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A&P 2 module 7, questions and answers, A+ content
The urinary system has ____ kidneys, _____ ureters, and _____ bladder. two, two, one Describe the shape, weight and location of the adult kidney. ... [Show More] An adult kidney is bean-shaped, about the size of a can of soup and weighs about 5 ounces. The right kidney lies slightly lower than the left because of the liver's location just above it. Both kidneys are mostly protected by the rib cage because of their location between the T-12 and L-3 vertebra. The ____glands are located on top of each kidney. Adrenal glands Describe the three layers of protective tissue that surround the kidney. The kidney surface is protected by three layers of specialized tissue. The renal capsule is a tough fibrous outer skin of the kidney which protects it from injury and infection. Outside of the renal capsule is a fatty layer that protects the kidney from trauma called the adipose capsule. The outer renal fascia is dense fibrous connective tissue which keeps the kidney in place inside the abdominal cavity. A vertical cross section shows what three regions inside the kidney? the cortex, the medulla, and the pelvis The _____ is a continuous outer region with several cortical columns. Renal cortex The renal medulla is divided into sections called _____. Pyramids Describe the renal pelvis. The renal pelvis constitutes a funnel-shaped tube that connects to the ureter as it leaves the hilus. Trace the flow of blood through the vessels of the kidney from renal artery into the glomerulus and back to the renal vein. (1) Renal artery, (2) Segmental artery, (3) Lobar artery, (4) Interlobar artery, (5) Arcuate artery, (6) Interlobular artery, (7) Afferent arteriole, (8) Glomerular capillaries, (9) Efferent arteriole, (10) Peritubular or Vasa recta capillaries, (11) Interlobular vein, (12) Arcuate vein, (13) Interlobar vein, (14) Renal vein Input from the _______ adjusts the diameter of the renal arteries thereby regulating renal blood flow. sympathetic nervous system Urine is carried from the kidneys to the bladder by thin muscular tubes called ____. ureters ______are sphincters located where the ureters enter the bladder. Ureterovesical valves Describe the three layers of the ureter wall. The inner lining, made of transitional epithelium, is continuous with the kidney's lining. The middle layer is two sheets of muscle, one longitudinal and the other circular. The outer adventitia layer is fibrous connective tissue. Describe the urinary bladder. Compare male and female locations. The urinary bladder is the hollow, muscular, elastic pouch that receives, and stores urine excreted by the kidneys before disposal through the urethra. In males, the base of the bladder lies in front of the rectum and just behind the pubic symphysis. In females, the bladder sits below the uterus and in front of the vagina, so the maximum capacity of the bladder is lower in females than in males. Both ureters open into the bladder via the _____. ureteral orifices Describe the three layers of the bladder. The outer adventitia is fibrous connective tissue, the middle layer is a muscular layer known as the detrusor muscle with inner and outer longitudinal layers and middle circular layer, the inner mucosal layer is composed of transitional epithelium. Transitional epithelium cells are specialized to enable cellular expansion to absorb fluid. Describe the bladder when it is full and when it is empty. The bladder is very elastic, collapsing into it a pyramidal shape when empty. As it is filled by urine, the bladder swells and becomes pear-shaped, rising in the abdominal cavity. Describe the two sphincters of the bladder. The involuntary-controlled internal urethral sphincter is located near the bladder and keeps the urethra closed to prevent urine from leaving the bladder. The voluntary-controlled external urethral sphincter, composed of skeletal muscle, surrounds the urethra as it passes through the pelvic floor. Discuss the differences between the male and female urethra. In males and females, the length and functions of the urethra differ. The female urethra is shorter and only carries urine while the male urethra is about 5 times longer and carries both urine and semen from the body. What are the three regions of the male urethra? The prostatic urethra which runs within the prostate gland, the membranous urethra which runs within the urogenital diaphragm and the spongy (penile) urethra. What is a nephron? The basic structural and functional unit of a kidney. The function of the nephron is to control the concentration of water and soluble materials by filtering the blood, reabsorbing needed materials and excreting the rest as urine. Each nephron consists of: Two parts: the glomerular capsule (renal corpuscle) and the renal tubule. The renal tubule is made of: Three parts: the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), the loop of Henle, and the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). Describe the structure of the renal corpuscle. The renal corpuscle is composed of the glomerulus, a network of tiny blood capillaries surrounded by the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule, a double-walled simple squamous epithelial cup (Figure 10). The glomerular capillaries are extremely porous. The capillary endothelium has fenestrations (pores) which allow certain substances to leave the capillaries. What causes water and solutes to leave the glomerulus? The afferent arteriole, which is fed by the interlobular artery, is much larger in diameter than the efferent arteriole. The difference in diameter causes an extremely high blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries, forcing water and solutes out of the blood, thus making filtration possible. Water and solutes leave the glomerulus, enter the glomerular capsule, and subsequently flow into the renal tubule. Once water and solutes leave the blood and enter the glomerular capsule it is called ____. filtrate ________are found in the cortex region of the kidney, except for a portion of their loop of Henle which extends into the medulla. ______pass deeply into the medulla because of their location and their longer loops of Henle. Cortical nephrons; juxtamedullary nephrons Describe the proximal convoluted tubule The first section of the tubule is a coiled proximal convoluted tubule which is specialized to reabsorb water and many solutes from the glomerular filtrate into the low-pressure peritubular capillaries which surround the renal tubule as well as secrete certain unwanted substances. Describe the loop of Henle. The second section is the hairpin loop of Henle. Initially the loop of Henle has the descending limb followed by the ascending limb. The descending limb allows water loss and the ascending limb allows salt (NaCl) loss. Describe the distal convoluted tubule. The last part of the tubule is the highly coiled distal convoluted tubule which allows for hormonally controlled reabsorption of water and solutes. Mostly the distal convoluted tubule is responsible for the secretion of unwanted substances. What are the three types of capillaries associated with nephrons and their function? The glomerular capillaries, the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta. The glomerular capillaries (glomerulus) are highly coiled capillary beds formed from the afferent arteriole, leaving as the efferent arteriole. The peritubular capillaries closely follow the renal tubules and drain into the interlobular vein. the vasa recta which follow the loops of Henle in the juxtamedullary nephrons of the medulla. Describe the process of micturition. Micturition is the act of emptying the bladder. As urine accumulates, the rugae flatten and the wall of the bladder thins as it stretches, allowing the bladder to store larger amounts of urine without a significant rise in internal pressure. The urge to urinate usually starts when about 200 ml of urine has accumulated, causing distension of the bladder walls which initiates a visceral reflex arc. This causes the detrusor muscle to contract and the internal sphincter to relax forcing stored urine through the internal sphincter into the upper part of the urethra. A person can consciously resist this initial urge to urinate because the external sphincter is voluntarily controlled. As the bladder continues to fill, the desire to urinate becomes stronger. Eventually, if the amount of urine reaches 100% of the bladder's capacity, the voluntary sphincter opens, and micturition occurs involuntarily. What is incontinence? Incontinence is the inability to control micturition voluntarily. What is urinary retention? The inability to expel stored urine How many times a day does the kidney filter through the blood plasma? The kidneys filter the entire blood plasma volume about 60 times each day About how many gallons are filtered vs. excreted as urine? About 47 gallons of glomerular filtrate containing the water, nutrients, and essential ions are removed daily from the blood plasma. By the time filtrate enters the collecting ducts, it contains about only 0.5 gallons of urine, with the other 99% being returned to the blood. What are the three steps of urine formation? For the body to filter the entire blood and then retain the important elements, three processes must take place: filtration, reabsorption and secretion. What is Blood hydrostatic pressure (HP)? It is the amount of pressure found inside the blood in the capillaries, driving fluids out of the glomerular capillary. What is Colloid osmotic pressure (COP)? It is also called oncotic pressure. COP is dependent on the amount of proteins in the plasma. COP opposes blood hydrostatic pressure by driving fluids back into the capillary beds. What is the normal range of COP? Memorize this normal range for the exam The COP needs to remain within a normal range between 25-32mmHg. Memorize this normal range for the exam What is capsular pressure? It also opposes blood hydrostatic pressure and drives fluid back into the glomerular capillaries. Calculate the net filtration pressure for a patient with a blood hydrostatic pressure of 60mmHg, a colloid osmotic pressure of 32mmHg, and a capsular pressure of 18mmHg. Net filtration pressure = (Outgoing forces - incoming forces) = HP- (COP + Capsular pressure) =60mmHg - (32mmHg +18mmHg)) = 10 mmHg (net outward pressure) What prevents blood cells from leaving the glomerular capillaries? The size of the capillary fenestrations prevents passage of blood cells and most blood proteins from leaving across the filter. What is the GFR? It is an amount of blood filtered by the glomerulus over time. What causes an increase in the GFR? a decrease? The GFR is increased by an increase in the arterial (and therefore glomerular) blood pressure in the kidneys. The GFR and is decreased by an increase in glomerular osmotic pressure most often caused by dehydration. What happens if the GFR is too slow? too fast? If flow is too rapid, needed substances cannot be adequately reabsorbed. If flow is too slow, nearly all the filtrate is reabsorbed, including most of the wastes that should be excreted. What are the three mechanisms that regulate renal flow? Renal autoregulation, nervous system control, and hormone control. Which mechanism (above) is the kidney controlling its own rate of flow? Renal autoregulation Describe the nervous system control of the renal flow. When the nervous system takes over regulation, the afferent arterioles diameter is narrowed by sympathetic nerve fibers. The release of the hormone epinephrine by the adrenal medulla causes a decrease in renal blood flow and decreases the GFR. What is the hormonal control mechanism for the renal flow? It is called the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system. *The RAA system has more effects in the body than are discussed in the module text. You will be responsible for knowing what is discussed in the text for the RAA system. The RAA system figure in the module goes into supplemental details about other effects in the body. Angiotensinogen is a pre-enzyme produced by the ___ and freely circulates in the blood. liver When blood pressure drops, the enzyme ____ is released by the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells of the nephron. renin In the ____, angiotensin I is converted to ____. lungs; angiotensin II Once circulating angiotensin II reaches the adrenal cortex, it causes the release of the hormone ____. aldosterone What is reabsorption? The process of fluid and substances moving from the filtrate back into the blood is called reabsorption. True or false: all reabsorption occurs in the renal tubules by diffusion. False: Some ions require active transport. Where does the greatest amount of renal tubular reabsorption occur? In the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). About what percentage of Na+ is reabsorbed in the PCT? The loop of Henle? The DCT? 65%; 25%; 10% (DCT reclaims nearly all when necessary) What is secretion? Secretion involves substances entering the filtrate from the surrounding fluid, allowing for the elimination of undesirable substances What is countercurrent flow? Countercurrent flow is the movement of fluids in opposite directions through adjacent channels. When an osmotic gradient is isosmotic, what does this mean? When the fluid outside and inside have the same osmotic concentrations. What is the concentration of the filtrate in the PCT vs. the bottom of the loop of Henle? 300 mOsm/L; 1200 mOsm/L True or False: The descending and ascending regions of the loop of Henle have the same reabsorption characteristics. False True or False: The concentration of urea is relatively low in the distal convoluted tubule and the cortex regions of the collecting ducts because the tubules in the cortex are permeable to it. False (concentrations are high in the DCT and cortex regions; these cells are impermeable to urea) ADH is secreted by the ____. posterior pituitary True or False: ADH increases water output. False Describe the action of ADH. ADH inhibits urine output by increasing the number of channels in the cells of the collecting ducts. Increasing the channels allows water to pass easily from the filtrate and move into the surrounding interstitial space, eventually returning to blood circulation. Water rapidly leaves the filtrate through the channels in the collecting ducts opened by ADH. ADH retains up to 99% of the water in filtrate, and the kidneys excrete a very small volume of highly concentrated urine. Describe the mechanisms of aldosterone. Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption through the excretion of hydrogen ions (H+). Sodium ions are pumped out of the filtrate while hydrogen ions are pumped inside for excretion. Because water follows salt, Na+ reabsorption also causes water reabsorption. A second action of aldosterone is to increase potassium secretion through sodium-potassium pumps. Na+ is pumped out of the filtrate to be returned to the blood while potassium (K+) is excreted in urine. What are diuretics? Diuretics are substances that act on the nephron to increase urinary output. How do the cardiovascular baroreceptors control the nephron? The cardiovascular baroreceptors are in the aorta and carotid arteries under the control of the vagus and glossopharyngeal cranial nerves. If blood volume (and consequently blood pressure) rises, the baroreceptors inhibit sympathetic nervous system signals to the kidney, dilating the afferent arterioles which carry blood to the glomerulus. This causes a dramatic increase in the filtration rate, increasing the output of water and Na+ which reduces blood volume to quickly normalize the pressure. Describe normal urine. Normal excreted urine is usually clear and pale to deep yellow in color depending on the body's degree of hydration. The normal range of urine pH is 4.5 to 8.0. Urine contains about 95% water with about 5% of solutes of varying amounts. Water is found in what two main compartments? Intracellular and extracellular. True or False: A solution has a pH of 0, which is alkaline. False: The closer to 0, the more acidic a solution. Describe the impact of weak acids on a solution. Weak acids do not significantly contribute to the pH of a solution because in this form, H+ is tightly bound and cannot dissociate to become free H+. What is the normal pH of arterial blood? The normal pH of arterial blood is between 7.35 and 7.45. *Memorize this normal range for the exam. What is the principal method through which acids enter the human body? Cellular metabolism (chemical reactions inside a cell to maintain life) What is an anion? An anion is a negatively charged ion. What are the three major chemical buffer systems in the body? Bicarbonate buffer system for interstitial and plasma fluids; Phosphate buffer system in the urine and intracellular; The protein system is the main buffer of the intracellular fluid. The bicarbonate buffer system is composed of _____and _____. weak carbonic acid (H2CO3); bicarbonate ion (HCO3-). How does the respiratory center control pH? The respiratory center has chemoreceptors in the medulla (of the brainstem) which monitor the level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Bicarbonate is the form in which carbon dioxide is transported in the blood plasma. What happens to cause hyperventilation? hypoventilation? If blood pH begins to fall (becomes more acidic), the respiratory center is excited, causing hyperventilation. If blood pH begins to rise (become more alkaline), the respiratory center is depressed, causing hypoventilation. Which system has the largest impact on the level of pH in the blood? Renal system (kidney secretion or retention of bicarbonate ion). What happens in severe alkalosis? In severe alkalosis the blood pH rises above 7.8, and the nervous system is markedly excited causing extreme nervousness, muscle contraction, convulsion, and death due to cessation of breathing. What happens in severe acidosis? In severe acidosis the blood pH drops below 7.0, and the central nervous system is markedly depressed causing coma and imminent death What are the normal blood serum levels? (for pH, PCO2, HCO3-) Normal pH = 7.35-7.45, Normal PCO2 = 35-45 mm, Normal HCO3- = 22-26 mEq/L For the following blood values given, determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis, whether the cause is respiratory or metabolic and whether the condition is being compensated. pH = 7.7, PCO2 = 23 mm, HCO3- = 24 mEq/L pH = 7.7 (> 7.45) so alkalosis, PCO2 = 23 mm (< 35) so respiratory alkalosis, HCO3- = 24 mEq/L (22-26 (normal) so NOT compensated by renal system) For the following blood values given, determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis, whether the cause is respiratory or metabolic and whether the condition is being compensated. pH = 7.6, PCO2 = 49 mm, HCO3- = 29 mEq/L pH = 7.6 (> 7.45) so alkalosis, PCO2 = 49 mm (> 45) so NOT respiratory alkalosis (BUT compensated by respiratory) so metabolic alkalosis, HCO3- = 29 mEq/L (> 26 so caused by metabolic system) [Show Less]
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BIOD152 Module 7, questions and answers with verified content
T/F: The kidneys are long, thin muscular tubes False T/F: The bladder drains into the ureters False A person sustained blunt force trauma t... [Show More] o the back at the T5 level with no spinal cord injury. Would you expect the kidneys to be damaged? Why or why not? No, the kidneys lie between T-12 and L-3 Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal capsule The renal capsule is a tough fibrous outer skin of the kidney which protects it from injury and infection Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal adipose capsule Outside of the renal capsule is a fatty layer that protects the kidney from trauma Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal fascia The outer renal fascia is composed of dense, fibrous CT which functions to anchor the kidney in place in the abdominal cavity Renal medulla sections The renal medulla is divided into sections called pyramids that point toward the center of the kidney Outer layer of the kidney and the parts of the nephrons located in this region Cortex- located within the cortex are the glomerular capsule and the PCT and DCT sections of the nephrons These arteries flow in between the renal pyramids Interlobar arteries After filtration occurs, next blood travels into these vessels Efferent arterioles Which of the following is true about the location of the bladder? A. In males, the rectum is anterior to the bladder B. In females, the vagina is behind the bladder C. In females, the bladder sits above the uterus D. In males, the bladder is below the prostate gland E. B&C are true F. A&D are true B. In females, the vagina is behind the bladder Which of the following is false about the location of the bladder? A. In males, the bladder is anterior to the rectum B. In females, the bladder is posterior to the uterus C. In females, the bladder is in between the rectum and the uterus D. In males, the bladder is above the prostate glands E. B&C are false F. A&D are false E. B&C are false: In females the bladder is posterior to the uterus & in females, the bladder is between the rectum and the uterus Describe the purpose of the urethral sphincters -Involuntarily-controlled internal urethral sphincter is located near the bladder and keeps the urethra closed to prevent urine from leaving the bladder -Voluntarily-controlled external urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle and surrounds the urethra as it passes through the pelvic floor Based strictly on anatomical structural differences, are males or females more likely to get a UTI? Explain your answer Females, the female urethra is shorter and only carries urine while the male urethra is about 5 times longer. Since the female urethra is short and the external opening is close to the anus, improper wiping or poor hygiene after defecation can easily carry fecal bacteria into the urethra. Bacteria enter the urethra and travel up to the bladder, causing a urinary tract infection (UTI). A patient was just placed under general anesthesia. He is now awake and telling you he is having a hard time excreting urine. What is most likely causing the difficulty? Urinary retention due to slowed detrusor muscle This region of the male urethra exits the bladder Prostatic This region of the male urethra exits the body Spongy What causes the extremely high blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries The afferent arteriole, which is fed by the interlobular artery, is much larger in diameter than the efferent arteriole. The difference in diameter causes an extremely high blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries Micturition can be controlled consciously because of: Voluntary control over the external urethral sphincter Describe the difference between the two types of nephrons Cortical nephrons are in the cortex region of the kidney, except for a portion of their loop of henle which extends into the medulla. Justamedullary nephrons pass deeply into the medulla because of their location and their longer loops of henle For micturition to occur The internal sphincter relaxes and the external sphincter relaxes This is the pressure that depends upon the amount of proteins in the filtrate Colloid osmotic pressure This is the pressure that depends upon a person's blood pressure from the heart and vessels Hydrostatic pressure Calculate the NFP for your patient given the following values COP: 25 Capsular pressure: 15 Hydrostatic pressure: 50 GFR: 120 (Outgoing forces-incoming forces) HP- (COP+Capsular) 50- (25+15) =10mmHg (net outward pressure) Describe in detail how the kidney controls its own rate of blood flow through the nephron Renal autoregulation: the kidney determines its own blood flow by controlling the diameter of the afferent and efferent arterioles. Due to this autoregulation, the kidney can maintain a constant GFR despite variations in the arterial blood pressure in the rest of the body Describe in detail what happens during an emergency to control the rate of blood to the kidney The renal autoregulatory system becomes superseded by higher level nervous system controls. When the nervous system takes over regulation, the afferent arterioles diameter is narrowed by sympathetic nerve fibers. The release of the hormone epinephrine by the adrenal medulla causes a decrease in renal blood flow and decreases the GFR. Constriction of the renal arteries is only to be used for a short period of time Which of the following statements is true concerning the RAA system? A. It responds when blood pressure becomes too high B. Angiotensinogen is a pre-enzyme produced by the adrenal glands C. Renin is released by the cells inside the nephron D. Renin causes dilation of the afferent and efferent arterioles E. Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the liver C. Renin is released by cells inside the nephron Which of the following statements is false concerning the RAA system? A. Aldosterone causes the retention of sodium ions B. It responds when blood pressure becomes too high C. Angiotensin II acts to cause vasoconstriction in blood vessels D. Renin is released by the cells inside the nephron E. Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I B. It responds when blood pressure becomes too high The greatest amount of reabsorption occurs in the PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) The greatest amount of ________ occurs in the cells of the PCT Reabsorption T/F: Na+ can leave the ascending limb but not the descending limb True Which of the following is false concerning ADH? A. ADH is produced by the hypothalamus B. ADH is produced in response the dehydration conditions C. ADH retains up to 99% of the water in the filtrate D. ADH does not respond during severe blood loss D. ADH does not respond during severe blood loss Which of the follow is true concerning ADH? A. It is produced by the adrenal glands B. It is produced in response to increase water in the blood C. It retains up to 99% of water in the filtrate D. It is unable to respond during severe blood loss C. It retains up to 99% of water in the filtrate What is countercurrent flow? How does the nephron use this to maintain homeostasis? The movement of fluids in opposite directions through adjacent channels. In the nephron, filtrate flows in one direction through the renal tubules while blood in the adjacent blood vessels flows in the opposite direction. Describe how aldosterone release occurs apart from the RAA system Aldosterone can be released directly in response to high K+ levels or low Na+ ion levels in the extracellular compartment Describe the action of aldosterone on the concentrations of sodium and hydrogen in the filtrate Sodium is removed from the filtrate while hydrogen is pumped inside the filtrate Describe the action of alcohol (diuretic) on urinary output Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH Which of the following is true regarding cardiovascular baroreceptors? A. They are mechanoreceptors found in the aortic arch and carotid sinus B. They are in the lungs and the kidneys C. These are chemoreceptors found in the hypothalamus D. They are regulated by the hypoglossal and spinal accessory cranial nerves A. They are mechanoreceptors found in the aortic arch and carotid sinus Which of the following is an abnormal solute in urine? A. Urea B. Nitrogenous wastes C. Ammonia D. Magnesium E. Bile pigment E. Bile pigment Water in the body is primarily found in what body compartment Intracellular Urine with a pH of 5.0 is Within normal range; acidic The bicarbonate buffer system A. generally takes several days to respond B. is the main buffer system of urine C. is the main buffer system of the interstitial fluid D. cause hypoventilation in the respiratory system E. all of the above C. Is the main buffer system of the interstitial fluid The protein buffer system: A. generally takes several hours to respond B. causes hyperventilation in the respiratory system C. is the main buffer system of the interstitial fluid D. is the main buffer system of the intracellular fluid E. all of the above D. Is the main buffer system of the intracellular fluid A person is hyperventilating. This falls under what control mechanism? Explain what hyperventilation accomplishes Respiratory control mechanism- hyperventilation is an increase in the respiratory rate, helping to remove additional CO2 from the body. In minutes, this mechanism reduces CO2 in the body. Removing CO2 uses up H+ causing the pH to rise (becoming more alkaline) and restores the correct blood pH What control mechanism can remove acids and bases from the body Renal control mechanism (kidneys) Your patient was just admitted to the hospital with emphysema. pH= 6.5 PCO2= 60 mmHg HCO3= 34 mEq/L A. Determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis B. Is this cause respiratory or metabolic? C. Is the condition being compensated? D. If compensated, what is the body doing to compensate? A. Acidosis (pH<7.35) B. Respiratory (PCO2>45mm) C. Yes, increased HCO3 (>26) D. Kidney retention of HCO3 to raise pH Your patient was just admitted to the hospital with renal failure. pH= 7.1 PCO2= 30mm HCO3-= 20mEq/L A. Determine if the patient is in acidosis or alkalosis B. Is the cause respiratory or metabolic? C. Is the condition being compensated? D. If compensated, what is the body doing to compensate? A. Acidosis (pH <7.35) B. Metabolic (HCO3- <22) C. Yes, PCO2 <35mm D. Hyperventilation to increase CO2 elimination [Show Less]
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A&P 2 module 4, questions and answers, latest updated
T or F: The cardiovascular system is the study of the organs of the body. False- it is the study of the heart, blood and vessels. T or F: The tough... [Show More] , thick sac that encloses the heart and anchors it to the diagram is the pericardium. True T or F: The abdominal cavity contains the heart. False- pericardial cavity inside the thoracic cavity Which layer of the heart is continuous with the blood vessels linings? Endocardium T or F: The left ventricle faces anteriorly, towards the sternum. False- the right ventricle faces anteriorly (closest to the sternum). Describe the location of the heart to the diaphragm. The diaphragm is located inferior to the heart. (The heart is located superior to the diaphragm.) The two upper chambers of the heart are called_____________. Atria The two lower chambers of the heart are called _______________. Ventricles What is the purpose of the fossa ovalis in a fetus? It allows fetal blood to move directly from right to left atrium, bypassing he undeveloped lungs. The fossa ovalis closes during birth so that the lungs can receive oxygen once the baby is born. What is the purpose of the mitral valve? The mitral valve (bicuspid) controls the flow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle. What is the purpose of veins? Veins carry blood back to the heart. True or False: Veins are primarily responsible for the vessel's ability to control peripheral resistance. False- the arterioles. How does the contraction and relaxation of the arterioles help to control blood pressure? Contracting the arterioles increases the blood pressure through decreasing the available volume. Relaxation of the arterioles decreases blood pressure as the volume increases. What does compliance mean? Stretch with little recoil What are the three layers of a vessel? Tunica externa (superficial), tunica media, tunica intima (closest to the lumen) True or false: Only arteries contain a tunica media. False- all vessels contain three layers but in differing proportions. Capillaries are interconnected to form _____________. Capillary beds Label all the blood vessels which supply blood to the heart. It is required for you to recognize the orientation of the heart in the picture. For example, what is the artery highlighted in blue in the figure below? Left coronary artery The aortic arch becomes the __________as it moves inferiorly. descending aorta What are the three branches off the aortic arch? Brachiocephalic trunk (right), left common carotid, left subclavian What is unique about the Circle of Willis? The Circle of Willis has a unique feature of providing alternate circulation in case one of the arteries becomes blocked. Label all vessels of the Circle of Willis circulation. For example, what vessel is highlighted in blue below? Internal carotid (left) True or False: Blood is classified as epithelial tissue. False- connective tissue What is the cell portion of blood called? Formed elements How is serum made? Letting blood sit in a tube until it clots and then centrifuging the sample to separate the solid and liquid portions of the blood. True or false: Osmotic pressure pushes fluid into the tissues. False-pushes fluid into the circulatory system What is the average pH of blood? 7.4 What is the shape of red blood cells? Biconcave disks What is the purpose of hemoglobin? To carry oxygen, which loosely combines with iron inside the hemoglobin What is average life span of a red blood cell? 120 days True or False: Once it dies, all portions of the red blood cell is destroyed and excreted. False- the iron can be recycled and returned to the red bone marrow. True or False: White blood cells are smaller than red blood cells. False What are the contents of pus? The thick, yellowish fluid called pus contains a large proportion of dead white blood cells that have fought the infection and then undergo cell death. What are the three main types of white blood cells? Granulocytes, agranulocytes and lymphocytes. What are platelets? Platelets (thrombocytes) are involved in the process of blood clotting, or coagulation. Platelets are not true "cells", but instead are fragments of a large bone marrow predecessor called a megakaryocyte. What is the coagulation cascade? A series of events to start the blood clotting mechanism What converts prothrombin to thrombin? Prothrombin activator What is the purpose of fibrin? Fibrin threads wind around the platelet plug in the damaged area of the blood vessel and provide the framework for the clot. What is plasmin? As soon as blood vessel repair is initiated, an enzyme called plasmin destroys the fibrin network and restores the fluidity of plasma. What are the pulmonary and system circuits? The right circuit is called the pulmonary circuit, sending deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. The left circuit is called the systemic circuit, sending the oxygenated blood to the cells. What are the inferior and superior vena cavae? They return deoxygenated blood to the right atrium The __________are the only arteries in the body carrying deoxygenated blood away from the heart. pulmonary arteries The pulmonary veins return blood to the ______. Left atrium Diastole refers to ______. Relaxation Systole refers to ______ . Contraction True or False: each heartbeat typically lasts longer than 2 seconds. False (less than 1). True of False: The atria contraction time is much longer than the ventricles. False True or False: The heart sounds are of the valves opening. False How does the nervous system and endocrine system interact with the heart? The heart rate is regulated by the nervous system and endocrine system which can increase or decrease the rate of the heartbeat and blood pressure. What is the purpose of the bulb? The bulb portion is squeezed to inflate the bladder with air. What is the purpose of valves inside the veins? Prevents the backward flow of blood. What portion is the pacemaker of the heart? SA node Following the bundle of His, where does the electrical impulse travel next? Purkinje fibers The impulse of the SA node causes contraction of the ______. Atria What is an EKG? A device used to measure electrical impulses in the heart What is the P-wave? Atrial depolarization and atrial systole What is edema? Fluid accumulation What is pulmonary edema? Fluid in the lungs Hypertension is blood pressure significantly higher than: 120/80 What is atherosclerosis? Accumulation of soft masses of fatty materials inside the arteries. What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus? A stationary blood clot is called a thrombus. If a blood clot dislodges and moves along with blood it is called an embolus. PE is an abbreviation for: Embolism What is the medial term for a heart attack? Myocardial infarction What is angina pectoris? Chest pain (in a heart attack, pain often radiates down the left arm) Name at least one other heart attack symptom: shortness of breath, upset stomach, extreme fatigue, pain or pressure in the chest Streptokinase is a drug given to______. Dissolve a blood clot Name two surgical procedures available to clear clogged arteries. Angioplasty, coronary artery bypass [Show Less]
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A&P 2 module 5, questions and answers, graded A+
The lymphatic system is closely connected with what other body system? Cardiovascular system What are lymphatic vessels? The lymphatic vessels tak... [Show More] e up excess tissue fluid and return it to the bloodstream What are three functions of the lymphatic system? (1) The lymphatic vessels take up excess tissue fluid and return it to the bloodstream. (2) Lymphatic capillaries absorb fats and transport them to the bloodstream. (3) The lymphatic system helps with immunity to defend the body against disease. (Fluid recovery, immunity, lipid absorption) What is lymph? Excess tissue fluid entering the lymphatic capillaries from the interstitial fluid not returned by the cardiovascular system. Describe the flow of lymph. The lymph flows one way, from the lymphatic capillary system to the subclavian veins, where it joins the venous circulation to return to the heart. True or false: Lymph vessels are only found in the lower extremities. False Describe the structure of lymph vessels. Lymph vessels have one-way flow valves similar in structure to the large veins of the cardiovascular system. The valves prevent the backward flow of lymph. The return of the lymph fluid into circulation is solely dependent on the squeezing action of skeletal muscles, squeezing the fluid one way through the lymphatic vessels. The right lymphatic duct drains into the ________. Right subclavian vein True or false: The thoracic duct drains fluid from the right arm. False-the left arm Describe the structure of a lymph node. A lymph node is encapsulated in a fibrous connective tissue with many incoming and fewer outgoing lymphatic vessels. Incoming vessels (afferent vessels) flow through a network of sinuses that contain cells. The lymph then flows out of the lymph node through the efferent vessel. The interior of the lymph node is divided into open spaces called nodules, containing lymphocytes and macrophages. What is the axilla region? Armpit The spleen is in what region of the body? The spleen is in the upper left abdomen. What is the function of the spleen? The spleen functions to extract old or defective blood cells and platelets. The spleen also removes debris, foreign matter, bacteria, viruses and toxins from the blood that flows through it. After blood exits the spleen via the splenic vein, where does it travel? Blood leaves the spleen via the splenic vein which flows to the hepatic portal vein (also called the hepatic portal system). The hepatic portal system carries blood drained from the veins of the spleen, intestines, stomach and pancreas to the liver. The hepatic portal vein transports blood into the liver where it is detoxified before returning to general circulation. Locate the thymus and describe its function. The thymus gland is located on anterior surface of the heart. The thymus secretes thymosin and thymopoietin hormones which enable T lymphocytes (T cells) to mature and function as part of the immunity system. Mature T cells attack body cells which are cancerous or infected with pathogens. Locate the tonsils and describe their function. The tonsils (palatine tonsils) are a group of small lymphoid organs in the lateral, posterior portions of the throat. The tonsils gather and destroy bacteria inhaled in air or food. What is the purpose of the nonspecific immune system? It serves as a first line of defense through physical and chemical barriers to prevent pathogens from entering the body. The nonspecific immune system response is the same to all threats that attempt to enter the body. This generalized defense system rapidly destroys large numbers of pathogens. What is the purpose of the specific immune system? The specific immune system is targeted and extremely effective against pathogens. The main lymphocytes involved in specific immune responses are the T cells and the B cells. Both specific and nonspecific immune responses will be discussed here to give an overview of how the body reacts to an invasion from a foreign attack. Discuss one body system involved in the nonspecific immune response. Examples include: Skin, tears, sweat, normal flora, inflammatory response, fevers What is swelling and why does it occur? Tissue swelling dilates blood vessels in the affected area to help increase the number of immune cells responding to the infection. The increase of blood also causes redness and pain, helping to bring a conscious awareness of the infection. What are the two types of cytokines? The two main groups of cytokines include interferons and interleukins. What cells produce cytokines? Both types of cytokines are produced by a variety of immune cells, including macrophages, T cells, B cells, and fibroblasts. What is the purpose of interferons? Interferons inhibit viral replication and assist in activating natural killer cells. What is the purpose of interleukins? The group of cytokines called interleukins function as chemical activators and signals in the body to increase the immune response. There are many subtypes of interleukins that function to activate different types of immune cells. What are pyrogens? During an infection, certain types of interleukins called pyrogens reset the body's thermostat in the hypothalamus. The temperature set-point during homeostasis (normal body temperature) is raised to create a fever. How does a fever help the body? Fevers help the body fight infection by interfering with the growth and replication of pathogens. Fevers also causes lysosomes, an organelle inside cells, to break down. The lysosomes release digestive enzymes that lyse (destroys a cell) infected by a virus. In addition, fevers can promote the activity of white blood cells. Mild fevers of short duration can assist in recovery. What are the two subtypes of white blood cells? Agranulocytes and granulocytes Describe the major purpose of neutrophils. Neutrophils are responsible for fighting infections, especially those that involve bacteria. Neutrophils use phagocytosis to destroy foreign cells and pathogens. What are the steps of phagocytosis? A cell, such as a neutrophil, recognizes a pathogen by its cell surface receptors. The neutrophil then binds to the pathogen and brings it inside the cell forming a vacuole. The vacuole fuses with cell lysosomes which release digestive enzymes to destroy the pathogen. Once the pathogen is destroyed, the contents are released from the cell. What do eosinophils do? Eosinophils respond to allergic reactions and parasitic infections. What do basophils release? Histamines and heparin Monocytes transform into ____ when the migrate into the tissue from the blood. Macrophages Describe the structure of a B cell and how it becomes activated. Each B cell is genetically programmed to produce a glycoprotein receptor as part of its cell coat. Each receptor binds with a specific type of antigen. B cells become activated when an antigen binds with its receptor. Once activated it is now called a plasma cell. What do plasma cells do? Each plasma cell produces antibodies, which is a soluble form of the glycoprotein receptor from the B cell's surface. After the antibody is released, it binds to the invading antigen to cause it to be inactive or mark it for destruction. What are memory B cells? Some activated B cells become memory B cells which continue to produce a small amount of antibody even after the infection is over. If the same pathogen enters the body again, the antibody immediately binds with the antigen. The memory B cells can produce a specific antibody much faster and targets it for destruction at a much faster rate the second time a pathogen invades the body. What is antibody mediated immunity? Antibody-mediated immunity defends the body against pathogens through the secretion of antibodies. The antibodies bind to the pathogen, making it unable to cause further damage in the body and marking it for phagocytosis. What are the 5 classes of antibodies? IgG, IgE, IgD, IgM and IgA. What is cell mediated immunity? Cell mediated immunity releases contents to kill a pathogen, such as cytokines and enzymes. Cell mediated immunity also includes the direct cellular action such as phagocytosis by other white blood cells. Describe the structure of T cell membranes. T cells contain antigen receptors that bind to specific glycoproteins in cell membranes. What is a killer T cell? Killer T cells (cytotoxic T cells) recognize and destroy invading cells containing foreign antigens. Killer T cells attack virus-infected cells or cells infected with cancer cells by releasing cytokines and enzymes locally to lyse the cell. What is a helper T cell? Helper T cells secrete substances that activate or enhance immune responses. B cells require an interaction with helper T cells before they can begin rapid division. What types of cells to NK cells destroy? Natural killer cells seek out abnormal body cells and destroy them. This makes NK cells highly effective against tumor cells. What is graft rejection? Graft rejection is the rejection of a transplanted organ by an organ donor. Tissue grafts and organ transplants most often originate from another person's body. The MHC on the surface of the graft are recognized by the host body as a foreign pathogen. What is the MHC? The glycoprotein surface receptors on the cells throughout the body are called the Major histocompatibility complex (MHC). The MHC enables the immune system to determine what cells are the body's cells and what cells are foreign. Cells of the body also have a way of displaying through the MHC complex if there is something abnormal within the cell (such as cancer). How do Killer T cells use the MHC complex? Killer T cells (cytotoxic T cells) recognize and destroy invading cells through this self or not-self recognition of the MHC complexes on each cell. What is the purpose of immunosuppressant drugs? They suppress the immune system. Suppressing the immune system is necessary so that the body does not reject the organ transplant or tissue graft. What is an autoimmune disease? An autoimmune disease occurs when antibodies and T cells attack the body's own tissues. What occurs in the disease process of RA? In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), T cells produce interleukins which cause inflammation inside the joints systemically. What occurs in the disease process of MS? Antibodies attack the or prevent the formation of the myelin sheath around nerve cells, resulting in muscular weakness. What are allergens? mild antigens What are some common allergic reactions to mild environmental factors? Allergic reactions vary from person to person, but generally include red/watery eyes, sneezing, runny nose and headaches. What is anaphylaxis? Anaphylaxis is a severe life-threatening allergic reaction against a pathogen or a circulating drug in the body Hives are_____. Swelling in the form of raised red bumps What is anaphylactic shock? A person's capillaries become so dilated it causes their blood pressure to drop too low, leading to collapse. A person can die from anaphylactic shock because the heart stops beating, or the airway passages become completely closed and the person can no longer breathe. The EpiPen releases the hormone_______. Epinephrine What is lymphedema? Lymphedema is a specific form of edema where the lymphatic system is not working properly to return fluid back into circulation. The interstitial fluid slowly accumulates in the limb (arm or leg) and it becomes extremely swollen and distended. Lymphedema can become a serious condition if not treated because the swollen tissues are vulnerable to infection. What is tonsillitis? Inflammation of the tonsils [Show Less]
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BIOD 152 Module 2 Exam, question and answer with verified content
Human Brain Divisions cerebrum, brainstem, diencephalon, cerebellum What protects the brain? skull, meninges, and BBB Ventricles of the bra... [Show More] in cavities within the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid; 2 lateral, 3rd ventricle, 4th ventricle Meninges 3 layers of connective tissue that cover and protect the CNS organs and enclose CSF. Dura Mater thick, outermost layer of the meninges surrounding and protecting the brain and spinal cord pia mater the delicate innermost membrane enveloping the brain and spinal cord. CSF special fluid formed in walls of ventricles from blood plasma by permeating through the choroid plexus; cushions the brain and spinal cord by providing buoyancy, allowing the brain to float. BBB diffusion barrier that prevents most particles from entering CNS tissue; brain and spinal cord separate from general blood circulation. Formed by impermeable brain capillaries, due to astrocytes due to need for stable chemical environment. Cerebrum largest part of the brain, 83%; includes median longitudinal fissure, left and right cerebral hemispheres, gyri, sulci, and fissures corpus callosum A bridge of white nerve fibers that connect cerebral hemispheres Cerebral cortex outer region of the cerebrum, containing sheets of nerve cells; gray matter of the brain Deep sulci frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital Frontal sulci controls higher level executive fx like reasoning and decision making; controls motor fx and control over voluntary muscle actions parietal lobe A region of the cerebral cortex whose functions include processing information about touch; receive sensory info from receptors in mouth for taste and in skn four touch, pain, and pressure. Occipital interprets visual input Temporal sensory areas for hearing and smelling Association areas act mainly to integrate more than 1 type of sensory info for purposeful action Primary motor cortex the section of the frontal lobe responsible for voluntary movement Primary sensory cortex regions of the cerebral cortex that initially process information from the senses Broca's area controls language expression - an area, usually in the left frontal lobe, that directs the muscle movements involved in speech; speech production Wernicke's Area located in temporal lobe; speech comprehension Conciousness state of being awake/aware, located in the cerebrum. Cerebrum controls: Cerebrum controls activities of the lower parts of the brain, can override functioning of lower parts of brain (i.e. via biofeedback, meditation, etc.), initiates voluntary motor activities and controls actions of cerebellum by acting on sensory input via thalamus. Brainstem medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain medulla oblongata Part of the brainstem that controls vital life-sustaining functions such as heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure, and digestion; vasoconstriction, reflex centers for vomiting, coughing, sneezing, hiccuping and swallowing, tracts that ascend or descend between SC and brains higher centers vasoconstriction the constriction of blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. Pons Contains axon bundles traveling between cerebellum and rest of CNS; fx with medulla to regulate breathing rate and has reflex centers concerned with head movements in response to auditory and visual stimuli Midbrain Acts as a relay center for tracts passing between the cerebrum, SC or cerebellum; reflex-centers for higher levl fxs involved in visual, auditory, and tactile responses. Superior and inferior colliculi located at the rostral end of the brainstem, control reflexes for head, neck in response to sudden visual or auditory stimulus Diencephalon thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus maintains homeostasis, regulates basic body fx like hinger, sleep, thirst, body temp, water balance, and BP Controls pituitary gland by regulating hormones of endocrine link between nervous and endocrine systems Thalamus the brain's sensory switchboard, located on top of the brainstem; it directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla; filters out unimportant sensory info and directs it to appropriate regions of cerebruum for interpretation. Epithalamus contains the pineal gland (melatonin for sleep-wake cycle) Cerebellum Mini-Brain composed of thin outer cortex of gray matter and internal white matter Maintain balance, certain eye movements, normal muscle tone, and posture keeps joints and bones in place Anterior and posterior lobes receive info from body trunk and influence motor activities of trunk, shoulders, and pectoral girdle muscles Vermis intermediate portion/ coordinates limb movements cerebellar peduncles fiber tracts that communicate with other parts of the brain The Limbic System neural system (including the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus) located below the cerebral hemispheres; associated with emotions and drives. involves both concious and unconcious parts of brain our "feeling brain" because stimulation of different areas of limbic causes rage and anger, pain, pleasure, and sorrow cingulate gyrus plays role in expressing emotions via gestures and resolves mental conflict; connects different lobes of cerebrum Hippocampus involved in retrieval and storage of memories Amygdala small portion of limbic that's involved in emotions such as rage and anger Fornix bundle of nerve fibers that serve as a connection to hippocampus Mamillary bodies contains fibers that project into thalamus and assist with memory of smell Basal Ganglia masses of gray matter that lie deep within each hemisphere of cerebrum part of limbic system responsible for working with the cerebellum to regulate planning motor movements and motor learning overall effect is to have an inhibitory effect of cerebral cortex to slow down and control precise movements Parkinson's disease Apraxia inability to perform particular purposive actions, as a result of brain damage. Results in rigid movements and difficulty in executing a motor plan. Spinal Cord a major part of the central nervous system which conducts sensory and motor nerve impulses to and from the brain extends from brainstem to 1st lumbar vertebrae and terminates at the conus medullaris Cauda equina collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord vertebral column Protects spinal cord, meninges, and csf spinal dura mater single-layer sheath that is separated from vertebral column via epidural space Filium terminale extension of pia mater, anchors spinal cord to coccyx Spinal tap placement of a needle through an intervertebral space into the subarachnoid space to withdraw CSF less risk to damage at L1 central canal/vertebral foramen opening that runs length of spinal cord and filled with CSF White matter in SC composed of myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers, organized into columns. Tracts of SC a bundle of nerve axons, cross-over to opposite side of SC What makes L-side control the R-side and vice versa Dorsal root the sensory branch of each spinal nerve; cell bodies of afferent neurons dorsal root ganglion contains cell bodies of sensory neurons Ventral root axons of motor neurons gray commissure connects masses of gray matter; encloses central canal; this cross-bar Anterior/ventral horns contain somatic motor neurons with axons that serve as efferent paths from receptors by way of dorsal roots of SC Posterior/dorsal horns one of the afferent paths from receptors by way of dorsal roots of SC Lateral horns (only in thoracic and superior lumbar regions) - sympathetic neurons Spinal Nerves 31 pairs of nerves arising from the spinal cord Roots two short branches that lie within vertebral column Dorsal root contains axons of sensory neurons, impulses toward cord Ventral root of SC contains axons of efferent motor neurons, impulses away from cord Dorsal ramus Contains nerves that serve dorsal portions of trunk Ventral ramus nerves that serve the remaining ventral part of upper and lower limbs Plexus some ventral rami merge with adjacent ventral rami, a network of interconnecting nerves Major plexus cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral Spinal nerve path signal passes through dorsal roots into SC and to the brain for processing command signal sent down the SC to appropriate level and out ventral root of SC signal carried via spinal nerve to appropriate destination to muscle fiber to enable voluntary muscular contraction. Dermatomes an area of the skin supplied by nerves from a single spinal root Cervical plexus C1-C5 Phrenic nerve: most important, supplies both motor and sensory fibers to diaphragm (irritation causes hiccups) if severed, paralysis which requires a ventilator Brachial plexus C5-T1 innervates the pectoral girdle and upper limbs Axillary nerve deltoid and teres minor, long head of triceps brachii, sensory part of shoulder joint Radial nerve Supplies triceps brachii of arm, as well as 12 muscles in forearm controlling wrist and finger extension; sensory info to associated joints and overlying skin wraps elbow joint and radial nerve of humerus then follows radial nerve in forearm Median nerve supplies flexor muscles of forearm and skin of first 3.5 fingers Ulnar nerve supplies part of flexor muscles of forearm, wrist, and hand, skin of 1/2 ring finger, and pinky Musculocutaneous nerve flexor muscles of arm, including biceps brachii, and brachialis Lumbar plexus L1-L4 anterior and posterior division of branch into nerves to supply pelvis and lower extremities Femoral nerve major nerve of lumbar plexus, supplies hip flexors and knee extensors and sensation of skin of anterior thigh lateral femoral cutaneous nerve a cutaneous nerve that innervates the skin on the lateral part of the thigh. L3 saphenous nerve Supplies impulses to the skin of the inner side of the leg and foot. Sacral plexus L4-S4 Sciatic nerve: arises from sacral plexus, largest nerve in the body supplies trunk and posterior surface of thigh (branches: common fibular nerve, tibial nerve) Autonomic NS the part of the PNS that controls the glands and muscles of the internal organs, like the heart Made up of motor neurons that control internal organs automatically and w/o conscious intervention. [Show Less]
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Module 1 problem set, questions and answers, A+ content
What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system? The parasympathetic nervous system generally operates during normal situations, permits digest... [Show More] ion, and conserves energy. What is the difference between anatomy and physiology? Anatomy focuses on the structure of the body. Physiology looks at how the body parts function together. The physiology of the body depends on the anatomy of the body. What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system? The sympathetic nervous system activates and prepares the body for vigorous muscular activity, stress, and emergencies. What are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system? sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. What is controlled by the somatic and autonomic nervous systems? The somatic system controls the movements of skeletal muscles, skin, and joints. The autonomic system nerves control the glands and smooth muscles of the internal organs. What are the 2 divisions of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system? Somatic system and the autonomic system. Describe the movement of nerve impulses in the peripheral nervous system. PNS receives impulses from the sensory organs via the afferent division and then relays signals or impulses from the CNS to muscles and glands via the motor or efferent division. What are the 2 divisions of the peripheral nervous system? Afferent, efferent Collections of cell bodies inside the peripheral nervous system are called _____, and the collection of nerve axons in the peripheral nervous system are called _____. ganglia, nerves. What is included in the peripheral nervous system? The PNS includes the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves. Collections of cell bodies inside the central nervous system are called _____, and the collection of nerve axons in the central nervous system are called _____. nuclei, tracts. How are the parts of the central nervous system protected? The skull protects the brain and the vertebrae protect the spinal cord. List the 2 parts of the nervous system. CNS and PNS (central nervous system and peripheral nervous system) The function of the nervous system is to integrate and control the other body systems. Explain how the nervous system does this. The nervous system receives and processes information and sends out signals to the muscles and glands to elicit an appropriate response. In this way, the nervous system integrates and controls the other systems of the body. [Show Less]
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Portage A&P II: Module 3 - Special Senses, 100% accurate
What are the five special senses? Vision, smell, taste, hearing and equilibrium (balance) What are the two parts of the outer layer of the eye? Sc... [Show More] lera and cornea What is included in the middle layer of the eye? Choroid, the ciliary muscle and the iris. The pupil is a hole in the ____. Iris The inner sensory layer is the _____. Retina What are the two types of photoreceptors and their functions? The more numerous cells are rods which are stimulated in dim light. Rods are more sensitive to light but do not generate sharp or color images. The cones operate in bright light helping to generate sharp color images. The interior of the eye (posterior to the lens) is filled with_____. Vitreous fluid True or False: The vision pathway begins as the optic tracts, crosses at the optic chiasm and then moves through the optic nerve. False Where is the LGN located? Thalamus True or False: The nasal visual field is the visual field on the lateral sides of each eye. False What allows for 3-D vision? Overlapping information in the nasal visual fields allows for 3-D vision, called the binocular visual field. True or false: Only the medial fibers cross at the optic chiasm. True The left side of the brain receives information from the _________ of the left eye and the ________ of the right eye. The left side of the brain receives information from the medial side of the left eye and the lateral side of the right eye (bilateral right visual fields). On a piece of paper, draw the visual pathway using two different colors. Note one comment below about what you learned about the vision pathway: The medial rectus turns the eye _____. The medial rectus is controlled by CN _____. Medially, CN III, oculomotor Review all the extrinsic eye muscle locations. What is a cataract? Cataracts are lenses that slowly become hardened and cloudy over time. What does diplopia mean? Double vision What is the purpose of the auricle? The auricle (Figure 1) is shaped to funnel sound waves into the external acoustic canal so that sounds can be detected. What is the purpose of cerumen? Earwax which serves to trap foreign materials. The inner end of the external acoustic meatus terminates at the _____. Tympanic membrane What bone touches the inner ear to transmit vibrations? Stapes The semicircular canals contribute in this way to the body's_____ sense. Vestibular sense The ______ is the sense organ for the auditory system. Organ of Corti The movement of the stereocilia stimulates the neurons to send impulses through the _____ nerve to the _______ lobe of the brain. Cochlear nerve; temporal lobe. What is unique about the way the auditory pathway travels to the brain? The auditory pathway is a unique sensory pathway because the ascending pathways cross in addition to sending signals to the same side of the brain. The result is that sounds from each ear are equally interpreted on the left and right sides of the brain. What is the difference between nerve deafness vs. conduction deafness? Conduction deafness occurs from damage to the outer or middle ear structures. Nerve deafness occurs from damage to the nerve pathway. Review all figures in the auditory and vestibular systems. Olfactory nerves contain what type of receptor cells? Bipolar receptor cells The olfactory nerves travel through what bone? Ethmoid (cribriform plate) What is the order of the olfactory nerve pathway? Olfactory nerves → olfactory bulbs → olfactory tracts→ temporal lobes What is smell? Smell is defined as a combination of a limited number of primary odors that are detectable by the brain. Label all olfactory landmarks. What is the anatomical word for taste? Gustation (gustatory system) True or false: The apex of the tongue is located on the anterior aspect of the mouth. True What is a bolus? A compact mass of food, prepared by the tongue and teeth. What type of papillae contain taste buds? Circumvallate and fungiform papillae both contain taste buds True or false: Gustatory cells are the chemoreceptors of the taste buds. True What is the purpose of basal cells? Basal cells serve as stem cells, which divide and differentiate into new supporting cells which then form new gustatory cells. True or false: The taste pathway sends signals via only one cranial nerve to the brain. False (two nerves- facial and glossopharyngeal) What is anosmia? The loss of smell Review all figures of the gustatory system. medial rectus of eye moves eye medially, controlling cranial nerve: 3 oculomotor inferior rectus of eye moves eye medially and depresses it, controlling cranial nerve: 3 oculomotor superior rectus of eye elevates eye and turns it medially, controlling cranial nerve: 3 occulomotor inferior oblique of eye elevates eye and turns it laterally, and external rotation. controlling cranial nerve: 3 occulomotor superior oblique of eye eye depression, lateral movement, and internal rotation, controlling cranial nerve: 4 trochlear nerve lateral rectus of eye moves eye laterally, controlling cranial nerve: 6 abducens cataract clouding and hardening of the lens of the eye, causing impairment of vision or blindness. Cataracts make vision look blurry because the light is unable to enter the lens clearly to be refracted onto the retina. diplopia double vision. Damage to the abducens nerve ossicles of middle ear malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), stapes (stirrup) inner ear (labyrinth) bony spaces within the temporal bone of the skull that contain the cochlea, the semicircular canals, and vestibule. The cochlea facilitates hearing. The semicircular canals and vestibule facilitate equilibrium and balance conduction deafness damage to the outer or middle ear structures. For example, a build up of cerumen can partially block sound waves entering the external acoustic meatus. Another cause of conduction deafness is if the ossicle bones fuse, decreasing the amount of vibrations transmitted to the inner ear anosmia loss of sense of smell Ageusia loss of the sensation of taste seven primary odors floral, musky, camphorous, pepperminty, etheral, pungent (stinging), putrid (rotten) five primary tastes sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami three types of papillae filiform, fungiform, circumvallate Papillae contain taste buds. fungiform, circumvallate gustatory cells chemoreceptor cells inside the taste buds basal cells of taste buds serve as stem cells, which divide and differentiate into new supporting cells that then form new gustatory cells. Innervation of the tongue: taste back 1/3 CN IX Glossopharyngeal Innervation of the tongue: taste front 2/3, apex CN VII Facial Innervation of the tongue: general touch/pain back 1/3 CN IX Glossopharyngeal Innervation of the tongue: general touch/pain front 2/3 CN V -- 3rd portion of Trigeminal 3 layers of the eye external fibrous layer, middle vascular layer, inner sensory external fibrous layer scalera and cornea Middle vascular layer of the eye choroid, ciliary body, iris internal (sensory) layer of the eye Composed of retina. the retina consists of: rods and cones Rods retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision, when cones don't respond Cones retinal receptor cells that are concentrated near the center of the retina and that function in daylight or in well-lit conditions. The cones detect fine detail and give rise to color sensations. One test for abducens nerve damage have a person look left and right while keeping the head still. If the lateral rectus does not receive nervous signals from the abducens nerve, the eye is unable to rotate laterally when looking to the same side. The affected eye deviates medially when looking forward because of the imbalance in muscle tone between the medial and lateral recti. The inner ear is composed of what? bony and membranous labyrinths filled with fluid. The bony labyrinth system is divided into three sections: the vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea. vestibule of ear connects to three semicircular canals, which house receptors to provide the body's vestibular (equilibrium and balance) system. stapedius muscle Note that CNVII (facial nerve) is also located in the inner ear region. The facial nerve innervates a muscle called the stapedius, which is attached to the stapes. The stapedius controls the amount of tension on the bone, allowing for increased or decreased vibration to help control the intensity of sounds. vestibular portion of CN VIII Each semicircular canal contains equilibrium receptors, which cause action potentials in response to different types of motion (head movements or rotation). The action potentials are sent through the vestibular portion of CN VIII. The semicircular canals contribute in this way to the body's vestibular sense (balance and upright orientation) cochlear portion of CN VIII The mechanical movement of the stereocilia initiates an action potential in neurons that is transmitted through the cochlear nerve portion of CN VIII (Figure 3.11). process of hearing in ear The process of hearing happens in a series of events. First, sound waves are funneled into the external auditory canal causing the eardrum to vibrate. The vibrations transmit to the ossicles, which push against fluid inside the cochlear duct. The movement of the fluid causes movement of the stereocilia in the organ of Corti. The movement of the stereocilia then stimulates the neurons to send impulses through the cochlear nerve to the primary auditory cortex of the temporal lobe. The auditory pathway is a unique sensory pathway because the ascending pathways cross in addition to sending signals to the same side of the brain. The result is that sounds from each ear are equally interpreted on the left and right sides of the brain. Conduction deafness is not complete because Conduction deafness is not complete because the sound waves can be conducted through the cranial bones to move the organ of Corti. [Show Less]
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FINAL BIOD 152 questions and answers, latest updated
This is a bundle of axons found in the peripheral nervous system. Nerve This part of the autonomic system increases digestion. Parasympathetic ... [Show More] The dorsal root of a nerve contains what type of neurons? Sensory (afferent) This part of a neuron conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body. Axon A neuron going to the bicep of the forearm is part of the: A. central nervous system B. peripheral nervous system C. Autonomic system D. Somatic system E. A&C F. B&D F. B&D The neuron pictured, below, is best described as: A. Bipolar B. Multipolar C. Unipolar D. Pseudounipolar B. Multipolar True or false: Neurons do not physically touch one another. True Describe the synthesis and storage of neurotransmitters. The neuron cell body manufactures neurotransmitters, which are stored in secretory vesicles at the end of axon terminals An efferent neuron carries information: A. From the central to the peripheral nervous system B. From the peripheral to the central nervous system C. Within the central nervous system D. Within the peripheral nervous system A. From the central to the peripheral nervous system A postsynaptic neuron would be found: A. before the synapse B. after the synapse C. inside the synapse D. Only in the central nervous system B. after the synapse What is the location and function of Satellite cells? Location: peripheral nervous system (PNS) Function: Regulation of environment of neuron cell bodies A patient's spinal cord was severed in a car accident. Would the patient be expected to regrow axons in their spinal cord? Why or why not? No, only the peripheral system axons are capable of regeneration. The spinal cord is the central nervous system Name and describe what is occurring in the neuron cell membrane in section 4 of the diagram. Include the charge of the membrane during this phase. This is phase 4: afterpolarization (hyperpolarization), the potassium gates are slow to clse and that results in an undershoot of the potential, the voltage will drop below -70mV and the return to the restign state beings. At rest, a neuron plasma membrane is: A. -70 mV B. +40 mV C. Hyperpolarized D. Depolarized A. -70 mV Which of the following is false concerning the sodium-potassium pump? A. it maintains the resting phase of an axon B. For every three sodium ions pumped out, two potassium ions are pumped in C. it must remain in constant operation to maintain the resting state D. The overall effect is a negative charge on the outside of the membrane D. The overall effect is a negative charge on the outside of the membrane True or false: A sensory neuron is signaling the body of extreme pain. This means that the strength of the action potential is greater than usual. Explain your reasoning False, there is no variation in the strength of action potentials. (It is an all-or-nothing response). There is variation in the number and frequency of neurons firing Which of the following statements is false concerning the neuromuscular junction? A. Sodium ions release from the presynaptic motor neuron B. Calcium ions release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to cause muscle contraction C. Sodium channels open on the muscle fibers in response to the neurotransmitter D. The NMJ is found in the peripheral nervous system A. Sodium ions release from the presynaptic motor neuron What prevents continuous stimulation of a nerve synapse and how is this accomplished? The short extension of neurotransmitters in the synpase prevents coninous stimulation. Some synapses contain enzymes that rapidly inactivate neurotransmitters and other synpases rapidly absord the neurotransmitters. What neurotransmitter is found at the neuromuscular junctions? Acetylcholine (ACh) True or False: Action potentials travel in multiple directions within the same neuron. False (only one direction in the same neuron) True or False: Reflexes occur only with conscious intervention from the brain False Fill in the blank: In a reflex, the ____________ neuron conducts nerve impulses along a pathway towards the central nervous system. sensory (afferent) Where is the integration center of a reflex located? CNS (central nervous system) Which of the following is false about reflexes? A. Reflexes do not require higher levels of voluntary processing from the brain B.Regulation of blood sugar by hormones is one example of a reflex C. Some reflexes can be tested to determine injury D. Pulling a hand away from a hot flame is not a reflex; it is entirely voluntary D. Pulling a hand away from a hot flame is not a reflex; it is entirely voluntary What is false about the stretch reflex? A. the effect of the motor signal is to relax a muscle B. The patellar reflex test the stretch reflex of the quadriceps femoris C. The muscle is spindle detects stretch within the muscle D. Stretch reflexes help to decrease the stretch on a muscle A. The effect of the motor signal is to relax a muscle What is true about the flexor withdrawal reflex? A. It does not involve interneurons B. It involves excitatory interneurons C. It involves inhibitory interneurons D. The effect of the reflex is to create a co-contraction of two muscles E. A&D F. B& C F. B&C Your doctor taps on your patellar tendon. List out the steps, in detail, of the nervous pathway of the reflex he is testing. Include any sensory organs involved and the action of the reflex. Stretch reflex: Stretch on patellar tendon (tapping patellar tendon), muscle spindle detects stretch, afferent (sensory) neuron through the DRG, spinal cord, synapses directly on a motor neuron (efferent) No interneuron action: to muscle fiber to contract quadriceps (kicking foot) Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disease which attacks the myelin sheath of the nerve axon. Patients with this disease may experience difficulty using the muscles of their arms and legs. Explain why this would occur. Myelin increase nerve conduction speed and protects the nerve. If the myelin is damaged, the conduction speed would be slower than normal, and the nerve axon itself would be vulnerable to permanent damage without the myelin present for protection This layer of the meninges is tightly attached to the brain. Pia mater (menix) The _______ fissure separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres. Median longitudinal Describe the function of the brain ventricles. There are four ventricles in the interior of the brain, chambers filled with CSF which is produced there. Once formed the CSF circulates through the ventricles and into the subarachnoid space bathing and floating the brain All the following are functions of the hypothalamus except: A. maintain homeostasis B. controls the pituitary gland C. links the nervous and endocrine systems D. relays sensory impulses to the cerebrum D. Relays sensory impulses to the cerebrum This ventricle is located anterior to the cerebellum. A. lateral B. Medial C. Third D. Fourth D. Fourth This region of the brain acts to coordinate multiple sources of sensory information. A. Primary sensory cortex B. Primary motor cortex C. Association area D. Precentral gyrus E. Postcentral gyrus C. Association area A patient is having difficulty producing speech sounds, but other motor movements are normal. Which area of the brain is most likely damaged? A. Broca's area B. Wernicke's area C. Occipital lobe D. Parietal lobe E. Primary motor cortex A. Broca's area Describe how memories are stored and retrieved in the brain. Include a specific brain region. Memories are not stored in one specific area within the brain but instead are stored throughout the cerebral hemispheres. The hippocampus acts as a memory center to help with memory storage and retrieval. The involvement of the limbic system explains why emotionally charged events result in our most vivid memories Which statement is false concerning the brainstem? A. The midbrain portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord B. The pons helps to regulate breathing C. The midbrain contains the superior and inferior colliculi D. The medulla contains reflex centers to regulate vasoconstriction A. The midbrain portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord Which of the following is false concerning the cerebellum? A. The gray matter is external while the mater is internal B. The cerebellar peduncles are located posteriorly C.The anterior lobe receives information from the body trunk D. The vermis coordinates arm movements B. The cerebellar peduncles are located posteriorly Alzheimer's disease impacts which region(s) of the brain? A. occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Hippocampus E. All of the above E. all of the above Which of the following is false concerning a CVA? A. An ischemic stroke is also know as a "brain bleed" B. A TIA is form of an ischemic stroke C. Stroke survivors may regain some lost functions through therapy D. A hemorrhagic stroke is due to a broken blood vessel A. An ischemic stroke is also known as a "brain bleed" A patient has decreased hand strength in her right hand. She also has numbness in her first three digits. What is most likely the cause? A. Spinal cord injury B. Carpal tunnel syndrome C. Ulnar nerve damage D. CVA in the parietal lobe B. Carpal tunnel syndrome Label the following spinal cord regions in the diagram below: 1: _____________________ 3: _____________________ 4: _____________________ 6: _____________________ 11: ____________________ 1. Lateral column 3. Gray commissure 4. Anterior column 6. Anterior/Ventral Horn 11. Ventral Root 5. Lateral column 9. Posterior Medain sulcus 13. DRG What cranial nerve is highlighted in blue (also indicated by the arrow) in the figure below? A. Optic B. Oculomotor C. Trochlear D. Abducens E. Spinal accessory B. Oculomotor What type of nerve is the cranial nerve below and what does it control? (Highlighted in blue, also indicated by the arrow) A. Mixed; sensation of digestive tract and regulation of heart rate B. Motor; tongue movement C. Sensory: hearing and balance D. Mixed; Facial muscles and taste D. Mixed; facial muscles and taste Which of the following is true about the trigeminal nerve? A. The mandibular branch receives sensory information from taste buds B. The ophthalmic branch controls eye movements C. The maxillary branch receives information from the upper lip D. The maxillary branch controls the muscles of mastication C. The maxillary branch receives information from the upper lip Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Answer by writing the letter (A-J) from the figure that corresponds with the correct cranial nerve. 1. This cranial nerve receives sensory information for smell. 2. This cranial nerve controls the inferior oblique muscle. 3. This cranial nerve has three branches. 4.This cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the anterior portion of the tongue. 5. This cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior portion of the tongue. 1. A (olfactory) 2. C (oculomotor) 3. D (trigeminal) 4. F (Facial) 5. H (Glossopharyngeal) Label the nerves (A-C) in the figure below: A: _________________ B: _________________ C: _________________ A. Radial B. Ulnar C. Median The lumbar plexus is from spinal nerves: A. T12- L04 B. L04-SO4 C. C01-C05 D. L01-S01 A. T12-L04 A patient is on a ventilator post a car accident. What region of the spine is most likely damaged? A. L01-L05 B. S01-S05 C.T01-T12 D.C03-C05 D. C03-C05 A patient damaged the radial nerve. What action is most likely limited? A. Elbow flexion B. Hip Extension C. Wrist flexion D. Wrist extension D. wrist extension A patient has decreased sensation over the posterior surface of the thigh. What nerve is most likely damaged? A. Femoral B. Sciatic C. Saphenous D. Common fibular nerve B. Sciatic Which of the following is true concerning the brachial plexus? A. Roots are located furthest from the spinal cord B. There are anterior and posterior divisions C. Divisions branch next into two cord: anterior and posterior D. The posterior cord forms the median nerve B. There are anterior and posterior divisions These contain the ganglia for the sympathetic nervous system that controls the effector organs in the trunk, head and limbs. A. sympathetic trunk ganglia B. Celiac ganglion C. Superiomesenteric ganglion D.Inferior mesenteric ganglion E. Ciliary ganglion A. Sympathetic trunk ganglia Which of the following is false concerning the sympathetic nervous system? A. It is also called the thoracolumbar division B. It is also called the craniosacral division C. The primary neurotransmitter is norepinephrine D. It inhibits the digestive tract B. It is also called the cranisosacral divison A patient comes into the ER following an accident. She is scared and starting to hyperventilate. You talk with her in a calm, reassuring manner as she receives medical care. You are trying to increase the activity in which division of her nervous system? Explain your answer. You are trying to increase the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system as it also sometimes called the "housekeeper system" because it promotes all the internal responses we associate with a relaxed state. The parasympathetic system also acts to slow the heart rate If someone sustains an injury to the area of the spinal cord, as shown below by the blue oval, would you be more likely to see paralysis or decreased sensation? Explain your answer. You would be more likely to see paralysis (muscular weakness) because motor neurons exit the spinal cord anteriorly One of your patients sustained an ischemic CVA. You notice that their gait is very unsteady. It almost appears as if they are intoxicated. What portion of the brain was most likely affected by the stroke? Explain your answer. The cerebellum was most likely affected as it is responsible for coordinating body movements including gait What sense does not have specialized sense organs? A. smell B. touch C. equilibrium D. A&C B. touch The outer fibrous layer of the eye includes the: A. sclera and cornea B. ciliary body and iris C. pupil and retina D. Lens and vitreous fluid A. sclera and cornea The middle layer of the eye includes which regions? A. aqueous humor and cornea B. Ciliary body and iris C. Cones and rods D. optic nerve and retina B. Ciliary body and iris True or false: The more numerous type of photoreceptors are rods. True What is the correct order of how light passes through the eye? A. Cornea, lens, pupil, retina B. Lens, retina, cornea, pupil C. Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, retina D. Lens, vitreous fluid, cornea, retina C. Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, retina A patient had a CVA in the area indicated by the red x in the figure, below. What type of blindness is the patient most likely to incur? Explain your reasoning A. Left eye blindness B. Right eye blindness C. Bilateral left visual field blindness D. Bilateral right visual field blindness. C The right optic tract is damaged. All the sensory information from the left visual fields travels together after the optic chiasm to the right side of the brain A patient is found to have blindness in the right eye. What part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged? Explain your response A. Optic chiasm B. Occipital lobe C. Left optic nerve D. Right optic nerve D Information from the right visual field has not yet crossed at the optic chiasm. Both peripheral and nasal fields of the right eye would be missing True or False: The lateral fibers of the optic nerves cross at the optic chiasm. False - medial fibers cross The ________ is controlled by the trochlear nerve. A. superior rectus B. medial rectus C. lateral rectus D. superior oblique D. superior oblique Your elderly patient is discussing her vision problems. She describes her vision as blurry. Following a visual examination, her left eye deviates medially when looking straight ahead. What is most likely causing the vision problem? Explain your reasoning A. Cataracts B. Abducens nerve damage C. Brain tumor in the occipital lobe D. Medial rectus damage E. Superior rectus damage B The abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus. Damage to the lateral rectus would cause there to be a muscle imbalance, and the medial rectus would pull the eye medially when looking straight ahead, causing blurry vision (Diplopia) Match the numbers (1-5) in the figure below with the correct terms (A-H). Note: not all terms will be used. 1- A: Scala Tympani 2- B: Facial Nerve 3- C: Tympanic Membrane 4- D: Cochlear duct 5- E: Organ of Corti F: External acoustic meatus G: Cochlear Nerve H: Scala Vestibuli 1: H. Scala Vestibuli 2: D. Choclear Duct 3: E. Organ of corti 4: A. Scala tympani 5: G. Chochlear Nerve Other Incorrect Match Options: B. Facial Nerve C. Tympanic Membrane F. External acoustic meatus Which of the following statements is true regarding the external ear? A. the lobule contains cartilage B. The auricle funnels sound into the external acoustic meatus C. The helix does not contain cartilage D. The external acoustic meatus travels through the parietal bone B. The auricle funnels sound into the external acoustic meatus Which of the following statements is true regarding the middle ear? A. it is filled with fluid B. it is filled with air C. The malleus receives vibrations from the stapes D. The stapes receives vibrations from the cochlea B. It is filled with air Which of the following statement is true regarding the inner ear? A. the organ of corti is responsible for the body's auditory sense B. It is filled with air C. The cochlea is responsible for the body's vestibular sense D. There are two semicircular canals which house sensory receptors A. The organ of corti is responsible for the body's auditory sense Place the terms (A-H) in the correct order for the hearing pathway. Note: not all terms will be used. Sound waves are funneled in the ___1_____. Vibrations push against the __2_____ which moves the ossicles. The stapes pushes against the ___3____. Movement of the ___4____ causes neurons to send impulses through the __5___ to the brain. 1: auditory canal 2: tympanic membrane 3: Cochlear duct 4: Stereocilia 5: Cochlear nerve Label the figure below with the correct papillae: (A-C). A: B: C: A: Filiform B: Circumvallate C: Fungiform True or false: Olfaction is a chemical sense activated by chemical substances dissolved in the nasal mucous membranes. True Which of the following is not one of the primary odors in humans? A. Floral B. Musky C. Pungent D. Putrid E. Pheromones E. Pheromones A person cannot perceive tastes from the posterior portion of the tongue. What nerve is most likely damaged? Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) A bolus is formed by the ? A. Nasal Mucosa B. Tongue C. Temporal lobe D. Oculomotor nerve B. Tongue The papillae that do not contain taste buds are Filiform papillae A patient has lost his sense of smell following a car accident. What term should be documented should to describe his loss of smell? Anosmia True or False: The tongue only contains receptors that are chemoreceptors for taste. False Describe the steps in the olfactory pathway. Begin in the nasal cavity and end in the specific lobe of the brain. -Chemicals dissolve in nasal mucosa -Detected by olfactory receptors (bipolar cells) -Olfactory nerves, olfactory bulb, olfactory tract, temporal lobe A patient sustains an injury to the malleus. What type of deafness does this patient most likely have? Explain your answer Conduction deafness occurs from damage to the outer or middle ear structures. The malleus is part of the middle ear structures [Show Less]
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