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CPCE+NCE Exam Bundle (Graded A)
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CPCE+NCE Group Counseling and Group Work Exam
NASW - Answer- National Association of Social Workers ASGW - Answer- Association for Specialists in Group Work AAS - Answer- American Association of ... [Show More] Suicidology NCDA - Answer- National Career Development Association Which theorist's (or theorists') work has been classified as a preface to the group movement? a. Freud b. C.G. Jung c. Adler and Jesse B. Davis d. Marsha Linehan - Answer- c. Adler and Jesse B. Davis Primary group - Answer- stresses a healthy lifestyle or coping strategies which can reduce the occurrence of a given difficulty; often labeled prevention groups; attempts to stop a problem before it occurs (teaches birth control) Secondary group - Answer- a problem or disturbance is present but not usually severe; works to reduce the severity or length of a problem and generally includes aspects of prevention (deals with grief or shyness) Tertiary group - Answer- deals more with individual difficulties that are more serious and longstanding Group therapy initially flourished in the United States due to a. Freud's lectures in this country b. a shortage of competent career counselors c. a shortage of individual therapists during World War II d. pressure from nondirective therapists pushing encounter groups - Answer- c. a shortage of individual therapists during World War II Some theorists believe that group therapy differs from group counseling (which is also called an interpersonal problem-solving group) in that a. group counseling would be of longer duration b. group therapy, also dubbed as a personality reconstruction group, would be of longer duration c. group counseling requires far more training d group therapy addresses a less disturbed population of clients - Answer- b. group therapy, also dubbed as a personality reconstruction group, would be of longer duration Guidance group (affective education group or psychological education group or psychoeducational group) - Answer- preventive and provide instruction about a potential problem Most experts would agree that overall a. structured techniques are more effective than unstructured b. structured techniques are less effective than unstructured c. all well-trained therapists favor structured exercises over unstructured d. ethical guidelines must forbid unstructured techniques because they can be dangerous to the depressed or anxious client - Answer- b. structured techniques are less effective than unstructured Most experts in the field of group counseling would agree that the most important trait for group members is the ability a. to open up b. to listen c. to trust d. to convey empathy - Answer- c. to trust The number of people in an open group is generally a. more stable than in a closed group b. much smaller after an extended period of time than in a closed group c. significantly larger than in a closed group d. more dependent on the group leader's marketing skills than in a closed group - Answer- a. more stable than in a closed group In the late 1930's researchers identified three basic leadership styles: a. directive, nondirective, and semi-passive b. autocratic, democratic, and laissez faire c. relaxed, anxious, and tense d. assertive, nonassertive, and aggressive - Answer- b. autocratic, democratic, and laissez faire Most experts would agree that [Show Less]
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NCE Practice – Group Exam with complete solutions
Dyadic Relationship - Answer- Prior to the 1960s, most counseling took place as this (2 functioning pair - counselor and client) Group - Answer- Members... [Show More] hip that can be defined, some degree of unity and interaction, and a shared purpose Jacob Moreno - Answer- Father of psychodrama - coined the term group therapy in 1931 The American Society for Group Psychotherapy and The American Group Psychotherapy Association - Answer- two organizations for group therapy - created in the 1940s Whose work has been considered a preface to the group movement? - Answer- Adler Primary Group - Answer- Preventative and attempt to ward off problems. Stresses a healthy lifestyle or coping strategies which can reduce the occurrence of a given difficulty. Secondary Group - Answer- A problem or disturbance is present but not usually severe. It works to reduce the severity and length of a problem and includes aspects of prevention. Tertiary Group - Answer- Deals with more individual difficulties that are more serious and longstanding. Gerald Caplan - Answer- pioneer in the crisis intervention movement immediacy - Answer- relates to the counselor's ability to convey what is happening between the counselor and the client group norms - Answer- govern acceptable behavior and group rules Why did group therapy flourish in the US? - Answer- Group therapy flourished in the U.S. due to a shortage of individual therapists during WWII. Many individuals were plagued with problems, impossible for each person to be treated individually group process - Answer- the manner in which discussions and transitions occur group content - Answer- material discussed in a group setting group cohesiveness - Answer- forces which bind members together; group unity; when it is strong, it can also be negative because it can stunt creativity and it can abet conformity fragmented group - Answer- when the group displays little or no cohesiveness high group cohesiveness - Answer- leads to high group productivity and commitment George Gazda - Answer- developed three types of groups Psychoeducational group - Answer- preventative and provide instruction about a potential problem. Counseling Group - Answer- focuses primarily on conscious concerns Psychotherapy Group - Answer- focuses on individual concerns, deal with remediation and more serious pathology, longer duration. Which is more effective? Structured or Unstructured exercises? - Answer- unstructured exercises Structured - Answer- can create a situation where group stages are passed over, can cause the group to lean on the leader for support Risky Shift Phenomenon - Answer- be less conservative than the average group member's decision, prior to the group discussion, dispels the popular notion that groups are very conservative T-groups - Answer- training, focuses on human relation processes between personnel in a business setting behavioral groups - Answer- highly structured Most important trait for group members is...? - Answer- trust!!! Open Groups - Answer- number of people are more stable, do not have predetermined number of sessions and end dates, and a disadvantage is that new members who join after the first meeting miss information and experiences Closed Groups - Answer- Allows no new members after the group begins, promotes cohesiveness since membership is more stable, promotes trust among members, and a disadvantage is you will be left with no group members if everyone quits Marathon Groups (Stoller/Bach) - Answer- lasts a minimum of 24 hours and may be conducted over a weekend or several days under the notion that after an extended period of time, defenses and facades will drop universality - Answer- not the only ones in the world with a given problem, also referred to as mutuality Democratic leadership - Answer- the most desirable leadership style Authoritarian leadership - Answer- leader gives orders to the group Laissez-faire leadership - Answer- leader has a hands off policy and participates very little Co-leadership advantages - Answer- the group can go on even if leader is absent, two leaders can focus on group dynamics better than one, leaders can process their feelings between sessions, reduces burnout and helps ensure safety, helpful when one leader is experiencing countertransference, similar philosophies and work styles, sit on opposite sides of the group rather than next to each other, male/female co-leader is distinct advantage Speculative Leaders - Answer- leaders that primarily focus on the here-and-now countertransferance - Answer- helper has issues that are interfering with the treatment process How many members should be in a group? - Answer- Adult: 5/6 - 8 Children: 3-4 How long is a group? - Answer- 1.5-2 hours Group Dynamics - Answer- study of group operations Informed Consent - Answer- when the counselor provides potential group members with information regarding the group including the purpose, risks, and the leader's qualifications, preferably during screening sessions prior to the first group meeting to allow the client to make informed decisions about whether or not the group is appropriate for him or her Can confidentiality be guaranteed? - Answer- NO!!! mandatory treatment - Answer- when a client is required by law to attend counseling reluctant client - Answer- when a client is referred for treatment and is unenthusiastic about the intervention Participation? - Answer- Group leaders must inform participants that participation is voluntary and they may exit the group at any time A common weakness in groups...? - Answer- Lack of goal setting, often goals are defined but too vague Role: Energizer - Answer- stimulates enthusiasm Role: Scapegoat - Answer- person everybody blames; group gangs up on a specific member Role: Gatekeeper - Answer- tries to make certain everyone is doing his or her task and is participating, often does not work on his/her personal issues, attempts to establish norms Role: Interrogator (Peeping Tom) - Answer- insists on asking other members inappropriate questions Role: Follower - Answer- goes along with the rest of the group, tend to be nonassertive Role: Harmonizer - Answer- person in a group who tries to make sure that everything is going smoothly Role: Storyteller - Answer- monopolizes group t [Show Less]
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NCE - Career Counseling Theories Exam 2023
CAREER THEORIES OVERVIEW - Answer- TRAIT-ORIENTED THEORIES > Trait-and-Factor (1909; 1939) > Person-Environment-Correspondence > Holland's Typology / Pe... [Show More] rsonality Approach (1966) DEVELOPMENTAL THEORIES > Ginzberg & Associates (1951) > Life-Span, Life-Space Theory (1957) > Tiedeman & O'Hara Decision-Making Model (1963) > Theory of Circumscription & Compromise (1980s) SOCIAL LEARNING & COGNITIVE THEORIES > Learning Theory of Career Counseling (LTCC) (1990) > Cognitive Information Process (CIP) (1996) > Social Cognitive Career Theory (SCCT) (1996) OTHER THEORIES > Ann Roe's Need Theory / Personality Approach (1956) > Gelatt's Decision-Making Model (1962) Trait-Oriented Theories - Answer- Holds the position that individuals are attracted to an occupational environment that meets their personal needs and provides them with satisfaction. One observes work environments from several perspectives, including work requirements, personal-environment-fit, and potential reinforcers of one's personal needs. One should consider a number of occupations rather than just focus on one specific occupation. Trait-Oriented Theories - Answer- Emphasize how standardized tests are used and the importance of choosing appropriate testing tools. Human traits can be matched with certain work environments for a means of evaluating potential work sites. An individual's work needs can be compared with components of job satisfaction found in certain occupational environments. SELF-KNOWLEDGE in terms of understanding the level and depth of one's traits and characteristics is an essential element for evaluating career information: Traits of aptitude, interests, and personality types are projected into potential work environments to find CONGRUENCE and fit. Trait-Oriented Theories > Trait-and-Factor Theory Overview - Answer- - Primary goal of using assessment data was to predict job satisfaction and success. - A major criticism of this theory has been a dependence on test results. Another criticism is that it doesn't account for how interests, values, aptitudes, achievements, and personalities grow and change. - Traits: refers to abilities and interests Trait-Oriented Theories > Trait-and-Factor Theory Overview - Answer- - Frank Parsons (1909) & E.G. Williamson (1939) - KEY ASSUMPTION: Individuals have unique patterns of ability or traits that can be objectively measured and correlated with requirements of occupations (MATCHING). These can be profiled to represent an individual's potential. - Used assessment and test results and other data to reveal congruence between the individual and work environment. Individual strengths and weaknesses were evaluated, with the primary purpose of finding a job that matched measured abilities and achievements. Trait-and-Factor Theory > Parsons' True Reasoning 3 Step Model - Answer- Step 1: Assessment of Self - gaining clear understanding of your aptitudes, abilities, resources, and limitations. Step 2: Obtaining Knowledge about the World of Work- occupational requirements, conditions of success, compensations, working conditions Step 3: Decision Making - TRUE REASONING of above 2 - Match the person (traits) with the career (factors). Based on psychometric methods that could be measured. Trait-and-Factor Theory > Williamson's 6 Stages of Career Guidance - Answer- 1. ANALYSIS: data gathering attitudes, interests, ect. 2. SYNTHESIS: strengths & weaknesses 3. DIAGNOSIS: I.D. the problem; discover its causes; 4 categories for diagnosing: No Choice, Uncertain Choice, Discrepancy between interest and aptitudes/abilities and field, Unwise Choice 4. PROGNOSIS: how successful will the client be? 5. COUNSELING: if poor prognosis, client should receive additional counseling, which is likely to involve a recycling through the previous steps 6. FOLLOW-UP: was course of action correct? Trait-Oriented Theories > Person-Environment-Correspondence (PEC) - Answer- - Used to be referred to as Theory of Work Adjustment - KEY ASSUMPTION: Individuals seeks to achieve and maintain a positive relationship with their work environments. Individuals bring their own requirements to a work environment, and the work environment makes its requirements of individuals. To survive, individuals and work environments must achieve some degree of CONGRUENCE (CORRESPONDENCE). Trait-Oriented Theories > Person-Environment-Correspondence (PEC) - Answer- - The process of achieving and maintaining correspondence with a work environment is referred to as WORK ADJUSTMENT. The principle indicator of work adjustment is TENURE. - PERSONALITY Structure: A stable characteristic made up of abilities and values. **** This theory emphasizes that both ABILITIES (work skills) and VALUES (work needs) are important components of optimal career selection. Trait-Oriented Theories > Person-Environment-Correspondence (PEC) - Answer- - OCCUPATIONAL REINFORCERS (achievement, advancement, authority, coworkers, activity, security, social service) are vital to an individual's work adjustment. - Achievement: related to experiences of accomplishments in the work situation - Social Service: related to the opportunities that a work situation offers for performing tasks that will help people - Job satisfaction is a significant indicator of work adjustment. - Job satisfaction is significant variable in determining productivity, job involvement, and career tenure. - Individual needs and values are significant components of job satisfaction Trait-Oriented Theories > Person-Environment-Correspondence (PEC) - Answer- Environmental Structure: characteristic abilities and values of individuals who inhabit the work environment. Basic assumption is that clients who have abilities and values similar to individuals already on the job will make it less difficult for an individual to adjust to a work environment. This is example of MATCHING. Work adjustments usually follow one of two modes: 1- ACTIVE Mode: attempts to change the work environment 2- REACTIVE Mode: attempts to make changes in themselves SATISFACTION- an employee' contentment with work environment Satisfaction: refers to clients who are more self-fulfilled-oriented SATISFACTORINESS- the employer's satisfaction with an individual's job performance. Satisfactoriness: refers to clients who are more achievement-oriented Trait-Oriented Theories > John Holland's Typology - Answer- - Holland stressed the importance of SELF-KNOWLEDGE in the search for vocational satisfaction. - Intelligence is considered less important than personality and interest. - People are products of their environment. - CONGRUENCE of one's view of self with occupational preference establishes a Modal Personal Style. Trait-Oriented Theories > John Holland's Typology - Answer- - Career Choice is an expression of, or an extension of personality into the world of work. Individuals search for environments that will let them exercise their skills and abilities, express their attitudes and values, and take on agreeable problems and roles. Their are six kinds of occupational environments and six matching personal orientations. - Individuals are attracted to a particular role demand of an occupational environment that mets their personal needs and provides them with satisfaction. Trait-Oriented Theories > John Holland's Typology - Answer- Holland's hexagonal model has 5 key concepts: 1) CONSISTENCY - Defined as degree of similarity between the 6 Holland types. The closer the types are to each other, the more consistent they are. 2) DIFFERENTIATION- Refers to level of distinctiveness between each of the 6 Holland types (RIASEC). Because undifferentiated individuals have many interests and abilities, they often have trouble making a career choice. **A TERM USED TO DEFINE HOW WILL A PERSON'S LIKES AND DISLIKES ARE DECLARED. Trait-Oriented Theories > John Holland's Typology - Answer- 3) IDENTITY - Describes individuals who identify with their work environment and have a clear and stable picture of their goals, interests, and talents. Client who have many occupational goals have low identity. 4) CONGRUENCE- Concerned with relationship between an individual's personality type and the work environment. Congruence between the 2 leads to job satisfaction. **The most important aspect of Holland's theory is the match between personality and work environment in which similar personalities choose certain careers and respond to problems in similar ways. Trait-Oriented Theories > John Holland's Typology - Answer- Instruments that use Holland's Classifications include: Kuder Preference Record, Strong Interest Inventory (SII), Self-directed Search (SDS), Career Aptitude Placement Survey (CAPS), and Career Occupational Preference Survey (COPS). Trait-Oriented Theories > RIASEC descriptions RIA - Answer- REALISTIC - has practical abilities and would prefer to work with machine or tools rather than people; mechanic, farmer, builder, pilot INVESTIGATIVE - analytical and precise; good with detail; prefers to work with ideas; enjoys problem solving and research; chemist, geologist, biologist, researcher ARTISTIC - creative ability; uses intuition and imagination for problem solving; musician, artist, interior decorator, write, industrial designer Trait-Oriented Theories > RIASEC descriptions SEC - Answer- SOCIAL - good social skills, friendly and enjoys involvement with people and working in teams; nurse, teacher, social worker, counselor ENTERPRISING - leadership, speaking and negotiating abilities; likes leading others towards the achievement of a goal; salesperson, tv producer, manager, lawyer CONVENTIONAL - systematic and practical worker, good at following plan and attending to detail; banker, secretary, accountant Developmental Theories >Life-Span Life-Space (Donald Super; 1957) - Answer- Tenets: One chooses an occupation that best expresses one's vocational SELF-CONCEPT. Self-knowledge is key to career choice and job satisfaction. **Career development was viewed as a continuous process that involved multiple life roles. Every individual has potential. People have skills and talents that they develop through different life roles making them capable of a variety of tasks and numerous occupations. Career development is life long Vocational maturity is acquired through successfully accomplishing developmental tasks within a continuous series of life stages. Developmental Theories >Life-Span Life-Space (Donald Super; 1957) - Answer- A major point of Super's theory is that work / life satisfaction is depended upon the extent of adequate outlets for abilities, interests, personality, and values. Major Points: 1) Career development is a life long process and self-concept is constantly being shaped 2) Career pattern is determined by parent's socioeconomic level, mental ability, personality, and opportunities 3) Work / life satisfaction is depended upon extent of adequate outlets for abilities, interests, personality, and values 4) Super / Kidd suggested that "career adaptability" depends on a person's ability to face, pursue, or accept career change. Developmental Theories > Super's SELF-CONCEPT - Answer- Career decisions reflect our attempts at translating our self-understanding into career terms. Know thyself. Individuals implement their self concepts into career as a means of self-expression. The self concept developmental process is multidimensional. Both internal factors (aptitudes, values, personality) and external situational conditions (contextual interactions) are major determinants or self concept development. Self-concepts contain both objective and subjective elements. Self-concepts continue to develop over time, making career choices and adjusting to them lifelong tasks. Developmental Theories > Super's 5 LIFE STAGES and 3 Substages - Answer- 1. GROWTH (birth-14) - Curiosity, Fantasy, Interest - development of capacity, attitudes, interests, and needs associated with self concepts. 2. EXPLORATION (15-24) - Crystallizing, Specifying, Implementing - a tentative phase in which choices are narrowed but not finalized; "trying it out" through classes, work experience, hobbies; The crystallization of traits occurs when there is progress toward forming a stable self-concept. 3. ESTABLISHMENT (25-44)- Stabilizing, Consolidating, Advancing - characterized by trail and stabilization through work experiences 4. MAINTENANCE (45-64)- Holding, Updating, Innovating - characterized by a continual adjustment process to improve working position and situation. 5. DISENGAGEMENT (65+)- Decelerating, Retirement Planning, Retirement Living - characterized by preretirement considerations, reduced work output, and eventual retirement. Developmental Theories > Super's 5 DEVELOPMENTAL TASKS - Answer- 1- CRYSTALLIZATION (14-18) - forming a preferred career plan and how to implement it 2- SPECIFICATION (18 -21) - narrowing choices to specific preferences 3- IMPLEMENTATION (21 - 24) - completing training and entering career 4- STABILIZATION (24 -35) - confirming career choice, feeling of security 5- CONSOLIDATION (35+) - period of establishment, advancement, status, and seniority. Developmental Theories > Super's 6 Dimensions For Adolescents (Career Maturity) - Answer- Super's (1974) 6 Dimensions For Adolescents (Career Maturity): (1) Orientation to vocational choice (an attitudinal dimension) (2) Information and Planning (a competence dimension concerning specificity of information concerning future career decisions) (3) Consistency of Vocational Preferences (4) Crystallization of Traits (progress towards forming self-concept) (5) Vocational Independence (independence of work experience) (6) Wisdom of Vocational Preferences (realistic preferences) Developmental Theories > Life-Span Life-Space (Super) > CAREER MATURITY - Answer- Super & Crite's term for successful completion of the appropriate life tasks for the stage that society presents to the person. A person is capable of maturity at each stage of the maxicycle. Developmental Theories > Super's Life Roles - Answer- People tend to play some or all of nine major roles: Child (son or daughter) Student Leisurite Citizen Worker Spouse (Partner) Homemaker Parent Pensioner Developmental Theories > Super's Life Rainbow > Super's Archway Model - Answer- The Life Rainbow is a two dimensional scheme of life stages that includes the Longitudinal: a maxi cycle life span with mini cycle stages and the Latitudinal: life space roles throughout life. The Archway Model clarifies how biological, psychological, and sociological determinants influence career development, and, reveals diverse life roles over an individual's life span. Developmental Theories > Super's Maxicycle & Minicycle - Answer- The process of change is a MAXICYCLE. Any life-career stage depends on Readiness to cope. A MAXICYCLE is the progression through stages of one's lifetime (birth, growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, decline, and death). A MINICYCLE is a process of going through the same stages; however this occurs stage to stage. Therefore, a person would probably conduct a minimum of 6 minicycles during a maxicycle. Developmental Theories > Career Pattern - Answer- CAREER PATTERN is determined by the parent's SES, mental ability, education, skills, personality characteristics, and career maturity. A career pattern is established when a person combi [Show Less]
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NCE: Counseling and Helping Relationships Exam Questions and Answers
Sigmund Freud is the father of psychoanalysis, which is both a form of treatment and a very comprehensive personality theory. According to Freud's theory, ... [Show More] inborn drives (mainly sexual) help form the personality. ________ and ________, who originally worked with Freud, created individual psychology and analytic psychology, respectively. a. Carl Jung; Alfred Adler b. Alfred Adler; Carl Jung c. Josef Breuer; A. A. Brill d. Alfred Adler; Rollo May - Answer- b. Alfred Adler; Carl Jung Eric Berne's transactional analysis (TA) posits three ego states: the Child, the Adult, and the Parent. These roughly correspond to Freud's structural theory that includes a. oral, anal, and phallic. b. unconscious, preconscious, and conscious. c. a and b. d. id, ego, and superego. - Answer- d. id, ego, and superego. In transactional analysis (TA), the ________ is the conscience, or ego state concerned with moral behavior, while in Freudian theory it is the ________. a. Adult, unconscious b. Parent, ego c. Parent, superego d. Parent, id - Answer- c. Parent, superego Freud felt that successful resolution of the Oedipus complex led to the development of the superego. This is accomplished by a. identification with the aggressor, the parent of the same sex. b. analysis during the childhood years. c. identification with the parent of the opposite sex, the aggressor. d. transference. - Answer- a. identification with the aggressor, the parent of the same sex. Freudians refer to the ego as: a. the executive administrator of the personality and the reality principle. b. the guardian angel of the mind. c. the pleasure principle. d. the seat of libido. - Answer- a. the executive administrator of the personality and the reality principle. Freud's theory speaks of Eros and Thanatos. A client who threatens a self-destructive act is being ruled primarily by a. Eros. b. Eros and the id. c. Thanatos. d. both Eros and Thanatos. - Answer- c. Thanatos. The id is present at birth and never matures. It operates mainly out of awareness to satisfy instinctual needs according to the: a. reality principle. b. notion of transference. c. Eros principle. d. pleasure principle, suggesting humans desire instinct gratification such for libido, sex, or the elimination of hunger or thirst. - Answer- d. pleasure principle, suggesting humans desire instinct gratification such for libido, sex, or the elimination of hunger or thirst. If you think of the mind as a seesaw, then the fulcrum or balancing apparatus would be the: a. id, which has no concept of rationality or time. b. ego. c. superego, which judges behavior as right or wrong. d. BASIC-ID. - Answer- b. ego. A therapist who says to a patient "Say whatever comes to mind" is practicing: a. directive counseling. b. transactional analysis. c. paraphrasing. d. free association - Answer- d. free association The superego contains the ego ideal. The superego strives for ________, rather than ________ like the id. a. perfection; pleasure b. pleasure; perfection c. morals; ethics d. logic; reality - Answer- a. perfection; pleasure ll of these theorists could be associated with the analytic movement except: a. Freud. b. Jung. c. Adler. d. Wolpe. - Answer- d. Wolpe. Most scholars would assert that Freud's 1900 work entitled The Interpretation of Dreams was his most influential. Dreams have a. manifest and latent content. b. preconscious and unconscious factors. c. id and ego. d. superego and id. - Answer- a. manifest and latent content. When a client projects unconscious feelings toward the therapist that he or she originally had toward a significant other, it is called a. free association. b. insight. c. transference. d. resistance. - Answer- c. transference. Which case is not associated with the psychodynamic movement? a. Little Hans. b. Little Albert. c. Anna O. d. Daniel Paul Schreber. - Answer- b. Little Albert. In contrast with classical psychoanalysis, psychodynamic counseling or therapy: a. utilizes fewer sessions per week. b. does not utilize the couch. c. is performed face to face. d. all of the above. - Answer- d. all of the above. Talking about difficulties in order to purge emotions and feelings is a curative process known as: a. catharsis and/or abreaction. b. resistance. c. accurate empathy. d. reflection of emotional content. - Answer- a. catharsis and/or abreaction. Id, ego, superego is to structural theory as ________ is to topographical theory. a. Child, Adult, Parent b. abreaction, catharsis, introspection c. ego ideal d. unconscious, preconscious, conscious - Answer- d. unconscious, preconscious, conscious The most controversial aspect of Freud's theory is a. catharsis. b. the Oedipus complex. c. the notion of the preconscious mind. d. the interpretation of dreams. - Answer- b. the Oedipus complex. Evidence for the unconscious mind comes from all of these except: a. Hypnosis. b. Slips of the tongue and humor. c. Dreams. d. Subjective units of distress scale. - Answer- d. Subjective units of distress scale. In a counseling session, a counselor asked a patient to recall what transpired three months ago to trigger her depression. There was silence for about two and one-half minutes. The client then began to remember. This exchange most likely illustrates the function of the a. preconscious mind. b. ego ideal. c. conscious mind. d. unconscious mind. - Answer- a. preconscious mind. Unconscious processes, which serve to minimize anxiety and protect the self from severe id or superego demands, are called a. slips of the tongue. b. ego defense mechanisms. c. id defense processes. d. latent dream material. - Answer- b. ego defense mechanisms. Most therapists agree that ego defense mechanisms are unconscious and deny or distort reality. Rationalization, compensation, repression, projection, reaction formation, identification, introjection, denial, and displacement are ego defense mechanisms. According to Freudians, the most important defense mechanism is: a. repression. b. reaction formation c. denial. d. sublimation - Answer- a. repression. Suppression differs from repression in that: a. suppression is stronger. b. repression only occurs in children. c. repression is automatic or involuntary. d. all of the above. - Answer- c. repression is automatic or involuntary. An aggressive person who becomes a professional boxer because he or she is sadistic is displaying: a. suppression. b. rationalization. c. sublimation. d. displacement. - Answer- c. sublimation. An advertising agency secretly imbeds the word SEX into newspaper ads intended to advertise the center's chemical dependency program. This is the practice of: a. sublimation. b. repression. c. introjection. d. none of the above. - Answer- d. none of the above. A man receives a nickel an hour pay raise. He was expecting a 1 dollar per hour raise. He is furious but nonassertive. He thus smiles and thanks his boss. That night he yells at his wife for no apparent reason. This is an example of: a. displacement. b. denial. c. identification. d. a Type II error. - Answer- a. displacement. A student tells a college counselor that he is not upset by a grade of "F" in physical education that marred his fourth-year perfect 4.0 average, inasmuch as "straight A students are eggheads." This demonstrates: a. introjection. b. reaction formation. c. sour grapes rationalization. d. sweet lemon rationalization. - Answer- c. sour grapes rationalization. A master's level counselor lands an entry-level counseling job in an agency in a warm climate. Her office is not air conditioned, but the counselor insists she likes this because sweating really helps to keep her weight in check. This illuminates: a. sour grapes rationalization. b. sweet lemon rationalization. c. repression. d. sublimation. - Answer- b. sweet lemon rationalization. A teenager who had his heart set on winning a tennis match broke his arm in an auto accident. He sends in an entry form to play in the competition which begins just days after the accident. His behavior is influenced by: a. denial. b. displacement of anger. c. sublimation. d. organ inferiority. - Answer- a. denial. ________ is like looking in a mirror but thinking you are looking out a window. a. Repression b. Sour grapes rationalization c. Projection d. Denial - Answer- c. Projection Mark is obsessed with stamping out pornography. He is unconsciously involved in this cause so that he can view the material. This is: a. reaction formation. b. introjection. c. projection. d. rationalization. - Answer- a. reaction formation. Ted has always felt inferior intellectually. He currently works out at the gym at least four hours daily and is taking massive doses of dangerous steroids to build his muscles. The ego defense mechanism in action here is: a. reaction formation. b. compensation. c. projection. d. rationalization. - Answer- b. compensation. Jane feels very inferior. She is now president of the board at a shelter for the homeless. She seems to be obsessed with her work for the agency and spends every spare minute trying to help the cause. When asked to introduce herself in virtually any social situation, Jane invariably responds with, "I'm the president of the board for the homeless shelter." Jane is engaging in: a. projection. b. displacement. c. introjection. d. identification. - Answer- d. identification. A client who has incorporated his father's values into his thought patterns is a product of: a. introjection. b. repression. c. rationalization. d. displacement. - Answer- a. introjection. The client's tendency to inhibit or fight against the therapeutic process is known as: a. resistance. b. sublimation. c. projection. d. individuation. - Answer- a. resistance. Freud has been called the most significant theorist in the entire history of psychology. His greatest contribution was his conceptualization of the unconscious mind. Critics, however, contend that: a. he was too concerned with the totem and the taboo. b. he failed to emphasize sex. c. many aspects of his theory are difficult to test from a scientific standpoint. d. he was pro female. - Answer- c. many aspects of his theory are difficult to test from a scientific standpoint. The purpose of interpretation in counseling is to: a. help the therapist appear genuine. b. make the clients aware of their unconscious processes. c. make clients aware of nonverbal behaviors. d. help clients understand feelings and behaviors related to childhood. - Answer- b. make the clients aware of their unconscious processes. Organ inferiority relates mainly to the work of: a. C. G. Jung's analytical psychology. b. Alfred Adler's individual psychology. c. Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory. d. Josef Breuer's work on hysteria. - Answer- b. Alfred Adler's individual psychology. When a client becomes aware of a factor in his or her life that was heretofore unknown, counselors refer to it as a. individual psychology. b. confrontation. c. transference neurosis. d. insight. - Answer- d. insight. C. G. Jung, the founder of analytic psychology, said men operate on logic or the ________ principle, while women are intuitive, operating on the ________ principle. a. Eros; Thanatos b. Logos; Eros c. reality; pleasure d. transference; countertransference - Answer- b. Logos; Eros Jung used drawings balanced around a center point to analyze himself, his clients, and dreams. He called them a. mandalas. b. projective drawings. c. unconscious automatic writing. d. eidetic imagery. - Answer- a. mandalas. ________ emphasized the drive for superiority. [Show Less]
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CPCE Study Guide 7 latest updated
The most valuable type of research is - Answer- the experiment, used to discover cause-and-effect relationships Experiments emphasize parsimony, which m... [Show More] eans - Answer- interpreting the results in the simplest way. Parsimonious literally means a tendency to be miserly and not overspend. Occam's Razor suggests that experimenters - Answer- interpret the results in the simplest manner. Exams often refer to parsimony as Occam's Razor, the principle of economy, or Lloyd Morgan's 1894 Canon (canon in this sense means "law" A counselor educator is running an experiment to test a new form of counseling. Unbeknownst to the experimenter one of the clients in the study is secretly seeing a gestalt therapist. This experiment - Answer- is confounded/flawed. Nondirective is to person-centered as - Answer- parsimony is to Occam's Razor An experiment is said to be confounded when - Answer- undesirable variables are not kept out of the experiment. Your exam could refer to this as a contaminating variable. In experimental terminology IV stands for _______ and DV stands for _______. - Answer- independent variable; dependent variable. A professor of counselor education hypothesized that biofeed- back training could reduce anxiety and improve the average score on written board exams. If this professor decides to con- duct a formal experiment the IV will be the _______, and the DV will be the _______. - Answer- biofeedback; board exam score Okay, time to plug in your memory devices. "I manipulate...or I experiment with, well, the biofeedback training, of course." The "I" statement here gives you your "IV." For your "DV" (remember DV begins with a "D" like "data") your data is provided by the board exam score. Experimenters should always abide by a code of ethics. The vari- able you manipulate/control in an experiment is the - Answer- IV or independent variable. "I am the researcher so I manipu- late or experiment with the IV." In order for the professor of counselor education (see question 708) to conduct an experiment regarding his hypothesis he will need a(n) _______ and a(n) _______. - Answer- control group; experimental group. The control group does not receive the IV. The experimental group receives the IV. In order for the professor of counselor education to conduct the experiment suggested in question 708 the experimental group would need to receive - Answer- The biofeedback training (manipulated IV) An organismic variable is one the re- searcher cannot control yet exists such as height, weight, or gen- der. Hypothesis testing is most closely related to the work of - Answer- R. A. Fisher. A hypothesis is a statement which can be tested regarding the relationship of the IV and the DV. The null hypothesis suggests that there will not be a significant difference between the experimental group which received the IV and the control group which did not. Thus, if the experiment in question 708 was conducted, the null hypothesis would sug- gest that - Answer- biofeedback will not improve the board exam scores. The null hypothesis is simply that the IV does not affect the DV. Null means "nil" or "nothing." Null is a statement of "no difference." The hunch is known as the experimental or alternative hypoth- esis. The experimental hypothesis suggests that a difference will be evident between the control group and the experimental group (i.e., the group receiving the IV). Thus, if the experiment in question 708 were conducted, the experimental hypothesis would suggest that - Answer- the biofeedback would raise board scores. From a purely statistical standpoint, in order to compare a con- trol group (which does not receive the IV or experimental ma- nipulation) to the experimental group the researcher will need - Answer- a test of significance. Correlation coefficient - Answer- a statistical index of the relationship between two things (from -1 to +1) When you see the letter P in relation to a test of significance it means - Answer- Probability In the social sciences the accepted probability level is usually - Answer- .05 or less .05 and .01 are the two most popular levels of significance. P = .05 really means that - Answer- there is only a 5% chance that the difference between the control group and the experimental groups is due to chance factors. P = .05 really means that - Answer- differences truly exist; the experimenter will obtain the same results 95 out of 100 times. The study that would best rule out chance factors would have a significance level of P = - Answer- .001 Here, the .001 level is the most stringent level listed, indicating that there is only one chance in 1,000 that the results are due to chance, versus one in 20 for .05, and one in 100 for .01. Type I and Type II errors are called _______ and _______ respectively. - Answer- alpha and beta Type I (alpha error) occurs when a researcher rejects the null hypothesis when it is true Type II error (beta error) occurs when you accept null when it is false. A Type I error occurs when - Answer- you reject null when it is true. A Type II error - Answer- is also called a beta error and means you accept null when it is false Although lowering the significance level (e.g., .01 to .001) lowers Type I errors, it "raises" the risk of committing a Type II or beta error. Simply think of the Type I/Type II relationship as a seesaw in the sense that when one goes up the other goes down. A counselor educator decides to increase the sample size in her experiment. This will - Answer- reduce Type I and Type II errors. Raising the size of a sample helps to lower the risk of chance/er- ror factors. Simply put: differences revealed via large samples are more likely to be genuine than differences revealed using a small sample size. If a researcher changes the significance level from .05 to.001, then - Answer- alpha errors decrease; however, beta errors increase. A counselor believes that clients who receive assertiveness train- ing will ask more questions in counseling classes. An experimen- tal group receives assertiveness training while a control group does not. In order to test for significant differences between the groups the counselor should utilize - Answer- the student's t test. When comparing two sample groups the t test, which is a sim- plistic form of the analysis of variance, is utilized. The t test is used to ascertain whether two sample means are significantly different. The researcher sets the level of significance and then runs the experiment. The t test is computed and this yields a t value. The researcher then goes to a t table found in the index of most statistics' texts. If the t value obtained statistically is lower than the t value (sometimes called "critical t") in the table, then you accept the null hypothesis. Your computation must ex- ceed the number cited in the table in order to reject null. When is analysis of variance used? - Answer- if there are more than two groups The results of an ANOVA yield an F- statistic. The researcher then consults an F table for a critical value of F. If F obtained (i.e., computed) exceeds the critical F value in the table, then the null hypothesis is rejected the analysis of covariance or ANCOVA - Answer- tests 2 or more groups while controlling for extraneous variables that are often called "covariates" the Kruskal-Wallis - Answer- used instead of the ANOVA when data is nonparametric the Wilcoxon signed rank test - Answer- A nonparametric statistical test used to compare two paired (dependent) samples where the outcome of interest is ordinal or continuous with a skewed distribution. the Mann-Whitney U-Test - Answer- determines whether 2 uncorrelated means differe significantly when data are nonparmetric (memory: the 'u' reminds you of 'uncorrelated') the Spearman correlation or Kendall's tau - Answer- which is used in place of the Pearson r when parametric assumptions cannot be uti- lized; the Chi-Square nonparametric test - Answer- examines whether obtained frequencies differ significantly from expected frequencies The researcher in question 727 now attempts a more complex experiment. One group receives no assertiveness training, a sec- ond group receives four assertiveness training sessions, and a third receives six sessions. The statistic of choice would - Answer- be the ANOVA the simple ANOVA or one-way analysis of variance is used when there is more than one level of a single IV, which in this case is the assertiveness training. If the researcher in the previous question utilized two IVs then the statistic of choice would be - Answer- the two-way ANOVA or MANOVA. To complete a t test you would consult a tabled value of t. In order to see if significant differences exist in an ANOVA you would - Answer- consult a table for F values. Which level of significance would best rule out chance factors? .05 .01 .2 .001 - Answer- .001 When a researcher uses correlation, then there is no direct ma- nipulation of the IV. A researcher might ask, for example, how IQ correlates with the incidence of panic disorder. Again, noth- ing is manipulated; just measured. In cases such as this a correla- tion coefficient will reveal - Answer- the relationship between IQ and panic disorder. A positive correlation is not a stronger relationship than a negative one of the same numerical value. A correlation of −.70 is still indicative of a stronger relationship than a positive correlation of .60. The minus sign merely describes the fact that as one variable goes up the other goes down If data indicate that students who study a lot get very high scores on state counselor licensing exams, then the correlation between study time and LPC exam scores would be - Answer- positive A positive correlation is evident when both variables change in the same direction. A negative correlation is evident when the variables are inversely associated; one goes up and the other goes down. Which of the following would most likely yield a perfect correla- tion of 1.00? - Answer- length in inches and length in centimeters. Correlation is concerned with what stat- isticians call "covariation." When two variables vary together statisticians say the variables "covary positively," and when one increases while the other A good guess would be that if you would correlate the length of CACREP graduates' baby toes with their NCE scores the result would - Answer- be close to 0.00. There is an absence of association here because as one variable changes the other variable varies randomly. The variation of one variable is most likely totally unrelated to the variation of the other Dr. X discovered that the correlation between therapists who hold NCC status and therapists who practice systematic desen- sitization is .90. A student who perused Dr. X's research told his fellow students that Dr. X had discovered that attaining NCC status causes therapists to become behaviorally oriented. The student is incorrect because - Answer- correlation does not imply causal. Correlation does not mean causal! Correlational research is qua- si-experimental, and hence, it does not yield cause-effect data. A major research study, for example, might discover a very high correlation between the number of college students in a given geographical area and number of writing utensils owned. Yet it would certainly be misleading to conclude that owning a lot of writing utensils causes one to become a college student. Bivariate vs multivariate - Answer- When correlational data describe the nature of two vari- ables, the term bivariate is utilized. If more than two variables are under scrutiny, then the term multivariate is used to describe the correlational paradigm. Behaviorists often utilize N=1, which is called intensive experi- mental design. The first step in this approach would be to - Answer- take a baseline measure. In a new study the clients do not know whether they are receiv- ing an experimental treatment for depression or whether they are simply part of the control group. This is, nevertheless, known to the researcher. Thus, this is a - Answer- single-blind study A large study at a major university gave an experimental group of clients a new type of therapy that was intended to ameliorate test anxiety. The control group did not receive the new therapy. Neither the clients nor the researchers knew which students re- ceived the new treatment. This was a - Answer- double-blind study Experimenter effects can flaw an experiment because the experimenter might un- consciously communicate his or her intent or expectations to the subjects. Typical AB design - Answer- An AB or ABA time-series design is the simplest type of single-subject research and was initially popular- ized by behavior modifiers in the 1960s and 1970s Experimental is to cause and effect as correlational is to - Answer- degree of relationship A correlation coefficient is a descriptive statistic which indicates the degree of "linear relationship" between two variables. Statis- ticians use [Show Less]
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Counselor Preparation Comprehensive Examination Questions and Answers 2023
HIPAA - Answer- Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Passed in 1996 Patients have control over who is able to access and view their health... [Show More] records IDEA - Answer- Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act A civil rights law guaranteeing that students with disabilities receive the services they need FERPA - Answer- Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act Created in 1974 Also known as the Buckley Amendment Specifies rights to parents and nonminor students for access to educational records NVGA - Answer- The National Vocational Guidance Association was founded in 1913 as the first emergence of counseling (vocational counseling) It is now the National Career Development Association (NCDA) Minnesota Point of View - Answer- Created by E. G. Williamson, considered the one of the first counseling theories Trait and factor theory American Personnel and Guidance Association (APGA) - Answer- Created in 1952 under the NVGA (now NCDA) to gain a voice in counseling, it is now the American Counseling Association (ACA) ASCA - Answer- The American School Counselor Association is formed as a division under the APGA in 1952 NDEA - Answer- National Defense Education Act Passed by Congress in 1958 to increase funds in schools to improve curriculum and hire counselors who could identify students excelling in math and science ARCA - Answer- American Rehabilitation Counseling Assocation created in 1958 First code of ethics - Answer- Created by the APGA in 1961 Community Mental Health Act - Answer- Signed in 1963 by President Johnson which allots money for the creation of mental health centers AARC - Answer- Association for Assessment and Research in Counseling, formerly the Association for Measurement and Evaluation in Guidance (AMEG), was founded in 1965 NECA - Answer- The National Employment Counseling Association began in 1966 AMCD - Answer- The Association for Multicultural Counseling and Development (AMCD) is founded in 1972 ASGW - Answer- The Association for Specialists in Group Work is founded in 1973 ASERVIC - Answer- The Association for Spiritual, Ethical, and Religious Values in Counseling is founded in 1974 IAAOC - Answer- The International Association of Addictions and Offender Counselors is founded in 1974 Donaldson vs. O'Connor - Answer- 1975 - Supreme Court case that ended in the decision to deinstitutionalize patients in state mental hospitals; barred mental institutions from committing patients involuntarily if they were not a threat to themselves or others First state to offer licensure - Answer- Virginia - 1976 AMCHA - Answer- The American Mental Health Counselors Association is created in 1978 CACREP - Answer- The Council for Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs is established in 1981 NBCC - Answer- The National Board for Certified Counselors starts in 1982 They created the first national examination -- the National Counselor Exam (NCE) ACEG - Answer- The Association for Counselors and Educators in Government is created in 1984 AADA - Answer- The Association for Adult Development and Aging is started in 1986 IAMFC - Answer- International Association of Marriage and Family Counselors began in 1989 ACCA - Answer- The American College Counseling Association began in 1991 ACA - Answer- American Counseling Association Originally the APGA, then the AACD (American Association of Counseling and Development; 1983), then in 1995 is changed to ACA ALGBTIC - Answer- The Association for Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender Issues in Counseling (name change in 2007) Formerly the Association for Gay, Lesbian, and Bisexual Issues in Counseling (AGLBIC) founded in 1997 ACC - Answer- The Association for Creativity in Counseling is established in 2004 Most recent ethics code - Answer- Created in 2005 Has new sections regarding technology, end-of-life care, diagnosing, ending practice, and therapeutic interventions Final state to offer licensure - Answer- California -- 2009 U.S. Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Section 504) - Answer- A civil rights act that protects individuals with disabilities from being discriminated against or denied equal access to services and opportunities because of their disability. CAPTA - Answer- Child Abuse Prevention Act Defines child abuse and neglect as "Any recent act or failure to act on the part of a parent or caretaker which results in death, serious physical or emotional harm, sexual abuse or exploitation; or an act or failure to act which presents an imminent risk of serious harm" CRCC - Answer- Commission on Rehabilitation Counselor Certification is a nonprofit founded in 1974 to certify rehabilitation counselors AHC - Answer- The Association for Humanistic Counseling Formed in 1931 "the heart and conscience of the counseling profession" Ethical Principles - Answer- Autonomy Nonmaleficence Beneficence Justice Fidelity Eight Sections of ACA Code of Ethics - Answer- A. The Counseling Relationship B. Confidentiality, Privileged Communication, and Privacy C. Professional Responsibility D. Relationships with Other Professionals E. Evaluation, Assessment, and Interpretation F. Supervision, Training, and Teaching G. Research and Publication H. Resolving Ethical Issues Liability - Answer- the legal responsibility of the counselor to act with due care in professional practice Tort - Answer- a legal response to harm against an individual person or property Unintentional Tort Intentional Tort Negligence - Answer- when counselors fail to use reasonable care in carrying out their professional duties, resulting in injury to the client (can be sued for this) Malpractice - Answer- when the counselor fails to provide the standard of care expected of them based on credentials, skills and experience (considered professional negligence -- certain professions can be sued) Defamation - Answer- When a counselor ruins someone's reputations through the intentional spreading of falsehoods 1. Libel (written) 2. Slander (spoken) Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California - Answer- 1974, a case in California that led to Duty to Warn laws (differs among every state) Counselors could legally be held responsible for failing to take adequate steps to warn third parties about clients who are a serious threat to them Privileged Communication - Answer- legal term that protects certain counselor-client communication in the court systems Subpoena - Answer- legal document that orders a person to appear in court to serve as a witness or to provide the court with certain documents Emergence of counseling profession - Answer- Began in the late 1800s in the form of vocational guidance Four aspects examined in malpractice or negligence cases - Answer- legal duty between plaintiff and defendant; breach of legal duty by the defendant; injury caused to the plaintiff; and causal connection between the defendant's breach of duty and the plaintiff's injury Psychodynamic - Answer- these theories focus on the unconscious processes rather than cognitive factors when counseling clients Jay Hayley - Answer- known for work in strategic and problem solving therapy; known for technique called paradox Robert Perry - Answer- Known for his ideas related to adult cognitive development; especially regarding college students; stresses concept of dualistic thinking (early college students) Arnold Lazarus - Answer- Pioneer in behavior therapy movement, especially in systematic desensitization. Associated with multimodal therapy. Cultural Encapsulation - Answer- When a counselor imposes goals from his or her culture on people from another culture therefore failing to understand the client's worldview or cultural identity Cultural identity - Answer- the degree to which you identify belonging to subgroups of various cultural groups or categories When did cultural competency begin to be discussed in the counseling field? - Answer- 1960s -- "The Culturally Encapsulated Counselor", written by C. Gilbert Wrenn in 1962 is published The Cross Nigrescence Model - Answer- The first racial identity model created by William Cross, Jr. in the 1970s Fourth force of counseling - Answer- Multiculturalism -- labeled by Paul Pedersen in 1991 Fifth force of counseling - Answer- Social Advocacy -- labeled in 2004 by Manivong Ratts and colleagues Surgeon General's Report 2001 - Answer- "Mental Health: Culture, Race and Ethinicity -- A Supplement to Mental Healthy: A Report of the Surgeon General" is published showing research regarding how race, ethnicity and the subsequent oppression and resiliency influences mental health outcomes Multicultural Competencies - Answer- 31 competencies were created by Sue and colleagues (originally 1982, then updated 1992) to introduce counselors to more effective ways to serve clients of color, and is now applied with gender, spirituality, sexual orientations, and SES identities Tripartite Model of Multicultural Counseling - Answer- three components: awareness, knowledge, skill Etic vs. Emic Perspective - Answer- Two perspectives that are considered a continuum Etic -- viewing clients from a universal perspective Emic -- using client's approaches that are specific to a client's culture Types of Nonverbal Communication - Answer- High-Context Low-Context Paralanguage Kinesis Chronemics Proxemics High-Context Communication - Answer- individuals relaying messages by relying heavily on surroundings; nonverbal cues create social harmony Low-Context Communication - Answer- individuals communicating primarily verbally to express thoughts and feelings Paralanguage - Answer- Verbal cues other than words Kinesis - Answer- Postures, body movements, and positions Chronemics - Answer- how individuals conceptualize and act toward time Proxemics - Answer- the use of personal physical distance (intimate, personal, social, and public) Acculturation - Answer- process which an individual makes sense of a host culture's value system in relation to his or her own Four Models of Acculturation - Answer- Paniagua (2005) 1. Assimilation Model - identifying solely with new culture 2. Separation Model - refuse to adapt to any culture than their own 3. Integration Model - identifying with both 4. Marginalization Model -rejecting both cultures Locus of responsibility - Answer- what system is accountable for things that happen to individuals (one way individuals guide their behaviors) Locus of control - Answer- the degree of control individuals perceive they have over their environment (EC, external, & IC, internal) First Worldview Model - Answer- Created by Sue 1978 Said individuals guide their behavior based on the intersecting dimensions of locus of responsibility and locus of control Second World Model - Answer- Created by Kluckhohn and Strodtbeck (1961) Contains 5 components that integrate in various cultures to create unique cultural worldviews 5 Components of Second Worldview Model - Answer- Human nature Relationship to nature Sense of time Activity Social Relationships U.S. Census Bureau Racial Classification - Answer- White, Black or African American, Asian, American Indian or Alaskan Native, and Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander; census recognizes 165 racial combinations Colorism - Answer- refers to the judgement of worth based on how closely an individual's skin color approximates that of Whites Eugenics Movement - Answer- A method to monitor a person's inborn characteristics and an attempt to keep the Caucasian race "pure" by directing who could marry and reproduce. Ethnocentrism - Answer- Defining a cultural group's belief that it is superior in comparison to all other cultures Two delineations of Poverty - Answer- Generational Poverty Situational Poverty Types of Classism - Answer- Modern Classism Structural Classism Internalized Classism Gender Schema Theory - Answer- Interprets the "why" behind an individual's placement of genders into certain categories (Sandra Bem) Chaney & Marszalek (2014) Four Components of Sexual Identity - Answer- Physical Identity Gender Identity Social Sex Role Identity Sexual Orientation Identity Affectional Orientation - Answer- describes sexual minorities because it broadens discussion beyond simple sexual attraction on a physical level Homophobia vs. Homoprejudice - Answer- Phobia deals with the fear and hatred of sexual minorities whereas prejudice comes from the discrimination sexual minorities experience Seven majors types of religion - Answer- Buddhism Christianity Confucianism Hinduism Islam Judaism Taoism Spiritual Bypass - Answer- the avoidance of problematic issues by a person "misusing their spiritual beliefs, practices, or experiences rather than address the struggle at the level at which it occurs" Three laws in U.S. to defend and protect citizens with disabilities against discrimination - Answer- 1973 Rehabilitation Act 1990 Americans with Disabilities Act 2004 Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement act Four foci of Social Justice - Answer- Equity Access Participation Harmony Three levels of oppression - Answer- Primary: Obvious acts by both force and deprivation Secondary: Oppressive acts in which individuals do not get directly involved but from which they may benefit Tertiary: Minority group members adopting the majority opinion so they fit in Prejudice - Answer- preconceived opinion that is not based on reason or actual experience Five stages of prejudice - Answer- Antilocution Avoidance Discrimination Physical Attack Extermination Cross Nigrescence Model - Answer- African Americans are described as progressing through several stages of cultural awareness. Five stages: -Pre-encounter which is when African Americans tend to view the majority Caucasian culture as more desirable -Encounter - a specific experience the Black individual to begin to notice and question his or her racia lidentity -Immersian-Emersian stage-dis [Show Less]
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CPCE EXAM: Professional Orientation and Ethics Questions and Answers
Which group has been most instrumental in opposing counselor licensure? a. Social workers. b. Psychiatrists. c. Psychologists. d. AAMFT members. - Answ... [Show More] er- c. Psychologists. In the late 1970s, AACD ( known as ACA since 1992) began to focus very heavily on professional credentialing. This led to the formation of the a. CCMHC. b. NBCC. c. CACREP, formed in 1981. d. APGA, formed in 1952. - Answer- b. NBCC. By passing the NCE, a counselor can attain _______, given via NBCC. a. NCC, a generic certification for counselors. b. NCC, a specialty mental health certification for counselors. c. NCC, national certification for school counselors. d. MAC, master addictions counselor. - Answer- a. NCC, a generic certification for counselors. Which choice would most likely violate the counseling ethic or law termed "scope of practice"? a. A counselor who is using good accurate empathy with a client, but fails to confront her about her excessive drinking. b. A licensed counselor who gives the client a DSM diagnostic code for insurance. c. A counselor who is too active-directive with a client. d. A counselor who is conducting a strict Freudian psychoanalysis with the client. - Answer- d. A counselor who is conducting a strict Freudian psychoanalysis with the client. Ethical guidelines were first created for the helping professions in 1953 when the American Psychological Association (APA) published their first code of ethics. The National Association of Social Workers (NASW) created their code in 1960, and in 1961, the organization that is now ACA adopted ethics for counselors. Ethics always describe a. laws. b. universal principles which apply to all helpers. c. standards of conduct imposed by ACA and NBCC. d. all of the above. - Answer- c. standards of conduct imposed by ACA and NBCC. Most ethical dilemmas are related to a. confidentiality. b. testing. c. diagnosis. d. research. - Answer- a. confidentiality. The landmark 1969 case, Tarasoff versus the Board of Regents of the University of California illuminated difficulties involved in a. client/counselor sexual behavior. b. ethical issues in relation to research. c. the duty to warn a client in imminent danger. d. the impact of an impaired professional. - Answer- c. the duty to warn a client in imminent danger. A counselor reveals information that is extremely damaging to a client's reputation. This counselor could be accused of a. beneficence. b. justice. c. nonmaleficence d. defamation - Answer- d. defamation state laws can govern title usage and practice, however, they do not govern a. accreditation. b. counselor licensure. c. psychologist licensure. d. involuntary commitment to state psychiatric facilities. - Answer- a. accreditation. An exception to confidentiality could occur when a client is suicidal. Suicidal warning signs include a. repeatedly joking about killing one's self. b. giving away prized possessions after one has been depressed for an extended period of time. c. a previous suicide attempt and a very detailed suicide plan for the future. d. all of the above. - Answer- d. all of the above. A statement of disclosure could include all except a. a list of the courses the counselor took in graduate school. b. the counselor's qualifications, office hours, and billing policies. c. emergency procedures and therapy techniques utilized. d. a statement that confidentiality is desirable, but cannot be guaranteed in a group setting. - Answer- a. a list of the courses the counselor took in graduate school. Privileged communication refers to the fact that anything said to a counselor by a client a. can be revealed in a court of law if the counselor decides it is beneficial. b. can be revealed only if a counselor testifies in court. c. is protected by laws in every state. d. will not be divulged outside the counseling setting without the client's permission. - Answer- d. will not be divulged outside the counseling setting without the client's permission. In regard to state law and privileged communication, counselors must be aware that a. privileged communication exists in every state in the union for LPCs. b. laws are unclear and may vary from state to state. c. there are no laws which govern this issue. d. state psychology laws are applicable in this respect. - Answer- b. laws are unclear and may vary from state to state. When counselors state that privileged communication is "qualified," they actually mean that a. the counselor must have certification before privileged communication applies. b. privileged communication applies only to doctoral level counselors. c. exceptions may exist. d. all of the above. - Answer- c. exceptions may exist. You are a counselor in a state that does not legally support privileged communication. You refuse to testify in court. In this situation a. ACA will back you for doing the ethical thing. b. NBCC will back you if and only if you have attained NCC status. c. you need not testify if your case was supervised by a li- censed psychologist and/or psychiatrist. d. you could be held in contempt of court. - Answer- d. you could be held in contempt of court. An 11-year-old child comes to your office with a black eye and tells you she can't remember how she received it. You have reason to suspect abuse. You should a. be empathic and discuss her feelings regarding the matter. b. drop the matter as it could embarrass her. c. refer her to a medical doctor of your choice. d. call the child abuse/neglect hotline. - Answer- d. call the child abuse/neglect hotline. During a counseling session a 42-year-old male client threatens suicide. You should a. keep it a secret as the client is not a minor. b. call the state child abuse/neglect hotline even though he is an adult. c. call his wife and mention that a serious problem exists but be very careful not to discuss the issue of suicide since to do so would violate the client's confidentiality. d. contact his wife and advise her of possible suicide precautions. - Answer- d. contact his wife and advise her of possible suicide precautions. A 39-year-old female secretary you are seeing in your assertive- ness training group reveals that she is plotting to shoot her husband. Based on the Tarasoff case you should a. warn the husband. b. keep it confidential because an assertiveness training group is decidedly not the same as one-to-one counseling. c. make a police report in the city in which the husband resides. d. tell a supervisor, administrator, or board member if one exists, but do not contact her husband. - Answer- a. warn the husband. You pass your exam and now have NCC status. During a staff meeting a clinical director explains to you that, from an ethical standpoint, your primary duty is to the agency. Most experts in the field of counselor education would a. agree with this position with very few reservations. b. disagree inasmuch as professional ethics emphasize that your primary responsibility is to your clients. c. disagree inasmuch as professional ethics emphasize that your primary responsibility is to the ACA. d. say that, according to "aspirational ethics," your agency comes first. - Answer- b. disagree inasmuch as professional ethics emphasize that your primary responsibility is to your clients. One impetus for counselor licensing was that a. ACSW wanted to restrict counselors. b. politicians demanded that counselors be licensed. c. psychology licensure bodies sought to restrict the practice of counselors so counselors could not receive third party payments from insurance and managed care companies. d. insurance companies pushed strongly for it. - Answer- c. psychology licensure bodies sought to restrict the practice of counselors so counselors could not receive third party payments from insurance and managed care companies. A counselor who possesses a graduate degree wishes to become a licensed psychologist. Which statement most accurately depicts the current situation? a. Any counselor can easily become a psychologist if he or she can pass the EPPP. b. A counselor can become a licensed psychologist by taking three graduate credit hours in physiological psychology and then passing the EPPP. c. In nearly every case individuals trained in counseling departments would not be allowed to sit for the EPPP and thus could not become licensed psychologists. d. A counselor with a doctorate in counseling could be li- censed as a counseling psychologist if he or she has a degree from a recognized department of counseling. - Answer- c. In nearly every case individuals trained in counseling departments would not be allowed to sit for the EPPP and thus could not become licensed psychologists. A woman who is in private practice mentions in her phone book advertisement that she is a licensed counseling psychologist. This generally means that a. she has a doctorate from a counselor education program. b. she has a graduate degree from a psychology department. c. she has a degree from a CACREP program. d. she has a degree in counseling but is trained in projective testing. - Answer- b. she has a graduate degree from a psychology department. One major difference between the psychology versus the counseling movement seems to be that a. the psychologists are working to eliminate practitioners with less than a doctorate, while the counselors are not. b. counselors are working to give up tests for licensure. c. psychology boards are made up primarily of psychiatrists. d. in most states psychologists do not need to take an exam. - Answer- a. the psychologists are working to eliminate practitioners with less than a doctorate, while the counselors are not. APA is to psychologist as ACA is to a. APGA .b. certified clinical mental health counselor. c. counselor. d. NCC. - Answer- c. counselor. You have achieved the status of NCC. NBCC, nevertheless, feels you have violated professional ethics. NBCC can do any of the following except a. revoke your state counseling license. b. remove your name from the list of NCCs in the U.S. c. revoke your NCC status. d. note in their newsletter that your NCC status has been revoked. - Answer- a. revoke your state counseling license. A counselor who is alcoholic and suffering from burnout could best be described as a. a mesomorph. b. an impaired professional. c. a paraprofessional. d. a counselor who is wise enough to use his own experiences to help others. - Answer- b. an impaired professional. Counselor certification a. is synonymous with licensure. b. is synonymous with program certification. c. recognizes that you have reached a given level of competence and thus are authorized to use a title. d. is primarily a legal process. - Answer- c. recognizes that you have reached a given level of competence and thus are authorized to use a title. A woman comes to you for help with an eating disorder. You have no experience or training in this area. Ethically you should a. refer this client to a colleague who is indeed trained and experienced with this type of client. b. keep the client and work on her general lack of self-es- teem. c. tell the client you will do a comprehensive Internet search on the topic and then begin seeing her. d. explain to the client that a symptom such as eating or not eating is not the real problem and that counseling focuses on real underlying issues. - Answer- a. refer this client to a colleague who is indeed trained and experienced with this type of client. Virginia was the first state to license counselors in 1976. The APGA (later AACD and now ACA) division that was initially the most instrumental in pushing for licensing was the a. American College Personnel Association. b. American School Counselor Association. c. Association for Specialists in Group Work. d. American Counselor Education and Supervision. - Answer- d. American Counselor Education and Supervision. The problem with income sensitive or sliding fee scales (based on the client's ability to pay) is that a. scales of this kind are unethical. b. scales of this nature are illegal. c. it is difficult to administer them in a fair manner. d. scales like this are used frequently; however, they are unethical and illegal. - Answer- c. it is difficult to administer them in a fair manner. One possible negative aspect of counselor licensure is that a. counselors would receive more third-party payments. b. counselors might be accepted as providers by insurance companies. c. counselors may not be as creative during their graduate work and simply take courses aimed at fulfilling the requirements to take the licensure exam. d. it will take business away from psychologists. - Answer- c. counselors may not be as creative during their graduate work and simply take courses aimed at fulfilling the requirements to take the licensure exam. A client wants his records sent to a psychiatrist he is seeing. You should a. advise against it based on current research. b. refuse to do so based on ethical guidelines. c. first have the client sign a dated release of information form that stipulates whether the information can be re- leased once (or for what period of time it can be released) and then you can send the information. d. call the psychiatrist to discuss the case but explain that state law prohibits a counselor from sending anything in writing about the client. - Answer- c. first have the client sign a dated release of information form that stipulates whether the information can be re- leased once (or for what period of time it can be released) and then you can send the information. You are a licensed professional counselor in one state but will soon relocate to another state. The new state informs you that they will grant you reciprocity or so-called endorsement. You will thus a. simply need to take the licensing test in the new state. b. be permitted to practice in the new state based on your current credentials without taking another exam. c. need to take numerous graduate courses. d. not be allowed to practice until you serve an internship. - Answer- b. be permitted to practice in the new state based on your current credentials without taking another exam. According to the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) of 1974 (also known as the Buckley Amendment) a. a parent can see his or her daughter's middle school re- cord. b. an 18-year-old college student can view his or her own educational record. c. a and b. d. a and b are both illegal. - Answer- c. a and b. You are a school counselor who wishes to refer an orthopedically disabled student to a private therapist. In general, the best referral would be to a. a CRC. b. a MAC. c. a licensed clinical psychologist. d. a licensed social worker. - Answer- a. a CRC. A registry would be a. a list of licensed psychologists in the state of Illinois. b. a list of CRCs in the United States. [Show Less]
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NCE Group Counseling Exam Questions with correct Answers
Jacob Moreno - Answer- Coined term "group therapy" in 1931, father of psychodrama Pratt - Answer- First counseling groups in 1905 on tuberculosis Dav... [Show More] is - Answer- Introduced groups into schools in 1907 Slavson - Answer- Used groups with children, started American Group Psychotherapy Association in 1942 Alcoholics Anonymous - Answer- First self-help group, 1930s Lewin - Answer- Started training groups (T-groups) in 1960s, referred to group cohesiveness as "positive valence" Reality Distortion - Answer- Environment of group is different than the outside world Role Differentiation - Answer- Process where members adopt different roles within group Johari Window - Answer- Used to explain self-disclosure - there are 4 quadrants of information depending on whether it's known/unknown to self and known/unknown to others Gatekeeping - Answer- Occurs when leader and members insist on sticking to group norms Blocking - Answer- Resisting behavior by member that slows group progress - often seen as silence or non-participation Informing - Answer- When a member talks about another member outside of group Sociogram - Answer- Graphical representations of group member interaction patterns, shows the star, cluster and isolate members Forming Stage - Answer- Stage that includes discussion of norms and rules Transition Stage - Answer- Stage that includes testing boundaries and power structures, members compete for rank, form alliances, test the leader - also called "storming" stage Working Stage - Answer- Stage where committed members work to achieve goals Termination Stage - Answer- Stage that includes closure of the group and summarization Process Evaluation - Answer- Assessment of group dynamics Outcome Evaluation - Answer- Assessment of how members are different because of group work Hill Interaction Matrix - Answer- Instrument used to measure screening and selection Primary Group - Answer- Preventative group that tries to ward off problems - ex. family planning group Secondary Group - Answer- Group that tries to reduce the severity of a problem - ex. grief or shyness group Tertiary Group - Answer- Group that deals the more serious and longstanding individual problems Norms - Answer- Rules governing expected behavior of group members Risky Shift Phenomenon - Answer- Group's decision will be less conservative than the average members' individual decision; ex. group of teens wilder than an individual teen T-group - Answer- Training group, often used in business to address relationships between employees Role Conflict - Answer- Discrepancy between way a member is supposed to behave and how they actually behave Horizontal Intervention - Answer- Strategy that works with whole group - also called interpersonal because it focuses on interactions Vertical Intervention - Answer- Strategy that works with individuals within the group - also called intrapersonal 8-10 - Answer- What is best number of members for an adult group? Democratic - Answer- Which kind of group leader facilitates interaction and guides members to make decisions? Telling leader - Answer- Leader with high task behaviors and low relationship behaviors Selling leader - Answer- Leader with high task and high relationship behaviors Participating leader - Answer- Leader with low task and high relationship behaviors Delegating leader - Answer- Leader with low task and low relationship behaviors Trust - Answer- What is the most important trait in a group? Psychodrama - Answer- Moreno - technique where you act out situations in group - roles include director (therapist), protagonist (member who's re-enacting), auxiliary egos (members who assist) I - Answer- Which quadrant of the Johari Window includes information known to others and self such as gender or what you're wearing? II - Answer- Which quadrant of the Johari Window includes information unknown to others but known to yourself such as fear of failure, inadequacy? III - Answer- Which quadrant of the Johari Window includes information known to others but unknown to yourself such as facial expressions? IV - Answer- Which quadrant of the Johari Window includes information unknown to others or self such as family of origin issues? Planned - Answer- What kind of group is restricted to people with a demonstrated need in a themed area, such as parenting skills, addiction group for teens? Spontaneous - Answer- What kind of group has no planned content and is more for personal growth and support? 6-8 - Answer- What is the best number of members for a teen group? 2-4 - Answer- What is the best number of [Show Less]
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CPCE Sample Test 2023 (solved)
Kohlberg's theory of moral development includes 3 progressive levels culminating in... A. self-actualization, wherein the individual is fully humanisti... [Show More] c. B. principled thought, wherein the individual adopts a self- accepted set of standards of behavior. C. androgyny, wherein the individual exhibits both male and female stereotypic behaviors. D. personhood, wherein the individual is free from moral dilemmas. - Answer- B A professional counselor determines fees for monthly consultation services on a job-by-job basis. This is an example of which of the following types of reinforcement schedules? A. variable interval B. fixed interval C. variable ratio D. fixed ratio - Answer- C Research on the development of a person in a so-called "humanistic life outlook" has shown that it is facilitated by A. formal educational experiences. B. observational learning experiences. C. diverse interpersonal interactions. D. all of the above. - Answer- D When persons who are characteristically shy and withdrawn participate in "assertiveness training," initially they experience uncertainty and self-doubt. Counselors refer to this social psychological concept as A. cognitive dissonance. B. dissociation. C. individuation. D. acculturation - Answer- A "Men (used here to mean all people) are disturbed not by things, but by the view which they take of them." This quote, attributable to Epictetus, most closely describes the counseling theory developed by A. Rogers. B. Carkhuff. C. Freud. D. Ellis. - Answer- D The counseling technique in which the counselor intensifies the client's emotional state in order to help the client understand the irrationality of the emotional reaction is known as A. confrontation. B. paradoxical intention. C. systematic desensitization. D. reconfiguration. - Answer- B Counselors know that groups are formed for different purposes. For example, in some groups the primary goal is to yield some specified outcome, or "product," while in others the primary goal is to focus on the "process" of interaction within the group. Which of the following types of groups is more product than process oriented? A. Behavioral B. Transactional-analysis C. Adlerian D. Client-centered - Answer- A In the context of group counseling, members that are high in conformity also tend to be high in A. independence. B. authoritarianism. C. intelligence. D. superiority. - Answer- B A counselor who structures a career counseling group to help group members understand a "fields and levels" approach to careers is following the theory of A. Super. B. Roe. C. Holland. D. Tiedeman. - Answer- B The concept of "career maturity" has been described and researched most extensively by A. Crites. B. Hoyt. C. Tiedeman. D. Ginzberg. - Answer- A Person A and Person B both took the same test. Person A got a score of 100 while Person B got a score of 75. In order for a counselor to determine whether the difference between their scores was because of "chance," the counselor would need to know which of the following characteristics of the test? A. mean B. standard deviation C. standard error of measurement D. standard error of the mean - Answer- C A counselor conducted a study intended to evaluate the effectiveness of on-going group career counseling on the vocational maturity of high school sophomores. The study was begun in September and continued until June. This study is partcularly susceptible to which of the following threats to the validity of an experiment? A. regression B. maturation C. reactive effects of experimentation D. multiple treatment interference - Answer- B A counselor designs a study where two experimental groups and one control group complete pre- and post-experiment measures of self-concept. The subjects were not randomly assigned to the groups because of scheduling problems. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for analyzing the resultant data? A. analysis of covariance B. correlated t-tests C. analysis of variance D. Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test - Answer- A You have been providing career counseling to a client who is seeking employment. Concurrent with the counseling, and with your knowledge, the client has made application for employment with several employers. A potential employer calls you and asks for your opinion as to your client's suitability for the employer's job opening. Under which of the following conditions are you free (i.e., not in violation of professional ethics), to provide the information requested? A. When it is clear that the client will not get the job unless the information is given B. When you are certain that the information you would provide would assure that the client would get the job. C. When in your best judgment you believe the information would enhance the client's chances for getting the job. D. None of the above - Answer- D As applied to professional licensure of counselors, the term "reciprocity" means that A. one licensing agency agrees to accept the licensing standards of another as sufficient for its own. B. a licensed counselor may legally perform the functions of a licensed psychologist. C. certification is synonymous with licensure. D. graduation from a fully accredited counselor education program automatically constitutes eligibility for licensure. - Answer- A Susie is playing with blocks and is trying to build a tower; she tries but cannot build a tower. Susie's mother helps her build a four-block tower. Later, Susie builds a four-block tower without her mother's help. According to Vygotsky, the inability to build the tower on her own is known as: a. scaffolding b. the zone of proximal development c. assisted discovery d. learning by imitation - Answer- B According to Erickson, when an individual fails to develop a strong sense of identity, the individual will have troubles with the development of: a. autonomy b. initiative c. intimacy d. integrity - Answer- C Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in Freud's theory of personality development? a. Oral, genital, latency, anal, phallic b. Genital, anal, phallic, oral, latency c. Latency, phallic, oral, anal, genital d. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital - Answer- D Jacob's father tells Jacob to clean his room. When Jacob asks why, his father responds, "Because I said so." The father's response is most representative of which parenting style? a. Uninvolved b. Authoritarian c. Authoritative d. Permissive - Answer- B Harry Harlow used baby monkeys and several different kinds of "surrogate mothers" to investigate which factors are important in early development and attachment. According to his findings, baby monkeys: a. preferred a soft terrycloth "mother" to a wire-mesh "mother" that held a bottle b. preferred a wire-mesh "mother" that held a bottle to a soft terrycloth "mother" c. showed no preference d. preferred neither "mother" - Answer- A Which of the following is a myth about suicide in the United States? a. Male suicide is four times higher than that among females. b. It occurs in age groups of 90 years and up. c. Psychiatrists, physicians, and dentists are most prone. d. Asking someone about suicide may push that person over the edge - Answer- D Cody does what his parents say because he doesn't want to lose his television privileges. This is an example of what level in Kohlberg's theory of moral development? a. Integrity versus despair b. Preconventional c. Conventional d. Postconventional - Answer- B Josie likes to play peek-a-boo with her little brother, Jack. According to Piaget, Jack finds this game fun because he has acquired ____________, which is one of the primary tasks of the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development. a. conservation b. dual representation c. object permanence d. reversibility - Answer- C The theorist associated with bonding and attachment is: a. Bowlby b. Adler c. Freud d. Piaget - Answer- A Henry, a 72-year-old widower, reminisces with his daughter about his life. He talks about his successes and regrets. This is an example of Erikson's: a. intimacy stage b. generativity stage c. industry stage d. ego integrity stage - Answer- D When it comes to displaying aggression, girls more often engage in ____________ aggression than boys. a. hostile b. instrumental c. relational d. physical - Answer- C All of the following are physical characteristics of Down Syndrome EXCEPT: a. short, stocky build b. almond-shaped eyes c. large hands and feet d. flattened face - Answer- D Which of the following statements is true when considering cultural and familial influences on self-esteem? a. Chinese and Japanese children have higher self-esteem than North American children, mainly because their cultures have higher academic standards for achievement. b. Boys tend to have lower self-esteem than girls c. African American children tend to have lower self-esteem than Caucasian children. d. An authoritative parenting style usually allows children to have especially high selfesteem. - Answer- D Research on gay and lesbian parents indicates: a. Their children are maladjusted. b. They are as dedicated to and effective at child rearing as are heterosexual parents. c. They are less dedicated to child rearing than heterosexual parents. d. Their children are parented harshly and inconsistently. - Answer- B In the Stanford prison study, what caused the guards to treat the prisoners harshly? a.Their instructions from the researchers b.The uncooperative behavior of the prisoners c. The social context d. The pressure the guards got from one another - Answer- C In the original studies, Milgram and his colleagues found that people were more likely to disobey under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT when __________. a. the victim was in an adjoining room so the "teacher" heard every sound the victim made b. two experimenters had conflicting demands about the continuation of the experiment c. the person ordering them to continue was an ordinary man, apparently another volunteer d. the subject worked with peers who refused to go further in the procedure - Answer- A In the Stanford prison simulation, male college students agreed to participate in an experiment to discover what would happen when they took on the roles of prisoners and guards. The researchers found that __________. a. within a short time the prisoners became distressed and panicky, with accompanying emotional and physical ailments b. a small percentage of the guards became tyrannical and abusive in order to maintain the social structure of the prison c. the "tough but fair" guards urged the tyrannical guards to lighten up on the prisoners d. all of the prisoners and the guards became harsh and abusive - Answer- A In what ways do stereotypes distort reality? a. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist between groups. b. Stereotypes exaggerate the differences that exist within groups. c. Stereotypes produce many differing perceptions by many people. d. Stereotypes demonstrate that members of a group can be different - Answer- A Jennifer has to choose between spending the evening at home with her parents or spending the evening babysitting her younger sister. Jennifer does not like either of these choices. This situation describes an: a. approach-avoidance conflict b. avoidance-avoidance conflict c. approach-approach conflict d. avoidance vector - Answer- B 20. Connie tells each of her clients that the best way she can help them is to attempt to look at the world from the client's point of view. This counselor is taking the _________ perspective. a. etic b. alloplastic c. emic d. autoplastic - Answer- C Working with individuals from different cultures requires that the counselor: a. have sensitivity to the needs of the individuals b. make a referral to another counselor c. have knowledge about the different cultures d. Both A and C. - Answer- D A high standard of counseling practice when working with diverse populations involves all of the following EXCEPT: a. treating all clients the same way b. acknowledging and confronting their own biases and prejudices c. adapting one's knowledge and skills to meet the clients' needs d. educating oneself as completely as possible regarding the clients' cultural context - Answer- A When working with individuals from different cultures, the effective counselor may not: a. use language similar to the client's b. maintain good eye contact at all times c. be cognizant of the context d. honor religious beliefs - Answer- B Murray is a bright student, but he procrastinates. He puts off writing term papers and gets incompletes, which eventually become Fs. Murray's therapist helps him establish small, specific goals rather than vague, long-range goals. The therapist also asks Murray to keep a diary of how he is spending his time when he is avoiding his studies. The method used to help Murray deal with his problem is __________ therapy. a. psychodynamic b. behavioral c. Gestalt d. existential - Answer- B The social-learning perspective is to the psychodynamic perspective as __________ are to _____________. a. bodily events; social and cultural forces b. social and cultural forces; bodily events c. environmental conditions; unconscious dynamics d. unconscious dynamics; environmental conditions - Answer- C The process of saying freely whatever comes to mind in connection with dreams, memories, fantasies, or conflicts, in the course of a psychodynamic therapy session, is referred to as __________. a. systematic desensitization b. flooding c. free association d. exposure treatment - Answer- C 27. Which of the following is not a behavioral therapy? a. Flooding b. Skills training c. Exposure d. Unconditional positive regard - Answer- D The primary goal of __________ therapy is to find meaning in life. a. rational-emotive b. reality c. existential d. transactional analysis - Answer- C Which of the following pairings of problem and the most successful therapy for that problem is INCORRECT? a. Childhood behavior problems and existential therapy b. Specific phobias and systematic desensitization c. Depression and rational-emotive therapy d. Panic disorder and behavior therapy - Answer- A The bond of confidence and mutual understanding established between therapist and client is called the _______. a. therapeutic window b. therapeutic alliance c. clubhouse model d. window of opportunity - Answer- B An apparent treatment success that is due to the patient's expectation or hopes rather than the treatment itself is called ____________. a. the placebo effect [Show Less]
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National Counselor Examination Study 2023 Guide with complete solutions
Using motivation from 'within' is known as ______________ A. Inside motivation B. Interior motivation C. Intrinsic motivation D. Idealistic motivation ... [Show More] - Answer- C. Intrinsic motivation Which of the following is not an example of extrinsic motivation? A. Employee performance improves when wages are increased B. A sleep apnea patient follows a strict sleep hygiene plan C. Children finish a task more quickly if they are promised candy D. A student studies more on a test to make the highest grade in the class - Answer- B. A sleep apnea patient follows a strict sleep hygiene plan Which of the following socioeconomic factor could affect the outcome of therapeutic counseling? Choose all that apply. A. Lack of transportation B. Lack of intrinsic motivation C. Lack of positive cultural norms for entering therapy D. None of the above - Answer- A. Lack of transportation C. Lack of positive cultural norms for entering therapy What is the meaning of transference/countertransference relationships? Choose all that apply. A. A client transferring their relationship with another onto the therapist B. The therapist transferring their relationship with another onto the client C. Transferring the blame or outcome of behavior onto someone else D. None of the above - Answer- A. A client transferring their relationship with another onto the therapist B. The therapist transferring their relationship with another onto the client What is one instance that might cause a clinician to break the strong code of client confidentiality? A. Feeling the need to talk B. Duty to warn C. When the therapist is going on vacation D. All of the above - Answer- B. Duty to warn Behavior Theory - Answer- comes from the idea that all behaviors are learned and acquired through a process known as conditioning What theory is most often associated with the psychologists B.F. Skinner and John B. Watson? - Answer- behavior theory Behavior Therapy - Answer- concentrates on the observable behaviors of a person or group, and dismisses internal mental states Key components of Behavior theory: - Answer- conditioning, reinforcement, and punishment What does behavioral theory NOT take into count? - Answer- the concepts of emotion or even the unconscious or subconscious, as these states are subjective rather than objective Behaviorists believe that all behavior can be what? - Answer- Trained Classical Conditioning - Answer- a process in which a subject comes to respond to a stimulus that was previously considered neutral, continued exposure to the stimulus will elicit a desired response Operant Conditioning - Answer- a process in which a subject engages in the correct behavior through the use of both rewards and punishments for a response. The subject learns to associate the behavior with the outcome Who created the behavioral psychology theory based on the idea that human beings respond to their environment; external stimuli, not internal stimuli? - Answer- Watson - he believed that all human beings could change their behavior through classical or operant conditioning. Who developed the following schedules of reinforcement: Continuous reinforcement, partial reinforcement (fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed interval, variable interval) - Answer- B.F. Skinner - behavioral theorist Continuous reinforcement schedule - Answer- reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs Partial reinforcement schedule - Answer- reinforcing a response only part of the time; results in slower acquisition of a response but much greater resistance to extinction than does continuous reinforcement fixed ratio schedule - Answer- a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a predetermined number of responses What strength of reinforcement does fixed ratio schedule produce? - Answer- a high, steady rate of responses. What schedule of reinforcement is: giving a subject a piece of candy after they answer five questions correctly - Answer- Fixed ratio variable-ratio schedule - Answer- a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses What strength of reinforcement does variable-ratio schedule produce? - Answer- High, steady rate of responding What schedule of reinforcement is: a slot machine - Answer- variable-ratio fixed-interval schedule - Answer- a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified time has elapsed What schedule of reinforcement is: a subject being rewarded after two minutes of activity and then after each two minutes of activity? - Answer- fixed-interval variable-interval schedule - Answer- a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals What schedule of reinforcement is: rewarding a subject after one minute of activity, three minutes of activity, six minutes of activity, and so on... - Answer- variable-interval In operant conditioning, reinforcement ______________ behavior and punishment _______________ behavior. - Answer- Increases, Decreases What is the difference between positive and negative reinforcement? - Answer- Positive reinforcement adds a stimulus, negative reinforcement either removes a noxious stimuli (buckling seatbelt to get rid of beeping) or behavior avoids noxious stimulus (studying to avoid bad grades) A counselor asks her client what day it is, where he is right now, and what his name is. The counselor is gathering info for what part of the mental status examination? - Answer- Sensorium What characterizes Generation "X" group, which refers to individuals born between 1965 and 1976? - Answer- Wanting exciting jobs and keeping options open A married couple with two school-aged children gets divorced, which drastically reduces the amount of conflict in the home. All of a sudden, however, the younger child starts throwing temper tantrums, whereas before he was perfectly well-behaved. What phenomenon might explain this child's change in behavior following the divorce? - Answer- Homeostasis What are the four stages of Bergan's behavioral model of consultation? - Answer- Problem identification, problem analysis, plan implementation, problem evaluation Delirium, Parkinson's disease, and Alzheimer's disease are all what type of disorder? - Answer- Neurocognitive A family counselor who consciously joins with the family during sessions, observes what he experiences during those sessions, and then makes interpretations to family members is most likely operating from what perspective? A. Bowen B. Humanistic C. Experiential D. Narrative - Answer- C. Experiential A counselor works closely with clients from a culture different from hers in an attempt to understand their perspectives - is an example of what type of worldview? - Answer- Emic Facts about social justice counseling: - Answer- - it seeks a balance of power and resources - it addresses issues of unequal power - it has led to ACA identifying advocacy competencies for counselors what is shaping in operant conditioning? - Answer- a way of adding behaviors to a persons repertoire -used when target behavior does not yet exist -what is reinforced is an approximation of the target behavior, the behavior you want to shape. Thorndike is best known for what theory? - Answer- law of effect - responses that are immediately positively reinforced are more likely to occur again in the future. -also, responses that are immediately negatively reinforced are are less likely to occur in the future. Cognitive theories of psychology focus on what? - Answer- a persons thought processes, such as motivation, problem solving, decision-making, thinking, and attention. Aaron Beck is what kind of theorist?? - Answer- Cognitive -believed people had automatic thoughts which are spontaneous negative cognitive distortions. -negative thoughts affect a persons behavior. -regardless of disorder a person is experiencing - he believed if negative thoughts could be identified, they could be evaluated and replaced - which would then change the response or behavior Filtering, Polarized thinking, Overgeneralization, Catastrophizing, Personalization, Control Fallacies, Blaming, Shoulds, Emotional Reasoning, and Always being right - are examples of what? - Answer- Cognitive Distortions Filtering - Answer- negative details of a situation are magnified and all positive details of the situation are deleted. The person then dwells on the negative of the situation. Polarized thinking - Answer- Situations, People or places are either "all or nothing". For example, a person either loves or hates others, or perceives situations as "the best ever" or "the worst ever" Overgeneralization - Answer- Based on one experience or little information, a person draws a conclusion. For example if a person got into a car accident at a store parking lot, they might come to view the store as dangerous and refuse to return Catastrophizing - Answer- A person expects the worst, even when there is evidence to suggest otherwise. For example, a person might not apply for a job, thinking they won't get it anyway - so why bother? Personalization - Answer- The belief that every response is directed at the person and that they are the cause of external events or feelings. For example, a victim may blame themselves for leaving their house for work late, perceiving that their own lateness was the cause of the car accident. Control Fallacies - Answer- A person sees himself or herself as a victim and believes that the external world has an inordinate amount of control over him or her. For example "I wouldn't have forgotten my work assignment if my boss didn't give me so much work". There are also internal control fallacies where a person views themselves as responsible. For example, "My boss is mad at me because he didn't greet me today". There are also fallacies of control, which is a belief that life in general is not fair. Blaming - Answer- A person blames others for their situation, such as attributing the cause of negative behaviors to others actions. Shoulds - Answer- A belief in the "should and should nots" For example someone might think, "I should eat healthier. I should not eat all these chips. If i was stronger, I wouldn't be so fat" Emotional Reasoning - Answer- A belief that emotions are thoughts, or the thought that because one thinks or feels something, it might be true. For example, a thought might be, " I don't feel like working today, so I must be depressed" Always being right - Answer- A person's need to go to all lengths to prove themselves right, even when evidence suggests otherwise Mindfulness cognitive therapy is mostly used for what? - Answer- medical and emotional issues Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development - Answer- sensorimotor stage, preoperational stage, concrete operations, and formal operations sensorimotor stage - Answer- in Piaget's theory, the stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities Preoperational stage - Answer- in Piaget's theory, the stage (from about 2 to 6 or 7 years of age) during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic Concrete Operational - Answer- in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (from about 6 or 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events. Thinking still is egocentric formal operational - Answer- in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (11 years and older) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts. Can formulate ideas regarding morals and ethics, social situations, political situations, and future planning. Schema - Answer- a way of mentally representing the world, such as a belief or an expectation, that can influence perception of persons, objects, and situations What are the three ways human beings acquire schemas? - Answer- Assimilation, Accommodation, equilibration Assimilation - Answer- adding to an existing schema as new stimuli or situations are experienced Accommodation - Answer- The process of changing our current schema, or the development of an entirely new schema Equilibration - Answer- The balance between assimilation and accommodation. Developmental Theories - Answer- focus on the growth and development of humans at certain ages across the lifespan. They attempt to explain how a person develops emotionally or psychologically. Some theories believe that the stages are continuous, while others feel they are discontinuous. What does it mean if one believes stages of development are discontinuous? - Answer- a human being could not move past a developmental stage until the issue or crisis was resolved. Freud's believed - Answer- human beings possess an inherent sexual energy, which he labeled as libido. Libido which is present from birth, develops over 5 stages. He believed that personality was developed by the successful completion of these stages and was fully developed by puberty. He also believed if a stage was unresolved, the person would be fixated at this stage which would lead to mental disorders etc. Freud's Psychosexual Stages - Answer- oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latency stage, genital stage oral stage - Answer- Freud's first stage of psychosexual development, (birth to about age 1 or 2) during which the instincts of infants are focused on the mouth as the primary pleasure center. Oral stage fixation - Answer- If child is neglected, or when the child has to wean from the breast or bottle, they become upset. fixation in adulthood is a smoking habit Anal stage - Answer- Freud's second stage of psychosexual development (1 to 3 years) pleasure focuses on bowel and bladder elimination; gratification from the ability to independently control physical elimination Anal stage fixation - Answer- Conflict occurs if the child is excessively punished for their inability to control their bowels, or if they are exposed to rigid scheduling. Fixation would be someone who is compulsively clean or neat, in which case they would be known as "anal retentive" phallic/yonic stage - Answer- Freud's third stage of psychosexual development (3 - 6 years) A child focuses on their own genitalia. The child realizes there are differences between males and females. phallic/yonic stage fixation - Answer- Freud believed that conflict that occurs in this stage that he called the oedipus complex, where he felt that a child subconsciously longs for the attention of their parent of the opposite sex. This stage is still considered controversial in the psychological world. Latent Stage - Answer- Freud's fourth stage of psychosexual development (6 years - puberty) This is a time where a child may continue to work towards resolution of the previous stages, or is fairly dormant. Genital Stage - Answer- Freud's 5th and last stage of personality development (puberty through adulthood - 12+) a person can identify their sexual urges but is able to delay gratification. A person is working on or has established the ability to obtain and maintain relationships that are outside sexual desires as well as friendships. Freud's theory of the human psyche includes: - Answer- id, ego, superego Id - Answer- Based on instinct, impulsivity and pleasure. The id demands immediate gratification. The id is not in touch with reality or logic. Ego - Answer- This part of the psyche attempts to balance the needs of the id and the needs of the superego. The ego is reality-based. Superego - Answer- This part of the psyche is based on morals and ethics. The superego strives to always do the right thing or not act at all. Freuds thoughts about conscious mind, subconscious mind, and the unconscious mind - Answer- conscious mind - very aware of your thoughts, memories, and actions subconscious - just below the conscious mind, info should be able to be retrieved at this level but there's something blocking it unconscious mind - where thoughts, feelings or information goes when your conscious can not cope with the information, this can be because it is too traumatic for the psyche to recall Erik Erikson's focus - Answer- on conflicts that take place within the ego, while freud focused on conflict between the id and ego Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development - Answer- Eight stages in which a healthy developing individual should pass through from infancy to late adulthood. In each stage the person confronts and hopefully masters new challenges. Each stage builds on the successful completion of earlier stages (Trust vs Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame, Initiative vs. Guilt, Ego Identity vs Role Confusion, Intimacy vs. Isolation, Generativity vs Stagnation, Ego Integrity vs Despair) Hope: Trust vs. Mistrust - Answer- (Infants, 0 - 1 year) The first stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development centers around the infants basic needs being met by the parents. If warmth, regularity, affection - trust If parents fail to provide a secure environment and to meet the child's basic need - mistrust Major developmental task in infancy is to learn whether or not other people especially primary caregivers regularly satisfy basic needs. Will: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt - Answer- (Toddlers, 2 - 3 years) The second stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development where as the child gains control over eliminative functions and motor abilities, they begin to explore their surroundings. Parents who provide patience and and encouragement - autonomy Restrictive parents instill doubt and reluctance to attempt new challenges - shame and doubt As they gain increased muscular coordination and mobility, toddlers become capable of satisfying some of their own needs. Purpose: Initiative vs. Guilt - Answer- (Preschool, 4 - 6 years) The third stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development where initiative adds to autonomy the quality of undertaking, planning and attacking a task for the sake of being active and on the move. learning basic skills and principles of physics - things fall down, not up. round things roll, zip pants, tie shoes. Wants to complete his own actions for a purpose Guilt is confusing - may feel guilty over things that logically should not cause guilt. Competence: Industry vs. Inferiority - Answer- (Childhood, 7 - 12 years) The fourth stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development where the aim to bring a productive situation to completion gradually supersedes the whims and wishes of play. Fidelity: Identity vs. Role Confusion - Answer- (Adolescents, 13 - 19 years) The fifth stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development where the adolescent is newly concerned with how they appear to others. Search for meaning for oneself, as evidenced in the promise of a career. In later stages of adolescence child develops sense of sexual identity. Love: Intimacy vs. Isolation - Answer- (Young Adults, 20 to 34 years) The sixth stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development where Erikson believes people are sometimes isolated due to intimacy We are afraid of rejections such as being turned down or our partners breaking up with us. Care: Generativity vs. Stagnation - Answer- (Middle Adulthood, 35 - 65 years) The seventh stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial DevelopmentThe concern of establishing and guiding the next generation. Socially valued work and disciplines are expressions of generativity. Simply having children does not in itself achieve generativity. During middle age, the primary developmental task is is one of contributing to society and helping to guide future generations. Wisdom: Ego Integrity vs. Despair - Answer- (Seniors, 65+) The eighth stage of Erik Erikson's Theory of Psychosocial Development - Main Question: "Have I lived a full life?" Humanistic Psychology - Answer- focuses on the overall good of human beings instead of the negativity or mental illness of the individual. Believes that all people are innately good. Stresses the importance of an individuals potential. Believes that negative behavior, mental illness and social problems occur when a person responds to the environment in a negative way that deviates from the natural tendency to do good. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs - Answer- physiological - basic needs food, water, & shelter safety love/belonging - social needs esteem - self esteem, achievement self-actualization - morality, meeting potential Who are two well known personality theorists? - Answer- Henry Murray and Karen Horney Henry Murray and Psychogenic Needs - Answer- developed a theory of personality that suggests personality is influenced by our needs (psychogenic needs) These are at an unconscious level, but have a great impact on our personality. Two types of needs: Primary - biological needs such as the need for food water and shelter Secondary - psychological or emotional needs, such as the need to be cared for or nurtured, need for independence, and success. Murray identified 24 needs that each person has. Ambition needs, Materialistic needs, Power needs, Affection needs, Information needs. Horneys List of Neurotic Needs - Answer- Believed neurosis was a result of anxiety caused by interpersonal relationships 10 neurotic needs classed into three broad categories -needs that move you towards others -needs that move you away from others -needs that move you against others Big Five Dimensions of Personality - Answer- The proposed five basic dimensions of personality Openness to experience Conscientiousness - thoughtfulness, good impulse control, goal-directed behaviors Extraversion Agreeableness - altruism Neuroticism - those high in this trait tend to experience emotional instability, anxiety, moodiness, irritability and sadness Borderline Personality Theory - Answer- Marsha Linehan - Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT) - believes disorder is developed due to environmental situations that occur through childhood - called this the Invalidating Environment - person who is emotionally vulnerable has an excessive autonomic nervous system response to stress - level of distress causes an irrational behavioral and emotional response "emotional dysregulation" 4 key skills trained in DBT: - Answer- -core mindfulness skills -interpersonal effectiveness skills -emotion modulation skills -distress tolerance skills David Kolb - Answer- has one of best known models of learning styles - he believed that individual learning styles evolve from personal genetics, as well as the environment. David Kolbys identified 4 learning styles: - Answer- The converger - high ability in abstract conceptualization and active experimentation the diverger - high ability in concrete experience and reflective observation the assimilator - high ability in abstract conceptualization and reflective observation the accommodator - high ability in concrete experience and active experimentation Charles Spearman - Answer- creator of "g-factor", or general intelligence, belief that intelligence could be measured and scored Louis L. Thurstone - Answer- seven primary mental abilities: verbal comprehension, reasoning, perceptual speed, numerical ability, word fluency, associative memory, spatial visualization. Howard Gardner - Answer- Multiple Intelligences - believed that identifying a person's intelligence by a score was not the best way to measure intelligence. 8 intelligences Robert Sternberg - Answer- triarchic theory of intelligence- [1] analytical - problem-solving [2] practical [3] creative Social learning theory is associated with who? - Answer- Bandura - he believed that there was a social element to learning, which included that people learn behaviors by watching other people interact. This is known as modeling. Three core concepts of social learning: - Answer- 1. People can learn through observation - Three models: Live, verbal instructional, symbolic 2. Mental states are important to learning - Intrinsic reinforcement, form of internal reward [Show Less]
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