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REHS-RS STUDY GUIDE
What does photodecomposition in a plastic bottle do in a landfill or waste dump? - correct answer Reduce the amount of waste In a newborn hospital wing ... [Show More] humidifiers will? - correct answer Need to be cleaned frequently due to bacterial growth on the components What is LEAST effected when contaminated air is found in a hospital? - correct answer Air filtered in the morgue. What is the maximum time for industry to generate hazardous waste without a permit? - correct answer 90 = large quantity 180 = small quantity What is the best way to prevent groundwater contamination in wells? - correct answer Grouting the annular space Where are you least likely to find asbestos? - correct answer Ceramic floor tile? (other answers included insulated pipe coverings and wall plaster and asbestos can be found in floor tiling products so if there is an option of NONE OF THE ABOVE...maybe choose that one). What industry does the BISSC deal with? - correct answer Baking (stands for Baking Industry Sanitation Standards Committee). Which amendment deals with illegal search and seizure of private property? - correct answer 4th (IV) Groundwater Rule? - correct answer Protection against microbial organisms, reducing the risk of fecal contamination of the water for those who use the groundwater supply as a drinking source. Source water? - correct answer Untreated water from streams, lakes, aquifers which is ultimately used as the drinking supply for the general public. When filling out a search warrant application what is not necessary to include? - correct answer Neighbor's testimony (is information which is not coming from an approved authority...could be hearsay). What are the most common contaminants found in an automobile crank shaft? (Crank case) - correct answer Gasoline and phenols When testing for radon in schools where is the best place to test? - correct answer Lowest rooms in the building The sand filter is used to remove? - correct answer Bacteria and suspended solids from water. The formula Q=AIR is used to determine? - correct answer Rate of runoff in a watershed What is the importance of Darcy's Law? - correct answer It is a derived constitutive equation that describes the flow of a fluid through a porous medium. the law was formulated by Henry Darcy based on the results of his experiment on the flow of water through beds of sand. It also forms the scientific basis of fluid permeability used in the earth sciences. Q=KIA - correct answer Groundwater flow, flow through an underground formation. Which is LEAST likely to cause foodborne illness in schools? - correct answer Whole vegetables grown at school and cooked in a school cafeteria. A possible cause of methemoglobinemia is? - correct answer High concentrations of Nitrates in drinking water A water treatment plant should have what (according to Salvato)? - correct answer A well equipped lab, certified operator, and qualified chemist. (is certified chemist the same as qualified chemist and if the question asks what is NOT needed at a water treatment plant would the answer be "Licensed Plant Manager since certified operator is required to be there). Upon receiving a permit for a temporary food facility the facility should first? - correct answer Post the permit in a conspicuous place Which form of Hepatitis is spread by the fecal oral route? - correct answer Hepatitis A What is the most common type of food borne illness? - correct answer Salmonella A temporary food service caterer may not accept food from which of the following? - correct answer Food prepared from home. What is most likely happening if a family living in a local housing project starts to feel the following symptoms: headache, dizziness, weakness, pain in the fingernail bed, nausea, and red blotchy skin? - correct answer Carbon Monoxide (CO) poisoning. Which type of pool is prohibited from use by most Health Departments? - correct answer Fill and Draw pools What is the average turnover rate for community pools? - correct answer 6 to 8 hours (spas=30 minutes and wading pools=1 to 2 hours) Household hazardous wastes according to RCRA? - correct answer Household hazardous waste is EXEMPT from RCRA What are the signs of fresh fish? - correct answer Rigid tail and body, bulging clear eyes, bright red gills, smells like the sea, plump and firm, elastic flesh (bounces back). Signs of bad fish include: sunken eyes, bad odor, gray or greenish gills. Institutions are most likely considered to be what? - correct answer Communities What food items can be kept after a flood? - correct answer Sealed canned goods (sanitize outside of can before opening) When Oxygen demand is less than 19.5%, what type of PPE is required? - correct answer Self-contained breathing apparatus. If an enclosed space is found to have over 15% oxygen demand, what is needed before entering? - correct answer Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus. (Anything below 19.5% oxygen demand=magic number for this type of PPE) What is the optimal moisture level for a home? - correct answer 40% - 50%, but the ideal range is anywhere from 30% - 50%. In a Biosafety Level 2 Area what is NOT needed> - correct answer Clothing sterilized before washing What is the least that can be used to block Alpha particles? - correct answer A piece of paper. What is the best color of soil to be used for a waster water drainage area? - correct answer Red (also yellow or brown) What is the most common level used in a sound level meter? - correct answer Level A Sound can be controlled by which of the following ways? - correct answer Turning off or stopping the sound, Shielding (choose ALL OF THE ABOVE) Which organization regulates that the structure of a house is properly constructed? - correct answer HUD What is NOT a characteristic of a common house fly? - correct answer They feed on solid foods What is the recommended temperature for a hospital laundry? - correct answer 160 degrees Which is the most common type of cock roach? - correct answer German What is the spacing required for public beaches? - correct answer 50 square feet What is the proper spacing for hospital beds to be laid out foot to head? - correct answer Salvato says: 4 feet apart and 1 foot away from the wall ( answers on test to choose from, 3 feet is best for placement of head to foot and 5 feet which is best for placement of bed next to one another). Emergency Shelters require how much space? - correct answer 30 square feet per person When a sewer line and a fresh water line come into contact with one another what is it called? - correct answer Cross Connection What is used inside the home to block the passage of sewer gases into the home? - correct answer P Trap (on plumbing fixtures) What is the direction of wind associated with the operation of a sanitary landfill? - correct answer WITH the prevailing winds. What is considered to be NOT overcrowding? - correct answer 1.5 people to a room A home provides all EXCEPT what to the homeowner/renter? - correct answer Protection from accidents Which is considered NOT a violation under HUD's housing code? - correct answer Unpainted interior walls What should NOT be used to clean surfaces in a food facility? - correct answer Phenols If a building is to be found to have Sick Building Syndrome, what is the first thing you should do? - correct answer Evacuate the building What is the most common carrier for Dengue fever? - correct answer Mosquito What is one of the major uses of the JIC (Joint Information Center)? - correct answer Open communication with the public (to ensure coordination of public information during incidents that involve multiple organizations). Which is least likely to transmit diseases? - correct answer Soil How far (what depth) can flies penetrate compacted soil? - correct answer 6 inches (5 feet un-compacted) What is the largest contributor to landfills? - correct answer Paper goods and wrappings. Scabies is contracted by which of the following ways? - correct answer Human to human contact (and is a mite which requires blood for survival). What is not a requirement for playgrounds? - correct answer (?????Don't know which of these...wheel chair access, pitching, signage) I think it is pitching Before what year would you find lead paint used in homes? - correct answer Any homes prior to 1978 Which answer would be best for most irritation to the eyes when in a swimming pool? - correct answer Excess amounts of chloramines (could also be high pH) What is the correct waste water cycle? - correct answer Coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, filtration To prevent Psittacosis, what pet should not be brought to a school? - correct answer Parrot (bird disease) Who regulates what information is written on shellfish containers? - correct answer USDA What is the purpose of blanching? - correct answer To stop enzymes and stabilize color A trailer park is leaking hazardous waste directly on the ground and there is an immediate health threat and the owner will not speak to you, what can you do? - correct answer Acquire an injunction notice (injunction = is an equitable remedy in the form of a court order that requires a party to do or refrain from doing specific acts). Waste landfills should be supplemented with what? - correct answer A top and bottom liner, leachate collection and removal system and a leak detection system). If there is a clean lake, small fresh water stream involved what would be the best waste disposal system adopted by a small community and a developing community? - correct answer Slow sand filtration In emergency situations what should be done to water for disinfection? - correct answer Boil (at least 1 minute), 8 drops of iodine tincture per quart, chlorine (regular strength, unscented) per gallon of water and let sit for at least 30 minutes. What does g/ppm represent? - correct answer Vapor concentrations (gas concentration). Why are vacuums not recommended for use in hospitals? - correct answer Potential to spread hazardous materials/bacteria into the air What food should not be obtained by a food vendor? - correct answer Adulterated food items (unsafe or impure food items) After a food borne illness outbreak is detected what is the MINIMUM time period required for food borne illness investigations/ - correct answer 12 hours (the range is 12 to 72 hours). What is the recommended detention time for wastewater in a septic tank? - correct answer 24 to 72 hours What is the minimum BOD requirement for a trickling filter? - correct answer 40% What is NOT needed in prisons for fire safety? - correct answer Fire retardant privacy curtains. (what IS needed are uncluttered cells, over ride on cell doors, and an evacuation plan). Wastewater can be used for what? - correct answer Watering vegetable crops Tanning beds cause all of the following except: - correct answer Arrhythmia What is the required test for fecal matter in water? - correct answer Total fecal coliform test What is the highest temperature for a spa? - correct answer 104 degrees (choose 102 to 104 degrees if it's an option) Where should fresh fish be stored in a refrigerator? - correct answer Under raw vegetables on the bottom lowest rack Hazardous wastes must have what? - correct answer The right characteristics and be on the hazardous waste list Who is responsible at a tattoo parlor? - correct answer Manager/employees What must be sterile in a tattoo parlor? - correct answer Needles (definitely) but could be ALL OF THE ABOVE: hands, disposable gloves, disposable ink??? What is the best method used to indicate a gas leak on piping? - correct answer Apply soap bubbles to piping (at possible leak sites, joints) and look for air bubbles Hardness in pool water is made by what? - correct answer Minerals such as Magnesium, calcium, and sodium. Psychrophilic bacteria grow best at what temperature? - correct answer 50 degrees F or below (cold loving bacteria) Nosocomial infection in hospitals are a result of? - correct answer Improper hand washing (sterilize equipment and properly was hands.) Lead is absorbed how many times more in infants than in adults? - correct answer 5 times more (50% absorption rate in kids, 10% in adults) Campylobacter jejuni? (High rate of infection) - correct answer Common at pork plants (salmonella in poultry plants) What is not a common effect of silicosis? - correct answer Presence of asbestos spores If a food receives a maximum amount of unknown pesticide, what is the food considered to be? - correct answer Adulterated Which of the following type of filters has the slowest filtration rate? - correct answer Cartridge filters What is the turnover rate for a spa? - correct answer 30 minutes What is the maximum hand washing temperature? - correct answer 98-110 degrees The HACCP plan applies to what? - correct answer Products and processes (beef and chicken primarily) What does a psychrometer measure? - correct answer Dew point (humidity) Several workers in a building are complaining of headaches, nose and throat problems. Inspectors assume that it is sick building syndrome, where would you begin your investigation? - correct answer The HVAC system When using the Sous-vide method in food processing what bacteria is most likely to be found? - correct answer Clostridium Botulism A gram-negative phosphates test of a milk product indicates what? - correct answer If the milk has been properly pasteurized The removal of sludge can be disposed of by all of these except? - correct answer Ocean disposal (sludge CAN be removed by land disposal, trickling filter, and/or incineration. To properly remove Giardia cysts which of the following must occur. - correct answer Filter 500g of water through a 1 micron filer Polio is what type of communicable disease? - correct answer Virus Amoebic dysentery is caused by what? - correct answer Protozoa (entamoeba hystolica) Typhoid fever is caused by what genus? - correct answer Salmonella (Thyphe can contaminate water and food) When using a DPD color test for pool, what should you do to best determine the actual color? - correct answer Hold it against a white sheet of paper. What is myasis? - correct answer Maggots in babies' noses (flies depsit larvbae which attach to the skin). What is the most permanent method of mosquito control? - correct answer Remove the breeding areas (Drain all bodies of water) Which major food borne illness is spore-forming? - correct answer Bacillus Cereus When assessing a site for a future treatment plant against regulations what is this called? - correct answer EIS - Environmental Impact Survey What is the best setback distance between a water line and sewer line in a trailer park? - correct answer 10 ft [Show Less]
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REHS-RS FOOD SAFETY
What is the order of the HACCP Plan? - correct answer hazard analysis, critical control points, critical limits, monitoring procedures, corrective actions,... [Show More] verification procedures, record keeping (assemble team, determine what to be examined, flow diagrams, potential hazards, risk assessment, control) What is the incubation period for a chemical foodborne illness? - correct answer 1-7 hours What would be the least hazardous food? - correct answer vegetables cooked by students What is the order that food should be stored in a refrigerator? - correct answer Ready to eat. Fish and raw seafood. Whole beef and pork. Eggs and ground meat. poultry and stuffed meat and pasta. What is the most likely barrier that an REHS will encounter with a manager when performing an inspection at a restaurant? - correct answer noisy and busy kitchen What should be in a human and science kitchen? Not? - correct answer soap, hot water. No cloth towels. What symbol is stamped on USDA inspected meat? - correct answer circle What is considered to be comminuted? - correct answer hot dogs and hamburgers What happens to toxins when you freeze food? - correct answer nothing How can one tell if a food item has been taken from the freezer, thawed, and placed back in the freezer? - correct answer water crystalline structures, food frozen together, liquid ery'where, water damage on package. What is it called when chicken from a freezer is placed in a fridge to be used later? - correct answer thawing What are the critical control points in receiving and preparing chicken? - correct answer receiving - 41 or under, cook to 165 What is the onset time for symptoms of a chemical foodborne infection? - correct answer 1-7 hours Bringing frozen chicken from -32 degrees F to 12 degrees F for the purpose of deep frying is called...? - correct answer Slacking What pH encourages staph growth? - correct answer 7.2 (7.2-7.6) After a flood, what container should not be disposed of? - correct answer cans What is the biggest concern with a dumpster overflowing with food? - correct answer rodent breeding site How is an ice machine supposed to be drained? - correct answer through an air gap into an open drain A chef prepares sandwhiches with cold cut meats for a catering even. How soon do the sandwiches need to be eaten after preparation? - correct answer 4 hours If a bushel of apples tests higher than tolerant levels of pesticides, what is the food considered? - correct answer adulterated How long should shellfish tags be kept? - correct answer 90 days What does it mean when milk tests negative for phosphatase? - correct answer sucessful paseurization What does the date of a milk carton indicate? - correct answer last date it can be sold What determines risk categorization of establishments? - correct answer recalls, outbreaks, past inspections When raw shell eggs are used in food, what is the best way to prevent salmonella? - correct answer thoroughly cook eggs and all foods containing eggs What contaminants are concerns when doing modified packaging or sous-vide - correct answer botulism, listeria What test strip do you use to make sure that auto-clave is working? - correct answer geobacillus stearothermophilus In the FDA 2013 Food Code, hazards are defined as...? - correct answer a priority In the FDA 2013 Food Code, what are the violation orders from most important to least important? - correct answer priority, priority foundation, core What agencies are responsible for protecting food against terrorism? - correct answer USDA, EPA, eLEXNET, Fern, HHS What is the purpose of blanching vegetables? - correct answer inactivate enzymes What is the most important rule of food storage? - correct answer FIFO (first in, first out) What is NOT a sign of spoiled fish? - correct answer red gills, elastic skin What are you likely to get from a food worker with an open wound? - correct answer staph What defines a foodborne illness outbreak? - correct answer Two or more people getting ill What are the minimum hours of previous meals that needs to be known? - correct answer 72 hours How are milk samples to be treated? - correct answer keep sterlie, keep cold, chain of custody Milk is considered Ultra-High Temperature pasteurized if it reaches - correct answer 212 F (100 C) for 1 second What is a sign of spoiled fish? - correct answer strong odor, sunken eyes The lab reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteruized milk. What does this indicate? - correct answer improper bacterial treatment of material What should an interior food service facility wall surface not be constructed of? - correct answer wallboard or anything absorptive What's the best floorings for food establishments (if installed correctly)? - correct answer ceramic tile Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed at what temp for how many minutes? - correct answer 10-15 minutes at 176 degrees F How many inches off the floor should food be stored? - correct answer 6 inches How can a block of contaminated ices be identified? - correct answer discoloration in the geometric center Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing? - correct answer calcium and silica. iron and magnesium carbonates. aluminum oxide and manganese. How does one prevent celery from contaminating salads? - correct answer immerse celery in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water. Where is the quality of milk largely determined? - correct answer At the farm where the milk is produced How hot should the water temp be when disinfecting milking equipment? Chlorine solution strength? - correct answer 180-190 degrees. 200 mg/l How can raw milk be prepared (in emergencies) to be rendered safe for drinking? - correct answer heated after bottling to a temp of 165 degrees At what time and temp specification does a sweetened milk product have to be pasteurized? - correct answer 150 degrees for 30 minutes What isn't removed in milk pasteurization? - correct answer toxins, anthrax spores, and pesticides. How much must the pasteurizer temp be increased if the fat content of milk increases by 10 percent or more? - correct answer 5 degrees After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below --- so that --- - correct answer 45 degrees so remaining bacteria will not materially increase What do food inspections of the future focus on? - correct answer hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations What is the proper procedure used for bottle washing in large plants? - correct answer wash. rinse. sanitizing rinse. What temp does milk have to get to in order to be considered Ultra-high temperature pasteurized? - correct answer 212 degrees for 1 second What are common refrigerants? not? - correct answer carbon dioxide, methyl chloride, sulfur dioxide. NOT: nitrogen oxide What does quality control of milk include? - correct answer transportation, herd health, milk handling and processing, distribution, refrigeration What tests determine pasteurized milk quality? - correct answer direct microscopic count, coliform test, standard plate count, phosphatase test, taste and odor test How can an indication of the sanitary condition of milk be obtained when it's not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria examinations? - correct answer methylene blue reduction test, resazurin test Where can E. coli O157:H7 be found thriving? - correct answer intestines of man and animals What is listeriosis? - correct answer serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes What is Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome caused by? - correct answer by infection with E. coli O157:H7 Which group of bacteria typically contains most pathogenic bacteria? - correct answer mesophilic Thermoduric bacteria grow best at what temp? - correct answer 70-98 degrees What is the voluntary federal-state milk program commonly referred to? - correct answer IMS (interstate milk shippers) What system encouraged dairy farmers to maintain large enough herds to meet drinking milk needs during seasons of lowest production? - correct answer Agricultural Management Agreement Act Deaths of newborns caused by milk-induced diarrhea has been mainly attributed to what bacteria? - correct answer E coli What is the major reason for regulation of food establishment? - correct answer prevent foodborn illness Routine inspections don't ensure adequate levels of sanitation will be met. What should inspections be supplemented with? - correct answer quality control. education. managment supervision. Inspection report forms are primarily tools used for what? - correct answer assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy What group do soft-shell and hard-shell clams, mussels, lobsters, crabs, and shrimp fall under? - correct answer shellfish Why is there a strong emphasis placed on the control of shellfish? - correct answer it can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever What type of shellfish is most likely to cause illness? - correct answer Kind with shells, like oysters What agency is responsible for protecting waterways from contamination? - correct answer EPA Between 1900 and 1925, outbreaks of what disease traced to contaminated shellfish led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment? - correct answer typhoid fever What certification must dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish have? - correct answer PHS certification What pH and temperature do oysters grow best at? - correct answer 6.2-6.8 and 41 degrees F What is proper facility lighting essential for? - correct answer cleanliness, accident prevention, and fatigue reduction What is an ideal floor covering for a kitchen? - correct answer quarry tile What is the recommended storage temperature in order to protect against salmonella growth in potentially hazardous food? - correct answer 41 What factors slow down biological activity and preserve food? - correct answer high and low temps, reduced moisture, refrigeration What temperatures have been found more satisfactory for the storage of foods used within 24 or 48 hours? - correct answer 38-40 degrees To allow circulation of cold air, what characteristic must refrigerators or walk-in coolers have? - correct answer slotted racks To accelerate the rapid cooling of food, sandwich and salad mixtures should be placed in shallow pans at depth no greater than what? - correct answer 3 inches To prepare a solution of 100 mg per liter available chlorine, how many ounces of 5.25 percent bleach should be used with one gallon of water? - correct answer .25 oz What is the correct order of sequence for hand washing dishes? - correct answer scrape and flush, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry What should the final rinse water temp for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher be? - correct answer 180 degrees What isn't a step in proper machine dishwashing? - correct answer cloth drying Where must temporary food permits be displayed? - correct answer in a conspicuous location What bacteria are gram-positive spore formers? - correct answer bacillus cerus, clostridium botulinum, and C. perfringes What is the purpose of sanitizer? - correct answer reduce microorganisms to a safe level At what temp and how long do eggs, fish, and meat need to be cooked? - correct answer 145 degrees for 15 seconds At what temp and for how long do comminuted meat, ratites, and injected meats, and eggs that are not for immediate service need to be cooked? - correct answer 155 degrees for 15 seconds At what temp and for how long does poultry, and stuffed things need to be cooked? - correct answer 165 degrees for 15 seconds [Show Less]
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REHS-RS STUDY GUIDE (B)
What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in children under 5 years of age? - correct answer Haemophilus influenzae How is "giardiasis" usua... [Show More] lly transmitted to others? - correct answer Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies is intended to ensure that the public's health and welfare are protected? - correct answer Regulatory responsibilities Which of the following is a measure of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample? - correct answer Nephelometric Turbidity units What is an epidemic? - correct answer The occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease? - correct answer Skin Swimmer's itch is a common name for which of the following diseases? - correct answer Schistosomiasis Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infectious disease? - correct answer Heat disinfection Listeriosis is commonly associated with - correct answer contaminated food Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by infection with - correct answer Escherichia Coli The basic principles of disease control include all of the following EXCEPT - correct answer Lag phase - disease control has control mode of transmission and susceptibility Which one of the following phrases MOST accurately describes the term endemic? - correct answer constant presence of an illness The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the: - correct answer incubation period An establishment known to have imminent health hazards is not closed by the inspecting regulatory authority. This example BEST fits the definition of a: - correct answer nonfeasance Vehicleborne, vectorborne, or airborne are all examples of: - correct answer indirect mode of transmission Equal protection - correct answer Requires states to guarantee the same rights, privileges, and protection to all citizens Due process - correct answer the necessary procedural requirements that government agencies must follow in order to take action against parties in violation of applicable laws law - correct answer A body of enforceable rules governing relationships among individuals and between individuals and their society. Statutes - correct answer Written laws made by legislatures (elected officials of the nation or state Ordinances - correct answer local laws or laws enacted by local elected officials of the nation or state Regulations or rules - correct answer laws enacted by regulatory agencies, either national, state, or local. licence or permit - correct answer gives permission to engage in a legally restricted activity Litigation - correct answer generally considered a civil action to settle a dispute in a court of law arbitration - correct answer settling a dispute by agreeing to accept the decision of an impartial outsider Negotiation - correct answer nonbinding settlement discussion between the interested parties administrative hearings - correct answer formal and informal means to gather information and clarify positions administrative order or enforcement/abatement order - correct answer a legal document from a state or federal agency directing an individual, business, or agency to correct or stop an activity embargo - correct answer a legal order prohibiting the removal or use of something Seizure order - correct answer legal permission to confiscate, retain, and/or dispose of something Condemnation - correct answer a legal judgement that finds a structure or property too dangerous or unfit for human use Closed to occupancy - correct answer a responsible person may enter in to make repairs but may not occupy the property or live there Public Nuisance - correct answer nuisance that affects the community or public at large Nuisance abatement - correct answer A legal order to stop such hindering and/or annoying activities Civil law - correct answer individuals or groups acting in a nonpublic capacity in which some form of compensation is sought, and liability, not guilt, is established. Prohibitory Injunction - correct answer A court order directing a person to refrain from doing something - cease and desist a particular action mandatory injuction - correct answer an order to take action, such as applying for a permit, changing a procedure, reporting an activity or correcting a violation Criminal law - correct answer law to prevent harm to society Complaint or Information - correct answer a written criminal accusation from one or more sworn complainants (REHS) against the defendants. Arraignment - correct answer a hearing in which a suspect is charged and pleads guilty or not guilty citation or ticket - correct answer a direct summons, for an observed violation during an inspection misdemeanors - correct answer criminal violations that are less serious than felonies and generally punishable by fines or imprisionment felony - correct answer A serious crime hearsay - correct answer testimony someone gives in court about a statement made by someone else who was not under oath at the time of the statement burden of proof - correct answer the obligation to present evidence to support one's claim Expert testimony - correct answer testimony from people who are recognized experts in their fields Torts - correct answer injuries to an individual's person, property, or reputation informed consent - correct answer A written agreement to participate in a study made by an adult who has been informed of all the risks that participation may entail. Statutes of Limitation - correct answer specific length of time an individual can sue for injury resulting from negligence search warrant - correct answer A written authorization from a court specifying the area to be searched and what the police are searching for. administrative or inspection warrants - correct answer warrants that reduce issuance requirements from probable cause to justifiable cause that an inspection is needed - inspector only notes conditions that are present inspections - correct answer made during business hours; should first identify themselves, show their credentials, and state purpose of their inspection. Conduct in a reasonably non-intrusive and timely manner the exclusionary rule - correct answer a principle that disallows illegally-obtained evidence to be admitted in court. also stipulates that evidence seized during an administrative inspection cannot be used as evidence in a criminal trial subpoena - correct answer a legal process to compel access to records and documents. Gives access to existing records but cannot force a person to create additional documents, fill out questionnaires, or answer verbal questions. Clean Air Act of 1970 - correct answer Established new standards for ambient air quality, set new limits on emissions from stationary and mobile sources to be enforced by both state and federal governments. Pollutants included carbon monoxide, lead, NO2, Ozone, particulates, and sulfur dioxide. Clean Water Act of 1972 - correct answer The Act that created water quality standards to control pollution, including elimination of point source discharge of pollutants. maximum contaminant Level (MCL) - correct answer a concentration maximum for a chemical or constituent that may not be exceeded in drinking water regulated under the safe drinking water act. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) - correct answer (1976) controls hazardous waste with a cradle to grave system Food and Drug Administration (FDA) - correct answer a federal agency responsible for regulating food and drug products sold to the public What are the special 6 criteria pollutants used in monitoring concentrations? - correct answer Carbon monoxide, lead, nitrogen dioxide, ozone, particulates and sulfur dioxide An employer is held liable for the torts of its employees committed within the scope of their employment. This is referred as: - correct answer repondeat superior performance of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner is called: - correct answer misfeasance An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called - correct answer embargo What is the agency that regulates food additives? - correct answer food and drug administration When legal action is being prepared, one of the first steps a sanitarian should take is to: - correct answer keep accurate records hazard - correct answer any physical, chemical, or biological property that may cause an unacceptable consumer risk physical hazards - correct answer items that may cause choking or injury if consumed in food - bandages, chips of flaking paint, dust, fingernails, glass from broken light bulbs or drinking glasses, hair, jewelry, Chemical Hazards - correct answer elements or compounds that may cause illness or injury if consumed in food. can be agricultural chemicals, industrial chemicals and naturally occurring toxins Common enhancers and preservatives added to food - correct answer nitrites, nitrates, sulfites, and monosodium glutamate Acidic foods should never be stored in containers made of ____________________. - correct answer lead, copper, brass, zinc, antimony or cadmium because these toxic metals may leach into the food. allergens - correct answer any non parasitic antigen (protein) capable of evoking a hypersensitive immune response in allergic individuals. the eight foods responsible for most allergic reactions are: - correct answer milk, soy, egg, wheat, finfish, shellfish, peanuts and tree nuts bacteria - correct answer single-celled organisms that lack a nucleus; prokaryotes All bacteria require some combination of - correct answer FATTOM - food, acidity, time to grow and reproduce, temperature, the presence of Oxygen and available moisture. spores - correct answer single-celled reproductive bodies highly resistant to cold and heat damage; capable of new organisms - some bacteria can do this Pathogens - correct answer group of bacteria capable of causing illness in humans if consumed in food. infection - correct answer direct consumption of a pathogen in sufficient quantities to cause illness. toxins - correct answer chemical byproducts that either directly harm tissues or evoke an immune system response intoxication - correct answer consuming a toxin produced in food toxin-mediated infection - correct answer Illness caused by consuming microorganisms that produce toxins in stomach or intestines, making you sick. Most common pathogens - correct answer Bacillus cereus; Clostridium botulinum; Staphylococcus aureus; Clostridium perfringens; Bacillus cereus; Escherichia coli; Shigella spp.; Brucella spp.; Campylobacter jejuni; Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella spp.; Vibrio spp.; Yersinia enterocolitica fungi - correct answer microorganisms such as yeasts, molds and mushrooms Viruses - correct answer a cellular infectious agents that lack most characteristics of living things, reproducing only within the living cells of a host organism. Typically, viruses contaminate food when... - correct answer food handlers improperly wash or fail to wash their hands after using the toliet, sneezing, smoking, nose wiping, etc. Viruses can exist.. - correct answer for long periods on utensils, food preparation surfaces, and food. Viruses also thrive.. - correct answer in water that has been polluted with raw sewage. Ready to eat foods - correct answer Food that can be eaten without further preparation, washing, or cooking. Some illnesses caused by food borne viruses are - correct answer hepatitis A, viral gastroenteritis, and Norwalk viral agents (noroviruses) Most food borne illnesses are destroyed by - correct answer thorough cooking Parasites - correct answer organisms that live on or in a host and cause it harm Foodborne parasite illnesses are caused from... - correct answer inadequately cooked food or contaminated drinking water. Common illness-causing parasites include... - correct answer Trichinella spiralis, Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lambia, Anisakis spp., and Cryptosporidium spp. Trichinella spiralis - correct answer A roundworm causes Trichinosis. Larvae burrow into muscle and form dormant cysts. When animal dies and is eaten, the larvae reproduce in intestines and then burrow into that animal's muscle waiting for it to be eaten. This is why most commercial pork is FROZEN before sale. Entamoeba histolytica - correct answer amoebic dysentery Giardia lamblia - correct answer protozoan transmitted from infected food handlers or contaminated water. Anisakis spp. - correct answer roundworms found in certain species of fish Potentially Hazardous Foods (PHF) - correct answer any foods that require time and temperature control for safety (TCS) Time/temperature control for safety food - correct answer foods that require time and or temperature control because they are capable of supporting the rapid and progressive growth of pathogens What are some examples of Potentially hazardous foods? - correct answer meat and poultry, shellfish and crustaceans, tofu and soy products, milk and milk products, garlic and oil mixtures, cooked rice, beans, pasta and potatoes, sliced melons, raw seed sprouts. Temperature Danger Zone (TDZ) - correct answer 41°F to 135°F unserved food that is left over or food prepared in advance to be served later must be reheated so - correct answer that the complete portion reaches an internal temperature of at least 165 degress for 15 seconds. Holding equipment (steam tables) should never be used to heat or reheat foods because - correct answer they allow potentially hazardous food to remain in the danger zone too long. [Show Less]
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1. A factor or agent which increases the risk of cancer is known as a a. teratogen b. mutagen c. carcinogen d. fomite - correct answer carcinogen ... [Show More] 2. The four major causes of death among all age groups of Americans include all of the following except. a. homicide b. accidents c. malignant neoplasms d. heart disease - correct answer homicide 3. In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with a. skunks b. bats c. dogs d. raccons. - correct answer skunks 4. Asbestosis is caused by fine silicate fibers retained in the a. kidneys b. lungs c. colon d. abdomen - correct answer lungs 5. An illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic product which is transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly or indirectly is called a. an infectious disease b. a communicable disease c. a genetic disease d. a noncommunicable disease - correct answer a communicable disease 6. Rocky mountain spotted fever is spread by a. flies b. spiders c. cockroaches d. ticks - correct answer ticks 7. Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by a. bacteria b. vertebrates c. viruses d. fungi - correct answer fungi 8. The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is a. entomology b. biology c. endocrinology d. epidemiology - correct answer epidemiology 9. Which of the following organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution? a. fecal streptococci b. escherichia coli c. aerobacter aerogenes d. clostridium sporulates - correct answer clostridium sporulates 10. Engineering controls are a. controls that isolate or remove hazards from the work place b. less effective than good training c. the last option that should be considered d. less effective than personal protection processes - correct answer controls that isolate or remove hazards from the workplace 11. Which of the following is not considered a satisfactory solution to the problem of chemical contamination in Well systems? a. abandoning the well b. boiling the water c. building a new, properly constructed, drilled well - correct answer boiling the water 12. Which of the following chemicals is most widely used to destroy microorganisms? a. chlorine b. copper sulfate c. chloramine d. hydrogen sulfate - correct answer chlorine 13. Which of the following is not a practical method for removal of cadmium? a. ion exchange b. lime softening c. reverse osmosis d. iron coagulation - correct answer reverse osmosis 14. Which of the following is not a commonly accepted method of device to prevent backsiphonage? a. vacuum breakers b. cross-connections c. air gap separation d. back pressure units - correct answer cross-connections 15. This substance is the first product of the decomposition of organic matter. Its presence in water usually Indicates "fresh pollution" of sanitary significance. What is it? a. ammonia b. sugar c. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen sulfide - correct answer ammonia 16. One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay, or hardpan is a. seepage of pollutants through soil b. failure to seal well casings properly c. porosity of the rock d. use of inferior quality well casings - correct answer failure to seal well casings properly 17. In emergencies, small quantities of water can be disinfected by boiling or using a. aluminum salts b. tincture of iodine c. salt tablets d. direct exposure to sunlight for 22 hours - correct answer tincture of iodine 18. Back flow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by a. back pressure b. backsiphonage c. vacuum in the volume d. a and b above - correct answer a and b above 19. Which of the following statements should not be a consideration in locating a groundwater supply? a. the probable travel of pollution through the ground b. the well construction practices and standards c. the sanitary seal provided at the point where the pump lines pass out of the casing d. the distance that the water will need to travel - correct answer the distance that the water will need to travel 20. It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than ____ of harsh temperature extremes a. 2 months b. 5 months c. 2 years d. 5 years - correct answer 2 years 21. A storm sewer is used to a. remove rain or other standing surface water b. remove sewage and storm water c. remove household water waste and gutter drain water d. remove non-toxic, non-hazardous wastewater - correct answer remove rain or other standing surface water 22. Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by a. increased levels of available oxygen in the water b. a zone of degradation c. large numbers of crayfish and cristivomer species d. large numbers of small fish - correct answer a zone of degradation 23. If the septic tank will also have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it a. the size of the tank would be increased by 50 percent b. the tank should have an agiator c. the tank should not be equipped with a gas baffle d. the tank should not be constructed with precast concrete - correct answer the size of the tank would be increased by 50 percent 24. How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced? a. every year b. every 5 to 10 years c. every 3 to 5 years d. every 10 years - correct answer every 3 to 5 years 25. Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater, using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains a. nitrates b. iron c. cadmium d. chlorides - correct answer cadmium 26. A measure of the relativity constant rate at which clear water, maintained at a relatively constant depth, will seep out of a standard size test hole that has been previously saturated is the a. hydraulic conductivity b. soil permeability test c. soil percolation test d. Baird-Parker saturation test - correct answer soil percolation test 27. The ability of a soil to absorb and allow water and air to pass through is related to all of the following except a. chemical composition b. texture c. cation exchange capacity d. granular structure - correct answer cation exchange capacity 28. Bacteria that require oxygen for their growth are called a. anaerobic bacteria b. aerobic bacteria c. viruses d. fungi - correct answer aerobic bacteria 29. The examination of the stool for cysts and/or ova is the common diagnosis for which food borne pathogen? A. Parasitic infections B. Viral infections C. Bacterial infections D. Non-infectious agents E. None of the above - correct answer parasitic infections 30. If you are counseling a pregnant patient, what foods should she avoid to decrease her risk for listeriosis? A. Honey B. Fresh soft cheese C. Sauerkraut D. Cooked mushrooms E. Caffeine - correct answer fresh soft cheese 31. Which scenario(s) may present a risk to immunocompromized patients. A. Animals in the Home Use B. Coming in contact with individuals after they have been given a live virus vaccine. C. Eating raw oysters D. Drinking non-pasteurized juices or unchlorinated water E. All of the above - correct answer all of the above 32. What food borne illness may present with chocolate-brown colored blood? A. Nitrite poisoning B. Organophosphate poisoning C. Botulism D. Mercury poisoning E. Tin poisoning - correct answer nitrite poisoning 33. Approximately how many people die per year in the U.S. of food-borne illness? A. 5,000 B. 100 C. 9,000 D. 100,000 E. 50 - correct answer 5,000 34. In the U.S. the pioneering Pure Food and Drug Act was passed in 1906 stimulated by journalistic exposures of inferior conditions in the food industry and by Upton Sinclair's 1906 novel titled? A. Silent Spring B. The Coming Plague C. To Kill a Mockingbird D. The Jungle E. The Catcher in the Rye - correct answer The Jungle 35. Which bacteria in large numbers can survive extended storage in cheddar cheese? a) Salmonella b) Brucella sp. c) Shigella d) Clostridium perfringens - correct answer Salmonella 36. Which of the following is non-toxic to aquatic organisms, a good viricide, and adds oxygen to treated wastewater effluents? a. ozone b. calcium hypochlorine c. sulfur dioxide d. chlorine dioxide - correct answer ozone 37. The typical limitation of use of the septic tank absorption field system is due to a. cost b. land use considerations c. soil type and size requirements d. appearance - correct answer soil type and size requirements 38. Which of the following is true about disposal of animal wastes? a. If wet manure is plowed under, fly eggs present will not hatch. b. Composting of manure takes advantage of the inclination that larvae move out and away from moist manure in search of a dry place to pupate. c. Where a small number of animals are kept, the manure should be collected once a week. d. Odors associated with the handling and disposal of these wastes do not determine the disposal method or its location. - correct answer composting of manure takes advantage of the inclination that larvae move out and away from moist manure in search of a dry place to pupate 39. Resource recovery and reduction of solid wastes should start a. at the point of generation b. at the sanitary landfill c. in the home d. at the transfer station - correct answer at the point of generation 40. ______can be recovered from refuse by burning it in a refractory lined incineration or water-wall incinerator. a. glass b. aluminum c. ferrous metal d. energy - correct answer energy 41. Incinerators are rated in terms of a. percent fuel capacity per day b. BTU's per day c. tons of burnable waste per day d. cubic feet of solid waste per day. - correct answer tons of burnable waste per day 42. The three essentials for combustion in an incinerator are a. temperature, time and heat b. time, temperature and moisture c. temperature, heat and fuel d. time, temperature and turbulence - correct answer time, temperature and turbulence 43. The second step of the combustion process in an incinerator requires a high temperature of at least a. 1500o to 1600oF b. 1500o to 1800o F c. 1900o to 2000o F d. 1800o to 1900o F - correct answer 1500 to 1800 F 44. A landfill site should not a. be located near a major highway b. be given and attractive entrance and approach road c. house equipment on site d. be inexcessible during bad weather conditions - correct answer be inexcessible during bad weather conditions 45. Determining what a landfill can be used for when completed should be planned a. when the landfill is half full b. before you build the landfill c. when the landfill is full d. any time during the operation of the landfill - correct answer before you build the landfill 46. Hazardous waste is governed by the a. Clean Air Act b. Occupational Safety and Health Act c. Resource and Conservation and Recovery Act d. Food and Drug Act - correct answer Resource and Conservation and Recovery Act 47. Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste? a. ignitability b. corrosivity c. reactivity d. combustibility - correct answer combustibility 48. The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ________ destroyed or reduced before [Show Less]
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REHS 300 QUESTIONS AND ANSWER
What is an emetic? Describe a few examples observed in Environmental Health. - correct answer It is a chemical that induces vomiting. In E.H. emetics are u... [Show More] sed in Vector Control for rodent control, Red Squill What does USDA stamp on meat signify? - correct answer The meat products have been processed and inspected by the USDA (United State Department of Agriculture) and has passed food quality inspections Mobile Home parks are monitored by what Federal agency? - correct answer Housing and Urban Development (HUD) What are the specific requirements for an OXIDATION (stabilization) POND? - correct answer The space (or area), time (up to 60 days) and the depth (3 to 5 feet) For community-wide noise panning, what is the most important contributor to that noise - correct answer automobiles;routes and traffic What types of laws are government protected from liability? - correct answer Sovereign immunity What is grout seal? - correct answer this is the top space between a bored well and the ground. the seal is usually concrete What waste by-product is generated from sulfur oxide scrubbers? - correct answer Sulfuric acid. The sulfur oxide reacts with the water in the scrubber to form acid. This is also an important reaction in the atmosphere where the sulfur oxides react with the atmospheric moisture and forms acid rain. What type of laws do the Health Department enforce? - correct answer Administrative (delegated laws) You are asked to inspect and test for pH, conductivity, and heavy metals. What type of inspection are you performing? - correct answer A hazardous waste inspection for metal plating facility In most cities, nitrogen oxide (NOX) is what source of pollution? - correct answer Automobile exhaust Search and inspection warrants are similar except? - correct answer with search warrants, the search requirements are specific to a violation condition When municipal water treatment facilities add fluoride into their water what is one of the most important factors in calculating the dose? - correct answer the temperature of the water. the colder the water the more flu0ride it absorbs Who developed the Model Food Code? - correct answer The Food Drug Administration (FDA) What law establishes the Environmental Impact Statement? - correct answer The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) What is the average holding time for septic tanks? - correct answer 24 hours What is does it mean where they refer to "CRADLE to GRAVE" - correct answer Whoever produces the hazardous material, they are responsible for the chemical from the time they created (CRADLE) to it's final disposal (GRAVE) Murine typhus (endemic typhus) is commonly spread by - correct answer Infected rat flea Xenopsylla cheopis defecates the wound With most anaphylactic shock victims, if prompt medical assistance is not administered, death can usually result from? - correct answer They stop breathing Does the level of TOTAL DISSOLVED SOLIDS in water affect chlorine disinfection? If it is why? - correct answer NO For hot water sanitizing what are the MINIMUM temperatures required in CURFFLaW and the Model Food Code? - correct answer CURFFLaw is 180 degrees F for 30 sec The Model Food Code is 171 degrees F for 30 sec Describe what types of chlorinate hydrocarbon pesticides are and why they are banned from use in U.S.A? - correct answer DDT, Chlordane, Linda are examples. They are very persistent in the environment (does not biodegrade easily or quickly and affects the reproductive cycles of many wildlife. FEMA responsibilities - correct answer -make resources available to State or Local Emergency Response Efforts -Goal is to lessen the impact of all types of Emergencies, before they occur and during -Provide Direct Assistance -Provide Professional and Technical Personnel -Handle Requests for Federal Assistance or Assistance from other states What is FEMA? - correct answer Federal Emergency Management Agency directs various federal agencies that deal with disasters relating to public health and environmental health such as Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) What is the Command Incident System? - correct answer Incident command system (ICS) is the statewide accepted on the scene emergency or disaster response plan instituted by the police department, fire department, search and rescue operations. and hazardous materials incidences. What are the components that integrate ICS system together to control personnel, equipment, and communications. - correct answer 1. common terminology 2.modular organization 3. Integrated communication 4. Command Structure 5. Consolidated action plans 6. manageable range of control 7.designated incident facilities 8.Comprehensive resource management Lag phase - correct answer bacteria is being transferred from one medium to another or the organism present are in a slow growth mode due to cold or hot temperatures Log phase - correct answer binary fusion, exponential division Stationary phase - correct answer the amount of live bacteria is equal to dead bacteria. Its running out of food or just too many organisms. Some organisms start to die off from their own toxins Decline phase - correct answer the amount of dead bacteria is great than live bacteria. A steady decline or die off due to lack of food, toxins, moisture. Chemical intoxication - correct answer result from toxic chemical entering the food processing chain and being consumed in quantities that will result in sickness Which incineration system is the most widely used in the USA? Briefly explain the batch process. - correct answer -Smoke incineration system is the most used widely in the USA -A batch process means large batches are place within the incinerator and burned. The cycle must be completed before a new batch of waste is burned. This is an intermittent method, but high temperature must be maintained to prevent smoke (1500 degrees F-1700 degrees F) Why is methane and landfills important? Define the different states of a landfill. - correct answer Methane gas can be converted to electricity for power Aerobic state is between 4-60 days Anaerobic state is after 60 days Substandard Housing - correct answer refers to any building that has a condition that endanger the life, limb, health, property, safety, or welfare of the public or the occupants Slum - correct answer is an area where substandard housing predominates and overcrowding exists What are the rules for inspecting substandard and slum housing? - correct answer the housing inspection should be conducted in a quick and systematic way. The inspector should be able to quickly inspect each area of the apartment unit, note the violations and proceed to the next unit What are the minimum water heater temperature for public housing and food facilities? - correct answer minimum water temperature for public housing should not be less than 110 degrees F and 120 degrees F for food facilities what is dermatitis? - correct answer -the most common occupation disease of the skin -this the most classification for the skin aliment which is brought on by occupational hazards. Common exposure to chemicals and pollutants are some examples which cause dermatitis Alpha Radiation - correct answer 1. low penetration (will NOT penetrate the skin) 2. more significant as an internal emitter 3. stooped by paper 4. Dangerous if ingested Beta Radiation - correct answer 1. Penetrate more than alpha 2.have internal and external emitter significance 3. Electron emission 4.The particles are more penetrating than alpha particles 5. Dangerous if ingested Gamma Rays - correct answer -Gamma radiation is electromagnetic rather than particulate radiation -electromagnetic radiation of extremely short wavelength and intensely high energy originates in the atomic nucleus. -term gamma radiation refers to radiation from the nucleus of an atom -Expose to gamma radiation may be lethal; complete protect is essential X-Rays-discovered by Roentgen in 1898 - correct answer 1.Extremely short wavelength (0.06 to 120 Angstroms) 2.Emission is the result of electron transitions in the inner orbits of heavy atoms bombarded by cathode ray in a vacuum tube 3.Can penetrate moderately dense materials 4. High penetrating 5. Retarded by bone, barium sulfate and lead 6. Can ionize certain gases as they pass through the material 7.Can damage or destroy diseased tissue as well as damaging health issue 8.Over exposure can permanently damage cells and tissue structures 9. Control of this type of radiation must be at the source 10. The overall radiation effect is cumulation Toxic mold - correct answer the term toxic mold is somewhat misleading as it exudes an idea that certain molds are toxic, when actually certain types of molds produce secondary metabolites that produce toxins. the correct term is mycotoxins. Airborne mycotoxins from can definitely destroy one's health Toxic mold health effects - correct answer the molds that produce airborne toxins that can cause serious symptoms , such as breathing difficulties. memory and hearing loss, dizziness, flu like symptoms and acid reflux. Common ailments from toxigenic mold-- including allergies (hypersensitivity after initial toxicity, and excessive bruising- usually can be treated and reduced after people leave their contaminated environment. Often medication, diet, and other treatments protocols are necessary. But other heath problems may remain permanently, such as brain damage and weakened immune systems. Eyesight, memory, coordination/balance, and hearing are generally the most common residual effects that often do not improve after treatment in most cases Toxic mold detection method - correct answer molds can be found wherever there is moisture, oxygen and something to feed on. In the fall, they grow on rotting logs and fallen leaves, especially in moist, shady areas. In gardens, they can found in compost piles and on certain grasses and weeds. Molds grow in our homes in moist warm areas lie damp basements, closets, and bathrooms. even after the moistures has dried up. Also molds can grow in places where fresh food is stored, refrigerator drip tray, house plants, humidifiers, garbage pails, mattresses, upholstered furniture, or foam rubber pillows. The worst place that molds can grow, however is is inside wall cavities and flooring of our homes, where there may be cellulose materials they can feed on, such as wood, ceiling tiles, or plasterboard, even if they are not visible, and they have sustained water damage at one time or another. this is very common if there has been a plumbing leak or an inadequate roof Noise - correct answer is commonly defined as unwanted sound. An annoyance or disruption of well being. Noise is a nuisance Inverse square law - correct answer is the intensity of the sound form a source varied inversely as the square of its distance form the sound source. Noise from a point source decreases with distance according to the inverse square law so that doubling of distance results in reduction of -6 dB. Sound increases and diminishes at exponential rate Doubling of sound - correct answer doubling of identical sound pressures result in an increase of 3dB. Sound does not have a additive effect. Example: 1. 3 dB increase in sound pressure of 2 identical sources 100 dB +100 DB speaker = 103 dB total sound pressure 2. 4.8 dB increase in sound pressure of 3 identical sources 100 dB speaker + 100 dB speaker + 100 dB speaker =104.8 dB total sound presssure c. four, 100 dB speakers= 106 dB total sound pressure d. eight, 100 dB speakers= 109 dB total sound pressure Sound Level Meter - correct answer is the basic measuring instrument used to evaluate potential noise exposure hazards. This device measure the sound pressure in decibels of the actual sound level emitted from the source. Frequency does not play the key role here. It is the loudness of a sound source. The sound level meter consists of a microphone, an amplifier with various range levels , electronic filters that provide the A-weighted noise function, and indicating device such as a meter or digital display Octave Level Analyzer - correct answer is alson known as the octave waveband analyzer. This device is commonly used in the measurement of hearing. Sound pressure is not the vital key to this device. The device sound waves from the human hearing wave spectrum (20-20,000 Hz) and tests the patient for hearing acuity Noise Dosimeter - correct answer consists of a sound meter, integrator and indicator. The instrument measure the total sound energy the employee has been exposed to over a work shift time period. The meter will indicate the percent allowable exposure levels and its average equivalent dBA levels. With these levels, the workplace can monitor if the worker is being exposed over the maximum allowable limits in his or her workplace. Federal Noise limit standards - correct answer 7 A.M. -------->10 P.M. Rural 60 dBA Suburban 65dBA Urban 65 dBA 10 P.M.--------->7A.M. Rural 50dBA Suburban 55dBA Urban 60dBA Sound factor and sound quality characteristics in decibels - correct answer * "Change in sound level" changes the perceived change in loudness". *Change in Sound Level *Perceived Change in loudness 3 dBA barely perceptible 5 dBA quite noticeable 10 dBA dramatically different 20 dBA Strikingly different; 4X as loud * A noise change form 0 to 10dB is a factor of 10, A change of 20 dB is a factor of 100,etc * Noise factor (dB) Change Factor 10 10 20 100 30 1000 40 10,000 What is the PEL of noise in CA? - correct answer 85 dB@ 8hrs Trichinella - correct answer -commonly known as trichinosis. -M.O.T: ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked infected flesh containing viable cysts. It develops in the small intestines and when the roundworm matures, it mats. The female worm then pass the larvae which penetrate in the intestinal wall, entering the lymph system and then goes through the bloodstream throughout the body. The larvae cysts situates in the STRIATED muscles. -Symptoms:vary from person to person. Can be mild to fatal. Usually fever, followed by redness of the eyelids are an early sign. Infection can be in the inner eye, with retinal hemorrhages, pain and sensitivity to light. Diarrhea, muscle soreness, pain , thirst, profuse sweating. chills and weakness can follow. Fever ends in abut 3 weeks and respiratory and neurological symptom ma appear in 3rd to 6th week. Myocardial failure can occur in the 4th to 8th week -Incubation: 10-14 days -yes, heat will destroy the parasite. OK to serve infected meat customers as long as it is fully cooked What are hookworms, route of infection and how can their eggs survive? - correct answer -Hookworms is the common name for Nematodes. There are two common infectious agents -Ancylostoma duodenale: (Mediterranean countries and or subtropical areas of the world) -Necator americanus: (U.S.A) -It is a disease of intestinal discharge. It is both chronic and debilitating. Eggs deposited in the solid with the feces, breed into larvae which finds a victim by burrowing into the skin of the food (in moist cases). Eggs can also survive waste water treatment, sludge digestion. The larvae can be infective for several weeks under favorable conditions. Malaria - correct answer -most common name Plasmodium Vivax. - there are four different varieties of malaria which have similar symptoms and can only be distinguished by lab tests. -Symptoms: fever, chills, sweats, headaches, jaundice like conditions, blood coagulation defects, shock and kidney failure, possible coma and other nervous disorders -M.O.T: infective bite of the female anophelian mosquito. Bood feedings for mosquito usually takes place at dusk or early evening. When the adult femle anophelian mosquito lands on a flat surface, the standing body position is angled at a 45 degree angle. -Most lethal to human, Plasmodium falciparum or malignant tertian malaria (cerebral malaria -incubation period: 12-14 days Describe the disease that freshwater snails can spread - correct answer -most common waterborne disease -the disease that fresh water snail can spread is Schistosoma or the blood fluke. -Aka "Swimmer's itch" or skin dermatitis -infectious agent is Shistosoma mansoni -infection is acquired by water contaminated with the blood fluke larval forms which has developed in fresh water snail. The larvae leaves the snail after a few week and then penetrates the skin of the human host. Rice field workers are a good example. -can be acquired by eating vegetables from swampy water contaminated conditions (e.g watercrest) What pathogenic organis is commonly implicated in day care centers? - correct answer -Giardia Lambia is the organism commonly implicated in the day care centers due to poor hygiene practices of day care workers not properly washing their hands after changing diapers -Unpurified mountain water can harbor aka Hiker's disease -Fecal -Oral route organism. Present in contaminated water -Symptoms: often asymptomatic but other intestinal symptoms such as chronic diarrhea, abdominal cramps, frequent loose, pale grease stools are accompanied by fatigue and weight loss Describe yellow fever vector and U.S. historical significance - correct answer -the virus of Yellow fever, a group togavirus (flavivirus) -the bite is from an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. In the jungle or forests of South Africa. The mosquito acquires it from an infected blood meal. incubates the virus within the mosquito, then infect a human victim when it takes another blood meal. -The disease is characteristic of Dengue, which is similar to flu-like symptoms. Symptoms include sudden onset, fever, headaches, nausea, and vomiting. AS the disease progresses, the pulse of the victim slows and weakens with possible accompanied elevated body temperature -active immunization should be administered for those who are most threatened by the disease -U.S historical significance? research PANAMA CANAL Explain some of the ways rodents are controlled in solid waste management - correct answer -refuse collection frequency to break up the fly breeding cycle and 6 inches daily cover (compacted to prevent fly larvae emergence) Explain the difference between the windrose and windrows - correct answer -Windrose is a graph or diaphramming of wind direction (prevailing winds) which details the magnitude and the directions. Important for determining the location of command post for haz-mat spill response -Windrows are rows of compost piles allowing air to flow through the compost and promote aerobic decomposition. The compost material must be turned frequently to promote aerobic decomposition Explain the difference between food intoxication, and food infection, symptoms, onset, and food types - correct answer -Food borne intoxication:when an organism such as bacteria multiply to great numbers and then produce a toxin while in the process. It is usually more fast acting then food infection. Vomiting is usually a symptom. Poisoning usually does NOT produce a fever because the toxin is acted immediately upon the body and does not give the body a chance to kick in their defense mechanisms. -Food infection: the disease causing organism is carried by the food and water products into the suspecting host. The organism which causes the disease is taken from one source to another. Fever is usually a first symptom because the body is fighting off the infection Encephalitis - correct answer is a disease that causes inflammation of parts of the brain (meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord to inflame possibly causing pressure on the brain) Eastern Equine Encephalitis - correct answer -bite of infected Culiseta melanura. Found in Eastern United States -mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants -incubation is usually 5-15 days -high fatality rate (up to 60%) for untreated cases St Louis Encephalitis - correct answer -bite of infected Culex tarsalis and Culex pipens mosquito -mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants -incubation is usually 5-15 days - fatality rate (up to 25%) for untreated cases Western Equine Encephalitis - correct answer -bite of infected Culex tarsalis -mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants -incubation is usually 5-15 days -lower fatality rate (3-5%) for untreated cases West Nile Virus - correct answer -a viral disease -while true reservoir cannot be exactly determined. it is know that birds, rodents, reptiles, amphibians, adult mosquito and man can be reservoir -source of infection in man can be from from infected mosquito eggs or the bite of an infected Culex tarsalis-mild cases become viral meningitis. Severe infections usually exhibit symptoms of headache, high fever, stupor and disorientation, tremors, occasional convulsion and paralysis to infants -incubation is usually 5-15 days What is the different biological indicators for milk Pasteurization? - correct answer -Phosphatase enzyme is one of the biological indicators for milk Pasteurization. With proper pasteurization , the phosphatase enzyme is completely inactivated. If phosphatase enzyme still remains after pasteurization, this signifies that milk was not heated properly and was not properly pasteurized -Q fever Histoplasmosis - correct answer -"Darling's disease" -fungus that is found in soil around chicken houses, bat caves. starling roots, and soil with highly organic content -transmitted by inhalation of airborne spores -symptoms: vary from mild respiratory illness to temporary incapacity, malaise, weakness, fever, chest pains and coughing -incubation 5-18 days after exposure -Prevention: avoid exposure to dust in suspected areas such as chicken coops and bat caves. Protective mask should be worn when working in those types of environment. Liquid disinfectant spraying (3% formalin) to alleviate the dust can be used. Q fever - correct answer -its a common name for Coxiella burnetti (Rickettsia burnetti) and organism with amazing viability in the free state -airborne contact of organism. Can be transmitted by direct contact of the animals wool, straw, or fertilizer and the laundry of exposed persons. Raw milk from infected cows may be another source of infection as wells as improperly pasteurized dairy products -organism is considered the most heat tolerant pathogen -it is used as a biological indicator in the pasteurization of milk. Raw Sludge treatment - correct answer 1. digesters- the sludge digestion process is conducted in a huge tank called digesters. Here oxygen is eliminated creating an anaerobic environment. Heat is then applied to the digester to warm the sludge so the anaerobic bacteria can react to the sludge to its highest efficiency. Putrescible matter in the sludge is broken down into methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, water, nitrate, and phosphate. 2. The next type of bacteria to digest the sludge is the gas forming anaerobic bacteria. Gas forming bacteria live off the acidic conditions and begin to digest the low acids. These are gas forming anaerobes that can break down carbonaceous materials and produce product gases of carbon dioxide and methane. As the sludge digestion progresses, the ideal digestion condition is known as the healthy state. The following percentages of by products are formed: a. 65% methane b. 35% carbon dioxide c.<1% hydrogen sulfide gas [Show Less]
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REHS SAMPLED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called Choose one answ... [Show More] er. a. an injunction b. an embargo c. an order to cease and desist d. a subpoena - correct answer an embargo Question 2 Field observations are not always reported in total because Choose one answer. a. the reported forms are usually inadequate b. the significance of the data is not understood c. the field staff are instructed to limit observations d. the supervisor may insist on reinspection - correct answer the significance of the data is not understood Question 3 In preparing a legal action, one of the first steps a sanitarian should do is to Choose one answer. a. obtain a warrant b. obtain a court order c. keep very accurate records d. check with other agencies - correct answer keep very accurate records Question 4 Which of the following statements is true regarding an inspection efficiency rating? Choose one answer. a. the average amount of time required for each inspection must be determined by the administrator of the sanitation program b. the quality of the inspections should be emphasized over quantity c. the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year d. it is not possible to receive a rating over 100 percent - correct answer the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year Question 5 When a health violation is classified as a misdemeanor, it can be more readily resolved by ______. Choose one answer. a. criminal proceedings b. civil action c. immediately closing the facility d. posting a public notice - correct answer civil action Question 6 Which of the following is the most critical step needed before detailed information is collected? Choose one answer. a. determining how the information will be used b. determining how often the information will be updated c. determining how much time will be needed for data collection d. determining how much time will be needed for the record-processing unit to enter the data - correct answer determining how the information will be used Question 7 Which of the following is the most effective technique for ceasing operation of a noncomplying establishment? Choose one answer. a. a mandatory injunction b. revoking a license c. an injunction d. all of the above - correct answer all of the above Question 8 An administrative process of measuring and analyzing results in relation to specific goals, objectives, aims or targets is Choose one answer. a. record keeping b. daily activity reports c. coding d. evaluation - correct answer evaluation Question 9 On-the-job education should start with planned, routine, intensive in-service training of Choose one answer. a. division directors b. owners of food service facilities c. all field and office personnel d. septic tank contractors - correct answer all field and office personnel Question 10 All of the following describe objectives used in environmental quality planning except Choose one answer. a. non-measurable b. realistically obtainable c. obtainable in a specified time period d. specifically measurable - correct answer non-measurable Question 11 Marks: 1 Self-imposed health risk factors include Choose one answer. a. exposure to sunlight b. diet c. smoking d. all the above - correct answer all the above Question 12 Marks: 1 Legal proceedings to enforce a law may include Choose one answer. a. issuance of an order to eliminate a violation b. suspension of a permit c. civil sanctions d. all of the above - correct answer all of the above Question 13 Marks: 1 In an environmental control statistical report for program, the "total man-days expended" will Choose one answer. a. include the total number of premises or initial services in each program activity for which the local health unit is responsible b. refer to the number of premises where an annual, routine, or special inspection was made for the first time during the year c. show the type and amount of manpower allocated to each of the program activities d. none of the above - correct answer show the type and amount of manpower allocated to each of the program activities Question 14 Marks: 1 Which type of inspection would be conducted prior to legal action? Choose one answer. a. reinspection b. routine c. complete d. initial - correct answer reinspection Question 15 Marks: 1 In order to perform an evaluation, the data collected must be reliable. Which of the following is not a definitive characteristic of reliability? Choose one answer. a. consistent b. easy to obtain c. reproducible d. dependable - correct answer easy to obtain Question 16 Marks: 1 The changing role of environmental health scientists, including their duties of administrating services to the public, has been brought about largely due to Choose one answer. a. adequate intelligence data on environmental trends showing the urgency for action b. stricter governmental control c. public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life d. none of the above - correct answer public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life Question 17 Marks: 1 Standards must be scientifically supported, understandable, measurable and Choose one answer. a. traditional b. acceptable to all parties involved c. enforceable d. rigid - correct answer enforceable Question 18 Marks: 1 The terms "goals" and "objectives" are sometimes used interchangeably; however, objectives should be considered as Choose one answer. a. a general direction b. the final purpose or aim c. the idea which is always realized d. the realistically attainable ends - correct answer the realistically attainable ends Question 19 Marks: 1 Letter and report writing are effective means of acquainting ______ with the diversity and complexity of a facility's problems. Choose one answer. a. local officials b. establishment owners c. the general public d. lawmakers - correct answer establishment owners Question 20 Marks: 1 The agencies general administrative plan provides the basis for Choose one answer. a. a search warrant b. an administrative warrant c. a seizure d. none of the above - correct answer an administrative warrant Question 21 Marks: 1 Inspections of nonpublic areas can be made by consent of the owner or occupant and Choose one answer. a. on the basis of a general administrative plan b. whenever premises are vacant c. whenever premises are unlocked d. without regard to requests or demands that inspectors leave the premises - correct answer on the basis of a general administrative plan Question 22 Marks: 1 The statement of goals and objectives should recognize environmental quality and community needs such as Choose one answer. a. clean air b. clean food service establishments c. decent housing d. all the above - correct answer all the above [Show Less]
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