Where does lipid digestion begin? - Answer- Small intestine
What is the fastest band in lipoprotein separation electrophoresis and what does it mostly
... [Show More] consist of? - Answer- Alpha band; consists mostly of HDL
What is the role of LCAT? - Answer- transfer of fatty acids from lecithin to cholesterol (esterification)
A HIGH urea/creatinine ratio with an elevated plasma urea indicates what condition? - Answer- Prerenal condition
A high urea/creatinine ratio with an elevated creatinine indicates what condition? - Answer- Post renal condition
If the pH value is acid to the isoelectric point, the protein will have a net charge and a cation will migrate to which of the following?
A.anode
B.cathode
C. anion
D. positive pole - Answer- B. cathode (negative pole)
Anions have what type of charge? - Answer- negative
What is the Guthrie bacterial inhibition assay detecting? What bacteria is used? - Answer- screening for phenylketonuria; uses Bacillus subtilis
What is the major component of the Beta-protein fraction in serum protein electrophoresis? - Answer- Transferrin
Deficiency in plasminogen leads to what condition? - Answer- Thrombosis
What does lipase hydrolyze triglycerides into? - Answer- free fatty acids and 2-MAG
For the cardiac enzymes (CK-MB, troponin, and myoglobin), what is the order in which they will decrease following AMI? - Answer- Myoglobin (18-30hr), CK-MB (2-3 days), troponin (5-10 days)
A high A/G ratio may be found in what disorders? - Answer- leukemia and genetic defects
Which serum protein is increased in nephritic syndrome? - Answer- alpha-2 macroglobulin
Which fraction of serum protein electrophoresis do the following comprise?
-Alpha-2 macroglobulin
-Haptoglobin
-Ceruloplasmin - Answer- Alpha-2 proteins
A patient has anti-IgA specific for the light chains of IgA. What type of reaction is this called? - Answer- Anaphylactoid
What is the least number of platelets that must be present in a unit of random donor platelets? - Answer- 5.5 x10^10
What is the most number of white blood cells that can be present on a unit of red blood cells that has been leukoreduced? - Answer- 5 x 10^6
Which is a cestode?
A. Protozoa
B. Tapeworm
C. Roundworm - Answer- B. Tapeworm
Formula for manual retic count. - Answer- (# of retics/1000 RBC) x100
Fareinheit formula (from Celsius to F) - Answer- 9/5 C +32
List 3-5 antibodies that never cause HDN - Answer- Anti-I, Anti-IH, Anti-P1, Anti-Le(a), Anti-Le(b)
Beer-Lambert Law - Answer- A=Ebc
A=absorbance
c=concentration
b=the distance the light travels through the sample
E=molar absorptivity
What is the frequency of c (lowercase c)? - Answer- 80%
Osmol gap - Answer- osmol gap=measured-calculated
Celsius Formula - Answer- C=(F-32) 5/9
What is the least number of platelets that must be present in a unit of apheresed platelets? - Answer- 3.0 x 10^11
What is the frequency (pos.) for Fy(b)? - Answer- 80%
What is the frequency of Fy(a)? - Answer- 65%
What are the low frequency antigens? - Answer- Cw, V, VS, Kp(a), Js(a), Lu(a)
What is the frequency of C (capital C)? - Answer- 70%
What is the frequency of D? - Answer- 85%
What is the frequency of Jk(a)? - Answer- 77%
What is the frequency (pos.) of K? - Answer- 9%
What is the frequency of Jk(b)? - Answer- 73%
The ELEK test is used to test for toxins from which bacteria? - Answer- Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A gram negative rod was isolated from sputum and was K/K on TSI. On MAC, it produced clear colonies and it is nitrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. Which of the following organisms fits this description?
A. Aeromonas
B. Pseudomonas
C. Stenotrophomonas
D. Acinetobacter - Answer- B. Pseudomonas
Which of the following organisms can be used as controls for bile solubility?
A. Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans Group Strep
B. Streptococcus pneumonia and Enterococcus faecalis
C. Staphylococcus aureus and Micrococcus
D. Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus aureus - Answer- A. Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans Group Strep
What virus causes mental retardation? - Answer- Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Which of the following best fits the description below?
-Nitrate positive
-68 degrees catalase negative
-nonphotochromogen
-Niacin positive
A. M. tuberculosis
B. M. leprae
C. M. chelonae
D. M. marinum - Answer- A. M. tuberculosis
What five antibodies are considered "crossmatch compatible?" - Answer- Anti-Le(a), Anti-Le(b), Anti-M, Anti-N, Anti-P1 (usually all IgM)
What is the formula for calculating the number of units to screen to find a certain number of compatible units? - Answer- # of units= Unit of blood needed/percent of population negative for the antigen
Name eight antibodies that demonstrate high titer, low avidity titration characteristics. - Answer- Anti-Ch, Anti-Rg, Anti-Kn, Anti-McC, Anti-Yk(a), Anti-Sl, Anti-Cs(a), Anti-JMH
What antigen is associated with the x chromosome? - Answer- Xg(a)
What blood group system is associated with persons of Mongolian heritage? - Answer- The Diego System (Di(a))
What is the frequency (pos.) of S? - Answer- 55%
What is the frequency of E? - Answer- 30%
What is the frequency of e (lowercase) ? - Answer- 98%
Which of the following organisms are BSC Class III?
A. B.anthracis
B. Francisella tularensis
C. Y. pestis
D. A and C
E. All of the above - Answer- B. Francisella tularensis
A gram positive organism was isolated from a superficial wound. It was streaked onto a BAP, MAC, and mannitol salt agar. It was Beta hemolytic on BAP and it was yellow on the mannitol salt agar. It was catalase positive and coagulase positive. What is it?
A. S. aureus
B. E. faecalis
C. Micrococcus
D. S. epidermidis - Answer- A. S. aureus
Which of the following describes S. pneumonia?
A. catalase + Bile solubility= Optochin S
B. catalase = Bile solubility= Optochin R
C. catalase = Bile solubility+ Optochin S
D. none of the above - Answer- C. catalase= Bile solubility+ Optochin S
What organism are differentiated with ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride disk? - Answer- S. pneumonia and Viridans group Strep.
S. pneumo=S
Viridans=R
A gram negative bacilli was isolated from a deep wound. It is esculin positive, catalase positive, and has black colonies on BBE. It is resistant to vancomycin, colistin, and kanamycin. Which of the following best fits this description?
A. Veionella
B. Prevotella
C. Bacteroides fragilis
D. Fusobacterium - Answer- C. Bacteroides fragilis
What organism is SPS sensitive? - Answer- Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
A species of Haemophilus was tested positive for the ALA porphyrin test. What factor(s) does the organism need to grow?
A. XV
B. X
C. V
D. none of the above
What type could it be? - Answer- C. V, because it has hemin (X) which is a porphyrin
It could be a parainfluenzae, parahaemolyticus, segnis, or paraphrophilus which need V to grow.
Which of the following correctly differentiates Pseudomonas from Stenotrophomonas?
A. Pseudomonas: ox + glu = nit +
Stenotrophomonas: ox= glu= nit=
B. Pseudomonas: ox+ glu+ nit+
Stenotrophomonas: ox=glu+nit=
C. Pseudomonas: ox+ glu= nit=
Stenotrophomonas: ox= glu=nit= - Answer- A. Pseudomonas: ox+ glu= nit+
Stenotrophomonas: ox=glu=nit=
Which of the following transfusion reactions are caused by leukocyte antigens?
A. TRALI
B. Allergic (urticarial)
C. TACO
D. PTP - Answer- A. TRALI
What is the immunoglobulin class of Rh antibodies? - Answer- IgG
Why are cord blood cells used in antibody identification? - Answer- Newborns do not have developed RBC antigens, so cord blood is used for typing
What leukemia is characterized by a marked increase in granulocytes in the peripheral blood and bone marrow and a chromosomal abnormality t(9;22)? - Answer- Chronic myelogenous leukemia
What is the cause of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions?
How can it be prevented? - Answer- Caused by white blood cell antigens in the donor unit;
leukoreduce the unit of blood
A patient with septicemia comes into the ER. His blood culture had curved Gram negative rods. The specimen was tested and the following are the results. What is this organism?
-Green on TCBS
-Ox+
-Nit+
-Alpha hemolytic
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Vibrio vulnificus
D. Campylobacter jejuni - Answer- C. Vibrio vulnificus
Which of the following is a slow growing, nonphotochromogen associated with pulmonary and disseminated infection in AIDS patients?
A. M. tuberculosis
B. M. chelonae
C. M. leprae
D. M. avium - Answer- D. M. avium
Which of the following causes mumps?
A. Paramyxoviridae
B. Picornoviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Coronaviridae - Answer- A. Paramyxoviridae
An organism was isolated and has the following characteristics:
-A/AG H2S
-Phenalalanine deaminase negative
-LDC negative
Which bacteria is most likely present?
A. Klebsiella
B. E. coli
C. Citrobacter
D. Proteus - Answer- C. Citrobacter
You have an organism that has an A/A, gas producing TSI reaction and is H2S positive, Phenalalanine deaminase positive and indole positive. Which is most likely present?
A. Morganella morganii
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Providencia - Answer- C. Proteus vulgaris
You have an organism that has an A/A, gas producing TSI reaction and is H2S neg., Indole neg., LDC pos., and ODC neg. What organism best fits this description?
A. E.coli
B. Klebsiella pneumonia
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Enterobacter cloacae - Answer- B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Why is heat not used to perform the ABO type? - Answer- Because heat can destroy the RBC IgM antibodies. IgM antibodies are cold reacting antibodies and ABO are IgM.
What immunoglobulin class is usually deficient in patients who have anaphylactic transfusion reactions? - Answer- IgA
What is the myeloid maturation order? - Answer- 1. myeloblast
2. promyelocyte
3. myelocyte
4. metamyelocyte
5. band
6. polymorphonuclear neutrophil, baso, or eos
What condition can cause the DAT to show a mixed field reaction? - Answer- transfusion reaction
At what phase of testing will cold agglutinins cause the crossmatch to be incompatible? - Answer- The antiglobulin phase (use of polyspecific antihuman reagent leads to activation of complement)
As a WBC matures, basophilic stippling (increases/decreases)? - Answer- decreases
A patient was admitted to the ER and complained of stomach pains and diarrhea. The following are his results. Which organism could it be?
-Beta hemolytic colony
-Gram negative rod
-Yellow on TCBS
-Lactose negative
-Ox+
-Nit+
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Vibrio vulnificus
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Helicobacter pylori - Answer- A. Vibrio cholerae
A patient was admitted into the ER and is suffering from hemorrhage. He needs to be transfused with packed red blood cells and he is Type AB positive. However, there is no AB blood available. Which of the following is the next option?
A. Type A
B .Type O
C. Type B - Answer- A. Type A p. 247
What factors does thrombin activate? - Answer- I, V, VIII, and XI
What DNA virus causes chickenpox/shingles? - Answer- Varicella-zoster virus
Woolsorter's disease is caused by which of the following?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium dificile
D. Bacillus cereus - Answer- A. Bacillus anthracis
What influences neutrophils to leave the bone marrow and enter peripheral circulation? - Answer- Interleukins
Which of the following cell types is the last to undergo mitosis?
A. Metamyelocyte
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Myeloblast - Answer- C. Myelocyte
A patient has made anti-IgA due to absence of IgA. What is this reaction called? - Answer- Anaphylactic reaction
One vial of RhIg covers a_____mL bleed? - Answer- 30mL
A patient required a venipuncture, but has an IV in the antecubital area of their right arm (area in front of the elbow) and an IV in their left hand. What is the best option?
A. antecubital of left arm
B. median cubital of right arm
C. stop the IV and draw
D. the right hand - Answer- D. the right hand
What term describes the bond between antigen and antibody? - Answer- avidity
Which of the following species of Mycobacteria are photochromogens?
A. M. kansasii and M. marinum
B. M. avium and M. ulcerans
C. M. scrofulaceum and M. gordonae
D. M. tuberculosis - Answer- A. M. kansasii and M. marinum
What organism is associated with Pseudomembranous colitis? - Answer- Clostridium dificile
Which is a fluke?
A. cestode
B. nematode
C. trematode - Answer- C. trematode
What is the probable cause of a positive DAT, positive eluate with all cells, and a negative serum antibody screen? - Answer- Warm autoantibody (WAIHA)
How long is fresh frozen plasma that has been thawed good for? What temperature is it stored after thawing? - Answer- It's good for 24hr; stored at 1-6 degrees C
What is the probable cause of a positive DAT, positive eluate with all cells, and a positive serum antibody screen/panel with all cells? - Answer- Drug-induced hemolytic anemia (anti-penicillin); specifically penicillin-coated cells
List some examples of intravascular hemolysis. - Answer- -Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
-Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
-Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
-Transfusion reactions
-Physical or mechanical trauma (MAHA, heart and vessel abnormalities, DIC)
-Toxic environment to RBCs (sepsis, P. falciparum, venom, H2O, burns)
What is Factor VIII activated by? - Answer- Thrombin
Which FAB classification of Myelodysplastic syndrome may progress to AML? - Answer- RAEB-T (refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation)
What is the normal range of PT? What pathway does it measure? - Answer- 11-15 sec; measures the extrinsic pathway
What coagulation factors are present in cryoprecipitate? - Answer- I, VIII, XIII
A patient is admitted into the ER and had experienced a heart attack. He admits to recently having headaches and nose bleeds. The following are his lab results. What does he possibly have?
RBC: 10.0 x 10^6/uL
HGB: 25 g/dL
HCT:60%
PLT: 550 x 10^9/L
WBC: 35.5 x 10^9/L
EPO: decreased
LAP: sl. increase
Normochromic, normocytic RBCs on peripheral blood smear. - Answer- Polycythemia vera
Which of the following are non-photochromogens?
A. M. gordonae
B. M. avium
C. M. ulcerans
D. B and C
E. A and C - Answer- D. B and C (M. avium and M. ulcerans)
What antibodies "commonly" cause HDN? - Answer- Anti-K, Anti-C, Anti-E, Anti-c, Anti-e
Which antibodies are destroyed by DTT or 2-ME (sulhydryl compounds)? - Answer- Kell, Lutheran, and Cartwright antibodies
Which diseases are associated with HLA B27? - Answer- Ankylosing spondylitis and Reiter's syndrome
What is the criteria for an autologous donor when it comes to hemoglobin and hematocrit? - Answer- Minimum hemoglobin:11g/dL
Minimum hematocrit: 33%
List the order of amount of H antigen present (from greatest to least) in various ABO groups. - Answer- 1. O
2. A2
3. B
4. A2B
5. A1
6. A1B
What is the probable cause of a positive DAT, positive eluate with all cells and a positive antibody screen/panel showing specificity? - Answer- Cold autoantibody (Cold AIHA)
What quantity of anticoagulant/preservative is used with 450+/- 45 mL blood? - Answer- 63mL of anticoagulant needed
How much should the hemoglobin be increased by the infusion of one unit of red blood cells? - Answer- 1 to 1.5 g/dL
How much should the hematocrit be increased by the infusion of one unit of red blood cells? - Answer- At about 3 to 5%
Among which of the following species of mycobacterium are scotochromogens?
A. M. tuberculosis and M. avium
B. M. marinum and M. kansasii
C. M. scrofulaceum and M. gordonae - Answer- C. M.scrofulaceum and M.gordonae
What is the formula used to calculate volume of fetomaternal bleed? - Answer- Volume of fetomaternal bleed=(#of fetal cells x maternal blood volume)/# of maternal cells
A low A/G ratio may be found in what conditions? - Answer- multiple myeloma and autoimmune diseases
What is the primary function of alpha-1 antitrypsin? - Answer- inactivation of serine proteases (enzymes that break down proteins)
What is the main enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis? - Answer- HMG-CoA reductase
What is a nematode?
A. ameboa
B. Trichinella
C. Schistosoma - Answer- B. Trichinella
Which of the following options does NOT describe Nutrient Variant Streptococci (NVS)?
A. will not grow on blood agar
B. grows on chocolate or enriched agars
C. associated with endocarditis, otitis media, and eye infections
D. All of the above describe NVS - Answer- D. All of the above describe NVS
Which of the following characteristics best differentiates Bacillus anthracis from Bacillus cereus?
A. catalase positive, lecithinase positive, aerobic colonies
B. non-motile, catalase positive, nonhemolytic
C. Large Gram positive bacilli, catalase positive, lecithinase positive
D. none of the above - Answer- B. non-motile, catalase positive, nonhemolytic
Bacillus anthracis is a large gram-positive bacilli that is non-motile, catalase positive, and non-hemolytic
Which of the following organism have infective oocysts transmitted via fecal/oral route?
A. Cryptosporidium parvum
B. Acanthamoeba
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Naegleria fowleri - Answer- A. Cryptosporidium parvum
What type of hemolysis is the mechanism of RBC destruction in Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? Why? - Answer- Extravascular hemolysis because complement is not activated
Name the three monosaccharides. - Answer- glucose, galactose, and fructose
What is the frequency (pos.) of lowercase s? - Answer- 89%
Burkitt's lymphoma is what type of lymphoma? - Answer- B cell Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
A gram-positive rod was isolated from a patient with food poisoning. It's Beta hemolytic on blood agar, catalase positive, and has a positive BE. It is also CAMP positive. What is this organism?
A. Group B Strep
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Bacillus cereus
D. none of the above - Answer- B. Listeria monocytogenes
What might be the reason for a patient to have anti-Jk(a) in their serum, but their cells also type positive for the Jk(a) antigen? - Answer- transfusion, pregnancy, received plasma, or injections
What is the Donath Lansteiner test used to diagnose? - Answer- Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria [Show Less]