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MLT ASCP BOC Blood Bank Questions with Answers
A blood donor has totype: hh, AB. ing anti-A and anti-B antisera., the donor's red cells will type as group US? - Answer- O which of the following is pr... [Show More] oper procedure for preparation of platelets from Whole blood? - Answer- light spin followed by a hard spin The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a finger-stick from a male blood donor is: - Answer- 13.0 g/dL A cause for indefinite deferral of blood donation is: - Answer- Positive test for Trypanosoma cruzi What of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation? - Answer- 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2 degrees F (37.7 C) and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating Which of the following constitutes permanent deferral status of a donor? - Answer- Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor? - Answer- Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously In order to be a plateletpheresis donor, the platelet count must be at least: - Answer- 150,000/ul Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing: - Answer- Providone iodine A donor who has just donated 2 units of Apheresis Red Blood Cells will be deferred from further blood donation for a minimum of how many weeks? - Answer- 16 Which of the following infectious agents relies solely on donor questioning to avoid transmission from transfused blood products? - Answer- Plasmodium falciparum Which of the following practices at the time of blood cell collection helps minimize bacterial contamination of platelet products? - Answer- Diversion pouch According to AABB standards, what is the minimum hemoglobin level for an autologous donor? - Answer- 11.0 g/dL What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility? - Answer- ABO and Rh typing only Which of the following must be included on the label of a unit of Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced? - Answer- Unique collection facility identifier All donor blood testing must include: - Answer- serological test for syphilis The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is: - Answer- Anti-HIV-1/2 Which of the following practices has been useful in reducing the incidence of Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)? - Answer- Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors Which of the following infectious agents must be tested for using a nucleic acid testing (NAT) assay? - Answer- HBV What is the primary reason that infectious agents can be transmitted following blood transfusion? - Answer- Donor in the window period of early infection The transport temperature of Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced is: - Answer- 1-10 degrees C The transport temperature for Apheresis Platelets is: - Answer- 20-24 degrees C A unit of RBC's expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in: - Answer- 35 days When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded: - Answer- Every 4 hours Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed? - Answer- Fresh Frozen Plasma -20 C Six units of RBC's are issued to the OR at 9am in a cooler, validated to maintain a temperature of 1-10 degrees C for 2 hours. 40 minutes later, the cooler containing the units of blood is returned to the blood bank as surgery was cancelled. What should be done with these units? - Answer- Inspect units and established that appropriate temperature has been maintained An acceptable storage temperature for RBC's, frozen is: - Answer- 80 degrees C RBC's leukocytes reduced must be stored at: - Answer- 1-6 degrees C If the seal is entered on a unit of RBC's stored at 1- 6Cwhat is the maximum allowable storage period in hours? - Answer- 24 hours Cryoprecipitated AHF must be stored at: - Answer- < or equal to -18 C Plasma, frozen within 24 hours after phlebotomy (PF24) and thawed for transfusions has an expiration of: - Answer- 24 hours Apheresis platelets must be stored at: - Answer- 20-24 degrees C Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18*C or below, has a shelf life of: - Answer- 12 months Thawed plasma must be stored at: - Answer- 1-6*C Upon inspection, a unit of Apheresis Platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should: - Answer- Quarantine for Gram stain and culture Upon expiration, a unit of thawed plasma frozen within 24 hours (PF24) is converted to thawed plasma. This thawed plasma can be stored for an additional: - Answer- 4 days The transfusion service is preparing aliquots from a unit of RBC's leukocytes reduced with the aid of a sterile connecting device for a pediatric patient. When checking the weld for one of these aliquots, it is noted that the weld is incomplete and leaking. This unit is then released with an acceptable weld. What will the expiration date of this unit be? - Answer- 24 hours During the preparation of platelets from whole blood, the blood should be: - Answer- cooled towards 20-24 C Red blood cells leukocytes must be prepared by a method known to reduce the leukocyte count to: - Answer- <5.0x106 A unit of RBC's that expires in 32 days has just been irradiated. The expiration date of this unit will: - Answer- be reduced by 4 days Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling? - Answer- 4 hours According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing? - Answer- 24 hours CryoprecipitateD AHF - Answer- is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies Which apheresis platelets product should be irradiated? - Answer- a directed donation given by a mother for her son. irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of donor - Answer- lymphocytes Plastic bag overwrap are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37 degree C water baths because they prevent: - Answer- c) the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy? - Answer- b) fresh frozen plasma an important determinant of platelet viability during storage is: - Answer- plasma pH According to AABB standards, at least 90% of all Apheresis platelets units tested shall contain a minimum of how many platelets? - Answer- 3 x 10^11 platelets According to AABB standards, platelets prepared from whole blood shall at least: - Answer- 5.5 x 10 *10 platelets per unit in at least 90% of the unit tested According to AABB standards, what minimum pH required for Apheresis platelet at the end of the storage period? - Answer- 6.2 what percentage of red blood cells must be retained when preparing red blood cells leukocytes reduced? - Answer- 85 % in a quality assurance program, cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII? - Answer- 80 IU or higher The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n): - Answer- haplotype Most blood group systems are inherited as - Answer- autosomal codominant The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg(a-) woman will only produce: - Answer- Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters which phenotype could not result from the mating of a Jk(a+b+) female and a Jk(a-b+) male? - Answer- Jk(a-b-) which of the following phenotypes is the result of homozygous inheritance of the corresponding genes? - Answer- Fy(a-b+) which of the following antibodies is usually clinically insignificant? - Answer- anti-P1 an individual red blood cells give the following reactions with Rh anti-sera? Anti-D=4+ Anti-C=3+ Anti-E=0 Anti-c=3+ Anti-e=3+ Rh control=0 the individual's most probable genotype is: - Answer- DCe/dce an individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. what is the most probable Kell system genotype? - Answer- KK a mother has the red cell phenotype D+C+E-c-e+ with anti-c (titer of 32 at AHG) in her serum. The father has the phenotype D+C+E-c+e+. The baby is Rh-negative and not affected with hemolytic diseases of the newborn. What is the baby's most probably Rh genotype? - Answer- r'r' in an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is: - Answer- anti-c data: anti-C (+) anti-D (+) anti-E (+) anti-c (+) anti-e (+) - Answer- R1R2 a patient's red cells type as follows:anti-D (4+) anti-C (0) anti-E (0) - Answer- R0R0 The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as: - Answer- Le(a+b-) which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f? - Answer- rr a patient's RBC gave the following reactions:anti-D (+) anti-C (+) anti-E (+) anti-c (+) anti-e (+) anti-f (0) the most probable genotype of this patient is: - Answer- R1R2 A woman types as Rh-positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the father's most likely Rh phenotype? - Answer- R1r which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population? - Answer- Fy(a-b-) A donor is tested with Rh antisera, with the following results :Anti-D + Anti-C+ Anti-E+ anti-c+ anti-e +Rh control 0 What is the probable Rh genotype? - Answer- R1r which of the following is the immunodominant sugar responsible for the A antigen? - Answer- N-acetylglucosamine which of the following is considered to be a high prevalence antigen? - Answer- Vel the reason that group O individuals have the most amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to other ABO phenotypes is: - Answer- H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes given the following serologic reactions, what is the most likely A subgroup? anti-A = 2+ mfanti-B = 0 anti-A,B = 2+mf A1 cells = 1+ B cells = 4+ O cells = 0 - Answer- A3 the enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-: - Answer- L-fucosyl transferase even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh) will always have naturally occurring: - Answer- anti-H which of the following antibodies in the Lutheran system is most likely to be IgM and detected as a direct agglutinin? - Answer- anti-Lu^a antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are notorious for causing delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? - Answer- Kidd isoimmunization to platelet antigen HPA-1a and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn: - Answer- thrombocytopenia what antigens would be found in the saliva of an individual with the genotype Sese Lele AO HH? - Answer- Le^a, Le^b, A, H which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region? - Answer- HLA-DR The phenomenon of an Rh-positive person whose serum contains anti-D is best explained by: - Answer- missing antigen epitopes when the red cells of an individual fial to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with: - Answer- anti-S which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A? - Answer- M, N Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following? - Answer- P antigen which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? - Answer- found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis cold agglutinin disease is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following? - Answer- I which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? - Answer- temperature or 4 C in chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens? - Answer- Kell the antibodies of the Kidd blood group system: - Answer- react best by the indirect antiglobulin test Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen? - Answer- Fy^a Anti-Fy^a is: - Answer- capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups? - Answer- Duffy anti-K is identified in a patient's serum. If random crossmatches are performed on 10 donor units, approximately how many would be expected to be compatible? - Answer- 9 Four units of blood are needed for elective surgery. The patients serum contains anti-C, anti-e, anti-FYa, and anti-JKb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood? - Answer- rare donor registry a patient is group O, Rh-negative with anti-D and anti-K in her serum. What percentage of the general Caucasian donor population would be compatible with this patient? - Answer- 6.0 which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians? - Answer- e the Kell (K1) antigen is: - Answer- strongly immunogenic what is the approximate probability of finding compatible blood among random Rh-positive units for a patient who has anti-c and anti-K? (consider that 20% of Rh-positive donors lack c and 90% lack K) - Answer- 18% which of the following is responsible for the production of blood group antibodies? - Answer- B cells in a primary immune response, which immunoglobulin class appears first? - Answer- IgM what is the most common clinical incident that results in alloantibody production? - Answer- red cell transfusion macrophages and monocytes have Fc receptors for which of the following immunoglobulins? - Answer- IgG which of the following blood group antigens is the most immunogenic, or has the greatest ability to initiate antibody production in an individual who lacks the antigen? - Answer- D IgG antibody and/or C3b sensitized RBC can be phagocytized by cells in the reticuloendothelial system (RES). This phenomenon is clinically recognized as: - Answer- extravascular hemolysis which immunoglobulin class can cross the placenta? - Answer- IgG which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at activating complement via the classical pathway? - Answer- IgM which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at causing direct hemagglutination? - Answer- IgM which of the following structures of an immunoglobulin molecule is involved in the activation of complement via the classical pathway? - Answer- Fc region immunoglobulin classes are differentiated according to the molecular structure of: - Answer- heavy chains which of the following pairs of immunoglobulins is most efficient at activating complement via the classical pathway? - Answer- IgG1 and IgG3 the immune response to red cell antigens with numerous epitopes results in a heterogenous population of antibodies referred to as: - Answer- polyclonal the following ABO results are noted on a sample from a 90 yo male admitted to the ER for possible GI bleeding:cells tested with anti-A = 0 anti-B = 0 serum tested with A1 cells = 0 B cells = 1+ what might be a likely explanation for these results? - Answer- patient's age appropriate antigen-antibody ratios are important to avoid an excess of unbound antibody known as: - Answer- prozone effect blood group antigen and antibody hemagglutination reactions are influenced by which of the following? - Answer- temperature which of the following blood group antibodies will no longer react with its respective antigens once those antigens are treated with proteolytic enzymes? - Answer- anti-Fy^a some blood group antibodies may react stronger with the red cells of individuals who have inherited 2 identical alleles for the antigen to which the antibody is directed. This is known as: - Answer- dosage effect which of the following reagents is used to facilitate hem-agglutination following the sensitization of red cells with an IgG alloantibody? - Answer- anti-human globulin serum the addition of antibody-sensitized red cells (check cells) to all negative anti-human globulin (AHG) tests ensures that:the test was interpreted correctly - Answer- AHG reagent was added to each test in which of the following clinical situations will the direct antiglobulin test be positive? - Answer- hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn in which of the following is the indirect antiglobulin test utilized? - Answer- antibody detection (screening) test polyspecific AHG reagents - Answer- anti-IgG and anti-C3d a false negative direct antiglobulin test can be the result of: - Answer- insufficient saline washing of red cells a false positive indirect antiglobulin test can be the result of: - Answer- overcentrifugation a negative result using solid phase adherence assays will demonstrate indicator red cells as: - Answer- a RBC pellet in the bottom of the well a 4+ positive reactions using gel technology will appear as RBCs: - Answer- in a layer at the top of the gel media one of the advantages of performing antibody screening (detection) studies using gel technology is: - Answer- saline washing is not required monoclonal blood banking reagents have which of the following as a disadvantage? - Answer- overspecificity the direct antiglobulin test in a suspected case of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is positive. Which of the following monospecific reagents would be used in further direct antiglobulin testing? - Answer- anti-C3d low ionic strength saline (LISS) acts as an enhancement medium and facilitates antibody uptake by: - Answer- reducing zeta potential the membrane attack complex (MAC) formed during the activation of complement via the classical pathway consists of: - Answer- C5b through C9 in ABO hemolytic transfusion reactions, complement is activated via which of the following pathways? - Answer- classical IgG-sensitized red cells that activate complement may not complete complement activation to cell lysis. In addition to IgG on the surface of these red cells, what complement component is present? - Answer- C3b In a normal adult, the spleen acts as a site for: - Answer- removal of aging red blood cells which of the following cells transport O2 and CO2? - Answer- erythrocytes which of the following cells is the largest cell in the bone marrow? - Answer- megakaryocyte in patients who present with bleeding due to a low platelet count, the most common type of bleeding is: - Answer- mucosal bleeding Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC? - Answer- cryoprecipitated AHF a blood component used in the treatment of hemophilia A is: - Answer- factor VIII a unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma was inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4 oC on Monday morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement for: - Answer- Factor IX a newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis and mucosal bleeding. the preferred blood component for this infant would be: - Answer- Platelets which of the following would be the best source of platelets for transfusion in the case of alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia? - Answer- mother [Show Less]
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ASCP BOC EXAM Study Guide latest updated
When using an electronic cell counter, which of the following results can occur in the presence of a cold agglutination? a) increased MCV and decreased RBC... [Show More] b) increased MCV and normal RBC c) decreased MCV and increased MCHC d) decreased MCV and RBC - Answer- a) increased MCV and decreased RBC Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be: a) refrigerated b) analyzed immediately c) heated to 56 degree C d) stored at room temp after centrifugation - Answer- b) analyzed immediately The major crossmatch will detect: a) group A patient mistyped as group O b) unexpected red cell antibody in the donor unit c) Rh-neg donor unit mislabeled as Rh-Pos d) recipient antibody directly against antigens on the donor red cells - Answer- d) recipient antibody directly against antigens on the donor red cells The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory reselts for a) amino acids and proteins b) blood gas anaylses c) sodium, potassium, chloride and total C02 d) calcium, phosphorus and magnesium - Answer- c) sodium, potassium, chloride and total C02 A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is a) vomitting b) starvation c) asthma d) hyperventilation - Answer- d) hyperventilation Blood is diluted 1:200, and a platelet count is performed. 180 platelets were counted in the center square millimeter on one side of the hemacytometer and 186 on the other side/ The total platelet count is: a) 146 x 10³/μL (146 x 10⁹/L) b)183 x 10³/μL (183 x 10⁹/L) c)366 x 10³/μL (3666 x 10⁹/L) d)732 x 10³/μL (732 x 10⁹/L) - Answer- c)366 x 10³/μL (3666 x 10⁹/L) When staining acid-fast bacilli with Truant auramine-rhodamine stain, potassium permanganate is used a a) decolorizing agent b) quenching agent c) mordant d) dye - Answer- b) quenching agent A first morning sputum is received for culture of acid-fast bacilli. It is digested and concentrated by the N-acetyl-L-cysteine alkali method. Two Sabouraud dextrose slants are incubated in the dark at 35ºC with 5%-10% CO2. The smear reveal acid-fast bacilli, but the slants show no growth after 8 weeks. The explanation is: a) improper media used b) incorrect concentration procedure used c) improper specimen submitted d) exposure to CO2 prevents growth - Answer- a) improper media used MacConkey media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7 must contain: a) indole b) citrate c) sorbitol d) lactose - Answer- c) sorbitol A patient with a B-cell deficiency will most likely exhibit: a) decreased phagocytosis b) increased bacterial infections c) decreased complement levels d) increased complement levels - Answer- b) increased bacterial infections Communication is enhanced by: a) a planned strategy that includes listening skills and ensuring an understanding with questions b) relying on e-mail, memos and voice mail to communicate new information c) formal, hierachical patterns instead of informal networking patterns d) assumptions if there are questions about the intent of the message - Answer- a) a planned strategy that includes listening skills and ensuring an understanding with questions IgM antibodies are frequently hemolytic because of: a)the dimeric structure b) the molecule's 5 antigen binding sites c) their sedimentation coefficient of 7-15 S d) their coefficient ability to fix complement - Answer- b) the molecule's 5 antigen binding sites A community hospital microbiology laboratory is processing significant numbers of stool cultures because of an outbreak of diarrhea following heavy rains and flooding in the county. A media that should be incorporated in the plating protocol is: a) colistin nalidixic acid for listeria b) MacConckey agar with sorbitol for Campylobacter c) mannitol salt agar for Enterococcus speices d) thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species - Answer- d) thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species 80 grams of NaOH (MW=40) are how many moles? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 - Answer- b) 2 An electrode has a silver/silver chloride anode and a platinum wire cathode. It is suspended in KCl solution and separated fro the blood to be analyzed by a selectively permeable membrane. Such an electrode is used to measure which of the following? a) pH b) PCO2 c) PO2 d) HCO2 - Answer- c) PO2 The organism most commonly associated with neonatal purulent mentingitis is: a) Neisseria meningitidis b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) group B streptococci d) Haemophilus influenzae - Answer- c) group B streptococci The volume of urine excreted in a 24-hour period by an adult patient was 300mL. This condition would be termed: a) anuria b) oliguria c)polyuria d) dysuria - Answer- b) oliguria Amniotic fluid is tested for the concentration of lamellar bodies. This test determines: a) fetal lung maturity (FLM) b) hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) c) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) d) trisomy 21 - Answer- a) fetal lung maturity The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect: a) anti-A¹ b) anti-A² c) subgroups of A d) subgroups of B - Answer- c) subgroups of A The most important buffer pair in plasma is the a) phosphate/biphosphate pair b) hemoglobin/imidazole pair c) bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair d) sulfate/bisulfate pair - Answer- c) bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair Evidence of active red cell regeneration may be indicated on a blood smear by: a) basophilic stippling, nucleated RBC and polychromasia b) hypochromia, macrocytes and nucleated RBC c) hypochromia, basophilic stippling and nucleated RBC d) Howell-Jolly bodies, Cabot rings and basophilic stippling - Answer- a) basophilic stippling, nucleated RBC and polychromasia Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia? a) ringed sideroblasts b) disseminated intravascular coagulation c) micromegakaryocytes d) Philadelphia chromosome - Answer- d) Philadelphia chromosome All stages of neutrophils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood of a patient with: - Answer- (chronic granulocytic leukemia) CML to be analyzed by gas liquid chromatography a compound must - Answer- be volatile or made volatile Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins with specificity for allotypic determinants located on the: - Answer- Fc fragment of IgG. Substances that are ANTIGENIC ONLY when coupled to a protein carrier. - Answer- haptens A technologist splashed a corrosive chemical in his/her eyes. To prevent permanent injury, the first action should be to: - Answer- use the eyewash station to flush eyes with water for 15 minutes Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient at agglutination? - Answer- IgM Use of "standard" (universal) precautions minimizes exposure to: - Answer- bloodborne pathogens Which of the following is true about direct ion selective electrodes for electrolytes? - Answer- whole blood specimens are acceptable Leukocyte reduced red blood cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate . Which way is the best way to prepare this product. - Answer- Transfuse through a log3 leukocyte removing filter the steam autoclave method of sterilization - Answer- uses 15 lbs of pressure for 15 minutes Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the: - Answer- diffusion characteristics of the membrane Of the following, the disease most closely associated with pale blue inclusions in granulocytes and giant platelets is: - Answer- May Hegglin Which of the follwing factors would make an organism appear to be more resistant on a disk diffusion sustibility test? - Answer- too many organisms in the innoculum In spectrophotometry, the device that allows for a narrow band of wavelengths is the: - Answer- Monochromator. Leukocyte-poor red blood cells would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of - Answer- febrile transfusion reactions. In synovial fluid, the most characteristic microscopic finding in pseudogout is - Answer- calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals An index of precision is statistically known as the: - Answer- coefficient of variation AHG coombs control cells : - Answer- are coated with IgG antobody Which laboratory technique is most frequently used to diagnose and follow the course of therapy of a patient with secondary syphilis - Answer- flocculation The disease most often associated with elevations of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes 4 and 5 on electrophoresis is: - Answer- liver disease The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin F is: - Answer- Kleihauer-Betke An enzyme deficiency associated with a moderate to severe hemolytic anemia after the patient is exposed to certain drugs and that is characterized by red cell inclusions formed by denatured hemoglobin is: - Answer- G6P DH deficiency which one of the following gram-negative bacilli ferments glucose - Answer- Yersinia enterocolitica Photochromogens produce pigment when: - Answer- exposed to light for 1 hour For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment should be: - Answer- Reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility of clinical laboratory assays for tumor markers? - Answer- tumor markers are useful in tracking the efficacy of treatment Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria meningidis? - Answer- lactose degradation Which of the following may be used a a positive quality control organism for the bile esculin test. - Answer- Enterococcus faecalis The major features by which molds are routinely identified are: - Answer- Macroscopic characteristice and microscopic morphology hemorrhage in polycythemia vera is the result of - Answer- abnormal platelet funtion Vibrio parahemolyticus can be isolated best from feces on: - Answer- thiosulfate citrate bile salts (TCBS) agar Antibodies composed of IgG immunoglobulin: - Answer- can cross the placenta from mother to fetus Antibody idiotype is dictated by the: - Answer- variable regions of the heavy and light chains Lithium therapy is widely used on the treatment of: - Answer- bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder after receiving appropriate training, the first step in using a fire extinguisher is to: - Answer- pull the pin Tumor markers found in the circulation are most frequently measured by - Answer- immunoassays your friend calls and asks you to access his test results. Which of the following does this violate - Answer- HIPAA Which of the following casts most frequently appears to have a brittle consistency? - Answer- waxy Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn? - Answer- Kell A Patient with a coagulopathy was transfused with FP24 (plasma frozen within 24 hours of collection) After infusion of 15mL, the patient experienced hypotension, shock, chest pain and difficulty in breathing. The most likely cause of the reaction is: - Answer- anti-IgA False-positive results can occur for fecal occult blood due to the ingestion of: - Answer- horseradish A consistently and repeatedly negative IFA-ANA is: - Answer- strong evidence against5 untreated SLE What kind of antigen-antibody reaction would be expected if soluble antige [Show Less]
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ASCP Certification Exam Practice Questions with Verified Answers
A blood bank is also referred to as - Answer- Immunohematology the pbt has orders to draw a K+ on a patient awaiting dialysis and proceeds to the follow... [Show More] ing division: - Answer- Nephrology pbt has just completed centriuging specimens for the chemistry department and notes that one of the tubes is cloudy and pinkish red. This specimen is - Answer- lipemic and hemolyzed this test will be delivered to immunology for testing - Answer- RPR physician calls the lab requesting the procedure for a patient who wishes to donate his own blood before his surgery. this type of donation is knowns as: - Answer- Autologous donation analysis of the chemical components of blood - Answer- the basic purpose of the chemistry department: pbt is processing speciments received for lead testing and is preparing them to be delivered to which departments? - Answer- toxicology health maintenance organization (HMO) - Answer- functions as a full-service outpatient clinic pbt returns to lab with a specimen for cross-match or compatibility testing and delivers it to - Answer- Immunohematology required specimen for the occult blood test is: - Answer- Feces/Dookie A patient is recovering from deep vein thrombosis and the doctor wishes to access the rate of fibrinolysis. The physician orders which of the following tests? - Answer- ALL of the above A herediatary blood disorder that results in a decreased production of hemoglobin and anemia is: - Answer- Thalassemia pbt must draw blood for a STAT glucose, BUN, and electrolytes in ER and deliver it to the lab for testing as the I-Stat instrument is not fxning properly. Which type of sample is most appropriate? - Answer- Plasma (green top tube0 a patient has been diagnosed with anemia and the physician wants to assess how well the bone marrow is producing RBC's. The physician requests which of the following test to be drawn and tested? - Answer- Reticulocyte another term for WBC is - Answer- Leukocyte cellular element that plays an impt role in coagulation is - Answer- Platelet Coagulation testing includes which of the following: - Answer- PTT impaired blood flow leading to reduced level or lack of oxygen to a tissue is referred to as: - Answer- Ischemia a patient is admitted to the ER complaining of severe chest pain. All of the following lab test may be ordered to assist in the diagnosis of a myocardial infarct, except: - Answer- CBC veins suitable for possible venipuncture in the antecubital area include all of the following: - Answer- Brachial veins A plasma protein that serves to help regulate blood volume by maintaining osmotic pressure and by transporting many different types of molecules is: - Answer- Albumin a muscular skeletal test includes: - Answer- Creatine Kinase when the body acts to maintain a dynamic steady state, it is referred to as: - Answer- Homeostasis the following term means a decrease of red blood cells: - Answer- Erythrocytopenia Thrombocytosis means: - Answer- increased number of platelets Agency or Agencies that approve pbt training programs: - Answer- National Accrediting Agency of Clinical Laboratory Science (NAACLS) NPO means - Answer- Nothing By Mouth the suffix in the term hemostasis means: - Answer- Control the difference between arteries and veins is that: - Answer- arteries have a thicker muscular wall and are deeper that veins in tissue (hmm..that's what the review says??) Hyperglycemia is a symptom of which endocrine disorger? - Answer- diabetes mellitus all of the following are common lab tests for the digestive system, except - Answer- Microalbumin preventing the spread of infection to patients, health care workers, and visitors requires breaking the chain of infection through use of all of the following except - Answer- HIPAA pbt is about to enter the room of a patient in airborne isolation. which of the following PPE will be needed - Answer- Glove, N95 respirator another name for nosocomial infection is - Answer- Health care associated infection terms that refers to RBCs is - Answer- Erythrocytes Inflammation of a vein is referred to as: - Answer- Phlebitis all manufacturers of hazardous chemicals are required to provide users of hazardous chemicals a __________ - Answer- MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) to prevent parenteral exposure to blood borne pathogens during venipuncture procedures, the pbt should not: - Answer- hold evacuated tube while transferring blood from syringe into tube a color-coded, numeric system for indicating the health, flammability, and reactivity hazards of chemicals was developed by: - Answer- NFPA blue quadrant of the NFPA label lists the relative danger of a chemical in the area of: - Answer- Health OSHA regulation requires that all health care personnel in job classifications where there is exposure to blood and body fluids be offered the opportunity to receive a caccination free of charge or sign a declination form for which of the following infectious agents: - Answer- HBV greatest bloodborne pathogen risk to lab employees is: - Answer- HBV infection employee right to know law allows employees to review the - Answer- Hazard Communication Standard Standard Precautions is used in the hospital setting to prevent the spread of HIV and HBV during patient care and applies to all body fluids, except: - Answer- sweat as a member of the health care team, the pbt knows the importance of standard of precautions and routinely applies them to the care of: - Answer- ALL PATIENTS anatomic and surgical pathology - Answer- the main division of the lab that analysis cells and tissues is analysis of DNA samples is performed in: - Answer- Molecular Diagnostics pbt is called to the ER for blood work on a patient suspected of having an MI. One test that will most likely be drawn is - Answer- Troponin accreditation of labs is a fxn of which of the following.... - Answer- JCAHO and CAP standards and guidelines for laboratory patient testing are set forth by: - Answer- CLSI most common microbiology tests are.... - Answer- culture and sensitivity (C&S) pbt is working in specimen processing and notices tha tone of the specimens is a dark yellow color after centrifugation and states that the specimen is - Answer- lcteric Urinanalyis testing includes all of the following except: - Answer- VOLUME newborn born with severe anemia and the pbt has collected a specimen for a direct antibody test (Coombs) to be delivered immediately to: - Answer- blood bank/immunohematology Pbt has received a specimen for chromosomal studies and delivers it to which lab dept? - Answer- Cytogenetics pbt is working in the outpatient dept and has an order for a patient who routinely faints when his/her blood is drawn. The best practice to employ for this patient is to: - Answer- put the patient in the room with a reclining chair or bed most commonly used antiseptic in routine venipuncture is: - Answer- 70% isopropyl alcohol The following antiseptic should not be used on infants under the age of two months: - Answer- Chlorhexidine Gluconate pbt decides to use a winged infusion set and small volume tubes on an accident victim who is bleeding internally and will be transferred to surgery as soon as the draw is completed. He carefully draws the coagulation test, chemistry and a CBC, in that order and delivers them to the lab for testing. There appears to be a problem with the coagulation results: - Answer- tube not completely full due to air space in the length of the tubing The use of anticoagulant will yield which type of blood specimen? - Answer- whole blood and serum Antiglycolytics include which of the following - Answer- Sodium Flouride pbt has a request from the blood bank to draw a nonadditive tube on a specific patient in addition to the pink top tube. The tube selected is: - Answer- Red Glass Clot activators include all of the following except: - Answer- Silicone pbt has an order for a routine CBC, metabolic panel, and a blood typing. The pbt will select which of the following sets of tubes: - Answer- Gold, Lavendar, Pink pbt is in the midst of a diff. pre-op for a CBC, PT, PTT, and electrolytes. After placing the last tube holder, the pbt picks up the previous two tubes to continue inversions and notices that the PT/PTT tube did not completely fill. The proper course of action is to: - Answer- draw an appropriate discard tube first and then collect the PT, PTT The pbt is preparing to go to several of the nursing homes to collect routine blood draws for glucose and CBC's on several patients and will be gone for the morning. The following tube will be used to draw the glucose: - Answer- Gray (Flouride - -preservative) Which of the following tests must be drawn first? - Answer- STAT Blood tests that may be affected by leaving the tourniquet on greater than one minute include all of the following except: - Answer- BUN When inspecting the antecubital fossa to select a vein for venipunture, the order of selection is: - Answer- Median cubital, Cephalic, Basilica After the need is removed, pressure should be applied until: - Answer- Platelet plug forms All of the following test analytes are higher in venous blood than capillary blood, except: - Answer- Glucose During the course of a 5 hour glucose tolerance test, the pbt began having diff. getting a venous sample and switched over to dermal punctures to finish out the later three glucose tests. The pbt decision: - Answer- Compromises the test interpretation venous glucose levels are lower than capillary levels. The term "bullet" in blood collection refers to: - Answer- Microcollection Tubes The composition of capillary blood includes: - Answer- venous and arterial Screening test that involves the vascular system and platet fxn to assess the overall integrity of primary hemostasis - Answer- bleeding time An abnormal bleeding time test may indicate all of the following except: - Answer- secondary hemostasis disorder A patient who requires a blood alchol level has a wrist band confirming an allergy to iodine, what is the proper cleansing agent to use? - Answer- Chlorhexidine Gluconate pbt must redraw a patient that was reported to be a difficult draw due to veins that collapse during venipuncture. Which of the following techniques could the pbt use to minimize the likelihood of collapsing a vein? - Answer- Threading the needle up into the vein [Show Less]
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ASCP BOC Practice Exam 2023 with complete solutions
CML vs. Leukemoid Reaction - Answer- CML - decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) Leukemoid Reaction - increased LAP Look-back - Answer- The pr... [Show More] ocess for the identification and notification of recipients of blood components from prior donations of who now test positive for HCV, HIV-1 and/or HIV-2. External reference electrode used in ISE - Answer- KCl The serum glucose concentration of a diabetic patient undergoing a 2-hr GTT should return to the baseline (fasting level) after _____ minutes. - Answer- 120 Technical problems encountered during the collection of an amniotic fluid specimen caused doubt as to whether the specimen was amniotic in origin. Which procedure would best establish that the fluid is amniotic in origin? - Answer- Creatinine clearance Oval fat bodies and fatty casts are characteristic urine sediment constituents in patients with _____. - Answer- Nephritic Syndrome What are the 2 most common reasons for macrocytosis? - Answer- B12 and Folate deficiency Calculation for corrected WBC - Answer- (WBC x 100)/(#nrbc + 100) What is the major protein of HDL? - Answer- Apolipoprotein A Muscular Dystrophy - Answer- Increased CK, LD, AST, ALT CK most sensitive and specific A patient who has had severe chest pain for several hours is admitted with a diagnosis of possible acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which of these ordered laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to help determine whether the patient has had an AMI? - Answer- Troponin I and Troponin T Troponin levels increase about 4 to 6 hours after the onset of a myocardial infarction (MI). Which test identifies the presence of Hgb S? - Answer- Hemoglobin electrophoresis Laboratory test specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) - Answer- Antinuclear antibody test (ANA) A male with urethral discharge can be presumptive for ________. - Answer- N. gonorrhea A low reticulocyte count in an infant may indicate _____. - Answer- Aplastic anemia Cryptococcus neoformans may yield a positive result for ________. - Answer- HIV Decreased urine specific gravity may indicate ________. - Answer- Diabetes insipidus What must be done when Salmonella serotype VI (capsular) is isolated? - Answer- The suspension must be heated to eliminate capsule and should be re-tested. Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within ___ hours. - Answer- 4 Which antigen is destroyed by enzyme enhancement. - Answer- Duffy ___ will react with human globulin, either bound to RBC or free in serum. - Answer- AHG Irradiated RBCs reduce the risk of ________. - Answer- GVHD Marker present in child but absent from mother and father. - Answer- Direct exclusion Which stain is used for bone marrows? - Answer- Romanowsky stain When is cortisol at the highest peak? - Answer- morning Rouleaux is not seen in what phase due to serum being washed away? - Answer- AHG Which enzyme is increased in mumps? - Answer- amylase Sézary Syndrome is a _______ lymphoma. - Answer- T-cell What disease is associated with Burr cells? - Answer- uremia Unconjugated bilirubin is associated with __________. - Answer- hemolytic or pernicious anemia, transfusion reaction, cirrhosis, & Gilbert Syndrome Which organism grows on MacConkey agar; is citrate, orthinine, and arginine positive; and lysine negative? - Answer- E. cloacae When staining acid-fast bacilli with Truant auramine-rhodamine stain, potassium permanganate is used as a _________. - Answer- quenching agent - reduces background fluorescence of cellular debris In biliary obstruction, conjugated bilirubin is ______. - Answer- increased What is elevated in azotemia? - Answer- BUN & serum creatinine levels What level is increased in Hashimoto Thyroiditis? - Answer- TSH hypoparathyroidism - Answer- calcium - low phosphorus - high PTH - normal or low hyperparathyroidism - Answer- calcium - high phosphorus - low PTH - high Which broad-spectrum antibiotics have particular activity agains gram-negative organisms, especially Pseudomonas aeruginosa? - Answer- fluoroquinolones Reasons for too small zones of inhibitions - Answer- inoculum too heavy depth too thick Reasons for too big zones of inhibitions - Answer- inoclum too light depth too thin Which medium is used for the cultivation of Leptospira? - Answer- Fletcher's Medium What are the steps of PCR? - Answer- denaturation, annealing, and extension Calculation for osmolalitiy - Answer- 1.91 N [Show Less]
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Phlebotomy ASCP Practice Questions and Answers (Graded A)
An indirect infection is an infection that is: A) transmitted through direct contact B) transmitted through no direct human contact C) transmitted throu... [Show More] gh direct kissing D) transmitted through direct sexual contact - Answer- B) transmitted through no direct human contact Sodium Flouride keeps ______ molecules intact for 3 days. A) Cellulose B) Cellulite C) Glucose D) Glucerine - Answer- C) Glucose An average adult weighing between 150 to 160 pounds has how much blood in their body? A) 1 liter B) 2-3 liters C) 4-6 liters D) 7-8 liters - Answer- C) 4-6 liters HIV stands for: A) Human Immunodeficiency Virus B) Hereditary Immunodeficiency Virus C) Human Immunodeffective Virus D) Human Immunodetoxic Virus - Answer- A) Human Immunodeficiency Virus What is a multi-draw needle used for? A) To collect blood from multiple patients at multiple times B) To draw multiple tubes of blood from the same patient during venipuncture C) To draw one tube of blood from a patient at multiple times D)To draw blood from multiple patients at one time - Answer- B) To draw multiple tubes of blood from the same patient during venipuncture What is the order of draw? A) The sequence which tubes are filled B) The order in which you select patients to draw from C) An order given by a superior to draw blood from a patient D) The order in which you store blood vials - Answer- A) The sequence which tubes are filled What is the correct order of removal of PPE? A) Gown, gloves, mask B) Gown, mask, gloves C) Mask, gown, gloves D) Gloves, gown, mask - Answer- D) Gloves, gown, mask A hematocrit is: A) the percentage by volume of packed white blood cells in a given sample B) the platelet count in your blood C) the percentage by volume of packed red blood cells in a given sample D) the hemoglobin concentration in blood - Answer- C) the percentage by volume of packed red blood cells in a given sample 55% of blood is: A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) plasma D) hemoglobin - Answer- C) plasma A tourniquet is: A) A constrictive band used for venipuncture and intravenous injections B) A needle used for venipuncture and intravenous injections C) A constrictive cuff used to measure blood pressure D) All of the above - Answer- A) A constrictive band used for venipuncture and intravenous injections There are _____ types of white blood cells in human blood? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 - Answer- A) 5 A fistula is: A) an artificial permanent surgical connection between an artery and vein B) an artificial temporary surgical connection between an artery and vein C) a natural connection between an artery and vein D) None of the above - Answer- A) an artificial permanent surgical connection between an artery and vein What color tube does an electrolyte panel go in? A) lavendar B) green C) red D) lt. blue - Answer- B) green A hematoma is defined as: A) a severed artery B) an abnormal build up of blood vessels C) a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels D) None of the above - Answer- C) a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels What is a pathogen? A) a non-infectious organism B) a specific type of red blood cell C) an organism needed for survival D) a microorganism that causes disease in its host - Answer- D) a microorganism that causes disease in its host What is Hemolysis? A) The rupturing of red blood cells and the release of their contents into surrounding fluid B) The rupturing of white blood cells and the release of their contents into surrounding fluid C) The rupturing of platelets and the release of their contents into surrounding fluid D) All of the above - Answer- A) The rupturing of red blood cells and the release of their contents into surrounding fluid BBP stands for? A) Blood-Borne Prothombrin B) Blood-Borne Plasma C) Blood-Borne Pathogen D) None of the above - Answer- C) Blood-Borne Pathogen What color tube does one use when drawing for a reticulocyte count? A) green B) lavender C) red D) lt. blue - Answer- B) lavender Which of the following are types of cells found in blood? A) RBC's B) WBC's C) Platelets D) All of the above - Answer- D) All of the above What is hematuria? A) Blood in the urine B) A severe hematoba C) A kidney stone D) None of the above - Answer- A) Blood in the urine What does ESR stand for? A) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate B) Erythrocyte Sodium Rate C) Erythrocyte Separation Rate D) Erythrocyte System Rate - Answer- A) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate In which direction should the bevel be facing upon entering the arm? A) downwards B) angled towards the patient C) angled away from the patient D) upwards - Answer- D) upwards A group of blood test ordered is known as a: A) Profile B) Panel C) Both A & B D) None of the above - Answer- C) Both A & B The release of medical records without a patients permission is: A) An invasion of privacy B) Acceptable in most medical institutions C) OK as long as the Dr. signs off on it D) None of the above - Answer- A) An invasion of privacy What is plasma? A) The liquid component of blood that normally holds the blood cells in whole blood in suspension. B) The component of blood that picks up oxygen from the lungs and transport it into the tissues of the body C) Cells of the immune system involved in defending the body against infectious disease D) None of the above - Answer- A) The liquid component of blood that normally holds the blood cells in whole blood in suspension. What is phlebitis? A) A swelling of clotted blood within tissues B) Clotting of the blood in a part of the circulatory system C) Inflammation of the walls of a vein D) None of the above - Answer- C) Inflammation of the walls of a vein What does ACD stand for? A) Acid Citrate Dextrose B) Automated Care Defribillator C) Acid Calcium Dextrose D) None of the above - Answer- A) Acid Citrate Dextrose The state of being free of pathogenic microorganisms is known as: A) Medical Aseptic B) Quality Assurance C) Medical Asepsis D) None of the above - Answer- C) Medical Asepsis Platelets are defined as: A) Mature cells that carry oxygen to bodily tissues B) Blood cells that engulf bacteria and fungi C) The colorless fluid part of blood D) Cells that circulate in blood and clot to keep us from bleeding - Answer- D) Cells that circulate in blood and clot to keep us from bleeding What does CK stand for? A) Cell Kinase B) Creatine Kinase C) Calcium Kinase D) Cholesterol Kinase - Answer- B) Creatine Kinase Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets make up what percent of blood volume? A) 45% B) 55% C) 75% D) 15% - Answer- A) 45% Infections that originate in hospitals are known as: A) Neonatal infections B) Nasalcomial infections C) Nosocomial infections D) Neocomial infections - Answer- C) Nosocomial infections What does TSH stand for? A) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone B) Thyroid Specific Hormone C) Thyroid Sufficient Hormone D) None of the above - Answer- A) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone What tube contains the reversible anticoagulant citrate? A) Black B) Pink C) Grey D) Light blue - Answer- D) Light blue Serum is: A) Neither a red or white blood cell B) Plasma with the clotting proteins removed C) A liquid that separates out when blood coagulates D) All of the above - Answer- D) All of the above What tubes contain no additives? A) Red (plastic) B) Red (glass) C) Pink D) Black - Answer- B) Red (glass) -Most red tops do not have additives, but some brands may have an additive. A toxic chemical that affects the body by being absorbed into the blood is: A) Blood panel B) Blood agent C) Blood attacker D) None of the above - Answer- B) Blood agent What is septicemia? A) The swelling of clotted blood B) Blood clotting C) Blood poisoning caused by bacteria D) None of the above - Answer- C) Blood poisoning caused by bacteria What does PP stand for? A) Post procedure B) Post Prandial C) Platelets procedure D) None of the above - Answer- B) Post Prandial An eosinophil count is a blood test that measures the number of: A) White blood cells B) Red blood cells C) Platelets D) All of the above - Answer- A) White blood cells An extremely small blood vessel located within the tissue of the body is known as a: A) Artery B) Vein C) Capillary D) None of the above - Answer- C) Capillary PLT stands for: A) Pink labeled tube B) Platelets C) Plasma tube D) None of the above - Answer- B) Platelets The cavity located in the elbow joint is known as: A) Antedoctal Fossa B) Antecubital Fossa C) Antecubital Fossil D) None of the above - Answer- B) Antecubital Fossa How long does it take for the body to replace 500ml of blood? A) 6-8 weeks B) 1 week C) 2 years D) 18 months - Answer- How long does it take for the body to replace 500ml of blood?6-8 weeks1 week2 years18 months XDP stands for: A) Cross draw procedure B) Extra draw procedure C) Serum crosslinked fibrin D) None of the above - Answer- C) Serum crosslinked fibrin Blood accounts for how much of your total body weight? A) 7-8% B) 3-5% C) 10-11% D) 12-13% - Answer- A) 7-8% When a patient fasts and discontinues exercise for 12 hours it's known as a: A) Bastille state B) Basal state C) Basal ganglia D) None of the above - Answer- B) Basal state When performing a phlebotomy procedure never perform the following: A) Recap needles B) Reach for a falling needle C) Put down an unsheathed needle D) All of the above - Answer- D) All of the above Hct stands for: A) Hematocrit B) High Cell Total C) Hemoglobin Cell Testing D) None of the above - Answer- A) Hematocrit What color tube is used for blood banking? A) Black B) Green C) Grey/Yellow Tiger Top D) Pink - Answer- D) Pink What tube contains Thrombin for STAT serum testing? A) Lavender B) Gold or Red/Black Tiger Top C) Orange or Grey/Yellow Tiger Top D) None of the above - Answer- C) Orange or Grey/Yellow Tiger Top GTT stands for: A) Glucose Test Tube B) Glucose Tolerance Test C) Glucose Treatment Test D) None of the above - Answer- B) Glucose Tolerance Test Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) samples need to be run within how long of collecting? A) 15 min. B) 30 min. C) 1 hour D) 5 hours - Answer- A) 15 min. LH stands for: A) Leutinizing Hemoglobin B) Leutinizing Hormone C) Low Hormone D) None of the above - Answer- B) Leutinizing Hormone Which of the following are light sensitive specimins? A) Bilirubin B) Carotene C) RBC folate D) All of the above - Answer- D) All of the above Capillary samples are generally taken from: A) The finger B) The arm C) The stomach D) The leg - Answer- A) The finger What do you call an inanimate object that can transmit infectious agents from individual to another? A) Germ B) Fomite C) Parasite D) None of the above - Answer- B) Fomite Which color tubes are used for trace metal analysis? A) Green B) Red (plastic) C) Orange D) Dark blue - Answer- D) Dark blue A winged infusion set is: A) Known as a Butterfly B) Known as a scalp vein C) Used in phlebotomy D) All of the above - [Show Less]
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ASCP Hematology Review 2023 Questions with correct Answers
Name the locations of active marrow in adults: - Answer- sternum, skull, ribs, pelvis, vertebrae Where does hematopoiesis take place during the first 2 ... [Show More] months of gestation? - Answer- yolk sac Where does the majority of hematopoiesis take place during the 2nd through 7th month of gestation? - Answer- spleen When does the bone marrow take over hematopoiesis? - Answer- after birth What are the stages in order of the erythrocyte lineage? - Answer- (1)rubriblast, (2)prorubricyte, (3)rubricyte, (4)metarubricyte, (5)reticulocyte, (6)erytrocyte What are the stages in order of the granulocyte (neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil) lineage? - Answer- (1)myeloblast, (2)promyelocyte, (3)myelocyte, (4)metamyelocyte, (5)band, (6)segmented (7)eos/baso What are the stages in order of the macrophage lineage? - Answer- (1)monoblast, (2)promonocyte, (3)monocyte, (4)macrophage What are the stages in order of the platelet lineage? - Answer- (1)megakaryoblast, (2)promegakaryocyte, (3)megakaryocyte, (4)platelet What are the stages in order of the lymphocyte lineage? - Answer- (1)lymphoblast, (2)prolymphocyte, (3)lymphocyte Which growth factors stimulate the erythrocyte lineage? - Answer- GM-CSF, EPO, IL-3 Which growth factors stimulate the granulocyte lineages? - Answer- GM-CSF, IL-3 Which growth factors stimulate the platelet lineage? - Answer- GM-CSF, IL-3, TPO Which growth factors stimulate the lymphocyte lineage? - Answer- IL-2, IL-4, IL-6, IL-7 Which protein functions in the transport of Fe? - Answer- transferrin What is the major storage form of Fe? - Answer- ferritin What is the long-term (H20) insoluble Fe storage form called? - Answer- hemosiderin Excess Iron is stored where? What does this cause? - Answer- tissues and body organs, hemosiderosis, hemochromatosis Porphyrias are attributed to? - Answer- excessive formation of porphrins due to blockages in any enzymatic step in the heme synthesis pathway. Red or port wine colored urine can be seen in which condition related to the build up of heme precursors? - Answer- porphyria Neuropsychiatirc symptoms are seen when a build up of which precursors occurs? - Answer- early precursors (Delta-aminolevulinic acid/Porphobilinogen) Cutaneous symptoms such as photo-sensitivity and facial hair are seen when a build up of which precursors occurs? - Answer- later precursors (uroporphyrinogen/coproporphyrinogen, protoporphyrin/heme) Synthesis of heme requires what two components? - Answer- iron, protoporphyrin What are the heme precursors in order of synthesis? - Answer- (1)delta-aminolevulinic acid, (2)porphobilinogen, (3)uroporphyrinogen, (4)coproporphyrinogen, (5)protoporphyrin, (6)heme What type of hemoglobin is seen primarily in newborns? - Answer- Hgb F What type of hemoglobin is seen primarily in adults? - Answer- Hgb A2 What type of hemoglobin is rarely seen in adults as well as newborns? - Answer- Hgb A What hemoglobin types are seen in embryos but not in adults or newborns? - Answer- gower I, gower II, portland All non-embryonic hemoglobin types are comprised of what type of globin chain? - Answer- alpha Hemoglobin A2 is composed of what types of globin chains? - Answer- alpha, beta Hemoglobin A is composed of what types of globin chains? - Answer- alpha, delta Hemoglobin F is composed of what types of globin chains? - Answer- alpha, gamma Multiple transfusions can cause what kind of shift in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve? - Answer- left shift An increase in hemoglobin F can cause what kind of shift in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve? - Answer- left shift A left shift in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve causes what changes in the following substances: CO2, pH, 2,3-DPG? - Answer- increased pH, decreased CO2, decreased 2,3-DPG A right shift in the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve causes what changes in the following substances: CO2, pH, 2,3-DPG? - Answer- decreased pH, increased CO2, increased 2,3-DPG How does EDTA work as an anticoagulant? - Answer- it chelates Ca++ How does heparin work as an anticoagulant? - Answer- it is an anti-thrombin agent Hemoglobin is measured by its conversion to what? By? - Answer- cyanomethemoglobin, potassium cyanide, potassium ferricyanide What are potential sources of error in the measurement of hemoglobin? - Answer- lipemia, icterus, high white count, resistant hemoglobins (SS, CC) What is the normal reference range of hemoglobin for males? - Answer- 14-18 g/dL What is the normal reference range of hemoglobin for females? - Answer- 12-16 g/dL Methemoglobin carries iron in what state? - Answer- oxidized (Fe3+) What color is methemoglobin? - Answer- brown True or False: Methemoglobin can bind O2. - Answer- false What causes an increase in carboxyhemoglobin? - Answer- smoking, carbon monoxide poisoning What color is carboxyhemoglobin? - Answer- cherry red What does the hematocrit measure? - Answer- packed cell volume in a percentage What are sources of error seen in using the microhematocrit method to measure the hematocrit? - Answer- failure to seal tube adequately, incorrect reading due to uneven clay plug, inappropriate centrifuge specs, excess EDTA resulting in RBC shrinkage How is the hematocrit measured using automated methods? - Answer- calculated from MCV and RBC What are sources of error seen in using the automated method to measure the hematocrit? - Answer- cold agglutinins, high WBC cound What is the normal reference range for hematocrit of males? - Answer- 42-52% What is the normal reference range for hematocrit of females? - Answer- 37-47% What is the calculation used for manual cell counts? - Answer- # of cells counted X 1/total volume X dilution factor What is the reference range for a WBC? - Answer- 5000-10000 ul What is the reference range for platelets? - Answer- 150 - 400 X 10^3 What is the reference range for MCV? - Answer- 80-100 fl What is the reference range for MCH? - Answer- 28-32 pg What is the reference range for MCHC? - Answer- 32-36% g/dl What is the reference range for RDW? - Answer- 11.5-14.5% The function of what cell is to transport O2 to tissues and remove CO2 from tissues? - Answer- RBC The function of what cell is a phagocytic response to bacteria? - Answer- neutrophil The function of what cell is in humoral and cell mediated immunity? - Answer- lymphocyte The function of what cell is an inflammatory response mediator? - Answer- basophil The function of what cell is an allergic response regulator? - Answer- eosinophil The function of what cell is in clotting? - Answer- platelet What are the dyes used in a Wright stain? - Answer- eosin, methylene blue What is the pH of the phosphate buffer used in a Wright stain? - Answer- 6.4 What can cause a Wright stained slide to appear more blue? - Answer- prolonged staining, pH too basic What can cause a Wright stained slide to appear more red? - Answer- prolonged washing, pH too acidic Neutrophil counts are increased in what conditions? - Answer- bacterial infections Lymphocyte counts are increased in what conditions? - Answer- viral infections Monocyte counts are increased in what conditions? - Answer- TB, syphilis, malignancies Eosinophil counts are increased in what conditions? - Answer- allergies, parasites Basophil counts are increased in what conditions? - Answer- immediate hypersensitivies Hyper-segmented neutrophils are associated with what condition(s)? - Answer- pernicious anemia Hypo-segmented neutrophils are associated with what condition(s)? - Answer- pelger huet, pseudo-pelger huet, AML, AIDS Toxic granulation and vacuoles are associated with what condition(s) - Answer- bacterial infections, burns, chemotherapy Dohle bodies are associated with what condition(s)? - Answer- bacterial infections, burns, May-Hegglin Variant lymphs (increased size and basophilia) are associated with what condition(s)? - Answer- infectious mono, other viral infections Large to giant platelets are associated with what conditions? - Answer- Bernard-Soulier, May-Hegglin, myeloproliferative disorders, stress platelets If platelet count seems low what would be the corrective action? - Answer- check feather edge for clumping and satelitism. (Is an EDTA related phenomenon) If seen redraw in Na citrate What type of cells are expected to be seen with a low MCHC? (<32) - Answer- hypochromic What type of cells are expected to be seen with a high MCHC (<32) - Answer- hyperchromic Acanthocytes are commonly seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- severe liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia Another word for sickle cells is? - Answer- drepanocyte Echinocytes are commonly seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- uremia (can also be an artifact) Spherocytes are commonly seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- hereditary spherocytosis, increased MCHC, ABO HDN, other hemolytic processes Elliptocytes are commonly seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- hereditary elliptocytosis, iron deficiency, thalassemia Stomatocytes are commonly seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- hereditary stomatocytosis, liver disease Macroovalocytes are commonly seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- megaloblastic anemia Target cells are commonly seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- liver disease, Hb C, thalassemia, other hemoglobinopathies Helmet cells are seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- hemolytic processes Another name for helmet cells is? - Answer- keratocyte Teardrop drop cells are seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- extramedullary hematopoiesis, thalassemias, pernicious anemia Schistocytes are seen in what condition(s)? - Answer- DIC, hemolytic processes Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of? - Answer- DNA What condition(s) are howell-jolly bodies seen in? - Answer- disturbed erythropoiesis, hemolytic anemias, megaloblastic anemia, post-splenectomy The inclusions seen in basophilic stippling are composed of? - Answer- RNA What condition(s) is basophilic stippling seen in? - Answer- thalassemia, lead poisoning What stains are utilized to see basophilic stippling? - Answer- wright, new methyene blue Pappenheimer bodies are composed of? - Answer- iron What stains are utilized to see pappenheimer bodies? - Answer- wright, prussian blue What conditions are pappenhemier bodies seen in? - Answer- sideroblastic anemia, hemoglobinopathies What are heinz bodies composed of? - Answer- denatured precipitated hemoglobin What stain can you NOT see heinz bodies? What stain is used instead? - Answer- Wright, supravital stain (brilliant cresyl blue/new methylene blue) What conditions are heinz bodies seen in? - Answer- G6PD deficiency, thalassemia, unstable hemoglobins What are cabot rings composed of? - Answer- remnants of the mitotic spindle What conditions are cabot rings seen in? - Answer- megaloblastic anemia How does the value for hemoglobin compare to the value for the hematocrit? - Answer- Hgb X 3 = Hct +/-3% How does the value for RBCs compare to the value for Hgb? - Answer- RBC X 3 = Hgb +/-3% An increased MCV with MCHC and decreased RBC is associated with what condition? - Answer- cold agglutinin disease What can be done to circumvent interference from cold agglutinin disease? - Answer- warming the sample What does the erythrocyte sedimentation rate measure? - Answer- rate of fall of red cells through plasma What is the normal reference range of the ESR for women? - Answer- 0-20 mm/hr What is the normal reference range of the ESR for men? - Answer- 0-15 mm/hr An increase in the ESR value is see in conditions involving? - Answer- the presence of abnormal plasma proteins (inflammatory conditions) A falsely elevated ESR can be attributed to? - Answer- tilting tube, standing too long, increased temperature, excess EDTA A falsely decreased ESR can be attributed to? - Answer- QNS specimen, decreased temperature What types of stains are used to view reticulocytes? - Answer- supra vital (new methylene blue, brilliant cresyl blue) Reticulocyte counts are used to monitor? - Answer- erythropoiesis What is the normal reference range for a reticulocyte count? - Answer- 0.5-1.5% A reticulocyte production > 2 indicates? - Answer- adequate bone marrow response to anemia A reticulocyte production < 2 indicates? - Answer- inadequate bone marrow response to anemia Retic counts are increased in which of the following conditions> - Answer- hemolytic anemias, post-acute blood loss, following therapy (iron, folate, B12) What is the normal amount of megakaryocytes seen per lpf in a bone marrow prep? - Answer- 5 What is the normal reference range for the myeloid to erythroid ratio? - Answer- 3:1-4:1 Dry bone marrow taps are associated with what pathological condition(s)? - Answer- myelofibrosis, aplastic anemia What condition(s) can lead to a decreased myeloid to erythroid ratio? - Answer- hemolytic anemia, erythroleukemia What condition(s) can lead to an increased myeloid to erythroid ratio? - Answer- myeloid hyperplasia, myeloid leukemias What are the most common aspirate sites for bone marrows? - Answer- sternum, hip (iliac crest) What stain is used on a bone marrow? - Answer- romanowsky stain What is the normal ratio of cells to fat seen in a bone marrow - Answer- 50/50 Bone marrow biopsies are performed to in order to evaulate what? - Answer- overall cellularity of the bone marrow A WBC differential is performed on a bone marrow in order to do what? - Answer- determine the type of leukemia present if diagnosed When using cellulose acetate for hemoglobin electrophoresis what is the pH used? - Answer- 8.6 When using citrate agar for hemoglobin electrophoresis what is the pH used? - Answer- 6.2 [Show Less]
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ASCP/Program Final Practice questions and answers 2023
Where does lipid digestion begin? - Answer- Small intestine What is the fastest band in lipoprotein separation electrophoresis and what does it mostly c... [Show More] onsist of? - Answer- Alpha band; consists mostly of HDL What is the role of LCAT? - Answer- transfer of fatty acids from lecithin to cholesterol (esterification) A HIGH urea/creatinine ratio with an elevated plasma urea indicates what condition? - Answer- Prerenal condition A high urea/creatinine ratio with an elevated creatinine indicates what condition? - Answer- Post renal condition If the pH value is acid to the isoelectric point, the protein will have a net charge and a cation will migrate to which of the following? A.anode B.cathode C. anion D. positive pole - Answer- B. cathode (negative pole) Anions have what type of charge? - Answer- negative What is the Guthrie bacterial inhibition assay detecting? What bacteria is used? - Answer- screening for phenylketonuria; uses Bacillus subtilis What is the major component of the Beta-protein fraction in serum protein electrophoresis? - Answer- Transferrin Deficiency in plasminogen leads to what condition? - Answer- Thrombosis What does lipase hydrolyze triglycerides into? - Answer- free fatty acids and 2-MAG For the cardiac enzymes (CK-MB, troponin, and myoglobin), what is the order in which they will decrease following AMI? - Answer- Myoglobin (18-30hr), CK-MB (2-3 days), troponin (5-10 days) A high A/G ratio may be found in what disorders? - Answer- leukemia and genetic defects Which serum protein is increased in nephritic syndrome? - Answer- alpha-2 macroglobulin Which fraction of serum protein electrophoresis do the following comprise? -Alpha-2 macroglobulin -Haptoglobin -Ceruloplasmin - Answer- Alpha-2 proteins A patient has anti-IgA specific for the light chains of IgA. What type of reaction is this called? - Answer- Anaphylactoid What is the least number of platelets that must be present in a unit of random donor platelets? - Answer- 5.5 x10^10 What is the most number of white blood cells that can be present on a unit of red blood cells that has been leukoreduced? - Answer- 5 x 10^6 Which is a cestode? A. Protozoa B. Tapeworm C. Roundworm - Answer- B. Tapeworm Formula for manual retic count. - Answer- (# of retics/1000 RBC) x100 Fareinheit formula (from Celsius to F) - Answer- 9/5 C +32 List 3-5 antibodies that never cause HDN - Answer- Anti-I, Anti-IH, Anti-P1, Anti-Le(a), Anti-Le(b) Beer-Lambert Law - Answer- A=Ebc A=absorbance c=concentration b=the distance the light travels through the sample E=molar absorptivity What is the frequency of c (lowercase c)? - Answer- 80% Osmol gap - Answer- osmol gap=measured-calculated Celsius Formula - Answer- C=(F-32) 5/9 What is the least number of platelets that must be present in a unit of apheresed platelets? - Answer- 3.0 x 10^11 What is the frequency (pos.) for Fy(b)? - Answer- 80% What is the frequency of Fy(a)? - Answer- 65% What are the low frequency antigens? - Answer- Cw, V, VS, Kp(a), Js(a), Lu(a) What is the frequency of C (capital C)? - Answer- 70% What is the frequency of D? - Answer- 85% What is the frequency of Jk(a)? - Answer- 77% What is the frequency (pos.) of K? - Answer- 9% What is the frequency of Jk(b)? - Answer- 73% The ELEK test is used to test for toxins from which bacteria? - Answer- Corynebacterium diphtheriae A gram negative rod was isolated from sputum and was K/K on TSI. On MAC, it produced clear colonies and it is nitrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. Which of the following organisms fits this description? A. Aeromonas B. Pseudomonas C. Stenotrophomonas D. Acinetobacter - Answer- B. Pseudomonas Which of the following organisms can be used as controls for bile solubility? A. Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans Group Strep B. Streptococcus pneumonia and Enterococcus faecalis C. Staphylococcus aureus and Micrococcus D. Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus aureus - Answer- A. Streptococcus pneumonia and Viridans Group Strep What virus causes mental retardation? - Answer- Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Which of the following best fits the description below? -Nitrate positive -68 degrees catalase negative -nonphotochromogen -Niacin positive A. M. tuberculosis B. M. leprae C. M. chelonae D. M. marinum - Answer- A. M. tuberculosis What five antibodies are considered "crossmatch compatible?" - Answer- Anti-Le(a), Anti-Le(b), Anti-M, Anti-N, Anti-P1 (usually all IgM) What is the formula for calculating the number of units to screen to find a certain number of compatible units? - Answer- # of units= Unit of blood needed/percent of population negative for the antigen Name eight antibodies that demonstrate high titer, low avidity titration characteristics. - Answer- Anti-Ch, Anti-Rg, Anti-Kn, Anti-McC, Anti-Yk(a), Anti-Sl, Anti-Cs(a), Anti-JMH What antigen is associated with the x chromosome? - Answer- Xg(a) What blood group system is associated with persons of Mongolian heritage? - Answer- The Diego System (Di(a)) What is the frequency (pos.) of S? - Answer- 55% What is the frequency of E? - Answer- 30% What is the frequency of e (lowercase) ? - Answer- 98% Which of the following organisms are BSC Class III? A. B.anthracis B. Francisella tularensis C. Y. pestis D. A and C E. All of the above - Answer- B. Francisella tularensis A gram positive organism was isolated from a superficial wound. It was streaked onto a BAP, MAC, and mannitol salt agar. It was Beta hemolytic on BAP and it was yellow on the mannitol salt agar. It was catalase positive and coagulase positive. What is it? A. S. aureus B. E. faecalis C. Micrococcus D. S. epidermidis - Answer- A. S. aureus Which of the following describes S. pneumonia? A. catalase + Bile solubility= Optochin S B. catalase = Bile solubility= Optochin R C. catalase = Bile solubility+ Optochin S D. none of the above - Answer- C. catalase= Bile solubility+ Optochin S What organism are differentiated with ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride disk? - Answer- S. pneumonia and Viridans group Strep. S. pneumo=S Viridans=R A gram negative bacilli was isolated from a deep wound. It is esculin positive, catalase positive, and has black colonies on BBE. It is resistant to vancomycin, colistin, and kanamycin. Which of the following best fits this description? A. Veionella B. Prevotella C. Bacteroides fragilis D. Fusobacterium - Answer- C. Bacteroides fragilis What organism is SPS sensitive? - Answer- Peptostreptococcus anaerobius A species of Haemophilus was tested positive for the ALA porphyrin test. What factor(s) does the organism need to grow? A. XV B. X C. V D. none of the above What type could it be? - Answer- C. V, because it has hemin (X) which is a porphyrin It could be a parainfluenzae, parahaemolyticus, segnis, or paraphrophilus which need V to grow. Which of the following correctly differentiates Pseudomonas from Stenotrophomonas? A. Pseudomonas: ox + glu = nit + Stenotrophomonas: ox= glu= nit= B. Pseudomonas: ox+ glu+ nit+ Stenotrophomonas: ox=glu+nit= C. Pseudomonas: ox+ glu= nit= Stenotrophomonas: ox= glu=nit= - Answer- A. Pseudomonas: ox+ glu= nit+ Stenotrophomonas: ox=glu=nit= Which of the following transfusion reactions are caused by leukocyte antigens? A. TRALI B. Allergic (urticarial) C. TACO D. PTP - Answer- A. TRALI What is the immunoglobulin class of Rh antibodies? - Answer- IgG Why are cord blood cells used in antibody identification? - Answer- Newborns do not have developed RBC antigens, so cord blood is used for typing What leukemia is characterized by a marked increase in granulocytes in the peripheral blood and bone marrow and a chromosomal abnormality t(9;22)? - Answer- Chronic myelogenous leukemia What is the cause of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions? How can it be prevented? - Answer- Caused by white blood cell antigens in the donor unit; leukoreduce the unit of blood A patient with septicemia comes into the ER. His blood culture had curved Gram negative rods. The specimen was tested and the following are the results. What is this organism? -Green on TCBS -Ox+ -Nit+ -Alpha hemolytic A. Vibrio cholera B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Vibrio vulnificus D. Campylobacter jejuni - Answer- C. Vibrio vulnificus Which of the following is a slow growing, nonphotochromogen associated with pulmonary and disseminated infection in AIDS patients? A. M. tuberculosis B. M. chelonae C. M. leprae D. M. avium - Answer- D. M. avium Which of the following causes mumps? A. Paramyxoviridae B. Picornoviridae C. Reoviridae D. Coronaviridae - Answer- A. Paramyxoviridae An organism was isolated and has the following characteristics: -A/AG H2S -Phenalalanine deaminase negative -LDC negative Which bacteria is most likely present? A. Klebsiella B. E. coli C. Citrobacter D. Proteus - Answer- C. Citrobacter You have an organism that has an A/A, gas producing TSI reaction and is H2S positive, Phenalalanine deaminase positive and indole positive. Which is most likely present? A. Morganella morganii B. Proteus mirabilis C. Proteus vulgaris D. Providencia - Answer- C. Proteus vulgaris You have an organism that has an A/A, gas producing TSI reaction and is H2S neg., Indole neg., LDC pos., and ODC neg. What organism best fits this description? A. E.coli B. Klebsiella pneumonia C. Salmonella typhi D. Enterobacter cloacae - Answer- B. Klebsiella pneumoniae Why is heat not used to perform the ABO type? - Answer- Because heat can destroy the RBC IgM antibodies. IgM antibodies are cold reacting antibodies and ABO are IgM. What immunoglobulin class is usually deficient in patients who have anaphylactic transfusion reactions? - Answer- IgA What is the myeloid maturation order? - Answer- 1. myeloblast 2. promyelocyte 3. myelocyte 4. metamyelocyte 5. band 6. polymorphonuclear neutrophil, baso, or eos What condition can cause the DAT to show a mixed field reaction? - Answer- transfusion reaction At what phase of testing will cold agglutinins cause the crossmatch to be incompatible? - Answer- The antiglobulin phase (use of polyspecific antihuman reagent leads to activation of complement) As a WBC matures, basophilic stippling (increases/decreases)? - Answer- decreases A patient was admitted to the ER and complained of stomach pains and diarrhea. The following are his results. Which organism could it be? -Beta hemolytic colony -Gram negative rod -Yellow on TCBS -Lactose negative -Ox+ -Nit+ A. Vibrio cholera B. Vibrio vulnificus C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Helicobacter pylori - Answer- A. Vibrio cholerae A patient was admitted into the ER and is suffering from hemorrhage. He needs to be transfused with packed red blood cells and he is Type AB positive. However, there is no AB blood available. Which of the following is the next option? A. Type A B .Type O C. Type B - Answer- A. Type A p. 247 What factors does thrombin activate? - Answer- I, V, VIII, and XI What DNA virus causes chickenpox/shingles? - Answer- Varicella-zoster virus Woolsorter's disease is caused by which of the following? A. Bacillus anthracis B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium dificile D. Bacillus cereus - Answer- A. Bacillus anthracis What influences neutrophils to leave the bone marrow and enter peripheral circulation? - Answer- Interleukins Which of the following cell types is the last to undergo mitosis? A. Metamyelocyte B. Promyelocyte C. Myelocyte D. Myeloblast - Answer- C. Myelocyte A patient has made anti-IgA due to absence of IgA. What is this reaction called? - Answer- Anaphylactic reaction One vial of RhIg covers a_____mL bleed? - Answer- 30mL A patient required a venipuncture, but has an IV in the antecubital area of their right arm (area in front of the elbow) and an IV in their left hand. What is the best option? A. antecubital of left arm B. median cubital of right arm C. stop the IV and draw D. the right hand - Answer- D. the right hand What term describes the bond between antigen and antibody? - Answer- avidity Which of the following species of Mycobacteria are photochromogens? A. M. kansasii and M. marinum B. M. avium and M. ulcerans C. M. scrofulaceum and M. gordonae D. M. tuberculosis - Answer- A. M. kansasii and M. marinum What organism is associated with Pseudomembranous colitis? - Answer- Clostridium dificile Which is a fluke? A. cestode B. nematode C. trematode - Answer- C. trematode What is the probable cause of a positive DAT, positive eluate with all cells, and a negative serum antibody screen? - Answer- Warm autoantibody (WAIHA) How long is fresh frozen plasma that has been thawed good for? What temperature is it stored after thawing? - Answer- It's good for 24hr; stored at 1-6 degrees C What is the probable cause of a positive DAT, positive eluate with all cells, and a positive serum antibody screen/panel with all cells? - Answer- Drug-induced hemolytic anemia (anti-penicillin); specifically penicillin-coated cells List some examples of intravascular hemolysis. - Answer- -Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria -Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria -Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia -Transfusion reactions -Physical or mechanical trauma (MAHA, heart and vessel abnormalities, DIC) -Toxic environment to RBCs (sepsis, P. falciparum, venom, H2O, burns) What is Factor VIII activated by? - Answer- Thrombin Which FAB classification of Myelodysplastic syndrome may progress to AML? - Answer- RAEB-T (refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation) What is the normal range of PT? What pathway does it measure? - Answer- 11-15 sec; measures the extrinsic pathway What coagulation factors are present in cryoprecipitate? - Answer- I, VIII, XIII A patient is admitted into the ER and had experienced a heart attack. He admits to recently having headaches and nose bleeds. The following are his lab results. What does he possibly have? RBC: 10.0 x 10^6/uL HGB: 25 g/dL HCT:60% PLT: 550 x 10^9/L WBC: 35.5 x 10^9/L EPO: decreased LAP: sl. increase Normochromic, normocytic RBCs on peripheral blood smear. - Answer- Polycythemia vera Which of the following are non-photochromogens? A. M. gordonae B. M. avium C. M. ulcerans D. B and C E. A and C - Answer- D. B and C (M. avium and M. ulcerans) What antibodies "commonly" cause HDN? - Answer- Anti-K, Anti-C, Anti-E, Anti-c, Anti-e Which antibodies are destroyed by DTT or 2-ME (sulhydryl compounds)? - Answer- Kell, Lutheran, and Cartwright antibodies Which diseases are associated with HLA B27? - Answer- Ankylosing spondylitis and Reiter's syndrome What is the criteria for an autologous donor when it comes to hemoglobin and hematocrit? - Answer- Minimum hemoglobin:11g/dL Minimum hematocrit: 33% List the order of amount of H antigen present (from greatest to least) in various ABO groups. - Answer- 1. O 2. A2 3. B 4. A2B 5. A1 6. A1B What is the probable cause of a positive DAT, positive eluate with all cells and a positive antibody screen/panel showing specificity? - Answer- Cold autoantibody (Cold AIHA) What quantity of anticoagulant/preservative is used with 450+/- 45 mL blood? - Answer- 63mL of anticoagulant needed How much should the hemoglobin be increased by the infusion of one unit of red blood cells? - Answer- 1 to 1.5 g/dL How much should the hematocrit be increased by the infusion of one unit of red blood cells? - Answer- At about 3 to 5% Among which of the following species of mycobacterium are scotochromogens? A. M. tuberculosis and M. avium B. M. marinum and M. kansasii C. M. scrofulaceum and M. gordonae - Answer- C. M.scrofulaceum and M.gordonae What is the formula used to calculate volume of fetomaternal bleed? - Answer- Volume of fetomaternal bleed=(#of fetal cells x maternal blood volume)/# of maternal cells A low A/G ratio may be found in what conditions? - Answer- multiple myeloma and autoimmune diseases What is the primary function of alpha-1 antitrypsin? - Answer- inactivation of serine proteases (enzymes that break down proteins) What is the main enzyme involved in cholesterol biosynthesis? - Answer- HMG-CoA reductase What is a nematode? A. ameboa B. Trichinella C. Schistosoma - Answer- B. Trichinella Which of the following options does NOT describe Nutrient Variant Streptococci (NVS)? A. will not grow on blood agar B. grows on chocolate or enriched agars C. associated with endocarditis, otitis media, and eye infections D. All of the above describe NVS - Answer- D. All of the above describe NVS Which of the following characteristics best differentiates Bacillus anthracis from Bacillus cereus? A. catalase positive, lecithinase positive, aerobic colonies B. non-motile, catalase positive, nonhemolytic C. Large Gram positive bacilli, catalase positive, lecithinase positive D. none of the above - Answer- B. non-motile, catalase positive, nonhemolytic Bacillus anthracis is a large gram-positive bacilli that is non-motile, catalase positive, and non-hemolytic Which of the following organism have infective oocysts transmitted via fecal/oral route? A. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Acanthamoeba C. Toxoplasma gondii D. Naegleria fowleri - Answer- A. Cryptosporidium parvum What type of hemolysis is the mechanism of RBC destruction in Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions? Why? - Answer- Extravascular hemolysis because complement is not activated Name the three monosaccharides. - Answer- glucose, galactose, and fructose What is the frequency (pos.) of lowercase s? - Answer- 89% Burkitt's lymphoma is what type of lymphoma? - Answer- B cell Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma A gram-positive rod was isolated from a patient with food poisoning. It's Beta hemolytic on blood agar, catalase positive, and has a positive BE. It is also CAMP positive. What is this organism? A. Group B Strep B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Bacillus cereus D. none of the above - Answer- B. Listeria monocytogenes What might be the reason for a patient to have anti-Jk(a) in their serum, but their cells also type positive for the Jk(a) antigen? - Answer- transfusion, pregnancy, received plasma, or injections What is the Donath Lansteiner test used to diagnose? - Answer- Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria [Show Less]
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ASCP Phlebotomy Exam Questions with correct Answers
Which color tubes should be used for HLA typing? - Answer- Yellow and green You enter a patient's room to collect an aldosterone sample. The nurse is he... [Show More] lping the patient to the restroom and takes five minutes. When they return, you collect the sample. What error was made? - Answer- Patient should have been recumbent for 30 minutes prior to collecting the sample What could lead to errors in neonate testing? - Answer- Touching the infant's heel to the filter paper; adding blood to the paper from a heparinized tube; touching the circled portion of the paper with hands/gloves before, during or after collection; allowing the filter paper to come into contact with substances while drying. What is the name of the membranous sac surrounding the heart? - Answer- Pericaridial You are given a request to draw a specimen for a D-dimer test. You had just finished drawing the patient for an ESR and a serum study. What do you do? - Answer- Draw a light blue tube. On the NFPA hazard sign, what does the number on the right side of the diamond indicate? - Answer- Reactivity/instability What specimens require chilling? - Answer- Ammonia, blood gases (special note: if blood gases will get to the lab in 30 minutes or less, plastic tubes are acceptable, if not glass is preferred), catecholamines, gastrin, lactic acid, parathyroid hormone, pyruvate If you will be doing a capillary stick on an infant for lead, renin, or hematocrit, what must be done to the site prior to the capillary stick? - Answer- Wash the child's finger or heel with soap or water, then cleanse with alcohol. What test can be affected if chilled for more than two hours? - Answer- Potassium, so draw separate tubes for electrolytes if the sample will be chilled for an extended period of time. What specimens require transportation at 37 degrees? - Answer- Cold agglutinins, cyrofribrinogen, cyroglobulins What blood specimens are photosensitive and need to be protected from light? - Answer- Bilirubin, beta-carotene, folate, porphyrins, vitamin A, vitamin B6 If collecting a blood culture and the patient is sensitive to iodine or older than two months, what antiseptic can be used? - Answer- Chlorhexidine gluconate What is the generic name for tegtretol? - Answer- carbamazepine What is the most amount of blood you can take from an 11 pound baby? - Answer- 5.0 mL You go into a neonates room and a nurse is applying an EMLA to the patient. What should you do? - Answer- Come back in one hour INR is the same or associated with... - Answer- PT You go to collect a sample from a patient who is on coumadin, what should you expect? - Answer- Excessive bleeding What is the most abundant leukocyte in the blood? - Answer- Neutrophils (Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas; Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils) A stool sample for C. difficile sat at room temperature for 8 hours before arriving at the lab. What action(s) should be taken? - Answer- Recollect the specimen. C. Diff can be undetectable after only 2 hours at room temperature. At what temperature should samples for DNA testing be kept at? - Answer- Room temperature (unless otherwise stated by the manufacturer) What is guiac tested for? - Answer- RBC's in stool According to CLSI, what is the correct order of (long) venous draw - Answer- 1. Blood culture/yellow stopper SPS/sterile 2. Light blue/clear shield over blue stopper 3. Red & Black stopper/Gold shield/Red stopper & shield/Royal blue shield with clot activator 4. Green & gray/light green/green stopper/green shield 5. Lavender stopper & shield/Pink stopper & shield/White (pearl) shield/Royal blue shield with EDTA/Tan tube with EDTA. 6. Gray stopper/shield 7. Yellow stopper solution A or solution B acid citrate dextrose ACD solution 8. All other tubes. What does CLIA stand for and what does it mean for health care workers? - Answer- Clinical Improvement Amendments of 1988; ensures quality laboratory testing What does ASCLS stand for and what does it mean for health care workers? - Answer- American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science; accredits clinical laboratory personnel What does NAACLS stand for and what does it mean for health care workers? - Answer- National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences; it accredits educational programs in clinical laboratory sciences A 25-year old patient is refusing to give a blood sample due to religious reasons, the doctor on rotation says to obtain the sample any way possible. What legal action could result from this? - Answer- Assault and battery, as well as civil litigation. What does HIPPA stand for and what does it mean for health care workers? - Answer- Health Insurance Portability and Accountabilty Act; created legal requirements for the protection, security and the appropriate sharing of a patient's personal health information. Which of these is considered a deep vein? (Axillary, ulnar, cephalic, median cubital) - Answer- Ulnar The POC ROCHE TROPT assay test is a machine that tests _________ in order to detect _______. - Answer- Troponin T; Heart damage When taking a blood culture sample using a butterfly needle and drawing directly into blood culture bottle, which bottle should you draw first? (Anaerobic or Aerobic) - Answer- Aerobic (the air in the butterfly needle tubing could adversely affect the anaerobic bottle) O&P samples should be kept at what temperature? - Answer- Ova and parasite stool sample should be kept at room temperature C&S requires what kind of collection procedure? - Answer- Culture and sensitivity urine sample requires a clean-catch midstream What temperature should 24-hour urine specimens be kept at? - Answer- Refrigerated and kept cool at all times. If CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) cannot be tested immediately, how should it be stored? - Answer- The tube for chemistry should be refrigerated, the tube for microbiology/hematology should be kept at room temperature, the tube for serology testing should be frozen. When transporting amniotic fluid, what precautions must the health care worker take? - Answer- Protect the specimen from light, keep at room temperature and transport immediately. What are some common additives in a 24-hour urine container? - Answer- Hydrochloric acid, boric acid, acetic acid and toluene Define room temperature - Answer- 23°C - 29°C (74°F - 84°F) Define refrigerated - Answer- 2°C to 8°C (36°F-46°F) Define frozen - Answer- -15°C or colder (5°F or colder) [Show Less]
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ASCP – 1 Exam Questions and Answers 2023
Arterial blood leaves the heart through the: - Answer- Aorta The liquid portion of the blood within the body is: - Answer- Plasma The laboratory rece... [Show More] ives a STAT request for a blood glucose level on a patient in the emergency department. It is appropriate to: - Answer- Treat the request as a medical emergency: collecting and processing the blood immediately The best location to perform a dermal puncture for a point-of-care glucose test on an adult is the tip of the palmar surface of the: - Answer- Third or fourth finger Low and high controls are required for a glucose meter. These are run: - Answer- Exactly the same as patient samples are run A patient has recently had a radical mastectomy of the right breast. The best site for venipuncture in this patient is the: - Answer- Left arm Urine begins forming in the __________ where the blood is ____________. - Answer- Kidneys; filtered The length and width of lancet blades are important for assuring an adequate flow of blood and to: - Answer- Prevent injury to the bone Blood culture collection sites are prepared by swabbing the venipuncture site with iodine, which is left on for at least: - Answer- 20 seconds A tourniquet is applied to the arm above a venipuncture site to: - Answer- Slow the flow of venous blood to the heart Arterial walls have thick layers of _________________to withstand increased blood pressure during the contraction phase of the heart and to maintain blood flow during its resting phase. - Answer- Muscle Which of the following is a normal finding in a plasma specimen? - Answer- Light yellow color A blood specimen for a 2-hour postprandial glucose test is collected: - Answer- After the patient eats a meal Which of the following describes the appropriate response by the phlebotomist? - Answer- A patient on withhold for 8 hours reports drinking water. A blood glucose level was collected, and no report was added to the requisition. A patient's laboratory requisition requests the specimen by collected by fingerstick. The phlebotomist about to perform the fingerstick notices that the patient's hand feels cold. It is appropriate for the phlebotomist to: - Answer- Warm the patient's skin prior to performing the puncture A patient has a cast on the left arm and an IV in the right forearm. A venipuncture in the patient's right arm must be done: - Answer- Below the IV in a different vein Skin puncture for neonatal screening specifies that: - Answer- The first drop of blood is wiped away To prevent tampering and misidentification of samples for legal purposes, everyone who handles the specimen must provide: - Answer- Documentation of their identity and the date and time the sample is handled A neonatal bilirubin specimen should be collected in a (n): - Answer- Amber microcollection tube and protected from light Peak and trough specimens are collected for therapeutic drug monitoring. The trough specimen is typically collected: - Answer- 30 minutes before a dose A specimen for a blood ammonia test is to be preserved from the time of collection until it is tested in the laboratory. The best course of action is to keep the tube: - Answer- In a cup of ice water The performance and speed of centrifuges should be checked: - Answer- Every 3 months Which of the following is the proper greeting to say when first approaching a patient? - Answer- "Good afternoon. I'm from the laboratory. Can you tell me your name please?" Which of the following best describes the safe operation of a centrifuge? - Answer- Tube stoppers are left on, the centrifuge is loaded by balancing similar tubes, and the lid is closed during centrifugation The preferred depth of incision for a skin puncture of a premature infant is: - Answer- 0.85 mm The arteries used for arterial puncture, listed in order of preference, are: - Answer- Radial, brachial, femoral The transportation of blood and body fluid specimens by pneumatic tube system: - Answer- Is not recommended A phlebotomist is asked to assemble the equipment for an arterial puncture. Which of the following would be inappropriate? - Answer- Tourniquet When collecting blood samples from a patient with a venous access device (VAD): - Answer- Discard the first 5 mL of blood to flush the VAD The industry-wide stopper color for tubes chemically clean enough to be used for collecting blood specimens for the determination of trace elements is: - Answer- Royal blue After centrifuging a green-stoppered tube containing blood to be tested for an electrolyte panel, the phlebotomist notes that the serum is pink, indicating: - Answer- Hemolysis and an unacceptable specimen A phlebotomist must collect from a patient in isolation with contact precautions. The appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) is: - Answer- Gloves and gown The procedure for a glucose tolerance test (GTT) calls for blood specimens to be collected at intervals of one-half hour, 1 hour and 2 hours after the glucose dose has been ingested. An outpatient scheduled for a GTT arrives at the clinic at 0715. The patient started drinking the glucose beverage at 0725 and finished at 0730. The first specimen should be collected at: - Answer- 0800 When a lipid panel is ordered, the patient should be: - Answer- Fasting for at least 12 hours; water is allowed but not caffeine or nicotine A patient is given urine collection materials and told to collect a urine sample by cleaning the urethral meatus, starting to void without collection, and collecting the remainder of the voided urine in a specimen cup. This urine sample is: - Answer- A clean-catch, midstream urine The container for a 24-hour urine collection should be: - Answer- Labeled and stored in a refrigerator During the collection of a 24-hour urine, it is important to: - Answer- Avoid contamination of the urine specimen with feces Which blood specimen would be rejected as unsatisfactory? - Answer- A light blue-stoppered tube that is 1/3 full A phlebotomist is waiting while an elderly patient slowly gets back into bed. The phlebotomist shows appropriate nonverbal communication skills by: - Answer- Being thoughtful, considerate, and offering to assist After completing venipuncture by evacuated tube, it is appropriate to: - Answer- Dispose of the needle in a nearby sharps container When collecting blood with a syringe, pulling back quickly and hard on the plunger can: - Answer- Collapse the vein and hemolyze the blood A skin puncture for a complete blood cell (CBC) count is ordered on a newborn. The phlebotomist finds the infant is crying violently. The phlebotomist should: - Answer- If possible wait until the infant has stopped crying for 1 hour Proper placement of the needle within a vein is indicated by all the following, except: - Answer- Swelling around the venipuncture site Which of the following represents an inappropriate technique for labeling of blood collection tubes? - Answer- The phlebotomist labels the vacutainer tubes before calling an outpatient into the drawing area All the following terms indicate the patient has had nothing to eat, except: - Answer- Postprandial The term for identifying the means of transmission of a contagious disease from its host is: - Answer- Chain of infection The most effective means of preventing the spread of infectious diseases is: - Answer- To observe proper hand-washing techniques The laboratory receives a request to collect 450 mL of blood from a patient with polycythemia. This blood collection would be called a (n): - Answer- Therapeutic phlebotomy Care in centrifuging, such as eliminating splashing or splattering and not 'popping' off tube stoppers, are designed to prevent the formation of: - Answer- Aerosols A phlebotomist performs a venipuncture without disinfecting the venipuncture site and leaving the tourniquet on longer than indicated. This would be considered: - Answer- Negligence [Show Less]
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ASCP Exam 2023 Questions and Answers
Low and high controls are required for a glucose meter. These are run: - Answer- Exactly the same as patient samples are run. Blood culture collection s... [Show More] ites are prepared by swabbing the venipunture sire with iodine, which is left on for: - Answer- 20 seconds A tourniquet is applied to the arm above a venipuncture site to: - Answer- Slow the flow of venous blood to the heart Arterial walls have thick layers of (_) to withstand increased blood pressure during the contraction phase of the heart and to maintain blood flow during its resting phase: - Answer- Muscles Which of the following describes the appropriate response by the phlebotomist: - Answer- A patient on withhold for 8 hours reports drinking water. A blood glucose level was collected and no report was added to the requisition. Peak and trough specimens are collected for therapeutic drug monitoring. The trough specimen is typically collected: - Answer- 30 minutes before the dose. A specimen for a blood ammonia test is to be preserved from the time of collection until it is tested in the lab. The best course of actions is to keep the tube: - Answer- In a cup of ice water. The performance and speed of the centerfuges should be checked: - Answer- Every 3 months The preferred depth of the incision for a skin puncture of a premature infant is: - Answer- .85mm The transportation of body fluid specimens by pneumatic tube system: - Answer- Is not recommended A phlebotomist must collect form a patient in isolation with contact precautions. The appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) i:s: - Answer- Gloves and gown All the following terms indicate the patient has had nothing to eat, except: - Answer- postprandial. The most effective means of prevention the spread of infectious disease is: - Answer- to observe proper hand washing techniques A phlebotomist performs a venipuncture with out disinfecting the venipuncture site and leaving the tourniquet on longer than indicated. This would be considered: - Answer- Negligence. When blood leaves the right ventricle, it enters the: - Answer- Right and left pulmonary arteries. What percentage of water in a human body is found within the cells: - Answer- 60% When preparing a site for venipuncture, which of the following is not mandated: - Answer- always start with using iodine Which is true of veins: - Answer- All veins contain deoxygenated blood Which of the following is not true of arteries: - Answer- Arteries have a pulse If a phlebotomist notices a patient eating during a glucose tolerance test, the correct procedure would be to: - Answer- Contact the physician to determine if the test should be continued. When performing capillary puncture on neonates, the following order of the collection is mandated: - Answer- Hematology, Chemistry, Blood Bank Which of the following must be kept at 37 after collection: - Answer- Cold agglutins and cyrofibrogen A blood specimen for the following test need not be transported in a mix of ice and water: - Answer- Amylase A hemolyzed blood sample would have the greatest impact and cause elevated levels of the following: - Answer- Potassium, iron, magnesium When collecting blood from a patient in reverse isolation which of the following is true: - Answer- Articles removed from the room need not to be double bagged Which of the following is mandated in preparation of a patient for ta glucose tolerance test: - Answer- Not fasting for more than 14 hours prior to the test When instructing a patient on the proper procedure to use for collection of a midstream urine specimen, which of the following is not mandated: - Answer- The sample should always be the second voided of the day in order to reduce contamination. Which of the following preservatives used in a 24 hour urine collection will interfere least with the dipstick analysis and other urine chemical tests: - Answer- Boric acid A blood sample tested for the liver enzymes showed an elevation of all the liver enzymes except lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). This lowered result may have been a result of: - Answer- Refrigeration of the blood sample If the phlebotomist were unsuccessful upon the first attempt to collect a blood specimen, the next step would be to: - Answer- Ask the patient if a second attempt is okay. What is the appropriate procedure for tourniquet use: - Answer- Must be wiped down with 70 percent alcohol between patients The action of sodium polyanethol sulfate (SPS) as an additive to blood culture containers includes: - Answer- Complement inhibition The best marker to insure the completeness of a 24 hour urine collection would be: - Answer- 4-amiobenzoic level Which of the following antiglycolytic agent is preferred because it does not interfere with urease and allows the same blood sample to be tested for urea nitrogen (BUN) as well as glucose: - Answer- Sodium iodoacetate From the standpoint of patient safety, which is the most dangerous practice: - Answer- Pre labeling the vacutainer tubes before collection. Which of the following additives is a true anticoagulant: - Answer- Sodium citrate When blood leaves the right ventricle, it enters the: - Answer- Right and left pulmonary arteries A blood sample collected in a tube with out anticoagulant would contain: - Answer- Serum Concerning the collection of a timed specimen, which of the following is true: - Answer- If a timed glucose is collected too early; the result could be falsely elevated. When collecting blood for trace metals analysis, which of the following must be observed: - Answer- Avoid the use of an anticoagulant that binds metals. Instruction for a 24 hour urine collections would indicate the starting time of collection and ending time. This means that: - Answer- The patient voids into the toilet and starts the timing with an empty bladder collecting all subsequent samples. Which of the following anticoagulants does not bind calcium: - Answer- Heparin Which of the following is part of the standard protocol when doing a bleeding time test: - Answer- A butterfly type bandage is used When collecting blood using a syringe samples should be placed into evacuated tubes in the following order: - Answer- Blue, Lavender, Red The outer layer of the heart is the: - Answer- Epicardium A platelet count of 650,000 per cubic millimeter is termed: - Answer- Thrombocytosis Veins carry: - Answer- Deoxygenated blood to the heart When collecting blood from an artery for arterial blood gases (ABG's) it is not necessary to pull the plunger of the syringe because: - Answer- Arterial blood is under pressure from the contraction of the ventricles. A plasma protein that is not present in serum is: - Answer- Fibrinogen If a patient indicated that he/she is not fasting, the phlebotomist should: - Answer- Ask the patients nurse of the sample should be collected at this time. When preforming a skin puncture, which specimen should be collected last: - Answer- Heparin micro collection tubes During the venipuncture procedure, place the phlebotomy tray: - Answer- Within easy reach on a bedside table Blood specimens collected for prothrombin time testing must be analyzed with in: - Answer- 24 hours of collection When collection blood for plasma renin activity testing, the blood must be transported: - Answer- In ice water The right ventricle of the heart pumps blood into the : - Answer- Lungs The appropriate course of action for a STAT order: - Answer- To send the tubes to the laboratory immediately upon collection When testing for a prothrombin time (PT) with a point of care (POC) instrument, the on board controls (OBC) will: - Answer- Be accepted by a bar code range. All testing on cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) samples should be preformed with in 1 hour of collection because cytolysis is dependent on: - Answer- Temperature The principal component of plasma is: - Answer- Water A patient seeks care at the emergency room with a temperature of 101 degrees Fahrenheit. A thorough history and physical exam revealed no cause for the patients increase temperature. Blood culture specimens should be collected: - Answer- 2 blood cultures at intervals of 45-60 minutes, 2 more at 24-48 hours. A fasting urine specimen is: - Answer- The second voided urine specimen of the day Removal of more than 10 percent of an infants blood volume at one time may cause: - Answer- Cardiac arrest A specimen for a cold agglutinin analysis was collected and placed in a 37 degree C incubator. The specimen is unacceptable because: - Answer- The sample should have been pre warmed for 30 minutes. when performing a skin puncture, which specimen should be collected last: - Answer- Heparin microcolletion tubes Leukocytes are responsible for: - Answer- Defending the body against bacteria and viruses A phlebotomist used a vacutainer system to collect blood specimens for the following laboratory tests: complete blood count (CBC), prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromblastin time (APTT). The OSHA blood borne pathogen standard states that: - Answer- Both the needle and the holder must be discarded together. The left ventricle pumps into the hear itself and into the circulation via the: - Answer- Aertcartry When obtaing a routine blood sample and a vein is not evident, a blood pressure cuff may be used at the following level: - Answer- 60-80 A patient in the intensive care unit had indwelling lines for fluid and medication. A chemist panel was ordered. The correct procedure for colleting blood from an indwelling line is: - Answer- To discard the first 5 mL A patient scheduled for a 2- hour glucose tolerance test drinks the glucose beverage and complains feeling nauseated. The patient vomits 75 minutes into the test. The phlebotomist should: - Answer- Stop the test, it is complete. A patient needs to submit a urine test for a routine drug screen but is unable to provide a urine sample. The patient is instructed to drink up to 24 fluid ounces of water in 2 hours. Another sample is obtained but it is insufficient in quantity. The laboratory should: - Answer- Discard the urine sample ad cancel the test To best preserve the urinary sediment in a 24 hour urine specimen, the preservatives of choice are: - Answer- Boric acid and thymol For a 24 hour urine specimen to be handled appropriately, it should include: - Answer- The total volume collected. When collecting blood from adolescents the phlebotomist should: - Answer- Answer all questions the adolescent might ask. A patient comes to the out patient phlebotomy area to have blood collected. The patient is on AZT, and the test ordered is a CD4 The phlebotomist assumes the patient is HIV infected and should: - Answer- Practice standard procedures routinely used for collection of blood The best vein for veinpunture is the: - Answer- Median cubical The trough value of a drug is collected: - Answer- Prior to the patient receiving the drug The loosened skin seen on geriatric patients is due to: - Answer- The loss of supportive connective tissue Blood cultures containing ARD/resin would be collected: - Answer- On a patient receiving antibiotics If a patient has fragile veins that appear likely to collapse during phlebotomy, the best system to use for blood collections is a: - Answer- Syringe A patient who is recumbent is: - Answer- Suspine When performing a venipuncture on a 65 year old patient with good veins, the phlebotomist should choose which gauge needle for the veinipunture: - Answer- 21 If a patient is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (TPA), blood may be collected: - Answer- Only with a physician's approval Which of the following statements best describes a vein: - Answer- It contains structures called valves Which of the following conditions would create an adverse effect on the quality of a finger stick blood specimen: - Answer- Swollen fingers When collection a blood sample form an elderly, frail patient sometimes the best method is to collect from the back of the hand. The best collection device to use in this situation is: - Answer- A syringe A method that is inaccurate but precise would be represented on a bull's eye target as: - Answer- Tight scatter off the bull's eye. A blood specimen is requested from a patient suspected of having septicemic. Which of the following substances should the phlebotomist use to clean the venipuncture site: - Answer- Alcohol and Iodine The surgery unit collects a blood specimen for routine chemistry testing and immediately places the specimen on ice. A phlebotomist who just happens to be in the unit is asked to take the sample to the lab. The phlebotomist accepts the sample and takes it to the lab before looking at the corresponding request. The phlebotomist should: - Answer- Request a repeat sample submitted at room temperature. A finger stick is preformed and blood flow is minimal.To increase blood flow from the site the phlebotomist should: - Answer- Milk the finger. A phlebotomist collected a blood sample in the appropriate tube for an actual coagulation time (ACT) but did not mix the tube after collecting the sample. If the sample were used for bedside testing for ACT, the results obtained will likely be: - Answer- Increased Which of the following is the best option to collect the sample from the hand of a patient with a veins that that are difficult to palpate: - Answer- Syringe Capillary blood is acceptable for hemoglobin testing because it contains: - Answer- Oxygen carrying red blood cells A blood specimen for a CBC is collected in an EDTA tube and is mistakenly left on the accessioning counter overnight. White of the following parameters, if any, would be affected by the processing delay of the specimen: - Answer- White blood cell differential Which of the following is used for a bleeding test time: - Answer- Spyhgmomanometer, filter paper, sample, stopwatch Which of the following should be collected in an anticoagulant tube, placed in ice water, and brought to the lab as soon as possible: - Answer- Lactate levels Four patients are waiting to have blood collecte [Show Less]
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