Orthopedic Practice Exam Multiple Choice 205 Questions with Verified Answers
Origin of bone is from:
a. Ectoderm.
b. Mesoderm.
c. Endoderm.
d. All
... [Show More] of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Mesoderm
Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by:
a. Staph aureus.
b. S. pyogenes.
c. H. influenzae.
d. Salmonella. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Staph aureus
Acute osteomyelitis usually begins at:
a. Epiphysis.
b. Metaphysis.
c. Diaphysis.
d. Any of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Metaphysis.
What is not True of acute pyogenic osteomyelitis:
a. Trauma is a predisposing factor.
b. Common infecting agent is Staph. Aureus.
c. Infection is usually blood borne.
d. All are true. - CORRECT ANSWER d. All are true.
What is not True of Brodie's abscess:
a. A form of chronic osteomyelitis.
b. Intermittent pain and swelling.
c. Common to diaphysis.
d. Excision is very often required. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Common to diaphysis.
Tuberculosis of the spine most likely originates from:
a. Intervertebral disk.
b. Cancellous vertebral body.
c. Ligamentous structures.
d. Paravertebral soft tissue. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cancellous vertebral body.
In Pott's spine, the disease starts in the:
a. Intervertebral disk.
b. Anterior vertebral margin.
c. Posterior vertebral margin.
d. Paravertebral soft tissue. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Anterior vertebral margin.
Melon seed bodies in joint fluid are characteristic of:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis.
b. Tuberculous arthritis.
c. Septic arthritis.
d. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Tuberculous arthritis.
The earliest sign of TB hip in X-ray is:
a. Narrow joint space.
b. Irregular moth eaten femoral head.
c. Periarticular osteoporosis.
d. Dislocation. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Periarticular osteoporosis.
Healing of tuberculous arthritis can lead to:
a. Calcification.
b. Fibrous ankylosis.
c. Boney ankylosis.
d. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Fibrous ankylosis.
Osteoid osteoma originates from:
a. Periosteum.
b. Cortex.
c. Medullary cavity.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cortex.
Sun ray appearance of osteosarcoma is because of:
a. Periosteal reaction.
b. Osteonecrosis.
c. Calcification along vessels.
d. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Calcification along vessels.
Bone metastasis in male commonly arises from
cancer of:
a. Lung.
b. Prostate.
c. Kidney.
d. Thyroid. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Prostate.
Osteoblastic bone secondaries commonly arise from
cancer of:
a. Breast.
b. Lung.
c. Prostate.
d. Adrenal - CORRECT ANSWER c. Prostate.
Bone metastasis can be best evaluated by:
a. X-ray.
b. 99mTC bone scan.
c. 111Indium scan.
d. Calcium-alkaline phosphatase elevation - CORRECT ANSWER b. 99mTC bone scan.
The synonym for Paget's disease is:
a. Osteitis fibrosa.
b. Osteitis proliferans.
c. Osteitis deformans.
d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER c. Osteitis deformans.
Multiple myeloma tumor cells resemble:
a. Granulocytes.
b. Plasma cells.
c. Lymphocytes.
d. Chondrocytes - CORRECT ANSWER b. Plasma cells.
An adamantinoma historically contains:
a. Squamous cell rests.
b. Pallisading cells.
c. Cells resembling basilar cells.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above.
Osteomalacia predominantly affects the:
a. Spine.
b. Pelvis.
c. Skull bones.
d. Metatarsals. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Spine.
The enzyme found in osteoclasts but not in osteoblasts
is:
a. Alkaline phosphatase.
b. Acid phosphatase.
c. Elastase.
d. Cytochrome oxidase. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Acid phosphatase.
A Gigli saw is:
a. An electrically driven circular bone saw.
b. A pneumatically driven bone saw.
c. A short straight bone saw.
d. A long twisted wire bone saw. - CORRECT ANSWER d. A long twisted wire bone saw.
Osteoclasis can be used to:
a. Correct deformity of the tibia due to rickets.
b. Curette an osteoclastoma.
c. Correct deformity.
d. Correct a ricketery rosary - CORRECT ANSWER a. Correct deformity of the tibia due to rickets.
In Dupuytren's contracture which one of the
following statements incorrect:
a. It is a contracture of the flexor tendons to the ring and
little fingers.
b. It is a contracture of the palmar fascia.
c. It may occur in the plantar fascia.
d. There is an association with cirrhosis of the liver. - CORRECT ANSWER a. It is a contracture of the flexor tendons to the ring and
little fingers.
In an adult patient with a fracture of the shaft of the
femur:
a. No blood can be lost without obvious swelling.
b. No blood can be lost without obvious bruising.
c. Two liters of blood can be lost without obvious swelling
or bruising.
d. There is no possibility of death from hemorrhagic
shock. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Two liters of blood can be lost without obvious swelling
or bruising.
A greenstick fracture:
a. Occurs chiefly in the elderly.
b. Does not occur in children.
c. Is a spiral fracture- of tubular bone.
d. Is a fracture where part of the cortex is intact and part
is crumpled or cracked. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Is a fracture where part of the cortex is intact and part
is crumpled or cracked.
Spiral fracture is due to:
a. Blunt trauma.
b. Axial compression.
c. Twist.
d. Direct impact. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Twist.
The single most important factor in fracture healing
is:
a. Correct bone alignment.
b. Accurate reduction.
c. Immobilization.
d. Organization of clot. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Immobilization.
Immobilization is not required in fracture involving:
a. Scapula.
b. Wings of ilium.
c. Rib.
d. Proximal humerus in elderly.
e. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above.
Internal reduction is considered in presence of:
a. Reduction impossible to the achieved or maintained.
b. Healing is expected to be delayed.
c. Pathological fracture.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above.
Which one of these statements is True in diagnosis
of congenital hip dislocation in the first few days of life:
a. It is impossible to diagnose it.
b. The sign of telescoping is the best way of diagnosing it.
c. It is possible to diagnose it by the Van Rosen/Barlow
Test.
d. The Trendelenberg test is the most useful. - CORRECT ANSWER c. It is possible to diagnose it by the Van Rosen/Barlow
Test.
Trendelenburg's sign is used in the diagnosis of:
a. Varicose veins.
b. Congenital dislocation of the hip.
c. Carcinoma of the stomach.
d. Pulmonary embolism. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Congenital dislocation of the hip.
If an unstable hip is detected at birth the
management policy is:
a. Do nothing and re-examine every six months as only a
minority of hips develop into a persistent dislocation.
b. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 45° flexion and
adduction.
c. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 90° flexion and
abduction.
d. Advise operative stabilization. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 90° flexion and
abduction.
The essential examination of the hip in order to
clinch the diagnosis of chronic slipped femoral
epiphysis is:
a. Measuring for shortening of the leg.
b. Palpation of the femoral head.
c. A-P plain x-ray view of the hip.
d. Lateral x-ray view of the hip. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Lateral x-ray view of the hip.
Shenton's line is a sign applicable to:
a. The detection of shortening of the leg on physical
examination.
b. A radiological feature of the pelvis applied to the
diagnosis of congenital dislocation of the hip.
c. A radiological feature of the lungs applied to the
diagnosis of pulmonary vein thrombosis.
d. A physical sign applied to the diagnosis of adrenal
deficiency. - CORRECT ANSWER b. A radiological feature of the pelvis applied to the
diagnosis of congenital dislocation of the hip.
Perthes' disease is common to age group of:
a. 1-5.
b. 6-10.
c. 11-15.
d. 16-20. - CORRECT ANSWER b. 6-10.
The average duration of Perthes' disease is:
a. 1-2 years.
b. 3- 4 years.
c. 1 month - 6 months.
d. 6 months - 1 year. - CORRECT ANSWER a. 1-2 years.
In Perthes' disease the hip movements restricted are:
a. Abduction and external rotation.
b. Abduction and internal rotation.
c. Adduction and external rotation.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Abduction and internal rotation.
The sequestrum in X-ray appears:
a. Dense.
b. Light.
c. Isodense as surrounding bone.
d. Any of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Dense.
The term delayed union is employed when the
fracture fails to unite within:
a. 1.5 times the normal union time.
b. Twice the normal union time.
c. 2.5 times the normal union time.
d. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER a. 1.5 times the normal union time.
First bone to ossify in foetal life is:
a. Femur.
b. Tibia.
c. Clavicle.
d. Sternum. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Clavicle.
What is True of clavicle fracture:
a. Non-union is rare.
b. Malunion is of no functional significance.
c. Reduction even if achieved is difficult to maintain.
d. All are true. - CORRECT ANSWER d. All are true.
The joint most likely to have recurrent dislocation is:
a. Ankle.
b. Knee.
c. Shoulder.
d. Patella. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Shoulder.
Anterior dislocation of shoulder may be complicated
by:
a. Brachial plexus injury.
b. Tear of rotator cuff.
c. Fracture head of humerus.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above.
What is not True about fracture surgical neck of
humerus:
a. Occurs due to fall on outstretched hand.
b. Common to children.
c. Osteoporosis is an important risk factor.
d. Non-union is uncommon. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Common to children.
Radial nerve palsy may occur in fr of humerus
involving:
a. Surgical neck.
b. Shaft.
c. Lower end.
d. At all of the above locations. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Shaft.
The most common form of supracondylar fracture
humerus in children is of which type:
a. Flexion.
b. Extension.
c. Combination of A & B
d. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Extension.
Myositis ossificans commonly occurs around:
a. Shoulder.
b. Elbow.
c. Wrist.
d. Knee. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Elbow.
Volkman's ischemia commonly occurs following:
a. Fracture shaft humerus.
b. Supracondylar fracture.
c. Colles' fracture.
d. Monteggia fracture. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Supracondylar fracture.
The single dependable sign of early Volkmann's
contracture is:
a. Cyanosis of fingers.
b. Obliteration of radial pulse.
c. Paralysis of flexor muscles of forearm.
d. Pallor of fingers.
e. Pain. - CORRECT ANSWER e. Pain.
Cubitus valgus of elbow commonly follows fracture
of:
a. Lateral condyle.
b. Medial condyle.
c. Capitalum.
d. Lower third of humerus. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Lateral condyle.
Fracture involving which part of humerus can cause
delayed ulnar palsy:
a. Shaft.
b. Surgical neck.
c. Medial epicondyle.
d. Lateral epieondyle. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Lateral epieondyle.
The deformity of wrist in Colles' fracture is:
a. Madelung's deformity.
b. Dinner fork deformity.
c. Buttonaire deformity.
d. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Dinner fork deformity.
Colles' fracture can be complicated by late rupture of:
a. Extensor pollicis longus.
b. Abductor pollicis longus.
c. Adductor pollicis longus.
d. Flexor pollicis longus. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Extensor pollicis longus.
What is True of Sudeck's atrophy of hand:
a. Hand is painful and swollen.
b. Osteoporosis of carpals and metacarpals.
c. There is increased blood flow to para-articular areas.
d. Cervical sympathectomy may be of help.
e. All are true. - CORRECT ANSWER e. All are true.
The carpal bone most commonly fractured is:
a. Triquetrum.
b. Hamate.
c. Capitate.
d. Scaphoid. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Scaphoid.
Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel
syndrome:
a. Ulnar.
b. Median.
c. Radial.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Median.
The most common injury following pelvic fracture is
of:
a. Bladder.
b. Urethra.
c. Rectum.
d. Vagina. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Urethra.
Limb shortening with adduction and internal rotation
occurs in which type of hip dislocation:
a. Anterior.
b. Posterior.
c. Central.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Posterior.
Nelaton's line joins anterior superior iliac spine to:
a. Xiphisternum.
b. Pubic tubercle.
c. Ischial tuberosity.
d. Ischial spine. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Ischial tuberosity.
Bryant's triangle helps to assess:
a. Fracture neck of femur.
b. Iliac crest displacement.
c. Trochanteric displacement.
d. None of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Trochanteric displacement.
Normal neck-shaft angle of femur is:
a. 90°.
b. 120°.
c. 150°.
d. 170°. - CORRECT ANSWER b. 120°.
Fracture femoral neck can be diagnosed from:
a. Limb shortening.
b. External rotation.
c. Abduction.
d. A + B. - CORRECT ANSWER d. A + B.
Which of the following is not True of intertrochanteric
fracture of femur:
a. Limb shortening.
b. Malunion.
c. Avascular necrosis of femoral head.
d. Internal fixation is preferred. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Avascular necrosis of femoral head.
Most common complication of fracture shaft femur
is:
a. Malunion.
b. Nonunion.
c. Knee stiffness.
d. Fat embolism. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Knee stiffness.
Spontaneous bleeding into joints in haemophilia
occurs when factor VI level is less than:
a. 50%.
b. 25%.
c. 10%.
d. 5%. - CORRECT ANSWER d. 5%.
Recurrence of Baker's cyst should make the surgeon
suspect:
a. Neoplastic change.
b. Undiagnosed pathology within knee.
c. Incomplete removal of the cyst.
d. The communication to the joint is persisting. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Undiagnosed pathology within knee.
Flexion of distal interphalangeal joint with fixing the
proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) tests:
a. Flexor digitorum profundus.
b. Flexor digitorum superficials.
c. Palmaris longus.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Flexor digitorum profundus.
Stenosing tenovaginitis commonly affects:
a. Abductor pollicis.
b. Flexor pollicis longus.
c. Opponens pollicis.
d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Abductor pollicis.
A sequestrum is
a. a piece of soft dead tissue
b. a piece of dead skin
c. a dead tooth
d. a piece of dead bone
e. a retained swab - CORRECT ANSWER d. a piece of dead bone
Union of a simple uncomplicated transverse fracture
of the tibia in an adult normally takes
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 18 weeks
e. 26 weeks - CORRECT ANSWER c. 12 weeks
Fractures which do not impact include
a. fracture of tile vault of the skull
b. a compression fracture
c. a simple fracture
d. a transverse fracture of the patella
e. fracture of the neck of the femur - CORRECT ANSWER d. a transverse fracture of the patella
Colles' fracture is
a. a fracture of the clavicle
b. a fracture about the ankle joint
c. common in elderly women
d. a fracture of the head of the radius
e. fracture of die scaphoid - CORRECT ANSWER c. common in elderly women
Bennett's fracture is
a. reversed Colles' fracture
b. fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist
c. fracture of the radial styloid (chauffeur's fracture)
d. fracture dislocation of the first metacarpal
e. cause of mallet finger - CORRECT ANSWER d. fracture dislocation of the first metacarpal
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus in a child
a. is due to a fall on the point of the elbow
b. is usually compound
c. requires admission of the patient after reduction
d. requires immediate open reduction
e. is a fracture dislocation - CORRECT ANSWER c. requires admission of the patient after reduction
A fracture of the midshaft of the clavicle is best
treated by
a. clavicle rings
b. a figure-of-eight bandage
c. open reduction and plating
d. an intramedullary nail
e. a broad arm sling and analgesics - CORRECT ANSWER e. a broad arm sling and analgesics
A Pott's fracture is a type of fracture of the
a. wrist
b. ankle
c. spine
d. foot
e. skull - CORRECT ANSWER b. ankle
Treatment of a severe comminuted fracture of the
patella includes
a. physiotherapy alone
b. insertion of a figure-of-eight tension band
c. patellectomy
d. inserting screws or wire
e. skin traction - CORRECT ANSWER c. patellectomy
Malunion of a fracture is
a. a fracture which unites in a position of deformity
b. delayed union of a fracture
c. non-union of a fracture
d. followed by pseudoarthrosis - CORRECT ANSWER a. a fracture which unites in a position of deformity
Volkmann's contracture
a. affects the palmar fascia
b. develops at the ankle in a case of chronic venous ulcer
c. follows ischemia of the forearm muscles
d. is due to excessive scarring of the skin of the axilla
following a burn
e. follows ulnar nerve palsy - CORRECT ANSWER c. follows ischemia of the forearm muscles
A Brodie's abscess is
a. a subperiosteal abscess due to infection of the mastoid
air cells
b. a type pf breast abscess
c. a chronic abscess of the bone
d. an abscess arising in the inguinal lymph nodes
e. an abscess forming in an infected varicose vein - CORRECT ANSWER c. a chronic abscess of the bone
The initial abnormality in primary osteoarthritis is
a. in the synovial membrane
b. sclerosis of cartilage
c. fibrillation of cartilage
d. an osteophyte
e. a pannus - CORRECT ANSWER c. fibrillation of cartilage
The initial abnormality in rheumatoid arthritis is
a. fibrillation of cartilage
b. sclerosis of cartilage
c. in the synovial membrane
d. in the capsule
e. proliferation of bone - CORRECT ANSWER c. in the synovial membrane
Pott's paraplegia is due to
a. hematomyelia following trauma
b. damage to the cord by a piece of bone when vertebrae
collapse in tuberculosis of the spine
c. tuberculous pus and angulation in tuberculosis of the
spine
d. damage to die corda equina after a fall
e. fracture dislocation of cervical vertebrae - CORRECT ANSWER c. tuberculous pus and angulation in tuberculosis of the
spine
Still's disease is
a. spastic diplegia
b. rheumatoid arthritis in childhood
c. rheumatoid arthritis in the elderly
d. post-traumatic bone formation in the lateral ligament of
the knee
e. synonymous with Reiter's disease - CORRECT ANSWER b. rheumatoid arthritis in childhood
A benign tumor forming osteoid is
a. a synovioma
b. a chondroma
c. an osteoma
d. a fibroma
e. an adenoma - CORRECT ANSWER c. an osteoma
Ewing's tumor affecting the humerus
a. is a metastasis from carcinoma of the thyroid
b. should be treated by immediate amputation
c. looks like a cut onion on x-ray
d. has a soap-bubble appearance on x-ray
e. displays sun-ray spicules on x-ray - CORRECT ANSWER c. looks like a cut onion on x-ray
Barlow's sign is related to the diagnosis of
a. talipes equinus varus
b. congenital dislocation of the hip
c. ulnar nerve palsy
d. genu varum
e. fractured neck of femur - CORRECT ANSWER b. congenital dislocation of the hip
The reported incidence of unstable hips per 1000 at
birth is as much as
a. 0.5
b. 2-5
c. 8-20
d. 25-30
e. 35-40 - CORRECT ANSWER c. 8-20
The word talipes refers to
a. long feet with spidery toes
b. knock knee
c. flat feet
d. hammer toes
e. club feet - CORRECT ANSWER e. club feet
Bone dysplasia is due strictly to
a. faulty nutrition
b. osteomyelitis
c. parathyroid tumor
d. trauma
e. faulty development - CORRECT ANSWER e. faulty development
Idiopathic scoliosis is a
a. lateral curvature of the spine
b. rotation of the spine
c. lateral curvature with rotation of the spine
d. flexion deformity of the spine
e. congenital disease with hemivertebrae - CORRECT ANSWER c. lateral curvature with rotation of the spine
A Milwaukee brace can be used in
a. sacro-iliac strain
b. derangement of the teeth
c. a patient with an above knee amputation
d. scoliosis
e. fractured clavicle - CORRECT ANSWER d. scoliosis
Legg-Calve-Perthe's disease is
a. osteochondritis of the spine
b. tuberculosis of the hip joint
c. slipped proximal femoral epiphysis
d. osteochondritis of the proximal femoral epiphysis
e. osteomalacia - CORRECT ANSWER d. osteochondritis of the proximal femoral epiphysis
The name associated with joint neuropathy is that of
a. Cushing
b. Osier
c. Moon
d. Charcot
e. Addison - CORRECT ANSWER d. Charcot [Show Less]