What is an emetic? Describe a few examples observed in Environmental Health. - correct answer It is a chemical that induces vomiting. In E.H. emetics are
... [Show More] used in Vector Control for rodent control, Red Squill
What does USDA stamp on meat signify? - correct answer The meat products have been processed and inspected by the USDA (United State Department of Agriculture) and has passed food quality inspections
Mobile Home parks are monitored by what Federal agency? - correct answer Housing and Urban Development (HUD)
What are the specific requirements for an OXIDATION (stabilization) POND? - correct answer The space (or area), time (up to 60 days) and the depth (3 to 5 feet)
For community-wide noise panning, what is the most important contributor to that noise - correct answer automobiles;routes and traffic
What types of laws are government protected from liability? - correct answer Sovereign immunity
What is grout seal? - correct answer this is the top space between a bored well and the ground. the seal is usually concrete
What waste by-product is generated from sulfur oxide scrubbers? - correct answer Sulfuric acid. The sulfur oxide reacts with the water in the scrubber to form acid. This is also an important reaction in the atmosphere where the sulfur oxides react with the atmospheric moisture and forms acid rain.
What type of laws do the Health Department enforce? - correct answer Administrative (delegated laws)
You are asked to inspect and test for pH, conductivity, and heavy metals. What type of inspection are you performing? - correct answer A hazardous waste inspection for metal plating facility
In most cities, nitrogen oxide (NOX) is what source of pollution? - correct answer Automobile exhaust
Search and inspection warrants are similar except? - correct answer with search warrants, the search requirements are specific to a violation condition
When municipal water treatment facilities add fluoride into their water what is one of the most important factors in calculating the dose? - correct answer the temperature of the water. the colder the water the more flu0ride it absorbs
Who developed the Model Food Code? - correct answer The Food Drug Administration (FDA)
What law establishes the Environmental Impact Statement? - correct answer The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
What is the average holding time for septic tanks? - correct answer 24 hours
What is does it mean where they refer to "CRADLE to GRAVE" - correct answer Whoever produces the hazardous material, they are responsible for the chemical from the time they created (CRADLE) to it's final disposal (GRAVE)
Murine typhus (endemic typhus) is commonly spread by - correct answer Infected rat flea Xenopsylla cheopis defecates the wound
With most anaphylactic shock victims, if prompt medical assistance is not administered, death can usually result from? - correct answer They stop breathing
Does the level of TOTAL DISSOLVED SOLIDS in water affect chlorine disinfection? If it is why? - correct answer NO
For hot water sanitizing what are the MINIMUM temperatures required in CURFFLaW and the Model Food Code? - correct answer CURFFLaw is 180 degrees F for 30 sec
The Model Food Code is 171 degrees F for 30 sec
Describe what types of chlorinate hydrocarbon pesticides are and why they are banned from use in U.S.A? - correct answer DDT, Chlordane, Linda are examples. They are very persistent in the environment (does not biodegrade easily or quickly and affects the reproductive cycles of many wildlife.
FEMA responsibilities - correct answer -make resources available to State or Local Emergency Response Efforts
-Goal is to lessen the impact of all types of Emergencies, before they occur and during
-Provide Direct Assistance
-Provide Professional and Technical Personnel
-Handle Requests for Federal Assistance or Assistance from other states
What is FEMA? - correct answer Federal Emergency Management Agency directs various federal agencies that deal with disasters relating to public health and environmental health such as Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
What is the Command Incident System? - correct answer Incident command system (ICS) is the statewide accepted on the scene emergency or disaster response plan instituted by the police department, fire department, search and rescue operations. and hazardous materials incidences.
What are the components that integrate ICS system together to control personnel, equipment, and communications. - correct answer 1. common terminology
2.modular organization
3. Integrated communication
4. Command Structure
5. Consolidated action plans
6. manageable range of control
7.designated incident facilities
8.Comprehensive resource management
Lag phase - correct answer bacteria is being transferred from one medium to another or the organism present are in a slow growth mode due to cold or hot temperatures
Log phase - correct answer binary fusion, exponential division
Stationary phase - correct answer the amount of live bacteria is equal to dead bacteria.
Its running out of food or just too many organisms. Some organisms start to die off from their own toxins
Decline phase - correct answer the amount of dead bacteria is great than live bacteria. A steady decline or die off due to lack of food, toxins, moisture.
Chemical intoxication - correct answer result from toxic chemical entering the food processing chain and being consumed in quantities that will result in sickness
Which incineration system is the most widely used in the USA? Briefly explain the batch process. - correct answer -Smoke incineration system is the most used widely in the USA
-A batch process means large batches are place within the incinerator and burned. The cycle must be completed before a new batch of waste is burned. This is an intermittent method, but high temperature must be maintained to prevent smoke
(1500 degrees F-1700 degrees F)
Why is methane and landfills important? Define the different states of a landfill. - correct answer Methane gas can be converted to electricity for power
Aerobic state is between 4-60 days
Anaerobic state is after 60 days
Substandard Housing - correct answer refers to any building that has a condition that endanger the life, limb, health, property, safety, or welfare of the public or the occupants
Slum - correct answer is an area where substandard housing predominates and overcrowding exists
What are the rules for inspecting substandard and slum housing? - correct answer the housing inspection should be conducted in a quick and systematic way. The inspector should be able to quickly inspect each area of the apartment unit, note the violations and proceed to the next unit
What are the minimum water heater temperature for public housing and food facilities? - correct answer minimum water temperature for public housing should not be less than 110 degrees F and 120 degrees F for food facilities
what is dermatitis? - correct answer -the most common occupation disease of the skin
-this the most classification for the skin aliment which is brought on by occupational hazards. Common exposure to chemicals and pollutants are some examples which cause dermatitis
Alpha Radiation - correct answer 1. low penetration (will NOT penetrate the skin)
2. more significant as an internal emitter
3. stooped by paper
4. Dangerous if ingested
Beta Radiation - correct answer 1. Penetrate more than alpha
2.have internal and external emitter significance
3. Electron emission
4.The particles are more penetrating than alpha particles
5. Dangerous if ingested
Gamma Rays - correct answer -Gamma radiation is electromagnetic rather than particulate radiation
-electromagnetic radiation of extremely short wavelength and intensely high energy originates in the atomic nucleus.
-term gamma radiation refers to radiation from the nucleus of an atom
-Expose to gamma radiation may be lethal; complete protect is essential
X-Rays-discovered by Roentgen in 1898 - correct answer 1.Extremely short wavelength (0.06 to 120 Angstroms)
2.Emission is the result of electron transitions in the inner orbits of heavy atoms bombarded by cathode ray in a vacuum tube
3.Can penetrate moderately dense materials
4. High penetrating
5. Retarded by bone, barium sulfate and lead
6. Can ionize certain gases as they pass through the material
7.Can damage or destroy diseased tissue as well as damaging health issue
8.Over exposure can permanently damage cells and tissue structures
9. Control of this type of radiation must be at the source
10. The overall radiation effect is cumulation
Toxic mold - correct answer the term toxic mold is somewhat misleading as it exudes an idea that certain molds are toxic, when actually certain types of molds produce secondary metabolites that produce toxins. the correct term is mycotoxins. Airborne mycotoxins from can definitely destroy one's health
Toxic mold health effects - correct answer the molds that produce airborne toxins that can cause serious symptoms , such as breathing difficulties. memory and hearing loss, dizziness, flu like symptoms and acid reflux. Common ailments from toxigenic mold-- including allergies (hypersensitivity after initial toxicity, and excessive bruising- usually can be treated and reduced after people leave their contaminated environment. Often medication, diet, and other treatments protocols are necessary. But other heath problems may remain permanently, such as brain damage and weakened immune systems. Eyesight, memory, coordination/balance, and hearing are generally the most common residual effects that often do not improve after treatment in most cases
Toxic mold detection method - correct answer molds can be found wherever there is moisture, oxygen and something to feed on. In the fall, they grow on rotting logs and fallen leaves, especially in moist, shady areas. In gardens, they can found in compost piles and on certain grasses and weeds. Molds grow in our homes in moist warm areas lie damp basements, closets, and bathrooms. even after the moistures has dried up. Also molds can grow in places where fresh food is stored, refrigerator drip tray, house plants, humidifiers, garbage pails, mattresses, upholstered furniture, or foam rubber pillows. The worst place that molds can grow, however is is inside wall cavities and flooring of our homes, where there may be cellulose materials they can feed on, such as wood, ceiling tiles, or plasterboard, even if they are not visible, and they have sustained water damage at one time or another. this is very common if there has been a plumbing leak or an inadequate roof
Noise - correct answer is commonly defined as unwanted sound. An annoyance or disruption of well being. Noise is a nuisance
Inverse square law - correct answer is the intensity of the sound form a source varied inversely as the square of its distance form the sound source. Noise from a point source decreases with distance according to the inverse square law so that doubling of distance results in reduction of -6 dB. Sound increases and diminishes at exponential rate
Doubling of sound - correct answer doubling of identical sound pressures result in an increase of 3dB. Sound does not have a additive effect.
Example:
1. 3 dB increase in sound pressure of 2 identical sources
100 dB +100 DB speaker = 103 dB total sound pressure
2. 4.8 dB increase in sound pressure of 3 identical sources
100 dB speaker + 100 dB speaker + 100 dB speaker =104.8 dB total sound presssure
c. four, 100 dB speakers= 106 dB total sound pressure
d. eight, 100 dB speakers= 109 dB total sound pressure
Sound Level Meter - correct answer is the basic measuring instrument used to evaluate potential noise exposure hazards. This device measure the sound pressure in decibels of the actual sound level emitted from the source. Frequency does not play the key role here. It is the loudness of a sound source. The sound level meter consists of a microphone, an amplifier with various range levels , electronic filters that provide the A-weighted noise function, and indicating device such as a meter or digital display
Octave Level Analyzer - correct answer is alson known as the octave waveband analyzer. This device is commonly used in the measurement of hearing. Sound pressure is not the vital key to this device. The device sound waves from the human hearing wave spectrum (20-20,000 Hz) and tests the patient for hearing acuity
Noise Dosimeter - correct answer consists of a sound meter, integrator and indicator. The instrument measure the total sound energy the employee has been exposed to over a work shift time period. The meter will indicate the percent allowable exposure levels and its average equivalent dBA levels. With these levels, the workplace can monitor if the worker is being exposed over the maximum allowable limits in his or her workplace.
Federal Noise limit standards - correct answer 7 A.M. -------->10 P.M.
Rural 60 dBA
Suburban 65dBA
Urban 65 dBA
10 P.M.--------->7A.M.
Rural 50dBA
Suburban 55dBA
Urban 60dBA
Sound factor and sound quality characteristics in decibels - correct answer * "Change in sound level" changes the perceived change in loudness".
*Change in Sound Level *Perceived Change in loudness
3 dBA barely perceptible
5 dBA quite noticeable
10 dBA dramatically different
20 dBA Strikingly different; 4X as loud
* A noise change form 0 to 10dB is a factor of 10, A change of 20 dB is a factor of 100,etc
* Noise factor (dB) Change Factor
10 10
20 100
30 1000
40 10,000
What is the PEL of noise in CA? - correct answer 85 dB@ 8hrs
Trichinella - correct answer -commonly known as trichinosis.
-M.O.T: ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked infected flesh containing viable cysts. It develops in the small intestines and when the roundworm matures, it mats. The female worm then pass the larvae which penetrate in the intestinal wall, entering the lymph system and then goes through the bloodstream throughout the body. The larvae cysts situates in the STRIATED muscles.
-Symptoms:vary from person to person. Can be mild to fatal. Usually fever, followed by redness of the eyelids are an early sign. Infection can be in the inner eye, with retinal hemorrhages, pain and sensitivity to light. Diarrhea, muscle soreness, pain , thirst, profuse sweating. chills and weakness can follow. Fever ends in abut 3 weeks and respiratory and neurological symptom ma appear in 3rd to 6th week. Myocardial failure can occur in the 4th to 8th week
-Incubation: 10-14 days
-yes, heat will destroy the parasite. OK to serve infected meat customers as long as it is fully cooked
What are hookworms, route of infection and how can their eggs survive? - correct answer -Hookworms is the common name for Nematodes. There are two common infectious agents
-Ancylostoma duodenale: (Mediterranean countries and or subtropical areas of the world)
-Necator americanus: (U.S.A)
-It is a disease of intestinal discharge. It is both chronic and debilitating. Eggs deposited in the solid with the feces, breed into larvae which finds a victim by burrowing into the skin of the food (in moist cases). Eggs can also survive waste water treatment, sludge digestion. The larvae can be infective for several weeks under favorable conditions.
Malaria - correct answer -most common name Plasmodium Vivax.
- there are four different varieties of malaria which have similar symptoms and can only be distinguished by lab tests.
-Symptoms: fever, chills, sweats, headaches, jaundice like conditions, blood coagulation defects, shock and kidney failure, possible coma and other nervous disorders
-M.O.T: infective bite of the female anophelian mosquito. Bood feedings for mosquito usually takes place at dusk or early evening. When the adult femle anophelian mosquito lands on a flat surface, the standing body position is angled at a 45 degree angle.
-Most lethal to human, Plasmodium falciparum or malignant tertian malaria (cerebral malaria
-incubation period: 12-14 days
Describe the disease that freshwater snails can spread - correct answer -most common waterborne disease
-the disease that fresh water snail can spread is Schistosoma or the blood fluke.
-Aka "Swimmer's itch" or skin dermatitis
-infectious agent is Shistosoma mansoni
-infection is acquired by water contaminated with the blood fluke larval forms which has developed in fresh water snail. The larvae leaves the snail after a few week and then penetrates the skin of the human host. Rice field workers are a good example.
-can be acquired by eating vegetables from swampy water contaminated conditions (e.g watercrest)
What pathogenic organis is commonly implicated in day care centers? - correct answer -Giardia Lambia is the organism commonly implicated in the day care centers due to poor hygiene practices of day care workers not properly washing their hands after changing diapers
-Unpurified mountain water can harbor aka Hiker's disease
-Fecal -Oral route organism. Present in contaminated water
-Symptoms: often asymptomatic but other intestinal symptoms such as chronic diarrhea, abdominal cramps, frequent loose, pale grease stools are accompanied by fatigue and weight loss
Describe yellow fever vector and U.S. historical significance - correct answer -the virus of Yellow fever, a group togavirus (flavivirus)
-the bite is from an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. In the jungle or forests of South Africa. The mosquito acquires it from an infected blood meal. incubates the virus within the mosquito, then infect a human victim when it takes another blood meal.
-The disease is characteristic of Dengue, which is similar to flu-like symptoms. Symptoms include sudden onset, fever, headaches, nausea, and vomiting. AS the disease progresses, the pulse of the victim slows and weakens with possible accompanied elevated body temperature
-active immunization should be administered for those who are most threatened by the disease
-U.S historical significance? research PANAMA CANAL
Explain some of the ways rodents are controlled in solid waste management - correct answer -refuse collection frequency to break up the fly breeding cycle and 6 inches daily cover (compacted to prevent fly larvae emergence)
Explain the difference between the windrose and windrows - correct answer -Windrose is a graph or diaphramming of wind direction (prevailing winds) which details the magnitude and the directions. Important for determining the location of command post for haz-mat spill response
-Windrows are rows of compost piles allowing air to flow through the compost and promote aerobic decomposition. The compost material must be turned frequently to promote aerobic decomposition
Explain the difference between food intoxication, and food infection, symptoms, onset, and food types - correct answer -Food borne intoxication:when an organism such as bacteria multiply to great numbers and then produce a toxin while in the process. It is usually more fast acting then food infection. Vomiting is usually a symptom. Poisoning usually does NOT produce a fever because the toxin is acted immediately upon the body and does not give the body a chance to kick in their defense mechanisms.
-Food infection: the disease causing organism is carried by the food and water products into the suspecting host. The organism which causes the disease is taken from one source to another. Fever is usually a first symptom because the body is fighting off the infection
Encephalitis - correct answer is a disease that causes inflammation of parts of the brain (meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord to inflame possibly causing pressure on the brain)
Eastern Equine Encephalitis - correct answer -bite of infected Culiseta melanura. Found in Eastern United States
-mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants
-incubation is usually 5-15 days
-high fatality rate (up to 60%) for untreated cases
St Louis Encephalitis - correct answer -bite of infected Culex tarsalis and Culex pipens mosquito
-mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants
-incubation is usually 5-15 days
- fatality rate (up to 25%) for untreated cases
Western Equine Encephalitis - correct answer -bite of infected Culex tarsalis
-mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants
-incubation is usually 5-15 days
-lower fatality rate (3-5%) for untreated cases
West Nile Virus - correct answer -a viral disease
-while true reservoir cannot be exactly determined. it is know that birds, rodents, reptiles, amphibians, adult mosquito and man can be reservoir
-source of infection in man can be from from infected mosquito eggs or the bite of an infected Culex tarsalis-mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants
-incubation is usually 5-15 days
What is the different biological indicators for milk Pasteurization? - correct answer -Phosphatase enzyme is one of the biological indicators for milk Pasteurization. With proper pasteurization , the phosphatase enzyme is completely inactivated. If phosphatase enzyme still remains after pasteurization, this signifies that milk was not heated properly and was not properly pasteurized
-Q fever
Histoplasmosis - correct answer -"Darling's disease"
-fungus that is found in soil around chicken houses, bat caves. starling roots, and soil with highly organic content
-transmitted by inhalation of airborne spores
-symptoms: vary from mild respiratory illness to temporary incapacity, malaise, weakness, fever, chest pains and coughing
-incubation 5-18 days after exposure
-Prevention: avoid exposure to dust in suspected areas such as chicken coops and bat caves. Protective mask should be worn when working in those types of environment. Liquid disinfectant spraying (3% formalin) to alleviate the dust can be used.
Q fever - correct answer -its a common name for Coxiella burnetti (Rickettsia burnetti) and organism with amazing viability in the free state
-airborne contact of organism. Can be transmitted by direct contact of the animals wool, straw, or fertilizer and the laundry of exposed persons. Raw milk from infected cows may be another source of infection as wells as improperly pasteurized dairy products
-organism is considered the most heat tolerant pathogen
-it is used as a biological indicator in the pasteurization of milk.
Raw Sludge treatment - correct answer 1. digesters- the sludge digestion process is conducted in a huge tank called digesters. Here oxygen is eliminated creating an anaerobic environment. Heat is then applied to the digester to warm the sludge so the anaerobic bacteria can react to the sludge to its highest efficiency. Putrescible matter in the sludge is broken down into methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, water, nitrate, and phosphate.
2. The next type of bacteria to digest the sludge is the gas forming anaerobic bacteria. Gas forming bacteria live off the acidic conditions and begin to digest the low acids. These are gas forming anaerobes that can break down carbonaceous materials and produce product gases of carbon dioxide and methane. As the sludge digestion progresses, the ideal digestion condition is known as the healthy state. The following percentages of by products are formed:
a. 65% methane
b. 35% carbon dioxide
c.<1% hydrogen sulfide gas [Show Less]