BDOC Divo Fundamentals Exam 96 Questions with Verified Answers
What are some of a Division Officer's Responsibilities? - CORRECT ANSWER - Supervise the
... [Show More] performance of the work within the division carrying out the shipboard maintenance and material management.
- Schedule and conduct training for division personnel.
- By personal supervision and frequent inspection, ensure that spaces, equipment, and supplies assigned to the division are maintained.
- Promptly reports to department head repairs which may be required or other defects which need correction.
- Assigns personnel to watches and duties within division and develop rotation programs.
- Maintains a Division notebook
- Responsible for all administration for the division
- Ensures damage control equipment, fittings, and check-off lists is assigned
A Division officer is assigned by the CO to lead a division in accordance to with ______? - CORRECT ANSWER the SORM
What is the most important initial action taken by the OOD? - CORRECT ANSWER Notify
List some of the duties of the OOD: - CORRECT ANSWER - Safety of the ship
- Reports and Logs
- Watches
- Execution of the plan of the day
- Gangways
- Ownship's Boats
- Alarms and Whistles
- Grooming
- Security
- Anti Terrorism Force Protection (ATFP)
- Pier conditions
- Quarterdeck search procedures
- Status of crew aloft, crew over the side, or divers in the water
- Overall appearance and cleanliness of the ship
- Honors and ceremonies.
- Liberty Boats
- Ship's vehicles
When announncing Senior officers, how many sounds of the bells in groups of two are given for O-5 to O-10? - CORRECT ANSWER 2 for O-4 and below.
4 for O-5, O-6
6 for O-7, O-8
8 for O-9, O-10
What are the sound signals for passing honors underway? - CORRECT ANSWER One Blast: attention to starboard
Two Blasts: attention to port
One blast: hand salute
Two blasts: end salute
Three blasts: carry on
Define the term "Serious Bodily Harm": - CORRECT ANSWER Does not include black eyes, bloody nose or minor injuries, but does include fractured or dislocated bones, deep cuts, torn members of the body, serious damage to the internal organs and other life-threatening injuries.
Define the term "Imminent" - CORRECT ANSWER Likely to occur at any moment; impending
The determination of whether a particular threat or danger is "imminent" is based on assessment of all circumstances known at the time.
List the Stages of Mental Awarenes: - CORRECT ANSWER - White: State of total vulnerability; unaware of actions around you.
- Yellow: State of non-specific alert; aware and alert to everything around you.
- Orange: State of specific alert; focus is on a possible threat.
- Red: Mentally prepared to use deadly force; criteria has been met for use of deadly force.
- Black: Improper mental condition; individual experiences sensory overload.
Describe the 2 general types of subjects in an encounter: - CORRECT ANSWER PASSIVE: Person does NOT physically resist.
ACTIVE: Person who physically resists.
List the levels of use of Force Continuum: - CORRECT ANSWER Level-1: Presence
Level-2: Verbal Commands
Level-3: Soft Control (Restraining/Detaining)
Level-4: Hard Control (Compliance Techniques)
Level-5: Non-Lethal Force
What is the 6th level in the use of force continuum? - CORRECT ANSWER Deadly force
What are the 3 components needed for Deadly Force Triangle? - CORRECT ANSWER Capability, Intent, Opportunity
In the Deadly Force triangle, what does capability entail? - CORRECT ANSWER The ability or means to inflict death or serious bodily harm, or the "hands-on" ability to place or attach explosives on vital assets, or High Value Assets (HVA).
In the Deadly Force triangle, what does opportunity entail? - CORRECT ANSWER Established when a weapon or explosive device is in effective range to cause death or serious bodily harm to DoD personnel or designated assets.
In the Deadly Force triangle, what does intent entail? - CORRECT ANSWER Demonstrated through aggressive actions or lack of compliance; the desire or willingness to cause death, serious bodily harm, or damage to vital assets.
List the guidance conditions for "Use of Deadly Force" - CORRECT ANSWER Inherent Right of Self-Defense.
Defense of Others.
Assets Vital to National Security.
Inherently Dangerous Property.
National Critical Infrastructure.
Public Health or Safety.
Escape.
Arrest or Apprehension.
Defending against animals.
During In-port shipboard emergencies, who does the OOD notify? - CORRECT ANSWER - Notify the Command Duty Officer (CDO)/CO
- Notify the Department Head or Duty Department Head
- Notify base police, base fire department, or paramedics
List the 5 levels of Force Protection Conditions (FPCON): - CORRECT ANSWER - NORMAL
Applies when there is no discernible threat of possible terrorist activity
- ALPHA
Applies when there is a general threat of terrorist activity against the installation and the personnel
The nature and extent are unpredictable
- BRAVO
Applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists
- CHARLIE
Applies when incident occurs or when intelligence indicates that some form of terrorist action against the installation or it the personnel is imminent
- DELTA
Highest level of threat conditions
Applies to the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence indicates terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely
What factors determine the FPCON conditions? - CORRECT ANSWER Existence
Capability
Intentions
History
Targeting
Security Environment
Identify the difference between Security Alert vs a Force Protection Alert: - CORRECT ANSWER - Security - On -ship: threat happening on board the ship.
- FP Alert - Off- ship: Threat Happening off the ship. Like on the Pier.
List ATTWO's role: - CORRECT ANSWER Tactically employs command assets to defend the unit against terrorist attack when in port
When in port at a U.S. Navy installation, coordinate integration of waterborne and shore side Anti-Terrorism Force Protection (ATFP) assets into installation security forces
Chief of the Guard and other watchstanders (i.e. security boats) report to the ATTWO
ATTWO reports to the Command Duty Officer (CDO)
What are the 4 threat levels in Anti-Terrorism Force Protection? - CORRECT ANSWER High
Significant
Moderate
Low
What constitutes a "high" threat level? - CORRECT ANSWER -Anti-U.S. terrorists are operationally active
-Large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method
-Substantial Department of Defense (DOD) presence
-Operating environment favors the terrorists
What constitutes a "significant" threat level? - CORRECT ANSWER -Anti-U.S. terrorists are present, but limited operational capability
-Personnel attack or large casualties are preferred method
-Operating environment is neutral
What constitutes a "moderate" threat level? - CORRECT ANSWER - Terrorists are present and no indications of anti-U.S. activity.
- Operational environment favors Host Nation/U.S.
what constitutes a "low" threat level? - CORRECT ANSWER No group is detected/non-threatening
What are the FPCON conditions catered to? - CORRECT ANSWER watchstanders
What is an ISP and what ports does it apply to? - CORRECT ANSWER In-port Security Plan (ISP)
Developed prior to entering any foreign port and depending on current Fleet Commander requirements
- Used for Non DOD controlled Ports
What is a DISP? and what ports does it apply to? - CORRECT ANSWER direct in port security plan. Used for DOD controlled ports
What is the SORM? - CORRECT ANSWER Standard Organization and Regulations Manual: -Outlines standard Navy Organization
- Dictates required ship's bills, instructions, primary and collateral duties, watch organization, divisional/departmental organization, etc
List the Conditions of Readiness: - CORRECT ANSWER Condition I: General Quarters
Condition II: DC, Anti-submarine, STRIKE
Condition III: Wartime cruising
Conidtion IV: Peacetime Cruising
List in order the Navy Administrative Organization: - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS
SECDEF
SECNAV
CNO
Fleet Forces Commander
Type Commander
DESRON/PHIBRON
Ship's CO
List in order the Navy Operational Organization: - CORRECT ANSWER POTUS
SECDEF
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of staff
Geographic Combatant Commander
Navy Component Commander
Numbered Fleet Commander
Carrier/ Expeditionary Strike Group COmmander
DESRON/ PHIBRON
Ship's CO
What areas compose CENTCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER Middles East, Central Asia, Egypt
What areas compose AFRICOM? - CORRECT ANSWER All of Africa except Egypt
What areas compose EUCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER Europe, Russia, Greenland, Israel
What areas compose NORTHCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER US, Alaska, Puerto Rico, Canada, Mexico
What areas compose PACOM? - CORRECT ANSWER Indo-Asia-Pacific Region
What areas compose SOUTHCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER Central and South America, Caribbean
What are the 4 Functional Commands? - CORRECT ANSWER SOCOM, STRATCOM, TRANSCOM, CYBERCOM
What is SOCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER U.S. Special Operations Command:
- Providing combat-ready special operations forces to other Combatant Commanders
- Developing strategy, doctrine and tactics
- Training special forces
What is STRATCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER US Strategic Command:
- Unified Navy and Air Force strategic forces under one command.
- Global Strike (conventional and nuclear)
- Integrated Missile Defense
- DoD Information Ops
- Computer Network Attack (CNA) / Computer Network Defense (CND
List all Operational Fleets: - CORRECT ANSWER Second Fleet
Third Fleet
Fourth Fleet
Fifth Fleet
Sixth Fleet
Seventh Fleet
What is TRANSCOM? - CORRECT ANSWER US Transportation Command:
- Mission is to provide transportation, sustainment and distribution in support of DOD assets through a seamless and synchronized deployment and distribution system
What areas compose 2nd Fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Atlantic Ocean
What areas compose 4th Fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER The Caribbean, and surrounding waters of Central and South America
What areas compose 3rd Fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Pacific Ocean
What areas compose 7th Fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER Western half of the Pacific Ocean and most of the Indian Ocean
What areas compose 5th Fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER Arabian Gulf, Red Sea, Gulf of Oman, and part of the Indian Ocean
What areas compose 6th Fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER Eastern half of the Atlantic Ocean and the Adriatic Baltic, Barents, Black, Caspian, Mediterranean, and North Seas
What is Tenth Fleet? - CORRECT ANSWER - Responsible for the Navy's cyber warfare programs, subordinate to USSTRATCOM
- Has operational control over Navy information, computer, cryptologic and space forces
What is a casualty? - CORRECT ANSWER Equipment malfunction which can not be corrected within 48 hours and reduces unit's ability to perform a primary and secondary mission.
List the CASREP Categories: - CORRECT ANSWER CAT 2
- Minor degradation in primary mission
- Major degradation or total loss of secondary mission
- Transmitted Priority (P) Precedence
- Updates must be submitted every 30 days
CAT 3
- Major degradation in primary or secondary
- Transmitted Immediate (O) Precedence
- Updates must be submitted every 10 days
CAT 4
- Total loss of primary mission
- Transmitted Immediate (O) Precedence
- Updates must be submitted every 72 hours
What are the 4 types of CASREPS: - CORRECT ANSWER Initial
Update
Correction
Cancellation
What is an "Initial" CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER Reports significant equipment casualty; Request specific parts and/ or technical assistance.
What is an "Update" CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER Changes to information submitted on intiial or previous updates. (i.e. parts, assistance, new estimated time of repair, change in deployment schedule)
What is a "Correction" CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER Report the repair of previously CASREP'd equipment. CASCORs will be submitted as soon as possible after equipment is repaired and in operational condition.
What is a "Cancellation" CASREP? - CORRECT ANSWER Submitted upon entering availability
Equipment will be fixed as part of the avail
Equipment is permanently taken out of use
- Ship decommission
- Equipment upgrade
What are the 5 pillars in PESTO? - CORRECT ANSWER Personnel, Equipment, Supply, Training, and Ordnance
What is OPTAR funding? - CORRECT ANSWER (Operating Target) - Supply's money. Used for
- Equipment maintenance related material repairs
- Consumables like toilet paper, paper towels, medical supplies.
What is TADTAR funding? - CORRECT ANSWER (Temporary Additional Duty Travel Target) - TRAINO's Money. Used for
- Schools, Temporary Duty, Emergency Leave
What is the difference between equipment and equipage? - CORRECT ANSWER Equipment - The functional unit of material which is operated of a system and is identified by a componenet identification number, numerical control code.
Equipage - Something that isn't installed, things you can steal and take off the ship.
When it comes to supply, what is considered service? - CORRECT ANSWER Buses, Cellphone over seas, etc etc.
When it comes to supply, what are consumables? - CORRECT ANSWER Things that are used and never re-used; paper towels, toilet paper, pens, printer paper.
What does MOV stand for? What is it? - CORRECT ANSWER Material Obligation Validation (MOV);
Validates outstanding requisitions in order to take appropriate actions prior to the quarterly scheduled MOV cycle.
How often do we conduct MOV internally and externally? - CORRECT ANSWER Internal - monthly
External - quarterly
What are the general requirements for enlisted advancement? - CORRECT ANSWER - Complete Navy training and required schools (dependent on rate)
- Citizenship or security clearance requirements
- Meet Physical Readiness Test (PRT) requirements
- Have the required Time in Rate (TIR)
- Complete Navy-Wide Advancement Exam
- Meet minimum performance criteria
- Equation for Final Multiple Score (FMS)
- Be recommended by the Commanding Officer (CO)
What is article 31 and 31b in the UCMJ? - CORRECT ANSWER Compulsory Self-Incrimination
- No Sailor under investigation can be forced to provide any information or answer any question that may incriminate himself or herself.
- Article 31b guarantees the rights of the Sailor in question to the reason for the investigation
What is article 32 in the UCMJ? - CORRECT ANSWER Rights and Procedures
- Describes the rights of the service member has while being investigated and tried for an offense against the UCMJ.
- Must be informed of the charges
- Has the right to have counsel present during the investigation
- Has the right to question witnesses against the defense
- May present any evidence to help the defense
What is article 86 in the UCMJ? - CORRECT ANSWER Absence Without Official Leave
- Absence that has not been authorized or for which a request for leave has been denied
- Service member fails to go to the appointed place of duty at the prescribed time
- The service member leaves the place of duty
- Service member remains absent from the unit, organization, or place of duty
- Often referred to as Unauthorized Absence (UA)
What is article 92 in the UCMJ? - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to Obey Order or Regulation
- Service members are expected to follow lawful orders at all times and without question
- Sailor violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation
- Sailor has knowledge of any other lawful order issued by a member of the armed forces and fails to obey the order
- Sailor is derelict in the performance of duties
- Service member is never expected to follow an illegal order
What is article 133 in the UCMJ? - CORRECT ANSWER Conduct Unbecoming an Officer and a Gentleman
- Article directly mentions conduct unbecoming an officer, but applies to any service member.
- Service members are held to a very high standard of moral conduct and are expected to adhere to this standard at all times.
- Violation of any of the punitive articles discussed in the UCMJ could be considered conduct unbecoming an officer.
What is an NJP? Who conducts it? - CORRECT ANSWER Non-Judicial Punishment proceedings are called a Captain's Mast. CO conducts it.
- NJP was created to control situations where minor offenses have been committed.
Who attends the NJP? - CORRECT ANSWER - CO
- XO
- Department head
- The Division Officer (DIVO)
- Leading Chief Petty Officer (LCPO)
- Leading Petty Officer (LPO)
List the different punishments from a NJP: - CORRECT ANSWER - Correctional custody
Only E-3 and below
Not more than 30 days
- Forfeiture of Pay
Not more than ½ of one month's pay per month for two months
- Reduction in grade: Only E-6 and below, Only one grade
- 45 days extra duty
- Restrictions
Not more than 60 days
List what should be included in a DIVO's notebook: - CORRECT ANSWER - Division Officer's Personnel Record Form
- Periodic evaluations
- Awards
- Page 13(s)
- Leave and special request chits
- Counseling sheets
- Listing of the collateral duties of your division and the individuals assigned
- Summary of watch, quarter, and station bill assignments
What is CMEO and what does it stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Command Managed Equal Opportunity
A program that:
- Promote positive command morale and Quality of Life (QOL)
- Provide an environment in which all personnel can perform unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes.
- Leaders must create, shape and maintain a positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment through policy, communication, training, education, enforcement and assessment
What are the different CMEO reports? - CORRECT ANSWER Informal - addresses concerns verbally or in writing with the offending person
Formal - Complainant's written sworn statement and requested remedy
What is SAPR and what does it stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Sexual Assault Prevention and Response
- A program that shall provide care that is gender-responsive, culturally-competent, and recovery-oriented.
- Focus on the victim and on doing what is necessary and appropriate to support victim recovery.
What are the 2 types of report that SAPR offers? - CORRECT ANSWER Restricted and Unrestricted report
What is CFL and what does it stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Command Fitness Leaders
- Maintain fitness standard
- Conduct semi-annual PFA
- Provide exercise programs and guidance
- Failures will be reported on Fitness Reports (FITREPS) and Evaluations (EVALS)
What are the 5 steps of ORM? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Identify hazards
2. Assess hazards
3. Make risk decisions
4. Implement controls
5. Supervise
What are the 2 factors when creating the RAC Risk assessment code? - CORRECT ANSWER Severity and Probability
How many levels of ORM are there and what are they? - CORRECT ANSWER 3 Levels:
In-Depth- Used to more thoroughly study the hazards and their risks in a complex operation, or one in which the hazards are not well-understood.
Deliberate - The ORM process is applied during a planning session, prior to the evolution
Time Critical- Time-critical is an "on the run" mental or oral review of a situation using the five steps of the ORM process without recording the information on paper.
In accordance to the SORM, Who is required to be present for PB4T and how often does it happen? - CORRECT ANSWER (Planning Board for Training)
Occurs monthly or when XO directs
- XO
- Traino
- Dept Heads
- DCA
- Educational Services Officer
- Medical Rep
- Training Team Leads
What website does the Navy use to catalog training courses and schools? - CORRECT ANSWER Catalogue of Navy Training Courses (CANTRAC)
What is the difference between RE, CE, and AE in training? What do they stand for and who grades them? - CORRECT ANSWER Repetitive Exercises (RE) -conducted by unit
Certification Exercises (CE) -conducted by Afloat Training Group (ATG)
Advanced Exercises (AE) -certified by Fleet Commander via TYCOM
What are the responsibilities of the OOD In port? - CORRECT ANSWER Supervise, Inspect, and Control
What are the manning requirements for each of the conditions of readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER - Condition I (General Quarters): All hands at battle stations, all weapons systems manned, threat is imminent. Combat ship's primary mission area threat/multiple threats
- Condition II (Damage Control, Anti-Submarine Warfare, STRIKE): A modified GQ watch, normally set readiness requirements are heightened for specific missions or conditions
- Condition III (Wartime/Heightened Readiness)
Requires sufficient personnel to man a limited number of weapons systems to combat a single warfare area threat. Be able to repel an urgent attack while the ship mans General Quarters
- Condition IV (Peacetime Readiness)
Requires adequate personnel for the safe and efficient operation of the ship.
What is the importance of Decklogs? - CORRECT ANSWER Contains a chronological record of events that occurred during the watch
Serves as the historical and legal record for the ship and contains unclassified information
List the ship's life cycle in order but not starting in any order: - CORRECT ANSWER Sustain
Maintain
Train
Operate
What are the security classification color codes? - CORRECT ANSWER Orange - Top Secret
Red - Secret
Blue - Confidential
Green - Unclassified
What program do we use to write evauls and fitreps? - CORRECT ANSWER NAVFIT98A
Why would we write and EVAL? - CORRECT ANSWER - Periodic
- Detachment of Individual
- Detachment of Reporting Senior
- Promotion/Frocking
- Special
What is the difference between "Not Observed" and "Letter of Extension" Evals/ Fitreps? - CORRECT ANSWER - Not Observed: Can be submitted if performance period is less than 90 days onboard.
- Letter of Extension: Letter that can supplement Fitrep up to 90 days from your last fitrep.
Typically used if transferring up to 90 days from last Fitrep [Show Less]