unknown, but it is believed to be soil and/or wood in moist areas The Natural Habitat For Coccidiosis App. Is: - Answer- Soil in many arid regions What Media Contains The X and V Factors Necessary For The Growth Of Haemophilus Influenzae ? - Answer- Chocolate agar Xylose Lysine Desoxycholate Agar Is Used: - Answer- For the isolation and differentiation of Salmonella and Shigella spp. from other gram negative enteric bacilli The Minimum Time Of Retention For Microbiology Instrument Records Is ? - Answer- Life of the instrument What Steps Is The First Step Of The Ethyl Acetate Concentration Procedure ? - Answer- Mix fresh stool specimen with 10% formalin and strain to obtain a sediment Giardia Lamblia Is: - Answer- Flagellated amoeba, the cysts are characterized as being oval (8-19um) with 2-4 nuclei and a distinct axoneme down the length of the organism. It is considered the most common cause of intestinal infections worldwide A Coagulase Test Should Be Performed To Differentiate Between What: - Answer- S. aureus and coagulase negative staphylococci The Condition Most Likely To Predispose a Person To Septicemia By Viridans Streptococci Is: - Answer- Poor oral hygiene Coagulase Positive, Catalase Positive, Gram Positive Cocci That Is Penicillin Resistant In Clinical Isolates Is: - Answer- Stahylococcus aureus Serological Assay Available To Identify Francisella Tularensis Is: - Answer- Hydrogen sulfide Morphological Description Of The Genus Neisseria Is: - Answer- Gram negative diplococci Gram Positive Cocci, Catalase Positive That Grows Facultatively Anaerobic And Form Grapelike Clusters Is: - Answer- Staphylococcus What Condition Is Caused By The Human Papilloma Virus ? - Answer- Venereal Warts Mononucleosis Is Caused By: - Answer- The epstein barr virus (EBV) Gastroenteritis In Infants Is Caused By: - Answer- Rotavirus (common during the winter and spring season) The Amastigote is: - Answer- Non-flagellated, intracellular form of the blood and tissue protozoa. It is oval in shape and contains a nucleus and kinetiplast that invades the cells of the reticuloendothelial system Bacterial Species That Can Be Described As Oxidase-Postive, Glucose Positive, Maltose Positive, Sucrose Negative, Lactose negative, and Major Cause Meningitis: - Answer- Neisseria meningitis MTM, Martin Lewis (ML), and New York (NYC) Media Were Developed Of Selective Isolation Of: - Answer- Neisseria Gonorrhoeae What Quantity Of CSF Is Considered Sufficient For The Direction Of Tuberculous Meningitis? - Answer- 10ML The Primary Playing Medium Used To Select Out Clostridia Spp. Would Be: - Answer- Phenylethyl alcohol agar (PEA) The Diagnosis Of Diphtheria Must Be Confirmed By: - Answer- Determining that a culture isolate is a toxin producing strains The Entamoeba Histolytica Trophozoite Is Usually Characterized By The Presence Of The Following: - Answer- Small central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs Facial Masks Should Be Worn In The Laboratory: - Answer- If mucous membrane contact is anticipated All Of The Organisms Are Listed With A Common Site Of Recovery For That Parasite: - Answer- Giardia lamblia-both stool and duodental contents, Trichuris trichuria-stool, Plasmodium falciperum-liver biopsies, Paragonimus westermanni-sputum On Gram Stain, Mycobacteria Appears As: - Answer- Poorly stained, beaded gram-positive bacilli Media That Can Be Used For The Isolation Of Mycoplasma Include: - Answer- Beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract What Agent Lacks A Cell Wall And Is The Smallest Known Free-Living Form ? - Answer- Mycoplasma AIDS Patients Have In Increased Susceptibility To Infection Due To A Decrease In What: - Answer- CD4+ lymphocytes What Organisms Is Typically Urease Negative: - Answer- Escherichia (E.coil) A Microliter Is Equal To: - Answer- 1/1000mL The Positive Square Root Of Variance Of a Set Value Is Called: - Answer- Standard Deviation What Continuous Growth System Uses A CO2 Sensor To Monitor Mycobacterial Growth ? - Answer- BacT/alert The Most Common Vector-Borne Disease In North America And Europe Transmitted By The Bite Of Ixodes Ticks Is Caused By: - Answer- Borrelia Burgdorferi Long, Slender, Helically Curved, Gram-Negative Bacilli With Tight Coils Are Identified As Belonging To What Species? - Answer- Treponema The Bacterial Species Commonly Found In Association With Deep Tissue Actinomycosis, Gram-Negative Bacillus, Part Of The Normal Flora Of The Human Oral Cavity Is: - Answer- Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans Which Stain Is Used Specifically To Detect Histoplasma Capsulatum In Blood And Bone Marrow ? - Answer- Giemsa Periodic Acid-Schiff Is: - Answer- Tissue stain used to detect any fungal elements present in a sample Fontana-Masson Is: - Answer- Tissue stain used to identify the presence of phaeoid fungi, which contain melanin in their cell wall, that binds with the stain and appear brown in comparison the background material which appears pink-purple Calcofluor White Is Used: - Answer- Detect fungal elements that are embedded in skin, hair, nails, and tissue. Which Organism Is a Cell Wall Deficient Bacterium That Commonly Causes Primary Atypical or "Walking Pneumonia?" - Answer- Mycoplasma pneumoniae Erythrogenic Toxin, Hyaluronidase Enzyme, and Hemolysins S and O Are Extracellular Products Of: - Answer- Streptococcus Pyogenes A Flexible Calcium Alginate Nasopharyngeal Swab Is The Collection Device Of Choice For Recovery Of Which Organism From The Nasopharynx ? - Answer- Corynbacterium diphtheriae Colistin-nalidixic Acid Agar (CNA) Is Used Primarily For The Recovery Of: - Answer- Staphylococcus aureus Select The Media Of Choice For Recovery Of Vibrio Cholerae From a Stool Specimen: - Answer- Thiosulfate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS) agar and alkaline peptone water (APW) Broth Select The Method Of Choice For Recovery Of Anaerobic Bacteria From a Deep Abscess: - Answer- Needle aspirate after surface decontamination Select The Primary and Differential Media Of Choice For Recovery Of Most Fecal Pathogens: - Answer- Hektoen, macconkey, campy, colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA) agar Deoxycholate Agar (DCA) Is Useful For The Isolation Of: - Answer- Enterobacteriaceae Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) Is Used For The Recovery Of: - Answer- Clostridium difficile Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) Agar Is a Highly Selective Medium Used For The Recovery Of Which Bacteria ? - Answer- Enterobacteriaceae from gastrointestinal specimens Specimens For Virus Culture Should Be Transported In Media Containing: - Answer- Antibiotics and nutrients Biochemically, The Enterobacteriaceae Are Gram-Negative Rods That: - Answer- Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are oxidase negative All Of The Following Organisms Are Considered Select Agents For a Bioterrorism Event: - Answer- Bacteria, viruses, Toxins At Which pH Does The Methyl Red (MR) Test Become Positivie ? - Answer- [Show Less]
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AMT MLT Practice test/Study Guide latest updated
Quality control - Answer- A process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through the use of control specimens. Shift - Answer- What... [Show More] demonstrates an abrupt change from the established average value of the control for 3 days in a row? Proficiency testing - Answer- A means by which quality control between laboratories is maintained. Provider-performed microscopy (PPM) - Answer- What are specific microscopic tests (wet mounts, potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparations, fern test) performed by a physician for his or her own patients? Category A - Answer- What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics? Pathogens that are rarely seen in the United States, these agents have the highest priority; organisms in this category pose a risk to national security because they can be easily disseminated or transmitted from person to person, result in high mortality rates and have the potential for major public health impact. Category B - Answer- What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics? These agents have the second highest priority and include pathogens that are moderately easy to disseminate, results in moderate morbidity rates and low mortality rates, and require specific enhancements of the CDC's diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance. Category A. - Answer- Agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses are classified as Electric equipment. - Answer- Class C fire extinguishers are used for Infectious waste - Answer- OSHA has defined __________ as blood and blood products, contaminated sharps, pathology waste products, and microbiological waste. 2013 - Answer- All employees who work with hazardous chemicals will be required to be trained about the new labels and the elements of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) by December 1 of ___________. Safety Data Sheets - Answer- Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) are now called: Pictograms - Answer- The GHS brings with it a new chemical labeling standard using ____________. Spectrophotometry. - Answer- The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is Material safety data sheet (MSDS). - Answer- Reference materials about the individual chemical are provided by all chemical manufacturers and suppliers by means of 20 mL - Answer- How many milliliters (mL) of 0.25M NaOH are needed to make 100 mL of a 0.05 M solution of NaOH? 9/5 (Celsius degrees number+ 32) - Answer- convert Celsius to Fahrenheit? Flourescent. - Answer- The microscope commonly used in cellular biology that has the ability to distinguish between living and dead cells and monitor activity within living cells is the 40X objective. - Answer- The objective that should never have oil used on it is the 450 - Answer- If a 10 X eyepiece is used with a 45 X objective, the total magnification is Blood culture (aerobic), blood culture (anaerobic), blue, red, green stopper, lavender, and gray - Answer- What is the order of draw of multiple evacuated tubes? Peripheral (or capillary) blood and venous blood - Answer- What are the two general sources of blood for clinical laboratory tests? Blood gases, slides/smear, EDTA tubes, other additive minicontainers, and serum containers - Answer- Order of draw for capillary specimens: a hematoma. - Answer- Failure to apply sufficient pressure to the venipuncture site could result in . Hemolyzed specimens - Answer- What would cause the constituents, including enzymes acid phosphatase, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) to significantly elevate the value obtained for these substances in serum? Two thirds - Answer- The role of the phlebotomist has never been more important to the patient and the laboratory. How many errors are caused by preanalytical errors? RNA. - Answer- A western blot is used to detect High sensitivity and high specificity - Answer- Which of the following may be said to be true of fluorescent spectroscopy? Directly proportional - Answer- In what manner is the dye uptake by a sample following electrophoresis and staining related to the sample concentration? Turbidimetry - Answer- The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods? Erythropoietin - Answer- The kidney has a function of secretion of some hormones. Which hormone is regulated by blood oxygen levels? Creatinine clearance - Answer- The calculation of which of the following renal function tests are becoming the standard laboratory method for determining glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Calcium oxalate - Answer- A patient with hyperparathyroidism will have which type of kidney stone? HBsAg +, total anti-HBc +, IgM anti-HBc +, anti-HBs - - Answer- A patient with an acute HBV infection would be expected to have which set of serological test results? Biliverdin - Answer- The immediate precursor of bilirubin is Intrahepatic cholestasis - Answer- You have a a patient's sample that has a slightly elevated ALT, LD and bilirubin with a very elevated GGT and an elevated alkaline phosphatase. What might be the patient's diagnosis? Type 1. - Answer- Insulin-dependent diabetes is usually diagnosed in children and young adults and was previously called "juvenile diabetes" is Insulin - Answer- A hormone secreted by the pancreas after a meal, responds to high glucose levels, promoting glucose entry into cells is______________________. . Albumin and globulin - Answer- Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Plasma proteins are the most frequently analyzed of all proteins. What are the two major measured plasma proteins? Total LDH - Answer- The highest levels of this enzyme are seen in pernicious anemia and hemolytic disorders. Amylase - Answer- What enzyme catalyzes the breakdown of starch and glycogen, and begins to increase in concentration in the blood 2 to 12 hours after onset of an attack and peaks at 24 hours? Atherosclerosis - Answer- Which of the following is a condition of deposition of plaques in the blood vessels that has been proven to lead to coronary artery disease? Myoglobin, troponins, and CK-MB - Answer- The best marker combination of assays for the diagnosis of an acute MI follows: Prostate - Answer- Which tissue is considered the richest source of acid phosphatase? TnI - Answer- The patient presented at the clinic after returning from a fishing trip. Chief complaint is left-sided anterior chest pain that started 3 days ago. Patient states no injury. Which cardiac test would give the physician the best picture of diagnosis? Gluconeogenesis - Answer- What is stimulated by the hormones glucagon, cortisol, and throxine? Steroid hormones - Answer- What hormone is hydrophobic and insoluble in water? thymus gland - Answer- The endocrine gland once thought to have no role in the physiology of adults, but now known for its crucial role in T-cell maturation is the High density lipoprotein - Answer- This class of lipoprotein is produced by the liver and transports excess cholesterol from the tissues to the liver. Exogenous pathway - Answer- Lipid metabolism involves four distinct pathways. Which pathway takes newly synthesized chylomicrons and then goes to the liver to convert some cholesterol to bile acids? Calcium - Answer- What electrolyte is essential for myocardial contraction? A decreased level of this analyte impairs cardiac function and produces irregular muscle spasms (tetany). Increase in blood pH. - Answer- A decrease in ionized calcium often is caused by pharmacokinetics. - Answer- The mathematics modeling of drug concentration in circulation which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen is CA 15-3 - Answer- The main purpose of this assay is to monitor breast cancer patients after mastectomy. It is positive in patients with other conditions, including liver disease, some inflammatory conditions, and other carcinomas. Troponin. - Answer- A complex of three proteins that bind to the thin filaments of striated cardiac or skeletal muscle and regulate muscle contraction is CA 125 - Answer- What is elevated in carcinomas and benign disease of various organs, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and endometriosis, but it is most useful in ovarian and endometrial carcinomas? Cannabinoids - Answer- Which of the drugs of abuse are a group of psychoactive compounds found in marijuana? Human chorionic gonadotropin - Answer- This marker is strongly suggestive of pregnancy or a malignant tumor such as endodermal sinus tumor, teratocarcinoma, choriocarcinoma, molar pregnancy, testicular embryonal carcinoma, or oat cell carcinoma of the lung. Bilirubin - Answer- What is derived from the iron-containing heme portion of hemoglobin, which is released from the breakdown of RBCs? CA 19-9 - Answer- What are elevated in patients with pancreatic, hepatobiliary, colorectal, gastric, hepatocellular, pancreatic and breast cancers? Its main use is as a marker for colorectal and pancreatic carcinoma. Aminoglycosides - Answer- Which type of antibiotic would you see tested only on inpatients because they are not well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract? Digoxin - Answer- Many cardiac conditions are treated with drugs, but only a few require TDM. The two classes of drugs that need monitoring are the cardiac glycosides and the antiarrhythmics. Which drug belongs to the glycosides? C-reactive protein (CRP) - Answer- An inflammation sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassays is Gram positive - Answer- What is the term for bacteria that stain purple/blue as a result of retention of crystal violet-iodine complex? Antisepsis - Answer- What is the process used to decrease the number of microorganisms that are present on the skin? gram positive cocci in clusters - Answer- Staphylococcus spp. when gram stained properly generally appear as patient acquires the infection while in the hospital or health care facility. - Answer- A nosocomial infection occurs when the Gingival swab - Answer- Which of the following specimens would be unacceptable for anaerobic culture? Spore - Answer- What is resistant to heat, cold, drying conditions, and chemicals and therefore are able to survive under extremely unfavorable conditions? Gram stain - Answer- What is an example of a differential stain that separated bacteria into two groups based on their reaction, gram positive and gram negative? giemsa stain. - Answer- The stain that is commonly recommended for use to differentiate parasites such as Malaria in blood smears is Two alpha and two beta chains. - Answer- The principal adult hemoglobin, Hemoglobin A contains Normochromic-normocytic, macrocytic, and hypochromic-microcytic - Answer- Morphologically, anemias are generally classified as: Rouleaux formation - Answer- What represents an abnormal distribution pattern of RBCs, which stick together or become aligned in aggregates that look like stacks of coins? This arrangement is a typical artifact in the thick area of blood films. Thalassemias. - Answer- A group of anemias that demonstrate mild to severe microcytosis and hypochromia are disorders in the synthesis of globin, a component of the hemoglobin molecule and are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis are Asynchronous maturation. - Answer- Megaloblastic erythrocytes have an abnormal developmental sequence. As they develop, cells of the megablastic sequence have a more open or immature chromatin pattern in the nucleus, referred to as Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation - Answer- In simplified terms, iron-deficiency anemia may result from the following: Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase (TdT) - Answer- Which cytochemical stain is used to help distinguishing acute lymphocyte leukemia from malignant lymphoma? Chronic myelogenic leukemia - Answer- A differential shows extreme leukocytosis, normal RBC morphology with possible NRBCs, and exhibits a shift to the left with all stages of granulocyte maturation. Which disorder is this? Myeloblast - Answer- Which stage of neutrophil has a nucleus with fine chromatin nucleoli and agranular cytoplasm? (Leukocyte count x100)/(100 + # of NRBC) - Answer- Nucleated erythrocytes may falsely elevate leukocyte count which a correct leukocyte count must be performed as a corrective procedure. Which of the below is the correct formula? Bone marrow - Answer- The life span of the neutrophil is spent in three compartments. Which compartment is the site of differentiation, proliferation, and maturation? Thrombopoietin - Answer- What is the major humoral factor regulating platelet development which influences all stages of megakaryocyte production? Large center square - Answer- When counting platelets using the unopette system (a manual method), which area is used to count on the Neubauer hemacytometer? Methanol fixation - Answer- What is the first part of the staining process for morphological examination? Shift cells - Answer- On blood films prepared with Wright's stain, abnormally early release of the RBCs from the marrow into the peripheral blood is indicated by the presence of nucleated RBCs or polychromatophilic macrocytes, also known as New methylene blue method - Answer- An erythrocyte still possessing RNA is referred to as a reticulocyte. What supravital stains bind, neutralize, and cross-link ribonucleic acid (RNA)? Chorea and undulant fever - Answer- In the vast majority of infections, there is at least some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions? Histogram - Answer- What is used to evaluate size distribution curve of leukocyte data and allows visualization of subpopulation of cells based on their relative sizes? Westgard - Answer- Analyzing the quality control results, who developed the rule that is used to evaluate control results when two or more levels of control material are used? flow cytometry - Answer- Which principal automated hematology analyzer allows the simultaneous analysis of multiple characteristics through a laser light beam? Impedance - Answer- Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on increased resistance that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field? Erythrocytes - Answer- Which cellular constituent of blood contains the vital protein hemoglobin? Prolonged washing - Answer- While performing a microscopic evaluation on a peripheral blood smear, you notice the color is excessively pink. What could be the cause? Plasma cells. - Answer- B-lymphocytes differentiation is complex and proceeds through both an antigen-independent and antigen dependent stage, culminating in the generation of mature, end-stage, nonmotile cells called Bleeding time. - Answer- Test for the vascular factors include the capillary fragility test and Closure time (CT) - Answer- What is a test system to assess platelet-related primary hemostasis with greater accuracy and reliability than bleeding time? Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). - Answer- Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-dimers associated with [Show Less]
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Hematology Review Questions and Answers For AMT MLT Exam
Common Examples Of Post Analytic Variables Include: - Answer- Delta checks, results released, critical result called reflex testing initiated, specimens ch... [Show More] ecks for clots. What Tests Is Expected To Have A Normal Result In A Patient With Type 1 Von Willebrand ? - Answer- Platelet count A Yellow Coloration Found In Fresh Cerebrospinal Fluid Supernatant Is Termed: - Answer- Xanthochromia Complaints Of Pain From a Patient With Sickle Cell Disease Are Most Likely Associated With What Conditions/Events? - Answer- Vaso-occlusive crisis(life-threatening complications) Polychromatophilic Macrocytes In The Peripheral Smear Are Defined As: - Answer- Reticulocytes The Red Cell Inclusion Derived From Denatured Hemoglobin Is: - Answer- Heniz bodies A Safety Inspector Asks You What Class Of Fire Extinguisher Is Acceptable For Use On An Electrical Fire When The Circuit Is Energized ? - Answer- Class C fire extinguisher Hemoglobin H Bodies Can Directly Alter What: - Answer- Integrity of the RBC membrane Order Of Cells From Least Mature To Most Mature: - Answer- Pronormoblast, basophilic normoblast, polychromatophilic normoblast, orthochromatic normoblast(Nucleated RBC) Reticulocyte or polychromatophilic erythrocytes, erythrocytes. What Drug May Be Used To Decrease Iron Levels In Patients With Iron Overload ? - Answer- Desferrioxamine(an iron chelating agent) What Tests Is Used To Quantify a Coagulation Inhibitor ? - Answer- Bethesda assay Prothrombin Time (PT): - Answer- An initial screening procedure for bleeding disorders and a test used for monitoring anticoagulant therapy Thrombin Time: - Answer- Is used to detect heparin interference in an aPTT mixing study All Of The Following Are Terms Associated With Segmented Neutrophils: - Answer- Poly, seg, PMN What Is The Site Used Most Frequently In The Adult Patient When Performing A Bone Marrow Biopsy ? - Answer- Iliac crest(posterior iliac crest preferred) What Transferrin Saturation (SI/TIBC) Levels Would Be Indicative To Investigate Further For Hereditary Hemochromatosis(HH) ? - Answer- Level of 45% or greater What Does the Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW) indicate On The Peripheral Blood Smear ? - Answer- Variability of RBC volume The Fibrinolytic System May Be Activated By What: - Answer- Streptokinase Streptokinase: - Answer- An exogenous activator produced by some bacterial species that binds and activates plasminogen, a component of the Fibrinolytic System Streptolysin: - Answer- streptococcal hemolytic exotoxin that can cause hemolysis in humans All Of The Following Are Present In Normal Bone Marrow: - Answer- Siderocyte, sideroblast, hemosiderin Ringed Sideroblasts: - Answer- Are formed from an accumulation of non-ferritin iron in the mitochondria that encircle the erythroblast nucleus. They are not present in normal bone marrow. They are associated with sideroblastic anemia and myelodysplasia. What Condition Would Be Associated With An Increased Osmotic Fragility Test Results ? - Answer- Hereditary spherocytosis What Is The Predominant Abnormal Erythrocyte Morphology Associated With Idiopathic Myelofibrosis ? - Answer- Teardrop cells (dacrocytes) What Cells Is Indicative Of Hodgkin's Disease ? - Answer- Reed-sternberg (RS) cells (tumor cells) Degenerated Erythrocyte Cytoplasmic Organelles That Contain Iron Are Called: - Answer- Pappenheimer bodies (aggregates of mitochondria, ribosomes, and iron particles) Warfarin (Coumarin-Type Anticoagulant) Inhibits All The Following Coagulation Factors: - Answer- Vitamin K dependent factors: II, VII, IX and X, and proteins C, S, and Z. The Bone Marrow Begins To Produce Blood Cells In The_____________Month Of Gestation. - Answer- Seventh [Show Less]
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AMT - PRACTICE TEST ATTEMPT #1 (ANSWERED)
The statistic that is the laboratory's best estimate of the analyte's true value for a specific level of control is - Answer- Mean An abrupt demonstrate... [Show More] d change in the mean is a - Answer- Shift The difference between the expectation of a test result and an accepted reference method is referred to as - Answer- Bias The statistical process in the medical laboratory used to monitor and evaluate the analytical process that produces patient results is - Answer- Quality control The statistic that quantifies how close numerical QC values are in relation to each other is - Answer- Standard deviation Under CLIA law, the process of testing and adjusting an instrument or test system to establish a correlation between the measured response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measuredby the test procedure is - Answer- Calibration A substance or constituent for which the laboratory conducts testing is - Answer- an analyte A phrase used to describe the location where testing is performed (such as the bedside) is known as - Answer- Point of care testing What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system? - Answer- FDA TLA means - Answer- total laboratory automation Given %T, how is absorbance calculated? - Answer- 2-log%T The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that the vast majority of atoms in a flame absorb energy at a characteristic wavelength is - Answer- atomic absorption Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as - Answer- Good clinical laboratory practices (GCLP) Common hazards in the laboratory include - Answer- - biological - chemical - radiological Material Safety Data Sheets (M.S.D.S.) are now called - Answer- safety data sheets Prohibiting mouth pipetting is an example of - Answer- a workplace control All of the following are bloodborne pathogens except - Answer- epstein barr virus How can you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit? - Answer- [Celsius * (9/5)] + 32 What is the molarity of an unknown HCL solution with a specific gravity of 1.10 and an assay percentage of 18.5%? (Atomic weights: H = 1.00794, Cl = 35.4527) Specific gravity x Assay percentage = grams of compound/mL - Answer- 5.6M The microscope objective in the 40X range is the - Answer- high power Common light bulbs used as light sources in microscopes include all except - Answer- Lithium One of your best friends just had some lab work done and calls you asking you to get her a copy of her results. What should you do? - Answer- Tell your friend that you are not able to do that. Which of the following actions is appropriate when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is delivered to the laboratory's specimen processing area? - Answer- Deliver the specimens immediately to the appropriate testing areas. With the new advances in capillary punctures equipment, where is the most appropriate place to perform a capillary blood collection on a newborn? - Answer- Medial plantar surface of the heel You are getting ready to draw a CBC, PT and CMP on an eight year old. While explaining the procedure to the patient, the child asks you if it is going to hurt. How should you respond? - Answer- Tell them it's like a pinch that might sting and it's OK to cry but it is important that they hold still. A gel separator tube is received with orders for a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) and serum Glucose test. How should this request be handled? - Answer- Centrifuge the specimen once it has clotted and deliver it to chemistry for the serum glucose test. The DAT will need to be recollected because this is not the appropriate specimen. Which of the following characterizes reversed-phase liquid-liquid chromatography? - Answer- Mobile phase is polar relative to the nonpolar stationary phase Which of the following are the two methods used to characterize monoclonal proteins? - Answer- IEP and IFE Which of the following uses a graphite cylinder to hold the sample? - Answer- Flameless atomic absorption spectrophotometer The amount of wavelength isolation is a function of the monochromator type and of which of the following? - Answer- Width of entrance and exit slits Which lamps are most common when working in the ultraviolet region? - Answer- Mercury arc and deuterium discharge In what manner is the dye uptake by a sample following electrophoresis and staining related to the sample concentration? - Answer- Directly proportional POCT devices use a variety of analytical principles such as reflectance, spectrophotometry, fluorescence, and ________. - Answer- PCR A high-protein diet may cause a - Answer- prerenal plasma urea increase. The most common methods for uric acid measurement utilize uricase to catalyze the oxidation of uric acid to which of the following? - Answer- Allantoin Which compound comprises about 40-50% of total non-protein nitrogen? - Answer- Urea The reduction of oxaloacetate to malate by malate dehydrogenase is used in the measurement of which enzyme? - Answer- AST Which is used as the indicator enzyme in the measurement of ALT? - Answer- LD The reference range of urobilinogen is - Answer- 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours. The Embden-Myerhof pathway, hexose monophosphate shunt, and glycogenesis all begin with the conversion of glucose to what? - Answer- Glucose-6-phosphate Glucocorticoids and which of the following are produced by the adrenal gland and are responsible for increasing plasma glucose? - Answer- Epinephrine What is the order of serum protein migration at pH 8.6 toward the anode? - Answer- Albumin, α1-globulins, α2-globulins, β- globulins, γ-globulins What is the protein portion of an enzyme? - Answer- apoenzyme AST is commonly measured by a coupled enzymatic reaction using which of the following as the indicator? - Answer- Malate dehydrogenase The relationship among enzyme, substrate, and product may be expressed as - Answer- E + S → ES → E + P AST is classified as a(an) - Answer- transferase Which of the following enzymes is considered more specific for pancreatic disorders? - Answer- LPS The RAS regulates blood pressure and which of the following? - Answer- Sodium balance In which of the following organs does PTH act to enhance the 1α-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy vitamin D? - Answer- Kidneys Parathyroid glands increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes in levels of which of the following? - Answer- Calcium Which of the following apolipoproteins is associated primarily with HDL? - Answer- Apo A-I Which of the following serum lipoprotein concentration patterns is seen on average with pre-menopausal women when compared with men? - Answer- Higher HDL-C and lower total cholesterol and triglyceride levels Which of the following respond to changes in osmolality? - Answer- Hypothalamus Serum calcium levels are regulated by PTH, calcitonin, and which other hormone? - Answer- Vitamin D Serum copper levels less than the reference interval and increased urinary levels describe which condition? - Answer- Wilson's disease Common enzymatic methods for alcohol determination measure the production of which of these? - Answer- NADH Which of the following is a semi-synthetic opiate with 2-3 times the analgesic potency of its parent compound, morphine? - Answer- Heroin Which of the following can be detected in the urine following passive inhalation? - Answer- THC-COOH Which of the following is the most active metabolite of vitamin D? - Answer- 1,25 (OH)2 D3 Due to the variable cross-reactivity with immunoassays, positive results are considered to be presumptive positives with which class of drugs? - Answer- Amphetamines The use of automated systems to do lamellar body counts because they are about the same size as which of the following? - Answer- Platelets A drug that metabolizes in the liver to a large degree before it reaches the blood stream has undergone which type of metabolism? - Answer- First-pass The purposes of TDM are to ensure that the drug dosage provides the maximum therapeutic benefit and which of the following? - Answer- Identify when the drug is outside the therapeutic range Which of the following results from incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood? - Answer- HDN Which of the following is the single most important factor in TDM? - Answer- Timing of specimen collection Which of the following is a drug that requires metabolic processes to transform it into the physiologically active form? - Answer- Prodrug Peripheral erythrocytes - Answer- - are the most numerous. - are biconcave disks. - have a color due to hemoglobin. The body maintains an adequate number of cells to perform its functions and is referred to as tissue _______ - Answer- homeostasis. Which of the following is true for a normal patient? - Answer- - An adult with a hematocrit above 61% is a critical level. - An adult will have 25-40% lymphocytes. - A newborn will have a 42-60% hematocrit. Concerning blood smears and their staining, which of the following is TRUE? - Answer- To be stained later, a slide must first be dipped in methanol. In humans, a white blood cell is also known as a(n) - Answer- Leukocyte A general use (WBC differential) hematology stain is - Answer- Wright's Stain During staining of a blood smear, what error imparts a too blue hue? - Answer- Too much blood on the slide Drabkin's hemoglobin reagent is no longer used because it contains - Answer- cyanide. Megaloblastic erythrocytes have an abnormal developmental sequence. As they develop, cells of the megablastic sequence have a more open or immature chromatin pattern in the nucleus, referred to as - Answer- asynchronous maturation. A group of anemias that demonstrate mild to severe microcytosis and hypochromia are disorders in the synthesis of globin, a component of the hemoglobin molecule and are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis are - Answer- thalassemias The principal adult hemoglobin, hemoglobin A contains - Answer- two alpha and two beta chains. When performing the Westergren method, fresh anticoagulated blood collected in sodium citrate is the preferred anticoagulant. What is the ratio of blood to sodium citrate? - Answer- 4 vol of blood to 1 vol of sodium citrate Polychromatic RBCs have different - Answer- colors A hemoglobin analysis - Answer- is an oxygen-carrying capacity test, an indirect test. A neutrophil can also be called a - Answer- - poly. - PMN. - seg. Lymphopenia is - Answer- a deficiency of lymphocytes in the blood. An immature granulocyte with a nonsegmented nucleus is a (an) - Answer- band To perform the manual platelet count; whole blood is diluted with what solution using the Unopette® System? - Answer- 1% ammonium oxalate solution If the platelet count is reported in SI units, a normal platelet count is - Answer- 1.5-4.0 x 1011/μL. What is used as a fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen? - Answer- 10% buffered formalin fixative In conjunction with a bone marrow aspirate, what other tests should be performed for correspondence of results? - Answer- CBC Which genetic defect is found with chronic myelogenous leukemia and is detected through molecular tests? - Answer- BCR/ABL1 A hazy body fluid is diluted for a manual hemacytometer count. From 1 mL of diluting fluid, twenty lambda (20μ) is removed. Twenty lambda of the mixed body fluid is added and remixed. The manual count has been diluted by a factor of - Answer- 50 20 lambda is removed from 1,000 lambda and replaced by the same amount of body fluid. Thus, 1000 is divided by 20, equaling a dilution factor of 50. The Hemoglobin S solubility test uses anticoagulated whole blood, mixed with the lysing agent, saponin, and a reducing agent, sodium dithionite. Hemoglobin is released and then reduced. Blood containing hemoglobin S gives a solubility test of - Answer- a red turbid liquid When evaluating erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left of the erythrocyte series should correspond to the following type of erythrocytes? - Answer- Microcytic erythrocytes While collecting a sample of blood for hematology testing, what is the possible outcome of laboratory results if the tube was not inverted during collection? - Answer- Falsely decreased cell counts Light scatter, light excitation, and florescent signal emissions are all used in which type of cell count testing? - Answer- Flow cytometry What consist of (1) the physical effect of surrounding tissue, which tends to close and seal the tear in the injured vessel, and (2) the biochemical effects of certain tissue factors that are released from the injured tissue and reacts with plasma and platelet factors? - Answer- Extravascular effects What results in the formation of a blood clot because coagulation factors present in the blood interact, forming a fibrin network and a thrombus, to stop the bleeding completely? Slow lysis of the thrombus begins, and final repair to the site of the injury takes place. - Answer- Secondary hemostasis The APTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II and - Answer- fibrinogen A platelet count above the normal reference range is termed - Answer- thrombocytosis The doctor suspects a chronically malnourished patient has scurvy because of bleeding gums. He would order tests for - Answer- Vitamin C The physician in the emergency department has a patient that might have a pulmonary embolism (PE) and calls you to ask what coagulation test would be the best to rule out this diagnosis. - Answer- D-dimer What symptoms would you expect to see from a patient that had decreased function of the fibrinolytic system? - Answer- Excessive thrombosis Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-dimers associated with - Answer- Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What has these characteristics: purpose is plasma factors; measures concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage III; monitors coumarin therapy. - Answer- Thrombin Time Which of the following laboratory tests would be consistent for a patient that had a factor VIII deficiency or hemophilia A? - Answer- Normal PT, prolonged aPTT What measures factors II, VII, IX, and X? - Answer- Prothrombin group A doctor's office calls needing help ordering tests for fibrinolysis but can not recall which test to order. You advise them of the tests for - Answer- plasmin and plasminogen. What is a mathematical indicator of responsiveness of the PT testing system to deficiencies of the Vitamin K coagulation factors? - Answer- International sensitivity index (ISI) Graft rejection is - Answer- destruction of grafted tissue by attacking lymphocytes. A 3-year-old boy was playing in the dirt. His mother stopped him and immediately cleaned his hands with an alcohol-based hand sanitizer. Which of the following beneficial processes could the mother actually be hindering? - Answer- Exposure to foreign antigens causing selection of thymocytes that are only capable of recognizing non-self antigens A young man has been having unprotected sex. About 1 month after one of these encounters he notices a painless lesion on his penis. The "sore" does not really hurt or ooze so he ignores it. During a sports physical 2 weeks later his physician notices this lesion and calls it a chancre. The physician tests the patient for the organism Treponema pallidum. In the event that the test is positive, the patient should be diagnosed with - Answer- primary syphilis. A patient tests negative for rheumatoid factor. The patient does have symptoms consistent with rheumatoid arthritis. The physician should - Answer- Do further testing because the RF test is negative in approximately 25% of patients who have the disease. A new FDA-approved assay which detects a stable region of the toxin A gene is based on - Answer- LAMP (Loop-Mediated Isothermal Amplification). Antinuclear antibodies are - Answer- autoantibodies that bind to contents of cell nuclei. Which of the following would be the best reason to use the Directogen™ Meningitis Combo Test latex agglutination test for detection of bacterial antigens in CSF instead of a culture and gram stain only? - Answer- The latex agglutination test gives faster results than the culture and can allow the physician to prescribe appropriate antibiotics sooner. Toxin A/B produced by Clostridium difficile is - Answer- detected in stool for a positive test. When performing the Directogen™ Meningitis Combo Test on Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF), the test card or slide should be rotated on a mechanical rotator for 10 minutes at 100rpm ± 2rpm. The procedure requires use of a moistened humidifying cover during this rotation period. Which of the following is most likely to occur if you forget to use the moistened humidifying cover? - Answer- False positive due to evaporation bring the latex bead closer together Antinuclear antibodies are used in the diagnosis of - Answer- au [Show Less]
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