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CPH Exam (13 Sets ) Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
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CPH EXAM 2 |55 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH EXAM 2 |55 Questions with Verified Answers Public health - CORRECT ANSWER fulfillments of societies interest in assuring the conditions in which p... [Show More] eople can be healthy. organized community efforts aimed at the prevention of disease and the promotion of health public health vs. medical care - CORRECT ANSWER -in public health the patient is the community, in medical care the patient is individual -public health diagnoses the health of the community using public health sciences -goal of public health is prevention of disease and disability, in medical care its cure 3 core functions of public health - CORRECT ANSWER -assessment -policy development -assurance The 3 levels of prevention - CORRECT ANSWER -Primary Prevention -Secondary Prevention -Teritary Prevention Primary Prevention - CORRECT ANSWER prevents an illness or injury from occurring at all by preventing exposure to risk factors EX) vaccination, drunk driving laws, child safety lids secondary prevention - CORRECT ANSWER seeks to minimize the severity of the illness or the damage due to an injury causing even once the event has occurred EX) seat belts, mammograms, motorcycle helmet laws teritary prevention - CORRECT ANSWER seeks to minimize disability by providing medical care and rehabilitation services EX) PT/OT facilities, cancer centers, improved ambulance care, ICU Chain of Causation - CORRECT ANSWER -Host -Environment -Agent -Vector (cousin) EX) malaria, suicide Social Justice - CORRECT ANSWER suggests the minimal levels of income, basic housing, employment, education, and health care should be seen as fundamental rights (common goods) Market Justice - CORRECT ANSWER emphasizes individual responsibilities, minimal obligation to the common good and the fundamental freedom to all individuals to be left alone. (Individual Responsibility) Sources of Public Health Controvery - CORRECT ANSWER -Economic Impact -Individual Impact -Moral & religious concerns -Politics vs. science -Health Disparities Health Disparities - CORRECT ANSWER defined as inequalities that exist when members of certain population groups do not benefit from the same health status as other groups Common divides where we see health disparities - CORRECT ANSWER -SES -Race/Ethnicity -Gender -Geographical Location (Rural, Urban) -Age -Education Role of Local Health Departments - CORRECT ANSWER -Often have responsibilities for providing medical care for the poor -public health departments begins and ends with the local health departments What happens at local health departments? - CORRECT ANSWER -Collecting health statistics -screening and immunizations -health education services -communicable disease control programs -mental health services Role of State Health Departments - CORRECT ANSWER -the states have primary constitutional responsibility and authority for the protection of the health safety and general welfare of the population. -close enough to the people to maintain a sense of their needs and preferences, yet large enough to command the resources necessary to get the important jobs done What happens at the state health departments? - CORRECT ANSWER -coordinate activités of local public health agencies & providing funding -collect & analyze data -laboratory services -manage medicaid Role of Federal Government - CORRECT ANSWER -Regulate interstate commerce -Collect taxes Police Powers - CORRECT ANSWER -Prevent people from harming others -Defend the interests of competent persons (children, mentally handicapped) -To protect a person from harming themselves Role of the CDC (centers for disease control & prevention) - CORRECT ANSWER -Main assessment and epidemiological agency for the nation based in Atlanta, GA -Traditionally focused on infectious diseases- crisis focused -national center for health statistics -prevention and control Role of NIH - CORRECT ANSWER -Greatest medical research complex in the world -Bethesda, MD -Provides grants to universities and research centers throughout the US -27 institutes and centers -focus on curing human disease -strong congressional support John Snow - CORRECT ANSWER -Father of epidemiology -Cholera epidemics in London, mid 1850s -Population unsure of Source- Snow suspected water supply -"Natural Experiment" -Shoe leather epidemiology Epidemiology - CORRECT ANSWER -The diagnostic discipline of public health -Assessment -Investigates causes of diseases -identifies trends in disease occurrence -Evaluates effectiveness of medical and public health interventions -An observational science Patterns of Disease occurrence - CORRECT ANSWER -Who is getting the disease? -When did they get the disease? -Where is the disease occurring? from this information epidemiologists can infer why the disease is occurring Endemic - CORRECT ANSWER a disease that exists permanently in a particular region or population. EX) malaria is a constant worry in parts of africa Epidemic - CORRECT ANSWER an outbreak of disease that attacks many people at about the same time and may spread through one or several communities Pandemic - CORRECT ANSWER when an epidemic spreads throughout the world Incidence Rate - CORRECT ANSWER rate of new cases of a disease in a defined population over a define period of time (measures the probability that a healthy person will develop the disease during that time) Prevalence Rate - CORRECT ANSWER total number of cases in a defined population at a specific moment in time (defines the burden of disease typically collected via survey) Mortality Rate - CORRECT ANSWER number of deaths from a disease in a define population over a define period of time Different types of Epi studies - CORRECT ANSWER -Intervention Study -Cohort Study -Case-Control Study Intervention study - CORRECT ANSWER -closest thing to an experiment -start with two groups (experiment, control) -Randomized control trial is "Gold Standard" EX)Aspirin to prevent heart disease Cohort Study - CORRECT ANSWER -For situation when doing all intervention study would be unethical or too difficult -considered the next most accurate -choose a large number of healthy people Case-control study - CORRECT ANSWER -choose people who already have disease for case group -choose healthy control group of individuals as similar as possible to cases for control group -always a retrospective study -Advantage: faster and cheaper -Least accurate approach Sources of Error - CORRECT ANSWER -Random variation -confounding variables -Bias (selection bias, reporting bias or recall bias) p-value: probability - CORRECT ANSWER P<0.05 is usually taken to mean a result is statistically significant when p=0.05, there is still a 5% chance that the result is still wrong Different Types of Rates - CORRECT ANSWER -birth rates -mortality rates -crude rates -adjusted rates -group, specific rates -years of potential life lost (YPLL) Risk Reception - CORRECT ANSWER -For well known risk, can be calculated from historical data -for poorly understood risk,s must make many assumptions -involves psychological factors Leading cause of death in 1900s vs. today - CORRECT ANSWER 1900-Infectious Disease 2010-today- heart disease Means of Transmission - CORRECT ANSWER water food vectors (insects or animals) Air Formats (inanimate objects) Fecal oral transmission Body Fluid Times of Transmission - CORRECT ANSWER When are things contagious? symptomatic phase (common cold) pre-symptomatic phase (measles) carrier state (typhoid mary) Typhoid Mary - CORRECT ANSWER Mary Mallon, born in 1869 in Ireland and emigrated to the US in 1884. A health carrier of salmonella typhi her nickname, synonymous with the spread of disease, as many were infected due to her denial of being ill Chain of infection - CORRECT ANSWER -Pathogen -Reservoir -Means of transmissions -Susceptible Host Pathogen - CORRECT ANSWER infectious agent; bacterium or parasite that causes the disease Reservoir - CORRECT ANSWER The place where the pathogen lives and multiplies EX) rats for plague, bats for rabies Means of Transmission - CORRECT ANSWER how pathogen travels to new host EX) mosquito for malaria, flea for plague Susceptible Host - CORRECT ANSWER Not everyone is equally susceptible Interrupting chain of infection - CORRECT ANSWER Pathogen- kill w/ antibiotics Reservoir- Boil water, kill rodents Means of Transmission- hand washing, condom Susceptible Host- increase resistance of host by immunization Eradication of Disease? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes, if there is no non-human reservoir and a vaccine exists -small pox eradicated in 1977 -polio eradicated from Western Hemisphere -measles was next target Herd Immunity - CORRECT ANSWER the resistance to the spread of a contagious disease within a population that results if a sufficiently high proportion of individuals are immune to the disease, especially through vaccination Vaccines - CORRECT ANSWER -Rumors of vaccines causing autism (false) -Side effects do not exist for some vaccines (extremely rare, include fever and seizures) -Social Vs. Market Justice -Herd Immunity -Pharmaceutical companies reluctant to develop vaccines Tuskegee Study - CORRECT ANSWER a study to record the natural history of syphilis in hopes of justifying treatment programs for african americans. Assessment (core function) - CORRECT ANSWER -monitor environment and health status to identify and solve community environmental health problems -diagnose and investigate environmental health problems and health hazards in the community policy development (core function) - CORRECT ANSWER -inform, educate, and empower people about environmental health issues -community partnerships and actions to identify and solve environmental health problems -policies and plans that support individual and community environmental health efforts assurance (core function) - CORRECT ANSWER -enforce laws and regulations that protect environmental health and ensure safety ? [Show Less]
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CPH Exam 24 Questions with Verified Answers ,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam 24 Questions with Verified Answers index case - CORRECT ANSWER the first patient found in an epidemiological investigation regression ana... [Show More] lysis - CORRECT ANSWER A technique used to relate an outcome or dependent variable to one or more predictor or independent variables Which of the following survey items best assesses an individual's socioeconomic status in terms of increasing validity and response rate? 1. Income in the past month 2. Highest level of education attained 3. Eligibility for public assistance 4. Perception of economic insecurity - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Perception of economic insecurity Of all the options, perception of economic insecurity (e.g., concern about food insecurity) best assesses an individual's current economic status while reducing non-response due to concern about stigma. Respondents are least likely to respond to income and public assistance questions, while educational attainment does not accurately reflect one's economic situation. Which of the following is an expected benefit of consolidating independent hospitals and provider groups into an integrated health care system? 1. Economies of scale in production 2. Lower costs of integration 3. Ease of accommodating diverse organizational cultures 4. Immediate gains in administrative efficiency - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Economies of scale in production Growth through mergers and acquisitions are typically justified on the basis of economic efficiencies achieved through enhanced economies of scale, an increase share of the relevant market by the integrated system, and greater revenues. However, the demands of implementation and maintaining a larger integrated system increase the administrative burden (and associated overhead costs). Accommodating different organizational cultures is a challenge faced by management in most corporate mergers and often is recognized as a root cause of failed mergers and acquisitions. Scores of a certain exam for a group of students were normally distributed with a mean of 100 and standard deviation 20. Based on the information provided what is the percentage of students who scored between 80 and 120? A. 0.5 B. 0.68 C. 0.75 D. 0.95 - CORRECT ANSWER B. 0.68 Based on the (68-95-99 percent rule) of normally distributed data that states that 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation, 95% are within 2 SD, and 99% are within 3 SD Generally, the largest single component in most public health budgets, and therefore the one with which managers must be most familiar is: 1. computer software and hardware 2. pharmaceuticals 3. personnel 4. shortfalls - CORRECT ANSWER 3. personnel From the perspective of hospitals, the No. 1 cost category in hospital budget is employees' wages and benefits. Cuts in personnel or staffing will leave public health departments unable to respond to crisis. The most important reason for reduced mortality during the initial stage of a demographic/epidemiologic transition in a population is: 1. Increased use of antibiotics 2. Improved sanitation 3. Increased immunization 4. Screening for common infectious diseases - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Improved sanitation The Belmont Report - CORRECT ANSWER ethical principles and guidelines for the protection of human subjects of research created as a result of the Tuskegee Syphilis Study The Nuremberg Code - CORRECT ANSWER a set of research ethics principles for human experimentation set as a result of the subsequent Nuremberg trials at the end of the Second World War. Precede-Proceed Model - CORRECT ANSWER Consists of eight phases that provide a framework for intervention. It is an educational and ecologic model that incorporates planning for evidence-based best practices, interventions, and integration of evaluation methods for improvement of quality. HACCP (Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point) - CORRECT ANSWER Identify and control problems that may cause food-borne illness before they happen Gnatt Chart - CORRECT ANSWER bar graph showing production managers what projects are being worked on and what stage they are in at any given time SWOT analysis - CORRECT ANSWER strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats Douglas McGregor Theory Y - CORRECT ANSWER Belief that people are intrinsically motivated to work. Includes a great deal of participation of staff. Minimal control and direction by managment Cryptosporidium - CORRECT ANSWER resistant to chlorine treatment of municipal water supplies. very difficult to kill by chemical disinfection of drinking and/or recreational water supply systems and has caused major US disease outbreaks selection bias - CORRECT ANSWER in an experiment, unintended differences between the participants in different groups (ex. non-response) Confounding bias - CORRECT ANSWER When more than one explanation can account for the end result Which public health measure had the greatest impact on average life expectancy? - CORRECT ANSWER Improvements in sanitation and hygine What term reflects the meaning of external validity of study findings as used in an evidence-based critical appraisal? 1. Generalizability 2. Bias 3. Confounding 4. Surrogate end points - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Generalizability Generalizability describes the extent to which the effects in a study truly reflect what can be expected in a target population beyond the people included in the study. Bias: A systematic error where something else other than the predictor variable influences the response variable. Confounding: Presence of a factor that influences both the intervention and the outcome of research. Surrogate end points: An outcome that substitutes for a direct measurement of a clinical outcome. The surrogate endpoint may correlate with the real clinical outcome. Donabedian's model - CORRECT ANSWER The logic model that has been the dominant paradigm representing types of information that may be collected to draw inferences about quality of care provided by a healthcare system Case-control Study - CORRECT ANSWER A type of epidemiologic study where a group of individuals with the diseases, referred to as cases, are compared to individuals without the disease, referred to as controls cross-sectional study - CORRECT ANSWER a study in which people of different ages are compared with one another retrospective study - CORRECT ANSWER A study that monitors people who have been exposed to an environmental hazard at some time in the past. prospective study - CORRECT ANSWER an observational study in which subjects are followed to observe future outcomes [Show Less]
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CPH EXAM 499 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH EXAM 499 Questions with Verified Answers Attributable risk - CORRECT ANSWER Rate of disease in exposed individuals that can be attributed to the ex... [Show More] posure. Or the proportion of all cases that can be attributed to a particular exposure. Adjusted rate - CORRECT ANSWER Effects of differences in composition of pops being compared have been minimized by statistical methods. ex: regression analysis and strandardization -often used on rates or relative risks Ecological Fallacy - CORRECT ANSWER Bias that may occur because an association observed between variables or an aggregate level does not represent the association that exists at an individual level Confidence Interval - CORRECT ANSWER 95% confident that the true value of a variable is contained within the interval. -used to account for sampling variability -it is a point estimate +_ margin of error, where the point estimate is the best estimate of teh unknown parameter and the margin of error is the product of the confidence level and the standard error. if a 95% CI for the differences in mean does not include 0 (the null value) then there is eveidence of a statistically significant difference at sigma=0.05 Clinical Trial Phases - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Safety and Pharmacologic profiles 2. pilot efficacy studies 3. extensive clinical trials 4. after the FDA approves, look at specific effects to establish incidence of adverse reactions, etc. longterm use effects. interpretation of studies - CORRECT ANSWER temporality: cause precedes effect Specificity: important in assessing the possibility of biases. Consistency: several studies showing similar results. homogeneity statistically. Confounders - CORRECT ANSWER -non-causal association between exposure and outcome as a result of a third variable. -distortion of effect by other factors -must be related to exposure AND outcome -not an intermediate variable on causal pathway Controlling for confounders - CORRECT ANSWER before data collection: random collection, individual matching, frequency matching After data collection: direct adjustment, indirect adjustment, mantel-haenszel, regression techniques Quality Assurance vs. Quality Control - CORRECT ANSWER QA: ensure quality before data collection QC: monitor and maintain quality during study reliability vs. validity - CORRECT ANSWER R: precision, reproducibility V: accuracy, absence of bias systematic error - CORRECT ANSWER (lack of validity) if there's a difference between what is actually being estimated and what is intended to be measured. Increasing sample size doesn't help. Random Error - CORRECT ANSWER (lack of precision) occurs, but increasing sample size helps. RCT studies - CORRECT ANSWER Tests efficacy or effectiveness of healthcare services. random allocation of participants to different treatments. Includes blinding, placebo. gold standard for evidence. Community Intervention/cluster RCT - CORRECT ANSWER community-wide basis or groupwide Case-Crossover RCT design - CORRECT ANSWER -cases serve as their own control -exposure has transient effect Cross Sectional Studies - CORRECT ANSWER SNAPSHOT! at a single point in time. tells the prevalence and association. causation cannot be implied. a study that examines the relationship between diseases and other variables as they exist in a defined population at one particular time. Matching - CORRECT ANSWER used to make cases and controls as similar as possible to avoid confounding. ex: race, gender, age. +Maybe the only way to control confounding. increases statistical power, straightforward. -requires use of special analytical techniques, residual confounding can occur if you match continuous variables by category. types of matching - CORRECT ANSWER individual matching: case and control matched individually frequency matching: a group of controls Minimum Euclidean Distance measure: match to closest person. Cohort Studies - CORRECT ANSWER RISK RATIO, RELATIVE RISK, INCIDENCE RATE, RATE RATIO -rare exposures -group of subjects who shared experiences during a particular time. Determines if incidence is related to exposure. Concurrent/longitudinal cohort studies - CORRECT ANSWER starts now (with a baseline exam) and goes into future. expensive and time intensive. non-concurrent/retrospective cohort studies - CORRECT ANSWER assembled in past based on existing records. faster and quicker, but records can be limited or biased. follow up can be hard. Prevalence of disease - CORRECT ANSWER measure of the burden of disease in a community (new and existing cases). the number of events in a given population at a designated time. -obscures causal relationships point prevalence - CORRECT ANSWER -proportion of pop that is diseased during a single point of time. -at a specific point in time number of cases at a particular moment/ number in population at that moment period prevalence - CORRECT ANSWER -proportion of pop that is diseased during a specified duration of time. -during a specific period of time number of cases during a specified time period/ number in population at midpoint of period incidence of disease - CORRECT ANSWER measure of risk (new cases) the rate at which people without a disease develop the disease during a specific period of time. #of new cases over a period of time/ population @ risk of the disease in that time incidence rate (also incidence density) - CORRECT ANSWER CASES OF DISEASE/PERSON-TIME AT RISK TIME is important. -it shows greater accuracy, but is hard to calculate. -used for causal research Incidence Proportion - CORRECT ANSWER CASES OF DISEASE/PERSONS AT RISK cumulative risk/average risk the proportion of a group of people who experience the onset of a health-related event during a specified time interval. Incidence Odds - CORRECT ANSWER CASES OF DISEASE/SURVIVORS Ratio of people who experience outcome to ratio of people who no not experience outcome. Rate Ratio - CORRECT ANSWER ratio of incidence rate in the exposed group to the non-exposed group Risk Ratio - CORRECT ANSWER -measures the increased risk for developing a disease after being exposed to a risk factor compared to not being exposed to the risk factor. RR= risk for the exposed/ risk for the unexposed -often referred to as "relative risk" Odds Ratio - CORRECT ANSWER Ratio of incidence odds in exposed group to non-exposed group. [p1/(1/p1)]/[p2/(1/p2)] OR: a*d/b*c exposed not exposed cases a b controls c d Information Bias (also observational bias) - CORRECT ANSWER systematic error/flaw due to incorrect definition, measurement, or classification that results in reduced quality (accuracy) Ex: false positives/negatives or errors in death records. Differential Information Bias - CORRECT ANSWER Probability of cases vs. non-cases of misclassification is different. Non-Differential Information Bias - CORRECT ANSWER Probability of cases vs. non-cases of misclassification is NOT different. Selection Bias - CORRECT ANSWER When sample/participants aren't representative. how to avoid: control confounders and choose good comparison group. power - CORRECT ANSWER -the ability to reject the null hypothesis when the null is in fact false. -probability of detecting a difference if one truly exists. 1-beta= probability of declaring a difference not statistically significant when a difference truly exists. Type 1 Error - CORRECT ANSWER reject the null hypothesis when it is true alpha or Type 11 Error - CORRECT ANSWER fail to reject the null hypothesis when it is false beta aggregate data - CORRECT ANSWER vital stats, data from govt databases, summaries from reporting systems, production and sales data, group-level. COMBINED individual level data - CORRECT ANSWER questionnaires, medical records, national surveys, biological specimens Stages of disease prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Primary, secondary, tertiary Primary Disease Prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Prevent it from occurring (vaccines) Secondary Disease Prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Modify severity (better access to ER) Tertiary Disease Prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Rehabilitation. measures to prevent reoccurrence of disease Rate of Disease - CORRECT ANSWER how fast is the disease occurring in the population Proportion of Disease - CORRECT ANSWER What fraction of the population is affected? Case Fatality (CF) or Fatality Rate - CORRECT ANSWER Measures of the severity of disease. 9 deaths per 10,000/1 year Within a given year, out of 10,000 people diagnosed with a disease, 9 died. Secondary Attack Rate (person-to-person spread) - CORRECT ANSWER # of persons sick by the primary case/# exposed to primary case Attack Rate - CORRECT ANSWER # of people at risk who develop disease /# of people at risk Outbreak investigation steps - CORRECT ANSWER 1. define epidemic 2. look for the time-place interaction of cases 3. look for combination of variables 4. Develop hypothesis 5. Recommend control measures Common Source Outbreaks - CORRECT ANSWER groups of persons exposed to common agent Propagated Outbreaks - CORRECT ANSWER spreads gradually from person to person Mixed epidemic Outbreaks - CORRECT ANSWER both common source and person to person exposure Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) - CORRECT ANSWER toxic chemicals that persist in the environment for long periods of time. adverse effects on humans and animals. circulates globally. organophosphates - CORRECT ANSWER pesticides that contain phosphorus. short lived. toxic when first applied. Mutagen - CORRECT ANSWER agent that causes a permanent genetic change outside of normal growth. mutagenicity - CORRECT ANSWER capacity to cause permanent genetic change MRSA - CORRECT ANSWER bacterial strains. resistent to antibiotics. benign colonizers of the skin. may cause severe infections. Morbidity - CORRECT ANSWER rate of disease, incidence. HOW MANY PEOPLE ARE SICK Mortality - CORRECT ANSWER death rate. PEOPLE WHO HAVE DIED. Metabolism - CORRECT ANSWER conversion or breakdown of a substance from one form to another by a living organism metabolites - CORRECT ANSWER substance produced by biological processes metabolomics - CORRECT ANSWER use of genomic information to facilitate studies of metabolic processes. Latency - CORRECT ANSWER time from 1st exposure until the appearence of a toxic effect. IRIS (integrated risk information system) - CORRECT ANSWER descriptive, quantitative regulatory information on chemicals. health professionals not experts. Incidence - CORRECT ANSWER # of new cases in a defined population over a specific time period. hydrophilic - CORRECT ANSWER strong affinity for water hydrophobic - CORRECT ANSWER strong aversion for water helminths - CORRECT ANSWER group of parasites that infect humans (Schistosoma haematobium) cestodes: beef and pork tapeworms HACCP (hazard analysis and critical control points) - CORRECT ANSWER production control system for the food industry. identifies potential contamination and then strictly manages and monitors points. designed to *prevent* rather than catch. gray (Gy) - CORRECT ANSWER international system unit of absorbed dose exposure-dose reconstruction - CORRECT ANSWER method of estimating the amount of past exposures to hazardous substances. computers and approximation methods can be used when info is missing or limited. EPCRA (emergency planning and community right-to-know act) - CORRECT ANSWER requirements for federal, stat and local govts regarding emergency planning and CRTK reporting on hazardous and toxic chemicals. -triggered by Bhopal, India 2,000 people died by release of methyl isocyanate. ED50 - CORRECT ANSWER dose of drug that is pharmacologically effective for 50% of the population. disease vector - CORRECT ANSWER intermediate host for parasites. required for development. delivers parasite to subsequent hosts. ex: schistosoma Curie - CORRECT ANSWER basic unit to describe the intensity of radioactivity in a sample of material. cryptosporidium - CORRECT ANSWER microbe that is transmitted through water and person-to-person contact. causes acute diarrhea, stomach pain, vomiting, fever. -milwaukee episode, largest waterborne disease outbreak. Criteria Pollutants - CORRECT ANSWER 1970 ammendment to Clean Air Act. required EPA to set standards for 6 pollutants. ozone, carbon monoxide, total suspended particles, sulfurdioxide, lead, nitrogenoxide. Comparison value - CORRECT ANSWER the calculated concentration of a substance in air, food, or soil that is unlikely to cause harm. used as a screening level during assessment process. Command and Control - CORRECT ANSWER regulates how activities need to be carried out. compliance monitoring and sanctions of trespasses. CONS: inflexibility, not adaptable, no incentive for reaching higher. CBRNE incidents - CORRECT ANSWER deliberate malicious acts with the intention of killing others and disrupting society. CHEMICAL, BIOLOGICAL, RADIOACTIVE, NUCLEAR, EXPLOSIVE. Temporality - CORRECT ANSWER The cause must precede the effect Specificity - CORRECT ANSWER -the proportion of truly nondiseased persons who are so identified by the screening test. -Specificity of the effect is important in assessing possibility of biases true negatives/disease free population D/B+D "of those who do not have disease, __% will test negative." Interaction - CORRECT ANSWER This occurs when the incidence of disease in the presence of two or more risk factors differs from the incidence expected to result from their individual effects Epidemiology's basic ethical principles - CORRECT ANSWER 1. respect for people 2. Beneficence (do not harm) 3. Justice Applications of Epidemiology's basic ethical principles - CORRECT ANSWER 1. informed consent 2. assessment of risk and benefit 3. selection of subjects Tuskegee Syphilis Experiment - CORRECT ANSWER A clinical study conducted between 1932 and 1972 in Tuskegee, Alabama by The U.S. Public Health Service. 399 impoverished African American sharecroppers with syphilis were recruited for research related to the natural progression of the untreated disease. After penicillin was discovered as a cure, researchers continued to deny such treatments to medical participants for another 25 years. Many patients were lied to and given placebo treatments so researchers could observe the progression of the fatal disease. This study led to the 1979 Belmont Report and establishment of the *Office for Human Research Protection (OHRP).* In 1974, Congress passed the National Research Act and created a commission to study and write regulations governing studies involving human participants. Accuracy - CORRECT ANSWER The degree to which a measurement or an estimate based on measurements represents the true value of the attribute that is being measured. Acute Disease - CORRECT ANSWER a health effect with sudden onset, often brief. sometimes used to mean severe. adjusted rate - CORRECT ANSWER a rate in which the effects of differences in composition of the populations being compared have been minimized by statistical measures. Association - CORRECT ANSWER statistical dependence between two or more events, characteristics or other variables. attack rate - CORRECT ANSWER the cumulative incidence of infection in a group observed over a period during an epidemic. Crude rate - CORRECT ANSWER a summary rate based on the actual number of events in a population over a given time period. death rate - CORRECT ANSWER an estimate of the portion of a population that dies during a specific period. #of people dying /population Ecologic study - CORRECT ANSWER a study in which the units of analysis are populations or groups of people rather than individuals. etiology - CORRECT ANSWER the science of causes, causality. Hawthorne Effect - CORRECT ANSWER The effect of knowing that you're being studied influences behavior. healthy worker effect - CORRECT ANSWER workers usually exhibit lower overall death rates than the general population because chronically ill are bared from employment. index case - CORRECT ANSWER the first case in a family or other defined group to come to the attention of the investigator induction period - CORRECT ANSWER the period required for a specific cause to produce disease. the interval from the causal action of a factor to the initiation of the disease. internal validity - CORRECT ANSWER the index and comparison groups are selected and compared in such a manner that the observed differences between them can be attributed only to the hypothesized effect under investigation. lead time bias - CORRECT ANSWER overestimation of survival time, due to the backward shift in the starting point for measuring survival that arises when diseases are detected early (screening procedures). length bias - CORRECT ANSWER a systematic error due to selection of disproportionate numbers of long-duration cases. measurement error - CORRECT ANSWER a mismatch between an estimated value and its true value. natality - CORRECT ANSWER the occurrence of births in a population person-time - CORRECT ANSWER a measurement combining persons and time as the denominator in incidence and mortality rates when, for varying periods, individual subjects are at risk of developing disease or dying. predictive value - CORRECT ANSWER the probability that a person with a positive test is truly positive. or the probability that a person who tests negative is actually negative. probability sample - CORRECT ANSWER all individuals have an equal chance of selection. proportional mortality ratio - CORRECT ANSWER the proportion of observed deaths from a specified condition in a defined population, divided by the proportion of deaths expected from the condition in a standard population. expressed on an age-specific basis or after age adjustment. p-value - CORRECT ANSWER the probability that a test statistic would be as extreme as or more extreme than observed if the null hypothesis were true. small p-value <.05 leads to rejection of the null hypothesis. the result is statistically significant. large p-value >.05 leads to fail to reject the null hypothesis. there was no effect. quasi-experimental study - CORRECT ANSWER investigator lacks full control over allocation or timing, but conducts the study as if it were an experiment. relative risk - CORRECT ANSWER -measure of the association between exposure to a particular factor and risk of a cetain outcome. -doesn't measure probability that someone with the factor will develop the disease incidence rate among exposed/ incidence rate among nonexposed sensitivity - CORRECT ANSWER the proportion of truly diseased persons in the screened population who are identified as diseased by the screening test. "of those who have the disease, __% will test positive" disease not diseased total positive a b a+b negative c d c+d total a+c b+d a+b+c+d a= true positives b= false positives c=false negatives d=true negatives sensitivity = a/(a+c) specificity= d/(b+d) predictive value (positive test result) a/(a+b) predictive value (negative test result) d/(c+d)3 standardized mortality ratio - CORRECT ANSWER the ratio of the number of deaths observed in the study group or population to the number that would be expected if the study population had the same specific rates as the standard population x100. usually a percentage. temporality - CORRECT ANSWER the timing of information about cause and effect. Validity - CORRECT ANSWER measurement: does it measure what it says it does? study: the degree to which the inferences drawn from the study are warranted. vital statistics - CORRECT ANSWER systematically tabulated information on deaths, births, marriages, etc. proportionate mortality ratio - CORRECT ANSWER calculated as the number of deaths within a population due to a specific disease or cause divided by the total number of deaths in the population. Case Control Study - CORRECT ANSWER ODDS RATIO -no incidence data -nested CC: inside of a cohort study -rare diseases, outbreak studies -looks at 1 outcome and infinite exposures -good when little is known about disease -cheap and fast -difficult to infer temporal relationship between exposure and disease Eras of Public Health - CORRECT ANSWER 1. battling epidemics (before 1850) 2. building state and local infrastructure 3. filling gaps in medical care delivery 4. preparing for and responding to community health threats. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) - CORRECT ANSWER Measure of the amount of oxygen consumed in the biological processes that break down organic matter in water BOD5 - CORRECT ANSWER amount of oxygen consumed in 5 days by biological processes breaking down organic matter. [Show Less]
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CPH Exam 90 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam 90 Questions with Verified Answers Host, agent and environment - CORRECT ANSWER The epidemiologic triangle (triad) describes the occurrence o... [Show More] f disease as an interaction between what three factors? -0.9 An odds ratio of -0.9 most strongly indicates a computational error because an odds ratio is calculated using probabilities, which cannot be negative. An odds ratio is the probability that an event will occur divided by the probability that it will not occur. Since probabilities cannot be negative, a negative odds ratio would indicate computational error. - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following estimates of an odds ratio most strongly suggests a computational error? 1) 7.8 2) 1.2 3) -0.9 4) 20.9 1) Of 100 people sampled from a population with the disease, the test will correctly detect 95 individuals as positive for the disease - CORRECT ANSWER The sensitivity of a particular screening test for a disease is 95%, and the specificity is 90%. Which of the following statements is correct? 1) Of 100 people sampled from a population with the disease, the test will correctly detect 95 individuals as positive for the disease 2) Of 100 people sampled from a population with the disease, the test will correctly detect 90 individuals as positive for the disease 3) If a person tests positive, the probability of having the disease is 0.95 4) If a person tests positive, the probability of having the disease is 0.90 4) Proportionate mortality ratio Proportionate mortality ratio is calculated as the number of deaths due to a specific disease within a population divided by the total number of deaths in the population. In this case, we would calculate the total number of deaths due to heart disease divided by the total number of deaths within the population of interest. - CORRECT ANSWER Which measure of mortality would you calculate to determine the proportion of all deaths that is caused by heart disease? 1) Case fatality ratio 2) Cause-specific mortality rate 3) Crude mortality rate 4) Proportionate mortality ratio *Case control*, also known as case-referent studies, estimate the magnitude of an association between and exposure and an outcome. In case control studies, subjects are selected because they have the outcome of interest. - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following best describes a study where exposure histories is collected from a group of persons with a specific disease and from a comparison group to determine the relative frequency of an exposure? 1) Clinical trial 2) Randomized controlled trial 3) Case-control 4) Cohort Product, price, place, and promotion - CORRECT ANSWER The four P's of public health marketing services include: 1) Take into account characteristics of the target population As defined by Kreuter and Wray, targeted communication is intended to reach a segment of the population that shares specific characteristics, while *tailored communication* is intended to reach a specific individual. Both strategies increase the effectiveness of interventions and are premised on acquiring in-depth familiarity with the audience before the message is created, tested, and disseminated. Otherwise, the message will be meaningless to the target population. - CORRECT ANSWER An appropriately tailored intervention message most importantly should: 1) Take into account characteristics of the target population 2) Be designed through community organizational strategies 3) Meet the criteria established by the funding agency 4) Be designed and tested by colleagues and experts in the field 1) indication of the best diagnostic and treatment practices based on the best available evidence. - CORRECT ANSWER The best use of clinical practice guidelines is as an: 1) indication of the best diagnostic and treatment practices based on the best available evidence. 2) enforceable standard of care against which deviations should be detected and corrected. 3) ideal therapy plan that should be supported in public health regulation and patient education. 4) information pamphlet for distribution in public health patient education programs. 1) To promote the agency and engage in advocacy - CORRECT ANSWER What is the role of public health agencies when communicating with external stakeholders? 1) To promote the agency and engage in advocacy 2) To promote favorable legislation 3) To provide STI tests and keep the public safe 4) To provide vaccinations 3) They provide strategic leadership in leading local and international solutions In an ever interconnected world where diseases have no borders, cutting edge public health research has to be disseminated with local stakeholders as well as international communities. * Please note leadership is a communication act. - CORRECT ANSWER 5.For the first time scientists in the United States conducted a longitudinal study that followed children with Zika for one year. They found that even children who appeared with no deformities at birth developed specific developmental delays. Which communication criteria do Zika scientists meet when they share their research findings with their communities and global constituencies? Select the BEST answer. 1) They practice transparency in advancing Zika research 2) They demonstrate beneficence, a core public health ethical principle 3) They provide strategic leadership in leading local and international solutions 4) They demonstrate their competence in Zika research 1.An analysis to justify and allocate resources In this scenario, you compared the programs and analyzed the data trends to justify and allocate resources to one program. - CORRECT ANSWER New to your leadership position, you realize that two of the programs you manage have similar functions, and work with the same population in the same area. Data trends over the past 5 years suggest that the health condition has improved significantly. You decide that only one program is needed to provide the necessary services to the community. This is an example of: 1.An analysis to justify and allocate resources 2.Applying a health equity and social justice lens 3.Strategic planning 4.Community Health Needs Assessment 40° - 140° F (4° - 60° C) - CORRECT ANSWER The "danger zone," in which bacteria multiply in food fast enough to become a hazard, is: Justice, beneficence, and respect for people Justice, beneficence, and respect for people are the three principles set forth in the 1979 Belmont Report. They serve as the cornerstone of current guidelines for ethical treatment of human subjects in research. Created by the former U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare (now the Department of Health and Human Services), the Belmont Report was entitled "Ethical Principles and Guidelines for the Protection of Human Subjects of Research" and is an important historical document in the field of medical ethics. Dated April 18, 1979, the document is named for the Belmont Conference Center, where it was drafted. - CORRECT ANSWER What are the three ethical principles outlined in the Belmont Report? 2. open attitudes and mutual respect CUSP tools support change at the unit level to create a *culture of safety* (AHRQ, 2018). This is more fundamental than checklists alone, although empowering all staff to participate in use of checklists also has been part of CUSP's success in reducing the incidence of preventable adverse patient outcomes. Studies have found that working in an environment where open and mutual communication is present enhances clinical proficiency and job satisfaction (O'Daniel and Rosenstein, 2008). Sentinel events are events so egregious that a single occurrence is prima facie evidence of medical error (e.g. wrong-site surgery); however, few such events have proven to be reliable indicators because many low-probability adverse outcomes are not entirely preventable despite all aspects of care being correctly done. https://www.americannursetoday.com/on-the-cusp-how-to-implement-a-comprehensive-unit-based-safety-program/ - CORRECT ANSWER A distinctive foundation of the Comprehensive Unit-based Safety Program (CUSP) developed at Johns Hopkins and promoted by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality creates a culture of safety by focusing on: 1. detecting and reporting sentinel events 2. open attitudes and mutual respect 3. using standardized checklists 4. assuring professional expertise 3. One Health Veterinary Public Health focuses on the intersection of humans and animals. Environmental health focuses on "the relationships between people and their environment; promotes human health and well-being; and fosters healthy and safe communities" (APHA, n.d.). Population health has been defined as "the health outcome of a group of individuals, including the distribution of such outcomes within the group" (CDC, 2018). On the other hand, *One Health* focuses on the interface of humans, the environment, and animals. http://www.onehealthinitiative.com/about.php - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following approaches recognize that health of people is interconnected with health of animals and environment; and collaborate with physicians, veterinarians, ecologists, epidemiologists, and other related healthcare providers to monitor and control public health threats and to learn about how diseases spread among people, animals, and the environment? 1.Veterinary Public Health 2.Environmental Health 3.One Health 4.Population Health Volume, velocity, variety, variability and veracity https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S1047279715000861 - CORRECT ANSWER "big data" is distinct from other data in terms of its: 3.personnel - CORRECT ANSWER Generally, the largest single component in most public health budgets, and therefore the one with which managers must be most familiar is: 1.computer software and hardware 2.pharmaceuticals 3.personnel 4.shortfalls 4.Results in plans that may be immediately necessary but may overlap or leave gaps Issel writes that though the incremental approach to program planning may address an immediate need (i.e.: closing bathhouses in the early days of HIV/AIDS epidemic) it may also leave gaps (i.e.: did not identify the virus). The incremental approach to program planning will address only part of the problem, may be the result of disjointed efforts and leave many factors unaccounted for. - CORRECT ANSWER An incremental approach to program planning in public health: 1.Uses multiple sources and methods to collect similar information 2.Provides an intensive, detailed description and analysis of a single project 3.Produces a plan where the specification of every step depends upon the results of previous steps 4.Results in plans that may be immediately necessary but may overlap or leave gaps Formative As per CDC, a Formative evaluation ensures that a program or program activity is feasible, appropriate, and acceptable before it is fully implemented. It is usually conducted when a new program or activity is being developed or when an existing one is being adapted or modified. NOT: Process, Outcome, Impact https://www.cdc.gov/std/Program/pupestd/Types%20of%20Evaluation.pdf • Process/implementation evaluation determines whether program activities have been implemented as intended. • Outcome/effectiveness evaluation measures program effects in the target population by assessing the progress in the outcomes or outcome objectives that the program is to achieve. • Impact evaluation assesses program effectiveness in achieving its ultimate goals. - CORRECT ANSWER A(n) *_________ evaluation* determines whether to expand a component of a current intervention 1. Donabedian's model is correct. Other frameworks have been developed, but the three-category model first proposed by Avedis Donabedian in 1966 has predominated. Some have modified this linear model to include four categories: input (also sometimes called structure), process (also sometimes called throughput), output and outcome. Other models have been proposed to address the criticism that a linear model may not capture all the complexities of interactions. https://www.nejm.org/doi/10.1056/NEJMp1605101 - CORRECT ANSWER The logic model that has been the dominant paradigm representing types of information that may be collected to draw inferences about quality of care provided by a healthcare system has been: 1. Donabedian's model 2. Shewart's PDCA 3. Theory of Change 4. Web of Causation 1. The least-squares method is one approach to determining the slope and intercept of the best-fitting line. Simple linear regression involves a dependent variable (y) and one or more independent variables (x 1 , x 2 , etc.). Regression analysis involves finding the "best" mathematical model (within some restricted class of models) to describe y as a function of the x's or to predict y from the x's. The regression line is the presentation of the regression equation. Residuals are used to determine the best-fitting line, and residuals are the difference between the observed and expected values along the regression line. A line satisfies the least-squares property if the sum of the squares of the residuals is the smallest sum possible. - CORRECT ANSWER In simple linear regression, what is a method of determining the slope and intercept of the best-fitting line? 1.Least squares 2.R-square 3.Minimum error 4.Likelihood error Birds (mosquitos are the vector) Surveillance programs for West Nile Virus include the reporting of dead birds in affected areas. A reservoir of an infectious agent, such as a virus, is any animal, person, plant, soil, substance—or combination of any of these — in which the infectious agent normally lives. In addition, the infectious agent must primarily depend on the reservoir for its survival, and must be able to multiply there. It is from the reservoir that the infectious substance is transmitted to a human or other susceptible host. The reservoir of an infectious agent is the habitat in which the agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies. Reservoirs include humans, animals, and the environment. The reservoir may or may not be the source from which an agent is transferred to a host. For example, the reservoir of Clostridium botulinum is soil, but the source of most botulism infections is improperly canned food containing C. botulinum spores. - CORRECT ANSWER What is the "reservoir host" for West Nile Virus? 1.develop a list of possible service venues and proposals to secure financial support, and present them to the Commissioner's office. Since the upper chain of state health command has ordered dental service closure, consultation with the Commissioner's office will be needed to assure compliance with legislative directives and fidelity to state health department policy. The likelihood of support from the state-level is greater if it is well-defined and sustainable options are presented. - CORRECT ANSWER In a state with a state-directed public health organization, the State Commissioner of Health has notified health districts to close health department dental programs in response to a state legislature vote to defund and discontinue health department dental services. The district health department has identified dental services as a leading community health need. To help assure continued access to services, the best first step is to: 1.develop a list of possible service venues and proposals to secure financial support, and present them to the Commissioner's office. 2.develop agreements with local providers or organizations for the provision of dental services. 3.Continue the dental program in-house at the local health department, since it was already financially sustainable and heavily utilized. 4.ensure implementation of contracts and other agreements with community partners to provide community dental services. Physician practice styles The small area variations in Medicare expenditure that are observed in the Dartmouth Atlas of Healthcare are attributable to differences in how physicians practice medicine. The Dartmouth Atlas of Healthcare found wide variations in the frequency that various medical care treatments occurred in different areas of the United States. Additional research has shown that these variations are likely not associated with differences in health status, patient age, or consumer preferences, but rather with the practice styles noted and with the supply of physicians in different areas. Research on small area variations has supported the development of clinical practice guidelines. - CORRECT ANSWER The Dartmouth Atlas of Healthcare demonstrates that small area variations in Medicare expenditures across geographic areas are primarily attributable to differences in: 1.value the policy dialogue process over its outcome. https://www.emeraldinsight.com/doi/abs/10.1108/IJHG-12-2017-0063 Biermann, O., Kuchenmüller, T., Panisset, U., & Leys, M. (2018). Policy dialogues: facilitators' perceived role and influence. International Journal of Health Governance, 23(2), 120-133. - CORRECT ANSWER Effective policy dialogue facilitators: 1.value the policy dialogue process over its outcome. 2.value an outcome over the policy dialogue process. 3.rarely engage in preparatory stages before panels meet. 4.moderate rather than interpose with questions. 2.Yes, there is no ethical violation in allowing a government employee to keep frequent flyer miles for personal use, but they cannot specify their own preferred airline for business travel. The frequent flyer miles and/or bonus miles awarded to an employee as a result of state-reimbursed travel may be used for personal use by the employee. - CORRECT ANSWER Can a state public health agency authorize its employees to use or donate frequent flyer miles for personal travel that were acquired during state business travel? 1.Yes, there is no ethical violation in allowing a government employee to keep frequent flyer miles for personal use or to specify their preferred airline for business travel. 2.Yes, there is no ethical violation in allowing a government employee to keep frequent flyer miles for personal use, but they cannot specify their own preferred airline for business travel. 3.No, this would violate the "de minimis" use of government resources so any frequent flyer miles acquired during business travel must be retained by the government agency. 4.No, this would violate several ethical constructs, so any participation in frequent flyer programs during government service must be prohibited. Summative Evaluation falls into one of two broad categories: formative and summative. Summative evaluations should be completed once your programs are well established and will tell you to what extent the program is achieving its goals. https://www.nsf.gov/pubs/2002/nsf02057/nsf02057.pdf https://www.cdc.gov/nccdphp/dch/programs/healthycommunitiesprogram/tools/pdf/eval_planning.pdf https://www.cdc.gov/healthcommunication/pdf/evaluationplanning.pdf - CORRECT ANSWER A __________ evaluation designed to present conclusions about whether a program should be sustained, changed, or eliminated? 4.a formal review of communication strategy is indicated. Effectiveness of communication strategies should be conducted, gaps identified and corrected. Google Analytics, for example, can be helpful to evaluate the frequency, duration, number of pages viewed, and domains from which a website has been visited. Surveys of target audiences, as well as focus groups, can help to understand linguistic and format preferences, as well as other influences on individual's perceptions. Here, there is enough information to detect a problem but not enough to diagnose its root cause(s). - CORRECT ANSWER Enrollment for a new public information session advertised exclusively through the agency's website was much lower than expected. A small quick survey of the target audience found that very few remember seeing the ad. This suggests that: 1.an agency website redesign is indicated 2.the ad is not motivating those who read it. 3.websites are not the best way to reach this audience. 4.a formal review of communication strategy is indicated. 2.Fisher's exact test Fisher's exact test is often used to test for association between two categorical variables when there are small cell counts (viz. expected cell counts are less than or equal to 5) in a table. Links http://doi.org/10.5395/rde.2017.42.2.152 http://ocw.jhsph.edu/index.cfm/go/viewCourse/course/methodsinbiostatisticsii/coursePage/index/ References Field, A. (2009). Discovering Statistics Using SPSS. London, UK: SagePublications. Kim, H.-Y. (2017). Statistical notes for clinical researchers: Chi-squared test and Fisher's exact test. Restorative Dentistry & Endodontics, 42(2), 152-155. http://doi.org/10.5395/rde.2017.42.2.152 Caffo, B. (2006). Lecture Number 21: Fisher's Exact Tests, Chi-Squared Tests. Retrieved from: Methods in Biostatistics II, Johns Hopkins School of Public Health Open Courseware website: http://ocw.jhsph.edu/index.cfm/go/viewCourse/course/methodsinbiostatisticsii/coursePage/index/ - CORRECT ANSWER An investigator would like to assess the association between two categorical variables, but the expected value of at least one cell was less than five. Which statistical test would be most appropriate in this situation? 1.Scheffe's test 2.Fisher's exact test 3.McNemar's test 4.Student t-test 1.Nominal Nominal variable are categorical without an inherent order. https://stats.idre.ucla.edu/other/mult-pkg/whatstat/what-is-the-difference-between-categorical-ordinal-and-interval-variables/ - CORRECT ANSWER In a randomized trial where infants are assigned to receive one of two types of feeding formulas (soy-based or cow's milk formula), formula-type is measured using which measurement scale? 1.Nominal 2.Ordinal 3.Interval 4.Ratio 2.Cryptosporidium (causes Cryptosporidiosis) Protozoa of the genus Cryptosporidium are highly resistant to chlorine disinfection, and are responsible for numerous and increasing waterborne disease outbreaks. The largest waterborne disease outbreak in US history, which occurred in Milwaukee, Wisconsin in 1993, was caused by contamination of the city's drinking water with this organism; over 400,000 residents became ill. Contact with contaminated recreational waters, such as in swimming pools, is a particularly common source of exposure. Giardia is another chlorine-resistant parasite, but it has not been associated with large-scale outbreaks. https://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJM199410133311527 https://www.cdc.gov/parasites/crypto/index.html - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following water-borne disease organisms is very difficult to kill by chemical disinfection of drinking and/or recreational water supply systems and has caused major US disease outbreaks? 1.Vibrio cholerae (causes cholera) 2.Cryptosporidium (causes Cryptosporidiosis) 3.Giardia lamblia (causes Giardiasis) 4.Escherichia coli (causes acute gastroenteritis) 2.Sample mean is approximately normally distributed. The Central Limit Theorem states that if sample size is large enough, then distribution of the sample means can be approximated by a normal distribution, even if the original population is not normally distributed. In other words, the distribution of the sample means approaches a normal distribution as the sample size increases. - CORRECT ANSWER The Central Limit Theorem states that the: 1.Sample mean statistic is not always an unbiased estimator. 2.Sample mean is approximately normally distributed. 3.Population from which a sample is drawn is normally distributed. 4.Population standard deviation is approximately normal. 4.Including diverse constituencies in the decision-making groups Allocating resources based simply on population size may not target resources to the most needy populations or issues in a community, nor will it guarantee an improvement in equity. Collecting data is important and can be useful in the policy process. However, collecting data alone without interpreting the data and having a diversity of stakeholders weigh in on how the results will be used to make health policy decisions that impact the community will not enhance equity. Finally, it is important to frame questions that need evidence and then select the most appropriate type of evidence rather than accept only randomized controlled trials. Having diverse constituencies at the table during decision-making is the correct answer as acknowledging and incorporating different viewpoints will enhance equity in health policy decisions. Reference: "Social Policy, Public Policy: From Problem to Practice by Meredith Edwards with Cosmo Howard & Robin Miller, 2001. Allen & Unwin. https://www.healthaffairs.org/do/10.1377/hblog20170522.060211/full/ - CORRECT ANSWER Which of the following practices enhances equity across populations when making health policy decisions in a community? 1.Requiring randomized control evidence of effectiveness 2.Allocating resources based on population size 3.Collecting health-related data about the individuals in the community 4.Including diverse constituencies in the decision-making groups 2.The Belmont Report The US PHS were found to be in violation of various ethical considerations: the participants were deceived about the rationale and process of the study; there was no informed consent; treatment was withheld. The study went on for 40 years, when these egregious actions were brought to light. In response to this, the National Research Act of 1974 and the Belmont Report which identifies basic ethical principles that should underlie human subjects research. https://www.cdc.gov/tuskegee/timeline.htm - CORRECT ANSWER To learn more about the "natural course" of syphilis, from 1932-1972, the US Public Health Service left infected study participants (comprised of poor black men) untreated. This resulted in pain, blindness, infertility, and death, as well as transmission of the disease to partners and children. The Tuskegee Syphilis Study, is a sentinel public health event because of these ethical violations and resulted in: 1.The Nuremberg Code 2.The Belmont Report 3.Rose-Welch Report 4.The Legal Epidemiology Competency Model 3.Heterosexual male-female intercourse The general pattern of transmission began through homosexual male-male intercourse, then spread through shared needles in unsafe injection drug abuse, and heterosexual male-female intercourse. Encouragement of safe sex practices, provision of harm reduction safe injection site programs and development of anti-retroviral therapies effective at suppressing viral loads all play a role in curtailing the spread of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Public health interventions must adapt to changing demographics and epidemiology during challenges like this. http://hivinsite.ucsf.edu/InSite?page=kb-01-03 - CORRECT ANSWER Over the history of the HIV infection pandemic, in its initial phase, transmission in populations started with a sharp rise through homosexual male-male intercourse and in its late phase the steepest rise tended to be through: 1.Homosexual male-male intercourse 2.Homosexual female-female intercourse 3.Heterosexual male-female intercourse 4.Transfusion of contaminated blood 1) Subject a proposed major project or action to a comprehensive environmental review study Before the National Environmental Policy Act, there was no requirement for a systematic study of the environmental effects of a proposed project. Thus, projects could be executed with little or no regard to the environmental effects. Poor environmental stewardship was apparent in many cases, for example, in disposal of hazardous waste and groundwater contamination. The significant environmental movement of the 1960s pressured Congress to pass the National Environmental Policy Act to promote developments that are in harmony with environmental protection. This approach is executed by ensuring that the environmental effects of a proposed major Federal action or project are studied, understood, and mitigated as much as possible and that better alternatives to a proposed project are preferred. - CORRECT ANSWER The objective of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and its equivalent at the State level is to: 1) Subject a proposed major project or action to a comprehensive environmental review study 2) Ensure that an important industrial project or action is constructed 3) Ensure that the environment is protected at all cost 4) Achieve sustainable development while relieving communities concerns Justice, beneficence, and respect for people Justice, beneficence, and respect for people are the three principles set forth in the 1979 Belmont Report. They serve as the cornerstone of current guidelines for ethical treatment of human subjects in research. Created by the former U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare (now the Department of Health and Human Services), the Belmont Report was entitled "Ethical Principles and Guidelines for the Protection of Human Subjects of Research" and is an important historical document in the field of medical ethics. Dated April 18, 1979, the document is named for the Belmont Conference Center, where it was drafted. - CORRECT ANSWER What are the three ethical principles outlined in the Belmont Report? Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB) and Theory of Reasoned Action (TRA) are theories that both focus on the relationship between behavior and beliefs, attitudes, and intentions. However, TPB includes one additional construct, *perceived behavior control*, which describes the belief individuals have about controlling a particular behavior. See pg 18 here: https://cancercontrol.cancer.gov/brp/research/theories_project/theory.pdf - CORRECT ANSWER The Theory of Planned Behavior was built on the Theory of Reasoned Action. Which component was added? 2.Behavioral intention [Show Less]
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CPH Exam 233 Questions with Verified Answers ,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam 233 Questions with Verified Answers Which of the following terms refers to the systematic method by which environmental exposure to a substa... [Show More] nce is quantified using information about the hazardous properties of the substance, human exposure to the substance, dose-response relationships, and risk characterization? A risk management B risk assessment C risk communication D risk control - CORRECT ANSWER risk assessment A state health department is trying to reduce the HIV/AIDS risk for African Americans age 50 years and older. Which of the following communication strategies is most important to serve this community? A Ensure the information is evidence-based. B Make the information available on social media. C Write the information at a 12th grade reading level. D Present the information in a culturally competent manner. - CORRECT ANSWER D Present the information in a culturally competent manner. Researchers want to present the comparative distribution of office visits in the three communities in one figure. Which of the following displays is most appropriate? A pie chart B bar graph C histogram D stem and leaf plot - CORRECT ANSWER B bar graph A public health worker is charged with investigating family violence in a community of nearly 1 million residents. The worker uses principles of systems theory in her approach. She incorporates individuals, groups, and their environments. Which of the following terms best describes this concept? A community psychology B demography C ethnobiology D social ecology - CORRECT ANSWER D social ecology Which of the following organizations accredits local public health departments? A American Public Health Association B Centers for Disease Control and Prevention C Public Health Accreditation Board D state licensing boards - CORRECT ANSWER C Public Health Accreditation Board Vaccination against polio provides lifelong protection, whereas influenza vaccines have to be administered each year. Which of the following statements best explains this difference in vaccine action? A Influenza vaccines are prepared from killed viruses, but polio vaccines are prepared from live, attenuated viruses. B Influenza vaccines have to be administered by injection, but the oral polio vaccine can be ingested. C Influenza viruses mutate at a much higher rate than poliovirus. D Poliovirus can only cause disease in humans, whereas influenza viruses can infect other species. - CORRECT ANSWER C Influenza viruses mutate at a much higher rate than poliovirus. A multi-state regional coalition is in place to identify successful state-level strategies for enhancing health care and other community services for children with special health needs. The coalition membership currently includes health care professionals and representatives from state departments of public health, housing, education, Medicaid, and social services. There is one remaining open seat. Which of the following representatives is most appropriate to fill the open slot? A a principal from one of the region's elementary schools B a member of a parent advocacy group C a pediatric cardiologist D a pharmacist - CORRECT ANSWER B a member of a parent advocacy group What percentage of all spending on health in the United States is devoted to public health funding? A 3% B 11% C 28% D 52% - CORRECT ANSWER A 3% Which of the following United States federal laws prohibits a public health practitioner from sharing individually identifiable health information stored on public health department computer systems? A Occupational Safety and Health Act B American Health Security Act C Health Communications Act D Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act - CORRECT ANSWER D Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act The theory of reasoned action is a model of health behavior targeted at which of the following levels? A community B global C individual D organizational - CORRECT ANSWER C individual Which of the following historical events raised awareness of the need for the protection of research subjects and resulted in the 1947 creation of the International Code of Ethics for research? A Nazi human experimentation B Willowbrook hepatitis studies C publication of the Belmont Report D Tuskegee Syphilis Study - CORRECT ANSWER A Nazi human experimentation Literacy advocates in the U.S. recommend that for health promotion materials to be effective, they should be written at which of the following reading levels? A 2nd-4th grades B 6th-8th grades C 10th-12th grades D college level - CORRECT ANSWER B 6th-8th grades The management of a health care facility requires staff to adhere to ethical principles and provide culturally appropriate care. The institutionalization of these values is most likely to influence which of the following aspects of health care provided by this facility? A acceptability B accessibility C accountability D adequacy - CORRECT ANSWER A acceptability Researchers are seeking a spokesperson for a health communication campaign to promote breast cancer screening for low-income women. To ensure the strongest effect of the campaign on the target group, the researcher should select a spokesperson who shares which of the following characteristics with the target group? A personal attitudes B ethnic background C level of knowledge D socioeconomic status - CORRECT ANSWER A personal attitudes A researcher is calculating the infant mortality rate of several states. Which of the following methods is most appropriate to use during this analysis to adjust for racial differences in infant mortality rates among the states? A logistic regression B direct standardization C life table analysis D linear regression - CORRECT ANSWER B direct standardization Researchers ask a random sample of 1,001 adults nationwide whether they favor or oppose the legalization of marijuana. Fifty-five percent of respondents say they oppose it. If the researchers increase the sample size of the poll by a factor of 4 (to n=4,004), which of the following effects on the length of the 95% confidence interval for the proportion is most likely to be observed? A It will decrease by a factor of 4. B It will decrease by a factor of 2. C It will increase by a factor of 2. D It will increase by a factor of 4. - CORRECT ANSWER B It will decrease by a factor of 2. When a public health issue emerges for which there is no "evidence base" to suggest a response strategy, which of the following actions on the part of a public health professional is most appropriate? A Defer action on the issue until further information about the appropriate intervention is available. B Dismiss the issue because there is insufficient evidence to make an informed decision. C Implement several different strategies at once to assess which is most effective. D Invest in data collection and community-based research to build a more thorough understanding of the issue. - CORRECT ANSWER D Invest in data collection and community-based research to build a more thorough understanding of the issue. When considering culture in research and practice, which of the following reflects best practice? A treating members of all cultural groups in the same way B engaging culturally diverse advocacy leaders in the community C recognizing that cultural uniformity is necessary for effective health intervention delivery D helping members in the community more easily fit into the mainstream culture to increase a sense of belonging - CORRECT ANSWER B engaging culturally diverse advocacy leaders in the community Most funding for nursing home care in the United States comes from which of the following sources? A Medicaid B Medicare C out-of-pocket D private insurance - CORRECT ANSWER A Medicaid n addition to ozone and particulates, which of the following pollutants is most likely to aggravate asthma? A arsenic B carbon monoxide C lead D sulfur dioxide - CORRECT ANSWER D sulfur dioxide A needs assessment process identifies several behavioral and environmental factors on which the intervention could potentially focus. However, to keep the project on budget, the scope of the intervention must be limited. Which of the following criteria is most appropriate to consider when deciding on which behavioral and environmental factors to focus the intervention? A compliance with guidance from the project's sponsor B what is feasible within the project budget C the specific research interests of the planning team members D the strength of the evidence that the desired changes can be achieved - CORRECT ANSWER D the strength of the evidence that the desired changes can be achieved A supplemental tax levy supporting a local health department has just failed and the impact will be a loss of tax revenues of $300,000 a month, beginning the following month and lasting at least 5 months. The health commissioner must quickly formulate an emergency plan. Which action is most likely to advance the commissioner's success as a leader in this crisis? A Direct the Chief Financial Officer to impose fair and proportional cuts on each division. B Adopt a positive attitude, and announce to the directors a plan to evenly distribute the budget cuts across the entire organization. C Express dissatisfaction with the electorate, and direct the Chief Financial Officer to impose fair and proportional budget cuts on each division. D Meet with all the directors to prioritize the possible operational changes that would result in cost reductions. - CORRECT ANSWER D Meet with all the directors to prioritize the possible operational changes that would result in cost reductions. A local health department establishes a program with community outreach and clinical components that is intended to reduce the number of drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. A measure of the program's outcomes is the number of A clinical visits for drug-resistant tuberculosis. B community education sessions. C drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. D patients receiving follow-up care for drug-resistant tuberculosis. - CORRECT ANSWER C drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. Variation in rates of medical procedures by race, even when controlling for insurance status, income, age, and severity of conditions, is an example of A health disparity. B racism. C inadequate access to health care. D a high rate of uninsured individuals. - CORRECT ANSWER A health disparity. A group uses problem solving to reconcile underlying differences and create a win-win situation for the mutual benefit of all parties. This approach exemplifies which of the following styles of conflict management? A accommodating B avoiding C collaborating D compromising - CORRECT ANSWER C collaborating Which of the following types of leadership would be most helpful in an organization experiencing rapid change? A servant B Theory X C contingency D transactional - CORRECT ANSWER C contingency A health services researcher is studying a new influenza vaccination to determine whether it should be recommended for all senior citizens. Which of the following vaccination attributes is most appropriate to evaluate first in the process of assessing the new vaccination? A cost-benefit B effectiveness C efficacy D efficiency - CORRECT ANSWER C efficacy Which of the following methods is most appropriate for collecting data from stakeholders for a community-based intervention? A conducting a mail survey B conducting a telephone survey C holding key informant interviews D reading the blogs of community members - CORRECT ANSWER C holding key informant interviews Diversity of the workforce is considered important in health care research, education, and administration for which of the following reasons? A It increases efficiency. B It improves health literacy. C It decreases work-related stress. D It demonstrates institutional commitment. - CORRECT ANSWER D It demonstrates institutional commitment. Which of the following most accurately describes an organizational design that applies to independent units that are joined by a shared administrative overlay, such as a county government? A adhocracy B machine bureaucracy C professional bureaucracy D divisionalized bureaucracy - CORRECT ANSWER D divisionalized bureaucracy Which of the following is a characteristic of a health care system based on social justice? A Access to medical care is viewed as an economic reward of personal effort and achievement. B Production and distribution of health care are determined by market-based demand. C An individual's ability to pay is considered inconsequential for receiving medical care. D Markets are assumed to be more efficient than government at allocating health resources equitably. - CORRECT ANSWER C An individual's ability to pay is considered inconsequential for receiving medical care. Approximately how many local health departments are there in the United States? A 890 B 3,000 C 10,600 D 59,000 - CORRECT ANSWER B 3,000 A federal law is passed requiring labeling on food products. In subsequent years, the rate of obesity among adults decreases. Which of the following terms best describes the relationship between the law and the change in obesity rates? A causal B correlated C retrospective D prospective - CORRECT ANSWER B correlated A 22-year-old Latina woman brings her 13-month-old daughter to a health department clinic for routine well-child care. Both are enrolled in the Medicaid program. They live in an inner-city apartment building that the mother describes as "old and run down." The infant's diet consists of table foods; the principal protein sources are eggs, peanut butter, cheese, and canned tuna. Screening of the infant for which of the following conditions is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? A allergies and asthma B pesticide exposure C elevated blood lead concentration D mercury poisoning - CORRECT ANSWER C elevated blood lead concentration To ensure successful collaboration and partnership, as well as effective use of resources, a public health professional needs to identify key stakeholders in a new project. Which of the following will determine if an organization is truly one of the key stakeholders for this initiative? A The organization regulates the public health professional's work. B The organization previously partnered with the public health professional. C The public health professional's relationship with the organization is static. D The public health professional can clearly identify what is needed from the organization. - CORRECT ANSWER D The public health professional can clearly identify what is needed from the organization. At a town hall meeting, several residents of a community of 10,000 raise concern about plans to build a new chemical treatment plant within walking distance of local schools, day-care centers, and parks. The community needs a new treatment plant, but the residents' concerns about the environmental effect of the plant need to be addressed. The local health department is charged with developing a method whereby citizens can provide information about concerns and recommend alternative strategies. Which of the following is the most effective method of gathering this information? A Conduct telephone interviews with residents. B Schedule face-to-face interviews with residents. C Mail surveys to a random selection of households. D Organize focus groups with representatives from the community. - CORRECT ANSWER D Organize focus groups with representatives from the community. A study is conducted to compare colorectal screening rates in white and African-American men. Researchers contact 50 white men and 50 African-American men older than 50 years of age by telephone and ask them if they have undergone colorectal screening. Fifty-five percent of white men and 49% of African-American men report undergoing appropriate screening. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate method of analysis of the survey data? A paired t-test B Pearson chi-square (X2) test C two-sample t-test D Spearman correlation test - CORRECT ANSWER B Pearson chi-square (X2) test On the basis of the present evidence, the greatest reduction in injuries and death related to motor vehicles in the United States is most likely to be a result of which of the following? A increase in law enforcement and highway patrol officers B stricter motor vehicle inspection laws C modifications to vehicles and highway systems D stiffer penalties for drunk drivers and repeat speeders - CORRECT ANSWER C modifications to vehicles and highway systems The classic study by Schulman on the effect of race and sex on physicians' recommendations for cardiac care used a standardized computer program to measure primary care physicians' treatment plans for patients with chest pain. The investigators videotaped interviews of identically dressed actors reading from identical scripts and standardized other variables (age, cardiac risk factors, medical and social histories, health insurance, and employment) to vary only two factors — gender and race. The actors included African Americans and whites of both genders. Which of the following statements best summarizes the results of this study? A African Americans and women with chest pain had relative odds of referral for cardiac catheterization that were 60% of the odds for whites and men, and the relative odds of referral for African Americans were 40% of those for white men. B African Americans and women with chest pain had relative odds of referral for catheterization that were actually higher than those for whites and men, respectively. C African Americans with chest pain had the same relative odds of referral for catheterization as whites; however, women with chest pain had relative odds of referral that were 20% of those for men. D Women with chest pain had the same relative odds of referral for catheterization as men; however, African Americans with chest pain had odds that were 60% of the odds for whites. - CORRECT ANSWER A African Americans and women with chest pain had relative odds of referral for cardiac catheterization that were 60% of the odds for whites and men, and the relative odds of referral for African Americans were 40% of those for white men. Which of the following is a modeling and simulation tool used to investigate stocks, flows, and feedback loops of complex problems? A interactive planning B operations research C organizational cybernetics D system dynamics - CORRECT ANSWER D system dynamics A health department is designing a web-based health promotion intervention. Which of the following issues is most important with regard to effective communication of this health information to the community? A the health literacy of the target population B the diagrams and visual aids associated with the promotion materials C the color and size of the health promotion materials D the organization of the health promotion materials - CORRECT ANSWER A the health literacy of the target population The introduction of sewage into a stream is most likely to cause a measurable change in which of the following ways? A decrease in decomposing organic concentration B increase in biochemical oxygen demand C increase in dissolved oxygen concentration D stabilization of biochemical oxygen demand - CORRECT ANSWER B increase in biochemical oxygen demand Which of the following terms describes the process of working with and through groups of people in partnerships and coalitions that help mobilize resources and influence systems to address their wellbeing? A collaboration B community action C community engagement D constituency development - CORRECT ANSWER C community engagement Which of the following is the most important limitation in the use of vital statistics data for public health research? A Births and deaths that occur outside of institutions are not recorded. B Data collected vary substantially from state to state. C Data files are not readily available to people collecting data outside the agency. D Variables of research interest may not be collected. - CORRECT ANSWER D Variables of research interest may not be collected. The association between disease status and exposure for a sample from a population is as follows: ExposedNot ExposedTotal Diseased 50 400 450 Not diseased 50 5,000. 5,050 Total 100. 5,400 5,500 Which of the following is the estimated ratio of the odds of disease in the exposed versus unexposed groups? A (50 / 450) ÷ (50 / 5,050) B (50 / 50) ÷ (400 / 5,000) C (50 / 5,050) ÷ (50 / 450) D (400 / 5,400) ÷ (50 / 100) - CORRECT ANSWER B (50 / 50) ÷ (400 / 5,000) The probability associated with specific results when the null hypothesis is true is expressed by A the p-value. Ba type II error. C the sampling distribution. D conditional independence. - CORRECT ANSWER A the p-value. Which of the following terms best describes the power of a local jurisdiction to independently regulate public health, safety, and welfare? A unionism B home rule C preemption D self-administration - CORRECT ANSWER B home rule Community public health goals and objectives are best developed by which of the following? A elected officials who are accountable to the public B public health professionals who have access to data trends C medical professionals who treat members of the community D members of the community who understand community needs - CORRECT ANSWER D members of the community who understand community needs According to the transtheoretical model of change, as individuals go from pre-contemplation to maintenance, "con" behavioral beliefs decrease and "pro" behavioral beliefs increase. This process is best described as which of the following? A decisional balance B self-liberation C reinforcement management D self-efficacy - CORRECT ANSWER A decisional balance The best example of community engagement and empowerment refers to which of the following? 1. Teaching community members how to best communicate with providers 2. Conducting health needs and assets assessment with communities and sharing the information 3. Teaching self-determination to community members 4.Reciprocal transfer of knowledge and skills among all collaborators and community partners - CORRECT ANSWER Reciprocal transfer of knowledge and skills among all collaborators and community partners By what programmatic mechanism does the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) work with states to implement national environmental standards such as NAAQS? 1.By creating a memorandum of understanding focusing on cost-sharing of environmental burdens 2.By establishing air quality monitoring stations 3.By using a State Implementation Plan (SIP) approved by the EPA 4.By funding risk assessment studies that provide a basis for the NAAQS for any criterion pollutan - CORRECT ANSWER 3.By using a State Implementation Plan (SIP) approved by the EPA A supervisor of a small community health clinic serving a largely multi-national immigrant community assigns their project manager the responsibility of developing a new process to ensure complaints and conflicts are addressed promptly and respectfully for each patient. This is prompted by a recent complaint that a staff member was rudely addressing a limited English-speaking patient and her family when trying to communicate a diagnosis. In order to create a new process that takes into account the cultural and communication needs of the patients, the program manager must: 1. Create a new conflict process based solely on examples from other clinics. 2. Select a group of patients to provide input on how complaints should be resolved. 3. Wait until a new complaint occurs to observe the existing process. 4. Ask their coworkers how they personally deal with complaints and conflicts in the office. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Select a group of patients to provide input on how complaints should be resolved. An individual's capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services needed to make basic health decisions is called: 1.Medical informatics 2.Health literacy 3.Health education 4.Numeracy - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Health literacy Administrative law judges, who adjudicate conflicts involving the decision-making of units of government agencies: 1. have at the federal and state level full judicial power, like all trial judges. 2. are elected as non-partisan candidates within congressional districts. 3. ensure compliance with constitutional requirements of due process. 4. are in all respects the same as "hearing officers" within government agencies. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. ensure compliance with constitutional requirements of due process. To inform a policy decision so that an intervention will result in the largest possible number of persons benefitted, which of the following statistics provides the most useful indication of the magnitude of exposure to a factor and subsequent development of disease? 1. Likelihood ratio 2. Absolute risk difference 3. Relative risk ratio 4. Prevalence rate - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Absolute risk difference A district health department is trying to decide whether to invest in interpretation services and translated materials to address local language barriers, address needs of limited English proficient (LEP) clients and meet Federal requirements. The Four Factor Analysis-to guide LHDs in meeting these mandates and to provide recommendations for providing translated materials and interpretation services- is part of a 1.National Standards for Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) Assessment 2.Language Needs Assessment 3.Health Resource Access Assessment 4.Community Literacy Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER 2.Language Needs Assessment Which of the following is the best example of a process evaluation for a program designed to decrease mortality from drinking and driving among high school youth? 1.Document change in mortality associated with drinking and driving 2.Document change in numbers of youth riding with impaired drivers 3.Document risks of riding with impaired drivers 4.Document number of students who attend a drinking and driving education program - CORRECT ANSWER 4.Document number of students who attend a drinking and driving education program In part due to the public attention focused on environmental pollution by Rachel Carson's book "Silent Spring," as well as studies such as those showing a drastic decline in the American Bald Eagle population, a ban was issued on the use of: 1. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) refrigerant gases 2. Leaded gasoline 3. DDT pesticide 4. Asbestos insulation materials - CORRECT ANSWER 3. DDT pesticide River water pollution due to storm water runoff from chemically fertilized farm fields is an example of: 1. Non-point source pollution 2. Point source pollution 3. Accidental and unforeseeable pollution 4.Unpreventable and inconsequential pollution - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Non-point source pollution Public health agencies should be aware of how to communicate the role of public health with external stakeholders. What is the role of public health agencies when communicating with external stakeholders? 1. To promote the agency and engage in advocacy 2. To promote favorable legislation 3. To provide STI tests and keep the public safe 4. To provide vaccinations - CORRECT ANSWER 1. To promote the agency and engage in advocacy Healthcare facilities share patient data through Health Information Exchange networks. Which of the following pairs address the definition of a covered entity among data recipients, and procedures for creating public use data sets de-identified of personal health information? 1. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and Safe Harbor conventions 2. Affordable Care Act (ACA) and Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) 3. Safe Harbor conventions and the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) 4. Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) and Affordable Care Act (ACA) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and Safe Harbor conventions Public health departments can use health profession students (eg. medicine, nursing, other allied health specialties) in projects to assess community health needs: 1. if those students are formally employed by that health department under a national fellowship program that puts selected applicants into mentorship placements. 2. provided the students interview but do not take clinical measurements or samples from individuals. 3. when supervised by their clinical instructors in actions within the scope of that profession's practice. 4. but this is not often done because the health department would be responsible for all supervision and liability. - CORRECT ANSWER 3. when supervised by their clinical instructors in actions within the scope of that profession's practice. Select the qualitative method that collects data through a simultaneous conversation with a group of people. 1. key informant interviews 2. discourse analysis 3. surveys 4. focus groups - CORRECT ANSWER 4. focus groups Which of the following practices enhances equity across populations when making health policy decisions in a community? 1. Requiring randomized control evidence of effectiveness 2. Allocating resources based on population size 3. Collecting health-related data about the individuals in the community 4. Including diverse constituencies in the decision-making groups - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Including diverse constituencies in the decision-making groups Which of the following level of evidence is at the top of the evidence pyramid that examines a number of relevant and valid studies on a topic, and combines results from those studies using accepted statistical methodology? 1.Cohort studies 2.Randomized controlled double-blind studies 3.Case control studies 4.Systematic Reviews and Meta-analysis - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Case control studies Public health actions frequently involve a balancing of individual rights vs. the good of the community. Where that balance is struck is based on: 1. Explicit direction found in the Nation's Constitution 2. Societal values 3. Science 4. Deontological principles - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Societal values The biggest change in competencies for public health career professionals circa 2019 is 1.an increased emphasis in epidemiology and biostatistics course hours for entry to practice 2.more emphasis on 'soft' skills for leading teams and on integration across technical skills 3.separate lists of competency items for public health analysts versus program managers 4.a stronger focus on management and fiscal oversight - CORRECT ANSWER 2.more emphasis on 'soft' skills for leading teams and on integration across technical skills A public health survey that collects data on the health and diet of the U.S. population is the: 1.National Health Care Survey (NHCS). 2.Total Diet Study (TDS). 3.National Health Interview Survey (NHIS). 4.National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES). - CORRECT ANSWER 4.National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES). The local health jurisdiction is seeking governmental funding to address breast cancer which has a lower incidence rate in group X than in group Y, though group X has a higher mortality rate. This is an example of: 1.Health disparity 2.Harm reduction 3.Modifiable risk factors 4.Life expectancy - CORRECT ANSWER 1.Health disparity The most important reason for reduced mortality during the initial stage of a demographic/epidemiologic transition in a population is: 1.Increased use of antibiotics 2.Improved sanitation 3.Increased immunization 4.Screening for common infectious diseases - CORRECT ANSWER 2.Improved sanitation Which of the following is not a disease that can be contracted by the food-borne route? 1.Salmonellosis 2.Giardiasis 3.West Nile virus neuro-invasive disease 4.Hepatitis A - CORRECT ANSWER 3.West Nile virus neuro-invasive disease Ethical standards apply to government officers and employees. For such individuals, these standards apply: 1.only during their normal working hours. 2.just when performing official duties regardless of time. 3.when they identify themselves with their official title. 4.at all times, whether they are on or off duty. - CORRECT ANSWER 4.at all times, whether they are on or off duty. In the funding applications that state public health departments typically submit every year, program and organizational budget requests: 1.are not included, only research project funding is described. 2.are justified by reasonable numbers on accounting spreadsheets. 3.need explanation in a budget narrative. 4.tend to always be funded. - CORRECT ANSWER 3.need explanation in a budget narrative. Which of the following is defined as a community's ability to survive, adapt and thrive? 1.Community capital 2.Community development 3.Community organization 4.Community capacity - CORRECT ANSWER 4.Community capacity After reviewing evidence demonstrating increased survival of narcotic self-overdose after immediate naloxone administration, the State Commissioner of Health issues the following standing order: "This order authorizes pharmacists who maintain a current active license practicing in a pharmacy located in Virginia that maintains a current active pharmacy permit to dispense one of the following naloxone formulations (notes intranasal or autoinject kits options), in accordance the current Board of Pharmacy-approved protocol." "The State Good Samaritan Act states in part that any person who, in good faith prescribes, dispenses, or administers naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal in an emergency to an individual who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opiate overdose shall not be liable for any civil damages for ordinary negligence in acts or omissions resulting from the rendering of such treatment if acting in accordance with the Good Samaritan Act or in his role as a member of an emergency medical services agency." This order demonstrates: 1.Secondary Prevention and Harm Prevention Strategy 2.Secondary Prevention and Harm Reduction Strategy 3.Tertiary Prevention and Harm Reduction Strategy 4.Tertiary Prevention and Harm Prevention Strategy - CORRECT ANSWER 3.Tertiary Prevention and Harm Reduction Strategy Which of the following survey items best assesses an individual's socioeconomic status in terms of increasing validity and response rate? 1.Income in the past month 2.Highest level of education attained 3.Eligibility for public assistance 4.Perception of economic insecurity - CORRECT ANSWER 4.Perception of economic insecurity In the planning process, the group being served is referred to as the: 1.Pilot population 2.Key informants 3.General population 4.Priority population - CORRECT ANSWER 4.Priority population As identified in the seminal 1988 Institute of Medicine report on the future of public health, which of the following is not one of the three core functions of the roles and responsibilities of public health agencies? 1.Assessment 2.Financial performance management 3.Policy development 4.Assurance - CORRECT ANSWER 2.Financial performance management Safe Harbor provisions are intended to protect patient privacy by defining: 1.the covered entities with which patient data may be shared. 2.which data elements to remove to create de-identified data sets. 3.encryption protocols and Internet routes for transmitting data. 4.data use agreement provisions for sharing confidential data sets. - CORRECT ANSWER 2.which data elements to remove to create de-identified data sets. Which of the following is the least acceptable method for making drinking water available in an emergency situation? 1.Using a tank truck to deliver water from a potable source 2.Using a community tap connected to a potable source 3.Pumping water from an uncontaminated aquifer 4.Pumping water directly from a river - CORRECT ANSWER 4.Pumping water directly from a river Can federal environmental laws allow States to make parallel environmental laws? 1.Yes, if more stringent than federal standards 2.Yes, if less stringent than federal standards 3.Yes, if no less stringent than federal standards 4.No, states may not make their own environmental laws where federal laws exist - CORRECT ANSWER 3.Yes, if no less stringent than federal standards A research study with a statistical power of 60% and alpha is set at 0.05 reports finding no statistically significant difference (p=0.11). To interpret the findings of this study, if a true difference really exists then there is: 1.An 89% probability that it would be detected. 2.A 60% probability that it would be detected. 3.A 40% probability that it would be detected. 4.An 11% probability that it would be detected. - CORRECT ANSWER 2.A 60% probability that it would be detected. A management/leadership theory which posits that when staff are able to grow and develop staff performance results are better, is an example of: 1.Situational Leadership Theory 2.Douglas McGregor Theory Y 3.Contingency Leadership Theory (CLT) 4.Path-goal Theory - CORRECT ANSWER 2.Douglas McGregor Theory Y [Show Less]
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CPH Exam 230 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam 230 Questions with Verified Answers When are suitability requirements not applicable? - CORRECT ANSWER For brokers who do not provide invest... [Show More] ment advice or operate as a separate legal entity How is a new product approved? - CORRECT ANSWER After review from the New product Committee What are the ethical principles for a code of ethics? - CORRECT ANSWER Trust, integrity, justice, fairness, and honesty What are the 5 Standards of Conduct? - CORRECT ANSWER Duty of Care, Trustworthiness, Honesty, and Fairness, Professionalism, Conduct in Accordance with Securities Acts, Confidentiality What falls under the Standard of Duty of Care? - CORRECT ANSWER KYC, Due Diligence, Unsolicited Orders What falls under the Standard of Trustworthiness, Honesty, and Fairness? - CORRECT ANSWER Priority of Client Interests, Protection of Client Assets, Complete and Accurate Information, Disclosure What falls under the Standard of Professionalism? - CORRECT ANSWER Client Orders, Trades by Registered Individuals, Approved Securities, Personal Financial Dealings with Clients, Personal Trading Activity, Continuous Education What falls under the Standard of Conduct of Conduct in Accordance with Securities Acts? - CORRECT ANSWER Inside Information What falls under the Standard of Confidentiality? - CORRECT ANSWER Client Information, Use of Confidential Information When can SRO's and commissions share information? - CORRECT ANSWER If it is in an investigation What are the fines under the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act? - CORRECT ANSWER $10,000 to $100,000 Where does the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents act not apply due to similar legislation? - CORRECT ANSWER BC, Alberta, and Quebec What is the main mandate of securities regulators? - CORRECT ANSWER Promote the Integrity of the Markets and Ensure Investor Protection What are the 3 principles of securities regulation? - CORRECT ANSWER Disclosure, Registration, Enforcement What is the maximum penalty for offences under the Ontario Securities Act? - CORRECT ANSWER Fine of 5 million and a 5 year prison term, additionally provinces can order repayment of $100,000 to investors What is the Disciplined Persons List? - CORRECT ANSWER A list of those who have been sanctioned for market misconduct What is the integrated Market Enforcement Team? - CORRECT ANSWER Cooperative effort between the RCMP and the Federal government What is the Joint Serious Offences Team? - CORRECT ANSWER Joint effort between the OSC and the RCMP What is the CSA? - CORRECT ANSWER Overseer of securities regulators that meets quarterly in person and monthly by conference call What is SEDAR? - CORRECT ANSWER Electronic filing system for regulatory filings What is SEDI? - CORRECT ANSWER Insider reports When should trades be reported to SEDI? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 5 days When should event reports be reported to SEDI - CORRECT ANSWER Within 1 business day What is the NRD? - CORRECT ANSWER Database for registration that applies across Canada What is an AFR? - CORRECT ANSWER Authorized Firm Representative, must submit information to the NRD When must a change regarding firms or individuals be submitted to the NRD? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 10 days of the change When must a change regarding citizenship or employment be submitted to the NRD? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 30 days What is the policy for short-term disability leaves with the NRD? - CORRECT ANSWER Any supervisory position leaves must be reported, but for regular employees nothing less than a 3 month leave must be reported When must termination of employment be reported to the NRD? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 10 days When must material changes to registrants be reported to the NRD? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 10 days When must material changes to registrants be reported to the employer? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 2 business days What is the CTO National Database? - CORRECT ANSWER Keeps a list of companies who have failed to meet disclosure requirements and prohibits trading in those securities How can you check the registration of any firm or individual? - CORRECT ANSWER The NRS (national registration search) What is a National Instrument? - CORRECT ANSWER Has been adopted by all CSA jurisdictions What is a multilateral instrument? - CORRECT ANSWER Has not been adopted by one or more CSA jurisdictions What is the AMF's Financial Services Compensation Fund? - CORRECT ANSWER Reimburses victims of fraud in Quebec up to $100,000 What 2 organizations merged to create IIROC? - CORRECT ANSWER Investment Dealers Association and Market Regulation Services What is the Investment Industry Association of Canada? - CORRECT ANSWER An organization that attempts to grow the industry. Not a regulatory body What are the 4 goals of the Investment Industry Association of Canada (IIAC)? - CORRECT ANSWER Advocacy, Industry Profile, Member Support, and Market Advancement How are Mutual Funds regulated in Quebec? - CORRECT ANSWER AMF regulates the mutual fund industry while CHAMBRE sets CE requirements and a code of ethics What is the MFDA IPC? - CORRECT ANSWER Covers $1 million per account after insolvency of a MFDA member How does registration work for a mutual fund that operates in both Quebec and another jurisdiction? - CORRECT ANSWER There is an agreement so that regulatory duplication will not occur What is the CDIC? - CORRECT ANSWER Insures accounts and GIC's with a term of 5 years or less up to $100,000 per institution What is the QDIC? - CORRECT ANSWER CDIC for Quebec What is the CIPF? - CORRECT ANSWER Canadian Investor Protection Fund, protects against failure of any SRO dealer member for up to $1 million per general account (cash margin, options) and separate account (registered accounts, half of each joint account owner) How long do you have to file a claim with the CIPF? - CORRECT ANSWER 180 days What is unique about the Montreal exchange? - CORRECT ANSWER Allows for restitution of funds lost from misconduct What is the ICE Futures exchange? - CORRECT ANSWER Deals in agricultural derivatives What is Regulation S? - CORRECT ANSWER Allows for registration requirements with the SEC to be bypassed What are the 3 stages of money laundering? - CORRECT ANSWER Placement, Layering (obscuring audit trail through complex transactions), Integration (placing funds back into the economy so they appear to be legitimate, e.g. real estate) How does money laundering work across jurisdictions? - CORRECT ANSWER Often uses multiple transactions across multiple jurisdictions and financial institutions How do AML compliance programs work? - CORRECT ANSWER Must be audited every 2 years, and findings of money laundering must be reported in writing to an RCMP officer within 30 days What are the penalties for wilful blindness and failing to report suspicious transactions? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 years in prison or a fine of $2 million What are the penalties for knowingly participating in money laundering? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 years in prison, and FINTRAC can fine entities up to $500,000 What is FINTRAC? - CORRECT ANSWER Collects an discloses information to assist in the detection of money laundering What are the 3 choke points of money laundering? - CORRECT ANSWER Entry into financial system, transfers, cross-border flow of cash How long can PEP accounts be open for? - CORRECT ANSWER 30 days unless senior management approves further What is the goal of industry titles? - CORRECT ANSWER More transparency for clients What are carrying brokers? - CORRECT ANSWER They offer back office services to introducing brokers while introducing brokers only maintain the relationship with client When does the carrying broker have a KYC obligation and compliance with non-financial requirements? - CORRECT ANSWER Jointly responsible with Introducing broker in a type 1 relationship, but in all other types the introducing broker is responsible for all compliance and KYC Do private investment clubs require registration? - CORRECT ANSWER Only if there are more than 50 members When do you not have to register with an SRO? - CORRECT ANSWER If you are dealing in specified debt, or if advice does not relate to securities and all clients are permitted clients (corporations with $25 million in assets or individuals with $5 million in assets) Where can you not advertise that you are registered? - CORRECT ANSWER Newfoundland and Labrador What is the IIROC CE program? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 hours of compliance training for IR's and RR's, 20 hours of professional development training for RR's What is the IIROC term for an IA? - CORRECT ANSWER RR What is the IIROC term for an associate? - CORRECT ANSWER IR What is the registration process for an RR (IA)? - CORRECT ANSWER CSC within past 3 years, CPH within past 2 years, 90 day period of restricted client contact, 6 month period of supervision, 30 month requirement (WME), CE What is the registration process for an IR (Associate)? - CORRECT ANSWER CSC within past 3 years, CPH within past 2 years, 30 day period of restricted client contact, potential 6 month period of supervision, compliance portion of CE What can you do during the period of restricted client contact? - CORRECT ANSWER Send out letters, invite public to seminars, create lists of potential clients, gather info from existing or prospective clients on behalf of another RR, forward non-securities specific information What is the training period for Mutual Fund Representatives? - CORRECT ANSWER CSC and training program completed within 90 days with 6 month period of supervision after How can you be dual licensed with Securities and Life Insurance? - CORRECT ANSWER Businesses is identified separately, written approval from securities employer, clients are aware they are dealing with 2 separate entities, complete LLQP What is the period where registration can be transferred to another firm? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 90 days of prior employment How long are courses valid for after leaving an IIROC dealer member? - CORRECT ANSWER 3 years What is IIROC's 3 criteria for registration? - CORRECT ANSWER Integrity, Financial Solvency, Competence What IIROC sanction is no longer accepted? - CORRECT ANSWER Voluntary supervision How many clients can you have in another jurisdiction without registering in that jurisdiction? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 for an individual, 10 for a firm How can you deal with US clients? - CORRECT ANSWER Pass Series 37/38/63 exams and register in state where US client resides and work for a dealer member that is registered in the US What is the Blanket Model Exemption? - CORRECT ANSWER Distribution of TSX securities that are not listed on a US exchange When can you still deal with someone who spends time in the US without registering in the US? - CORRECT ANSWER If they spend less than 183 days per year in the US What are the 3 purposes of the NAAF? - CORRECT ANSWER Client investment objectives/risk tolerance, creditworthiness of teh client, industry regulations that apply to client/account What must you obtain when opening a corporate account? - CORRECT ANSWER Name, address, and occupation of all directors and insider shareholders (10% for IIROC, 25% for PCMLTFA). If this information is not recorded within 6 months, account is restricted to liquidating trades and transfers out only In a corporate account where beneficial owners are not known, what must occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Information on beneficial owners must be obtained within 1 year What are the trigger events that trigger a NAAF review? - CORRECT ANSWER Trade is accepted, recommendation is made, securities are transferred, change of representative of account, material change to KYC, change in portfolio manager Can PO boxes ever be used as a client's address? - CORRECT ANSWER No What is the form you must sign before opening a cash account? - CORRECT ANSWER Cash agreement form How do margin guarantees work? - CORRECT ANSWER Only an immediate family member can provide a guarantee (spouse, parent, sibling, or child) What is the form you must sign before opening a margin account? - CORRECT ANSWER Margin Agreement What is Delivery Against Payment? - CORRECT ANSWER Purchasing securities where you pay on settlement date What is Receipt against Payment? - CORRECT ANSWER Sale of securities where you receive securities and then pay the client in full What is the document Investment Club Accounts must sign? - CORRECT ANSWER Investment Club Agreement Document What is a simple discretionary account and how long are they valid for? - CORRECT ANSWER Discretionary authority has not been solicited, only valid for 12 months (usually due to illness, etc) How can you terminate a discretionary account? - CORRECT ANSWER Give 30 days notice by notifying the client in writing What is a solicited trade? - CORRECT ANSWER IA contacts client with a trade idea What is an unsolicited trade? - CORRECT ANSWER Client contacts IA with a trade idea What is a control person? - CORRECT ANSWER Someone who owns 20% or more of the shares What is an insider? - CORRECT ANSWER Someone who owns 10% or more of the shares Who is exempt from insider reporting requirements? - CORRECT ANSWER Nominal vice presidents, and those who only trade mutual funds or educational plans What happens when receiving a request for transfer of a client's account? - CORRECT ANSWER Asset list must be delivered within 2 days, and if transfer is unsettled within 10 days, the transfer can be completed by buying the unsettled portion or establishing a loan of the assets What is Churning? - CORRECT ANSWER excessively trading to increase commision What is bucketing? - CORRECT ANSWER confirming a transaction when no trade has been executed What can be considered an institutional customer? - CORRECT ANSWER A non-individual with total securities exceeding $10 million What is the penalty for violating the Do not Call list? - CORRECT ANSWER $1,500 for individuals and $15,000 for corporations What is the penalty for anti spam legislation? - CORRECT ANSWER $10 million When can you act as a principal? - CORRECT ANSWER If the price you give to the client is the best available at the time Who is an associate of an insider trader? - CORRECT ANSWER A spouse, relative, etc Who is an affiliate of an insider trader? - CORRECT ANSWER Someone in a company with common ownership with the insider What is the maximum penalty for insider trading in Ontario? - CORRECT ANSWER Fine of $5 million and a 5 year prison sentence, OSC can also order an additional penalty of $1 million What is the maximum federal penalty for insider trading and tipping? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 years for insider trading and 5 years for tipping When should securities be put on a grey list? - CORRECT ANSWER I there are discussions with an issuer but no deal has been linked When should securities be put on a restricted list? - CORRECT ANSWER When you are aware of insider information What is the time period for filing insider reports? - CORRECT ANSWER 10 days for initial reports, 5 days for subsequent reports What is paying with soft dollars? - CORRECT ANSWER When commission charges go to something else other than IA compensation (e.g. financial research) How do mutual funds accept gifts? - CORRECT ANSWER Cannot accept any non-cash sales incentive, and travel expenses may not be apid for by fund cmopany What % of ownership of a mutual fund must be disclosed? - CORRECT ANSWER Anything over 5% What is the standard trading unit for a derivative? - CORRECT ANSWER 1 contract What is the standard trading unit for a debt security? - CORRECT ANSWER $1,000 What is the standard trading unit for a t-bill? - CORRECT ANSWER $250,000 What is the standard trading unit for a provincial bond? - CORRECT ANSWER $25,000 What is the standard trading unit for federal bonds over 1 year? - CORRECT ANSWER $100,000 What is the standard trading unit for equities trading at less than $0.1 per unit? - CORRECT ANSWER 1,000 units What is the standard trading unit for equities trading between $0.1 and $1.00 per unit? - CORRECT ANSWER 500 units What is the standard trading unit for equities trading over $1.00 per unit? - CORRECT ANSWER 100 units Do you pay a discount or premium for odd lots? - CORRECT ANSWER Discount When do t-bills settle - CORRECT ANSWER Same day What order expires at the end of the trading period if it is not executed? - CORRECT ANSWER Day Order What order remains in effect until it is executed or cancelled? - CORRECT ANSWER Good till cancelled order What order is valid until a specific expiry date? - CORRECT ANSWER Good till date order What is an order to buy a security at a specified or better price? - CORRECT ANSWER Limit order What is an order where a sale is triggered if the stock drops below a certain threshold? - CORRECT ANSWER Stop loss order What is an order where a purchase is triggered if the stock moves above a certain level? - CORRECT ANSWER Stop buy order What is an order where the entire amount of the order must be bought or it will not be executed? - CORRECT ANSWER All or none order What is an order where as much as possible is filled at a certain price? - CORRECT ANSWER Fill or kill order What is an order where a security is sold and the proceeds are used to purchase another security? - CORRECT ANSWER Switch order What order is triggered after a primary order is filled? - CORRECT ANSWER Contingent order How must you identify a pro order? - CORRECT ANSWER Mark it EMP, PRO, or N-C What must be disclosed for fixed-income securities? - CORRECT ANSWER YTM What must happen for all trades that do not have a change of beneficial ownership? - CORRECT ANSWER Must be executed off marketplace When do restrictions on a cash account apply? - CORRECT ANSWER When the balance is outstanding for 20 business days (if less than 6 business days, securities given a weighted value, if more than 6 business days, treated as though they are margin accounts) When do restrictions apply to a DAP or COD account? - CORRECT ANSWER If amount is owed for 5 or more business days What is the max loan value extended for share price $2.00 and over? - CORRECT ANSWER 50% What is the max loan value extended for share price $1.75-$1.99? - CORRECT ANSWER 40% What is the max loan value extended for share price $1.50-$1.74? - CORRECT ANSWER 20% For what price securities can loans not be given? - CORRECT ANSWER Any price under $1.50 What is the reduced margin %? - CORRECT ANSWER 70% What is the margin requirement for unlisted securities? - CORRECT ANSWER 100% of market value What is the short margin requirement for securities over $2.00? - CORRECT ANSWER 150% of value What is the short margin requirement for securities between $0.25 and $1.49? - CORRECT ANSWER 200% of value What happens if an under margined account is not covered within 20 business days? - CORRECT ANSWER Trading is restricted to only trades that reduce margin deficiency How long must written correspondence with clients be maintained for? - CORRECT ANSWER At least 2 years What is the Mutual Fund Smart Prospectus System? - CORRECT ANSWER Creates customized prospectuses for each investor that only contain information about the funds they have purchased What is the standard performance data for money market yields? - CORRECT ANSWER Current yield or both current yield and effective yield What is the Fund Facts document for a mutual fund? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 pages or less and provides investor with key information about a mutual fund What are 3 requirements for a website? - CORRECT ANSWER Prior approval from a supervisor, approved hard copy of material on website must be maintained, and IIROC must approve all written procedures on supervision of the website How do you go about jurisdictions on trades on the internet? - CORRECT ANSWER Must have a disclaimer saying that the securities are not available to particular jurisdictions What must happen to first-time buyers of strip bonds? - CORRECT ANSWER Must be given an information document outlining the characteristics of strip bonds When must a leverage risk disclosure statement be provided? - CORRECT ANSWER When a new account is opened, when a recommendation is made to purchase securities on margin, or when registrant becomes aware they have intended to purchase securities with borrowed funds (only has to be given every 6 months) When must account statements be sent? - CORRECT ANSWER Quarterly, or if there is activity or futures contracts (or account is discretionary), monthly What are segregated securities? - CORRECT ANSWER Fully paid securities held for the client but separate from their own securities Which rate of return is used first? - CORRECT ANSWER Money-weighted, then time-weighted What happens if securities are registered in the street name? - CORRECT ANSWER They are registered in the name of the dealer member, and held separate from the dealer member's inventory, can be held in safekeeping where physical certificates are stored How long does the firm have to send a response to a complaint from a client? - CORRECT ANSWER 5 business days for acknowledgement, 90 days for a response How long are complaint records held for? - CORRECT ANSWER 7 years When must MFDA firms report any private complaint settlements? - CORRECT ANSWER If over $25,000 against a firm or $15,000 against an employee What is ComSet? - CORRECT ANSWER Reports every public complaint What are the options for proceeding with a complaint? - CORRECT ANSWER Arbitratino, Ombudsman, Civil Litigation, or Mediation (Quebec only and free of charge) What is the maximum claim for arbitration? - CORRECT ANSWER $500,000 What are the characteristics of Ombudsman complaints? - CORRECT ANSWER Non-binding, but made public if firm does not adhere to recommendations, only used for claims below $350,000, must be submitted within 180 days What is a reporting issuer? - CORRECT ANSWER Someone who has previously done an IPO and is issuing more securities What is a control position? - CORRECT ANSWER Those who have 20% or more of securities, they must file a prospectus except in Quebec where no preliminary prospectus ever is required What is a requirement of a Preliminary Prospectus? - CORRECT ANSWER Must have red ink on the cover saying it is not in its final form and the securities may not be sold until final prospectus is obtained What is a market out clause? - CORRECT ANSWER Allows securities offering to be cancelled if market issues occur What are rules regarding crowdfunding? - CORRECT ANSWER Head office must be in a participating jurisdiction, no person can invest more than $1,500 per distribution, no more than $250,000 can be raised, and must provide purchasers with right to withdraw within 48 hours When is there restricted trading in a securities offering? - CORRECT ANSWER 2 days before the price is determined to prevent raising or lowering or price What can occur during the Waiting Period between the preliminary and final prospectus? - CORRECT ANSWER Can solicit interest from potential purchasers, provide anyone with preliminary prospectus, advertise security, but cannot purchase other new issue securities What must you do to all who have received a preliminary prospectus? - CORRECT ANSWER Keep a record of all the names What is a private issuer? - CORRECT ANSWER Less than 50 shareholders, can be purchased without a prospectus What is an offering memorandum? - CORRECT ANSWER Allows you to bypass dealer registration if under $10,000 When must the final prospectus be delivered? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 2 business days after a purchase has been made When can you use a Short Form Prospectus? - CORRECT ANSWER If information is already widely available in the AIF and they file with SEDAR What is the prospectus approval for securities on the venture exchange? - CORRECT ANSWER Prospectus is approved by the exchange rather than an administrator What is a shelf distribution? - CORRECT ANSWER Distribution of securities without disclosure documents due to already having them out in public When can an underwriter solicit investor interest in a bought deal? - CORRECT ANSWER 4 days before filing of preliminary prospectus What is an accredited investor? - CORRECT ANSWER Financial institution, government, with over $5 million, or an individual where they and a spouse have assets over $1 million, have made over $200,000 in the past 2 years, or net income with a spouse is over $300,000 over the past 3 years What does the Quebec Securities Act outline in regards to misrepresentations? - CORRECT ANSWER Can apply for an adjustment to the price paid When must venture issuers file financial statements? - CORRECT ANSWER Interim: 60 days of year end, Audited: 120 days When must senior issuers file financial statements? - CORRECT ANSWER Interim: 45 days of year end, Audited: 90 days When must a material change report be filed? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 10 days of a material change When must an acquisition report be filed? - CORRECT ANSWER Within 75 days What is NOBO? - CORRECT ANSWER Ensures security owners receive proxy-related materials, must be sent 21 days before meeting date or 25 days before meeting date for beneficial owners What is the early warning rule? - CORRECT ANSWER Anyone who accumulates over 10% of a security must file a press release immediately, and file a detailed report within 2 business days What is a take-over bid? - CORRECT ANSWER An offer to acquire 20% or more of a target company What happens if you acquire or dispose of more than 2% of securities? - CORRECT ANSWER Must file a press release What is a take-over circular? - CORRECT ANSWER Provided to holders of all target securities in a take-over bid, discloses offeror's position What is a director's circular? - CORRECT ANSWER Provides a recommendation on whether to accept or reject a take-over bid, must be provided within 15 days from date of the bid What is the timeline for taking up securities in a take-over bid? - CORRECT ANSWER Must allow securities to deposited within 105 days after the take-over bid, and cannot take up any securities until a 35 day period has expired What would be a poison pill in a take-over bid? - CORRECT ANSWER Implementing a shareholder's rights plan What is a lock-up agreement? - CORRECT ANSWER An agreement to sell shares at a certain price to the offeror, must be filed the day of the bid What is a coat-tail provision? - CORRECT ANSWER Allow shares that are not fully voting to have voting rights in a take-over bi What is a normal course purchase? - CORRECT ANSWER A purchase of not more than 5% of the shares of a company over 12 months What are rules for a take-over bid on an exchange? - CORRECT ANSWER Notice of intention must be given to the exchange, board of directors must recommend or reject bid within 7 days What are the rules for other purchasers of securities during a take-over bid? - CORRECT ANSWER If anyone else purchases 5% or more of the securities, they must file a press release and further press releases for any more acquisitions of 2% or more What are values? - CORRECT ANSWER How you live your life what you deem to be an acceptable idea What is the law? - CORRECT ANSWER Concerned with actions that if violated have serious consequences to society as a whole, attempts to have society function for the greatest good for the greatest number of people What is the time period of values? - CORRECT ANSWER Long-lasting beliefs but can change over time What are ends values and means values? - CORRECT ANSWER Ends values are personal goals, and actions taken to meet ends values are means values What is a unified value system? - CORRECT ANSWER Where the ends and means values mutually reinforce and support each other What is value clarification? - CORRECT ANSWER Having knowledge of what values influence your decision making process What are core values? - CORRECT ANSWER Values that require no justification other than they are right and central to your life What are the 3 tests for Right vs Wrong? - CORRECT ANSWER Legal test, front page test, mom test What are the 4 types of Right vs Right issues? - CORRECT ANSWER Truth vs Loyalty, Individual vs Group, Short term vs Long term, Justice vs Mercy What are ethics? - CORRECT ANSWER Concerned with right and wrong behaviour, and are built upon values, how we relate to other people and act to other people, more to do with the day to day actions than the law, and encouraging actions that create trust, ethics are built upon values How can ethics flourish in an organization? - CORRECT ANSWER Everyone must clearly communicate guiding beliefs and put them in place on a daily basis What is ethical relativism? - CORRECT ANSWER The idea that there is no universal moral principle, destructive to society as it results in a "me-first" way of thinking What do compliance based systems rely on? - CORRECT ANSWER Rules and mandates What do Integrity based systems rely on? - CORRECT ANSWER Self-responsibility and accountability What is the overlap between Compliance-based systems and integrity-based systems? - CORRECT ANSWER Fairness What blanket do objectivity, competence, and prudence fall under? - CORRECT ANSWER Professional What blanket do Fairness, integrity, and honesty fall under? - CORRECT ANSWER Ethical What blanket do Professional, diligence, and privacy fall under? - CORRECT ANSWER Legal What blanket do being prudent with others money, giving impartial advice, disclosing conflict of interest, etc fall under? - CORRECT ANSWER Acting in good faith What is the main idea of duty of care? - CORRECT ANSWER Client's interests come first How do Ethical practices occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Combining shared values with operational policies Who do directors owe their primary duty to? - CORRECT ANSWER The corporation What is the idea of the Sarbanes-Oxley act? - CORRECT ANSWER Firms should have an independent board of directors What is the ethical decision making process? - CORRECT ANSWER Recognize there is a moral issue, determine whose moral issue it is, gather the facts, test for right vs wrong issues, test for right vs right paradigms, apply resolution principles, reflect on the process What is ends-based ethical thinking? - CORRECT ANSWER Greatest good for greatest number of people, requires a cost-benefit analysis What is rules-based ethical thinking? - CORRECT ANSWER Creates suitable rule for others to follow. Following principles that you would want everyone else to follow if they were in your position What is social-contract based ethical thinking? - CORRECT ANSWER Creating harmonious relationships within the group What is personalistic-based ethical thinking? - CORRECT ANSWER Decisions that create a situation that is authentic to who you are When do you no longer have to act in good faith? - CORRECT ANSWER Client no longer wants services, another professional takes over responsibilities, or you give adequate notice to the client [Show Less]
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CPH Sample Exam 128 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Sample Exam 128 Questions with Verified Answers Which one of the following items does not represent the value of biostatistics in the assessment o... [Show More] f health problems of the population and determine their extent? (A) Finding patterns in the collected data (B) Summarizing and presenting the information to best describe the target population (C) Deciding what information to gather to help identify the health problems (D) Accounting for possible inaccuracies in responses and measurements - CORRECT ANSWER (D) Accounting for possible inaccuracies in responses and measurements A biostatistician's responsibility within a collaborating research team is to aid in the research design, analysis, and interpretation of the data. (A), (B), and (C) all describe tasks that would fall within a biostatistician's expertise area. A biostatistician would not be able to account for possible inaccuracies in the data. This is because a biostatistician only has access to the information contained within the data at hand and does not have information concerning the underlying reasoning for inaccuracies in the data. The health department is committed to protecting and promoting the health of the country's residents. Which of the following components of a strategic plan does this statement represent? A. objective B. vision C. mission D. goal - CORRECT ANSWER C. mission Reduce the number of teenagers who begin to smoke. Which of the following components of a strategic plan does this statement represent? A. goal B. mission C. objective D. vision - CORRECT ANSWER A. goal The new director of a county health department is getting acquainted with her staff. After several weeks of observing how her two associate directors supervise their subordinates, she notes striking differences in their management styles. One associate director manages employees by assuming that they are highly motivated. He tells members of his staff that they can time-shift their work hours to accommodate their family schedules as long as they get their work done. This director's approach to management exemplifies which of the following leadership theories? A. Contingency theory B. House's path goal theory C. McGregor's theory Y D. Theory Z - CORRECT ANSWER C. McGregor's theory Y The other associate director assumes that employees find no satisfaction in their work and are exclusively motivated by their salaries. This associate director's approach to management exemplifies which of the following leadership theories? A. McGregor's theory B. Contingency theory C. Theory Z D. House's path goal therapy - CORRECT ANSWER A. McGregor's theory The director wants to adopt a management strategy that will meet the needs of all personnel in her department, including the two associate directors and their diverse staffs and responsibilities. The most appropriate leadership style for this director is one informed by which of the following theories? A. Theory Z B. McGregor's theory C. House's path to goal therapy D. Contingency therapy - CORRECT ANSWER D. Contingency therapy A community-based study of a program to increase physical activity is conducted, and the findings are evaluated. A small p-value with an estimate is reported. Which of the following is the best interpretation of this result? A. It is likely the estimate differs from the true value because of bias. B. It is likely the estimate differs randomly and systematically from the norm. C. It is unlikely the estimate differs from the average because of chance. D. It is unlikely the estimate differs from the null value because of random variability - CORRECT ANSWER D. It is unlikely the estimate differs from the null value because of random variability A pilot study is conducted to examine whether a new drug effectively decreases cholesterol levels over a 6-week period. Twelve participants are enrolled, and serum cholesterol levels are measured before and after the 6-week treatment period. Investigators plan to use a paired t-test to examine whether the drug was effective in reducing cholesterol levels. The paired t-test is more appropriate for analysis of the results than a two-sample t-test for which of the following reasons? A. dependence between the pre-test and post-test measurements B. potential non-normality of the responses C. heterogeneous variances of the two groups 6 D. non-randomness of the timing of the measurements - CORRECT ANSWER A. dependence between the pre-test and post-test measurements A pilot study is conducted to examine whether a new drug effectively decreases cholesterol levels over a 6-week period. Twelve participants are enrolled, and serum cholesterol levels are measured before and after the 6-week treatment period. Investigators plan to use a paired t-test to examine whether the drug was effective in reducing cholesterol levels. Which of the following are the degrees of freedom for this paired t-test? A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13 ANSWER B - CORRECT ANSWER B. 11 A pilot study is conducted to examine whether a new drug effectively decreases cholesterol levels over a 6-week period. Twelve participants are enrolled, and serum cholesterol levels are measured before and after the 6-week treatment period. Investigators plan to use a paired t-test to examine whether the drug was effective in reducing cholesterol levels. If the p-value were calculated to be 0.015, which of the following would be the most appropriate interpretation of this p-value? A. The probability of seeing results as unusual as the observed under the alternative hypothesis is very small. B. The probability of seeing results as unusual as the observed under the null hypothesis very small. C. The probability that the alternative hypothesis is false is very small. D. The probability that the alternative hypothesis is true is very small. ANSWER B - CORRECT ANSWER B. The probability of seeing results as unusual as the observed under the null hypothesis very small. Which of the following statements best describes an intent-to-treat analysis? A. Analyses compare characteristics of participants who did and did not adhere to the randomized treatment. B. Analyses exclude all participants who did not adhere to the assigned randomized treatment. C. Analyses maintain the original randomized assignment of treatments in the definition of intervention and control groups. D. Analyses reorganize participants into intervention and control groups based on their actual participation. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Analyses maintain the original randomized assignment of treatments in the definition of intervention and control groups. A study is conducted to examine whether elderly women in at-home care settings maintain more cognitive ability than women who are residents of skilled nursing care facilities. Two 7 groups of 30 elderly women were recruited independently: one group included women living at home with a caregiver, and the second group included women living in skilled nursing care facilities. The women were asked to perform a task and received scores on the execution of the task (higher scores indicated higher cognitive functioning). Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for analyzing these data? A. chi-square (χ 2 ) test B. correlation analysis C. paired t-test D. two-sample t-test - CORRECT ANSWER D. two-sample t-test A study is conducted to evaluate the relationship between pet ownership and having depressive symptoms. Seventy participants are recruited. Each subject is identified as a current pet owner or a non-pet owner. Participants are categorized as having or not having symptoms of depression. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to evaluate the association between pet ownership and having depressive symptoms in this population? A. paired t-test B. two-sample t-test C. chi-square (χ2) test D. correlation analysis - CORRECT ANSWER C. chi-square (χ2) test The epidemic of methyl mercury poisoning in Minamata, Japan, in the 1950s illustrated contamination of which of the following? A. water B. fish C. soil D. feed grain - CORRECT ANSWER B. fish The Ministry of Health of a developing country is considering the nationwide implementation of a test using biomarkers to screen for breast cancer. The test is delivered in health clinics in two similar regions of the country, with the following results: Region A Region B Sensitivity 70% 80% Specificity 85% 95% The positive and negative predictive values are different between the two regions. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the difference in the test's predictive values between the two regions? A. The prevalence of disease is different between the two regions. B. The test is detecting the disease earlier in its natural history in one of the regions. C. The test was not administered in similar conditions in the two regions. D. Length-biased sampling has occurred. - CORRECT ANSWER C. The test was not administered in similar conditions in the two regions. The Ministry of Health of a developing country is considering the nationwide implementation of a test using biomarkers to screen for breast cancer. The test is delivered in health clinics in two similar regions of the country, with the following results: Region A Region B Sensitivity 70% 80% Specificity 85% 95% Which of the following is the most likely cause of the difference in the test's sensitivity and specificity between the two regions? A. The test is detecting the disease earlier in its natural history in one of the regions. B. Length-biased sampling has occurred. C. The test was not administered in similar conditions in the two regions. D. The prevalence of disease is different between the two regions - CORRECT ANSWER D. The prevalence of disease is different between the two regions A study investigated the effects of exposure to radioactive fallout from the Hanford Nuclear Site in Washington State in the 1940s and 1950s and subsequent development of thyroid cancer among persons exposed as children and adolescents. Scientists used birth data from the study area to trace and contact subjects to participate in the study. Screening consisted of thyroid palpation, ultrasonography of the thyroid gland, and measurement of thyroid hormone concentrations in serum and urine. Individual thyroid radiation doses were estimated from interview data concerning place of residence and dietary history. As a result of screening, 19 subjects were diagnosed with thyroid cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this type of study design? A. case-control B. ecological C. retrospective cohort D. cross-sectional - CORRECT ANSWER C. retrospective cohort A study investigated the effects of exposure to radioactive fallout from the Hanford Nuclear Site in Washington State in the 1940s and 1950s and subsequent development of thyroid cancer among persons exposed as children and adolescents. Scientists used birth data from 9 the study area to trace and contact subjects to participate in the study. Screening consisted of thyroid palpation, ultrasonography of the thyroid gland, and measurement of thyroid hormone concentrations in serum and urine. Individual thyroid radiation doses were estimated from interview data concerning place of residence and dietary history. As a result of screening, 19 subjects were diagnosed with thyroid cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate measure of effect for this type of study? A. prevalence odds ratio B. odds ratio C. correlation coefficient D. risk ratio - CORRECT ANSWER D. risk ratio A study investigated the effects of exposure to radioactive fallout from the Hanford Nuclear Site in Washington State in the 1940s and 1950s and subsequent development of thyroid cancer among persons exposed as children and adolescents. Scientists used birth data from the study area to trace and contact subjects to participate in the study. Screening consisted of thyroid palpation, ultrasonography of the thyroid gland, and measurement of thyroid hormone concentrations in serum and urine. Individual thyroid radiation doses were estimated from interview data concerning place of residence and dietary history. As a result of screening, 19 subjects were diagnosed with thyroid cancer. Which of the following terms is most appropriate to describe the cases of thyroid cancer identified during the first screening in this study? A. prevalent B. interval C. recurrent D. incident - CORRECT ANSWER A. prevalent A county public health department has prepared the annual operating budget for its childhood vaccination program. It forecasts that 90,000 children will be vaccinated, requiring a total of 48,000 hours of nursing labor at an average cost of $25 per hour and 100,000 doses of vaccination at an average cost of $1.50 per dose. Fixed costs of the vaccination program, such as administration and overhead, are estimated at $50,000. Which of the following calculations is most appropriate to obtain the forecast vaccination expense per child? A. (48,000 × $1.50) / 90,000 B. (90,000 × $1.50) / 48,000 C. (100,000 × $1.50) / 48,000 D. (100,000 × $1.50) / 90,000 - CORRECT ANSWER D. (100,000 × $1.50) / 90,000 A study is conducted to compare colorectal screening rates in white and African-American men. Researchers contact 50 white men and 50 African-American men older than 50 years of age by telephone and ask them if they have undergone colorectal screening. Fifty-five percent of white men and 49% of African-American men report undergoing appropriate screening. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate method of analysis of the survey data? A. paired t-test B. Pearson chi-square (X2) test C. two-sample t-test D. Spearman correlation test - CORRECT ANSWER B. Pearson chi-square (X2) test Which of the following terms best describes the power of a local jurisdiction to independently regulate public health, safety, and welfare? A. unionism B. home rule C. preemption D. self-administration - CORRECT ANSWER B. home rule Which of the following terms refers to the systematic method by which environmental exposure to a substance is quantified using information about the hazardous properties of the substance, human exposure to the substance, dose-response relationships, and risk characterization? A. risk management B. risk assessment C. risk communication D. risk control - CORRECT ANSWER B. risk assessment A local health department establishes a program with community outreach and clinical components that is intended to reduce the number of drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. A measure of the program's outcomes is the number of A. clinical visits for drug-resistant tuberculosis. B. community education sessions. C. drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. D. patients receiving follow-up care for drug-resistant tuberculosis. - CORRECT ANSWER C. drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. A group uses problem solving to reconcile underlying differences and create a win-win situation for the mutual benefit of all parties. This approach exemplifies which of the following styles of conflict management? A. accommodating B. avoiding C. collaborating D. compromising - CORRECT ANSWER C. collaborating According to the transtheoretical model of change, as individuals go from pre-contemplation to maintenance, "con" behavioral beliefs decrease and "pro" behavioral beliefs increase. This process is best described as which of the following? A. decisional balance B. self-liberation C. reinforcement management D. self-efficacy - CORRECT ANSWER A. decisional balance When a public health issue emerges for which there is no "evidence base" to suggest a response strategy, which of the following actions on the part of a public health professional is most appropriate? A. Defer action on the issue until further information about the appropriate intervention is available. B. Dismiss the issue because there is insufficient evidence to make an informed decision. C. Implement several different strategies at once to assess which is most effective. D. Invest in data collection and community-based research to build a more thorough understanding of the issue. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Invest in data collection and community-based research to build a more thorough understanding of the issue. A study of national patterns of smoking prevalence finds that the prevalence of women smokers is higher in countries with higher national income per capita, but lower in countries experiencing rapid economic growth. Among men, the prevalence of smoking is lower in countries with higher national per capita income, but higher in countries experiencing rapid economic growth. This finding is an example of which of the following phenomena? A. bias B. confounding C. interaction D. error - CORRECT ANSWER C. interaction A person states, "As an African-American male in my 60s, I am at risk for prostate cancer." Which of the following is the construct of the Health Belief Model that is best illustrated by this statement? A. perceived susceptibility B. perceived barriers C. perceived benefits D. perceived severity - CORRECT ANSWER A. perceived susceptibility Which of the following is a priority air pollutant regulated by the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)? A. asbestos B. carbon dioxide C. methane D. ozone - CORRECT ANSWER D. ozone A multi-state regional coalition is in place to identify successful state-level strategies for enhancing health care and other community services for children with special health needs. The coalition membership currently includes health care professionals and representatives from state departments of public health, housing, education, Medicaid, and social services. There is one remaining open seat. Which of the following representatives is most appropriate to fill the open slot? A. a principal from one of the region's elementary schools B. a member of a parent advocacy group C. a pediatric cardiologist D. a pharmacist - CORRECT ANSWER B. a member of a parent advocacy group Variation in rates of medical procedures by race, even when controlling for insurance status, income, age, and severity of conditions, is an example of A. health disparity. B. racism. C. inadequate access to health care. D. a high rate of uninsured individuals. - CORRECT ANSWER A. health disparity. Which of the following models explains the relationship between socioeconomic status and health by illustrating that health status and social standing are linked to a combination of interrelated social, cultural, psychological, and environmental factors? A. ecological B. health belief C. transtheoretical D. social influence - CORRECT ANSWER A. ecological Which of the following is the most accurate source of denominator data for calculating disease rates in a defined population? A. United States Census B. death certificates C. hospital discharge records D. reportable infectious disease reports - CORRECT ANSWER A. United States Census The theory of reasoned action is a model of health behavior targeted at which of the following levels? A. community B. global C. individual D. organizational - CORRECT ANSWER C. individual The association between disease status and exposure for a sample from a population is as follows: Exposed Not Exposed Total Diseased 50 400 450 Not Diseased 50 5000 5050 Total 100 5400 5500 Which of the following is the estimated ratio of the odds of disease in the exposed versus unexposed groups? A. (50 / 450) ÷ (50 / 5,050) B. (50 / 50) ÷ (400 / 5,000) C. (50 / 5,050) ÷ (50 / 450) D. (400 / 5,400) ÷ (50 / 100) - CORRECT ANSWER B. (50 / 50) ÷ (400 / 5,000) [Show Less]
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CPH Exam 27 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam 27Questions with Verified Answers Principle 1 - CORRECT ANSWER Health services must be delivered where the people are Principle 1 - CORREC... [Show More] T ANSWER Ude indigenous/resident volunteer workers as healtg care providers with a ratio of one community health workwr per 10-20 households Principle 1 - CORRECT ANSWER Use of traditional medicine together with essential drugs Principle 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Training design and curriculum based on community needs and priorities, task analysis of community health workers are competency based. Principle 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Attitudes, knowledge and skills developed are on promotive, preventive, curative and rehabilitation health care Principle 2 - CORRECT ANSWER Regular monitoring and periodic evaluation of CHW performances by the community and health staff Principle 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Awareness building and consciousness raising on health and health related issues Principle 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Planning, implementation, monitoring, and evaluation done through small group meeting Principle 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Selection of CHW by the community Principle 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Community building and community organizing Principle 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Formation of health committees Principle 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Estavlishment of CHW organization at the parish or municipality level Principle 3 - CORRECT ANSWER Mass health campaign and mobilization to combat health problems Principle 4 - CORRECT ANSWER Community generates support for the health program Principle 4 - CORRECT ANSWER Use of local resources Principle 4 - CORRECT ANSWER Training of community in leadership and management skills Principle 4 - CORRECT ANSWER Incorporation of income generating projects, cooperatives and small scale industries Principle 5 - CORRECT ANSWER Convergence of health, food, nutrition/water, sanitation, and population services Principle 5 - CORRECT ANSWER Integration of PHC into national, regional, provincial, municipal, and barangay development plan Principle 5 - CORRECT ANSWER Coordination of activities with economic planning, education, agriculturr, industry, housing, public works, communication, and social services Principle 6 - CORRECT ANSWER Establishment of an effective health referral Principle 6 - CORRECT ANSWER Multi-sectoral and interdisciplinary linkages Principle 6 - CORRECT ANSWER Information, education, and communication support using multimedia Principle 6 - CORRECT ANSWER Collaboration between government and nongovernment organizations Principle 7 - CORRECT ANSWER Reallocation of budgetary resources Principle 7 - CORRECT ANSWER Reorientation of professionals on PHC Principle 7 - CORRECT ANSWER [Show Less]
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CPH Exam Practice 66 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam Practice 66 Questions with Verified Answers Public health laws approved by city or county boards must be - CORRECT ANSWER approved by referen... [Show More] dum Sensitivity - CORRECT ANSWER true positive rate; proportion of positives correctly identified as such; A/A+C Specificity - CORRECT ANSWER true negative rate; probability of testing negative if the disease is truly absent; D/B+D A confounding variable - CORRECT ANSWER is associated with exposure; it can strengthen or weaken Rate data such as the number of events occurring in a specified period of time are often described by which probability distribution? - CORRECT ANSWER The Poisson distribution is often used to describe count data and can be used to describe rate data by including an offset term for the denominator of the rate. The number of independent events needed for selecting the appropriate probability model is specified by the: - CORRECT ANSWER Probability distributions are based on the number of independent events. Degrees of freedom (to vary) are used as the specification of the number of events that can vary. If we are predicting a parameter (which is a fixed value), only the number of events minus 1 can vary and the final event would then have to be a specific value, it cannot vary and is thus not an independent event. Enteric pathogens - CORRECT ANSWER bacteria of the intestines traditional indicator of microbiological water quality - CORRECT ANSWER fecal coliform bacteria Health Impact Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER a combination of procedures, methods, and tools by which a policy, program or project may be judged as to its potential effects on the health of a population, and the distribution of those effected within the population Case fatality - CORRECT ANSWER proportion of deaths within a designated population of "cases"; # of deaths/ #of diagnosed within time period Risk communication - CORRECT ANSWER building and maintaining trust between spokespeople and audience is a cornerstone of effective risk communication; two-awy process with active participants on both sides Pearson correlation coefficien - CORRECT ANSWER The Pearson's correlation coefficient is a measure of association that indicates the degrees to which two variables have a lineal relationship. The coefficient, r, can vary between -1 and +1. When r = +1, there is a perfect positive linear relationship in which one variable varies directly with the other. When r = -1, there is a perfect negative linear relationship between the variables. The measure can be generalized to quantify the degree of linear relationship between one variable to another. By definition, a Pearson correlation coefficient value is always between -1 and 1. Public health emergency preparedness - CORRECT ANSWER training key decision makers and first responders for coordinate actions; identifying surge capacity in the infrastructure; develop channels for real-time interagency communication precautionary principle - CORRECT ANSWER philosophy or approach advocating the prevention and/or control of potential environmental hazards before there is scientific proof or consensus about the potential harm Medical care - CORRECT ANSWER Thought to have the smallest impact on the health of the population; only 10% of America's population health is attributable to medical care Salmonella spp. - CORRECT ANSWER First microorganism to test for when poultry is suspected to be source of foodborne outbreak Faulty organizational system - CORRECT ANSWER primary source for medical errors, according to IOM Environmental controls that do the most to reduce the incidence of food born illness.. - CORRECT ANSWER employing knowledgeable food handlers who do not work when they are ill and using proper temperature control Essential Public Health Services - CORRECT ANSWER provide fundamental framework for public health activities; Core Public Health Functions Steering committee developed essential services in 1994 Threshold dose - CORRECT ANSWER a dose below which no change in biological response occurs. Does not indicate adverse change Robust - CORRECT ANSWER statistical procedure that is not sensitive to departures from the conditions on which it is based Complete care - CORRECT ANSWER includes health promotion, disease prevention, early detection, appropriate diagnostic and treatment measures, follow up care and rehab. Only one of 10 basic requirements to include public health Target organ dose - CORRECT ANSWER most relevant for determining the toxicity of an agent PDCA - CORRECT ANSWER Plan Do Check Act cycle for quality improvement cryptosporidium parvum - CORRECT ANSWER waterborne disease resulting from fecal contamination Goals of national health policy - CORRECT ANSWER achieve an optimal balance of access to, cost and quality of care Chi square goodness of fit test - CORRECT ANSWER always conducted as an upper tailed test; One sample for categorical or ordinal outcome; Observed- expected frequency positive predictive value - CORRECT ANSWER number of true positives/(number of true positives + number of false positives) Malaria - CORRECT ANSWER primary cause of illness resulting in death in developing countries of the tropical and subtropical regions utilization of medical resources - CORRECT ANSWER influenced by unmet demand; both demand and need tend to be greater than utilizatio P value - CORRECT ANSWER probability of obtaining the observed data or data that are more extreme if the null hypothesis were true sensitivity and specificity of screening test refer to its - CORRECT ANSWER validity Process measure evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER provides feedback on how well you are performing a process designed to impact the outcome structural measure evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER assess your infrastructure or capacity Outcome measure evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER shows whether you made progress in reaching your ultimate goal Epidemiologic triangle - CORRECT ANSWER host, agent, environment Trihalomethanes - CORRECT ANSWER the chlorination of drinking water can result in contamination Point Source Outbreak - CORRECT ANSWER persons are exposed to the same source over a brief time, such as through a single meal or event. The number of cases rises rapidly to a peak and falls gradually. most cases occur within one incubation period Under the Toxic Substance Control Act the most important way that toxic substances are controlled to limit human exposure is by - CORRECT ANSWER requiring chemical inventory, chemical testing and reporting, and pre-manufacturing notice Equation for health risk assessment - CORRECT ANSWER risk= hazard x exposure Intrinsic parameters for evaluating food sample - CORRECT ANSWER pH, moisture content, oxidation reduction potential (Eh), nutrient content, antimicrobial constituents, biology structures Extrinsic parameters for evaluating food sample - CORRECT ANSWER temperature of storage, relative humidity, presence/concentration of gases, presence of other mircroorganisms Five major incident command management functions - CORRECT ANSWER Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance, and Administration; applies to routing an emergency, organizing for a major non-emergency event, managing a response to major disaster Incident Command - CORRECT ANSWER sets incident objective, strategies, and priorities and has overall responsibility Incident Operations - CORRECT ANSWER develops tactical objectives, conducts operations to carry out the plan and directs all tactical resources Incident Planning - CORRECT ANSWER prepares Incident Action Plan to meet objectives, collected and evaluates information, and maintains both resource status and documentation Logistics - CORRECT ANSWER provides support, resources, and all services to meet operational objectives Diffusion of Innovation Relative Advantage - CORRECT ANSWER being better than what it will replace Propagated (progressive source) epidemic - CORRECT ANSWER one or more of the first wave of cases serves as a source of infection for subsequent cases Continuing source outbreak - CORRECT ANSWER group of people are exposed to single noxious influence but the exposure continues over a longer period of time. Ex. contaminated water supply. Relatively abrupt beginning of outbreak; cases don't typically arise beyond one Intermittent outbreak - CORRECT ANSWER Could be person to person or common source that is not well controlled; could be seasonal or weather related World Health Organization - CORRECT ANSWER specialized agency of United Nations that is concerned with international public health Community - CORRECT ANSWER small or large social unit that has something in common Department of Health - CORRECT ANSWER executive department of the Philippines concerned to Public health services Epidemiology - CORRECT ANSWER branch of medicine concerned with incidence, distribution, and possible diseases Demography - CORRECT ANSWER the study of statistics Health - CORRECT ANSWER A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being public health - CORRECT ANSWER science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life Mortality - CORRECT ANSWER the death rate in a population Morbidity - CORRECT ANSWER rate of disease Epidemic - CORRECT ANSWER widespread outbreak of an infectious disease. endemic - CORRECT ANSWER confined to a particular country or area pandemic - CORRECT ANSWER worldwide epidemic Dr. C.E. Winslow - CORRECT ANSWER defined public health The 7 determinants of health - CORRECT ANSWER Behavior, political, environmental, heath care delivery system, OLOF, heredity generic endowment, socioeconomic Pressures in public health system - CORRECT ANSWER emergence and re emergence, new technologies, existing and emerging environmental hazards, health reforms [Show Less]
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CPH Exam 49 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam 49 Questions with Verified Answers Which of the following id a formula for point prevalence of a disease? - CORRECT ANSWER # of current cases... [Show More] / # of people in a population Which of the following models explains the relationship between socioeconomic status and health by illustrating that health status and social standing are linked to a combination of interrelated social, cultural, psychological, and environmental factors? A. Ecological B. Health belief C. Transtheoretical D. Social Influence - CORRECT ANSWER A Which of the following infectious diseases results from inadequately treated drinking water? A. dysentery B. malaria C. plague D. tuberculosis - CORRECT ANSWER A The theory if reasoned action is a model of health behavior targeted at which of the following levels? A. community B. global C. individual d. organizational - CORRECT ANSWER C A study is conducted to compare colorectal screening rates in white and black men. Researchers contact 50 white men and 50 black men older than 50 years of age by a telephone and ask them if they had undergone colorectal screening. 55% if white men and 49% of black men report undergoing appropriate screening. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate method of analysis of the surveyed data? A. paired t-test B. Pearson chi-square test C. two-sample t-test D. Spearman correlation test - CORRECT ANSWER B Which of the following strategies is placed last in the hierarchy of controls for protecting the health of employees from workplace exposures? A. Administrative controls (hazard communication) B. engineering controls (ventilation, isolation) C. personal protective equipment (hearing protection) D. Substitution (product replacement) - CORRECT ANSWER C Vaccination against polio provides life-long protection, whereas influenza vaccines have to be administered each year. Which of the following statements best explains this difference in vaccine action? A. Influenza vaccines are prepared from killed viruses but polio vaccines are prepared from live, attenuated viruses B. Influenza vaccines have to be administered by injection, but the oral polio vaccine can be ingested C. Influenza viruses mutate at a much higher rate than poliovirus D. Poliovirus can only cause disease in humans, whereas influenza viruses can infect other species - CORRECT ANSWER C A county public health department has prepared the annual operating budget for its childhood vaccination program. it forecasts that 90,000 children will be vaccinated requiring a total of 48,000 hours of nursing labor at an average cost of $25 per hour and 100,000 doses of vaccination at an average cost of $1.50 per dose. Fixed costs of the vaccination program, such as administration and overhead are estimated at $50,000. Which of the following calculations is most appropriate to obtain the forecast vaccination expense per child? A. (48,000 A - $1.50) / 90,000 B. (90,000 A - $1.50) / 48,000 C. (100,000 A - $1.50) / 48,000 D. (100,000 A - $1.50) / 90,000 - CORRECT ANSWER D What percentage of all spending in health in the United States is devoted to public health funding? A. 3% B. 11% C. 28% D. 53% - CORRECT ANSWER A Which of the following is a priority air pollutant regulated by the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)? A. asbestos B. carbon dioxide C. methane D. ozone - CORRECT ANSWER D Which of the following organizations accredits local public health departments? A. American Public Health Association B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention C. Public Health Accreditation Board D. State Licensing boards - CORRECT ANSWER C Which of the following is the most accurate source of denominator data for calculating disease rates in a defined population? A. United States Census B. Death certificates C. hospital discharge records D. reportable infectious disease reports - CORRECT ANSWER A Which of the following categories is officially sanctioned by the United States federal government with regard to describing ethnicity? A. American Indian or Alaska Native B. Asian or White C. Black or African-American D. Hispanic or Latino - CORRECT ANSWER D In a town hall meeting, several residents of a community of 10,000 raise concern about plans to build a new chemical treatment plant within walking distance of local schools, day-care centers, and parks. The community needs a new treatment plant but the residents concerns about the environmental effect of the plant need to be addressed. The local health department is charged with developing a method whereby citizens can provide information about concerns and recommend alternative strategies. Which of the following is the most effective method of gathering this information. A. conduct telephone interviews with residents B. schedule face-to-face interviews with residents C. Mail surveys to a random selection of households D. Organize focus groups with representatives from the community - CORRECT ANSWER D A health behaviors survey conducted in a large urban area includes a question about whether a person is a smoker. The company conducting the survey decides to increase the size of its random sample of survey participants from 1,500 people to approximately 20,000 people. This change will most likely have which of the following effects? A. increasing the standard of error in the estimate B. decreasing the variability of the estimate C. no effect on the survey statistics because the population size is the same D. Increasing the confidence interval width of the parameter - CORRECT ANSWER B Which of the following is a modeling and simulation tool used to investigate stocks, flows, and feedback loops of complex problems? A. interactive planning B. operations research C. organizational cybernetics D. system dymanics - CORRECT ANSWER D Which of the following is a characteristic of a healthcare system based on social justice? A. access to medical care is viewed as an economic reward of personal effort and achievement B. Production and distribution of health care are determined by market-based demand C. An individual's ability to pay is considered inconsequential for receiving medical care D. Markets are assumed to be more efficient than government at allocating health resources equitably - CORRECT ANSWER C Which of the following is the formula for point prevalence of a disease? A. number of current cases / number of persons in a population B. number of current cases / number of persons who did not have the disease at the starting point of observation C. number of new cases / number of persons who did not have the disease at the starting point of observation D. number of new cases / number of persons in the population - CORRECT ANSWER A In a community with 20,000 births in a given year, five births are premature. Which of the following values represents this in a manner that allows comparison with other populations? A. 0.025 B. 2.5% C. 25 per 10,000 D. 25 per 100,000 - CORRECT ANSWER D When a public health issue emerges for which there is no 'evidence base' to suggest a response strategy, which of the following actions on the part of a public health professional is most appropriate? A. defer action on the issue until further information about the appropriate intervention is available B. dismiss the issue because there is insufficient evidence to make an informed decision C. implement several different strategies at once to assess what is most effective D. research to build a more thorough understanding of the issue - CORRECT ANSWER D A health services researcher is studying a new influenza vaccination to determine whether it should be recommended for all senior citizens. Which of the following vaccination attributes is most appropriate to evaluate first in the process of assessing the new vaccination? A. cost-benefit B. community education sessions C. efficacy D. efficiency - CORRECT ANSWER C A local health department establishes a program with community outreach and clinical components that is intended to reduce the number of drug-resistant TB cases. A measure of the program's outcomes is the number of A. clinical visits for drug-resistant TB B. community education sessions C. drug-resistant TB cases D. patients receiving follow-up care for drug resistant TB - CORRECT ANSWER C Requiring health care providers to report individual cases of disease as they are diagnosed to state or local health departments is an example of which of the following types of surveillance? A. active surveillance B. syndromic surveillance C. passive surveillance D. sentinel surveillance - CORRECT ANSWER C A researcher is calculating the infant mortality rate of several states. Which of the following methods is most appropriate to use during this analysis to adjust for racial differences in infant mortality rates among the states? A. logistic regression B. direct standardization C. life table analysis D. linear regression - CORRECT ANSWER B A group uses problem solving to reconcile underlying differences and create a win-win situation for the mutual benefit of all parties. This approach exemplifies which of the following styles of conflict management? A. accommodating B. stricter motor vehicle inspection laws C. modifications to vehicles and highway systems D. stiffer penalties for drunk drivers and repeat speeders - CORRECT ANSWER C Which of the following historical events raised awareness of the need for the protection of research subjects nd resulted in the 1947 creation of the International Code of Ethics for research? A. Nazi human experimentation B. Willow brook hepatitis suicides C. publication of the Belmont Report D. Tuskegee Syphilis Study - CORRECT ANSWER A According to the transtheoretical model of change as individuals go from pre-contemplation to maintenance, 'con' behavior beliefs decrease and 'pro' behavioral beliefs increase. This process is best described as which of the following? A. decisional balance B. self-liberation C. reinforcement management D. self-efficacy - CORRECT ANSWER A BMI is sometimes reported as age and gender specific z-scores. Such scores are best described as a function of which of the following? A. the individuals BMI and the mean and standard deviation and the specific population B. the individuals BMI and the mean and standard deviation of an entire population C. the individuals BMI, the mean of the specific population, and the standard deviation of an entire population D. the individuals BMI, the mean of an entire population and the standard deviation of the specific population - CORRECT ANSWER A Which of the following terms best describes the power of a local jurisdiction to independently regulate public health, safety, and welfare? A. unionism B. home rule C. preemption D. self-administration - CORRECT ANSWER B Which of the following molecules are produced by B lymphocytes during the host response to infection? A. antibodies B. antigens C. enzymes D. hormones - CORRECT ANSWER A Which of the following best describes the elasticity of demand for health care in the United States? A. perfectly elastic B. perfectly inelastic C. relatively elastic D. relatively inelastic - CORRECT ANSWER D A federal law is passed requiring labeling on food products. In subsequent years the rate of obesity among adults decreases. Which of the following terms best describes the relationship between the law and the change in obesity A. casual B. correlated C. retrospective D. prospective - CORRECT ANSWER B Which of the following is the most important limitation in the use of vital statistics data for public health research? A. Births and deaths that occur outside of institutions are not recorded B. data collected vary substantially from state to state C. Data files are not readily available to people collecting data outside of the agency D. Variables of research interest may not be collected - CORRECT ANSWER D A study investigates the relationship of age to BMI. A sample of individuals is selected, and age and BMI are measured. As part of the preliminary analysis a simple linear regression of BMI on age is performed using a stats software package. The resulting estimate of beta from the output describes which of the following? A. coefficient of determination B. slope of the regression line C. estimate of the mean D. Intercept of the regression line - CORRECT ANSWER B Which of the following terms refers to the systematic method by with environmental exposure to a substance is quantified using information about the hazardous properties of the substance, the human exposure to the substance, dose-response relationships, and risk characterizations? A. risk management B. risk assessment C. perceived benefits D. perceived severity - CORRECT ANSWER B A person states, as a black man in my 60s, I am at risk for prostate cancer. Which of the following is the construct of the Health Belief Model that is best illustrated by this statement? A. perceived susceptibility B. perceived barriers C. perceived benefits D. perceived severity - CORRECT ANSWER A A study of national patterns of smoking prevalence finds that the prevalence of women smokers is higher in countries with higher national income per capita, but lower in countries experiencing rapid economic growth. Among men, the prevalence of smoking is lower in countries with higher national per capita income but higher in countries experiencing rapid economic growth. This finding is an example of which of the following phenomena? A. bias B. confounding C. interaction D. error - CORRECT ANSWER C Researchers ask a random sample of 1,001 adults nationwide whether they favor or oppose the legalization of weed. 55% of respondents say they oppose it. If the researchers increase the sample size of the poll by a factor of 4, which of the following effects on the length of the 95% confidence interval for the proportion is most likely to be observed? A. Decrease by a factor of 4 B. decrease by a factor of 2 C. increase by a factor of 2 D. increase by a factor of 4 - CORRECT ANSWER B The management of a healthcare facility requires staff to adhere to ethical principles and provide culturally appropriate care. The institutionalization of these values is most likely to influence which of the following aspects of health care provided by this facility? A. acceptability B. accessibility C. accountability D. adequacy - CORRECT ANSWER A The introduction of sewage to a stream is most likely to cause a measurable change in which of the following ways? A. decrease in the decomposing organic concentration B. increase in biochemical oxygen demand C. increase in dissolved oxygen concentration D. stabilization of biochemical oxygen demand - CORRECT ANSWER B Which of the following best describes the tendency for an insured person to overuse health services because he has insurance? A. adverse selection B. crowding out C. moral hazard D. risk aversion - CORRECT ANSWER C In addition to ozone and particulates which of the following pollutants is most likely to aggravate asthma? A. arsenic B. carbon monoxide C. lead D. sulfur dioxide - CORRECT ANSWER D Assume that the true odds ratio between an exposure and a disease is 2.7. Which of the following results in an observed odds ratio that is weaker than the true odds ratio? A. decreased availability to diagnose disease in unexposed individuals compared with exposed individuals B. failure of the unexposed individuals to participate in the study C. lower prevalence of exposure in control participants than in the total control population D. poor-quality exposure information that introduces random error into the exposure classification - CORRECT ANSWER D Which of the following US federal laws prohibits a public health practitioner from sharing individually identifiable health information stored on public health department computer systems? A. Occupational Safety and Health Act B. American Health and Security Act C. Health Communications Act D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act - CORRECT ANSWER D A 22-year old Latina women brings her 13 month old daughter to a health department clinic for a routine well-child care. Both are enrolled in the Medicaid program. They live in an inner-city apartment building that the mother describes as 'old and run down'. The infant diet consists of table foods; the principle protein sources are eggs, PB, cheese, and canned tuna. Screening of the infant for which of the following conditions is recommended by the CCD? A. allergies and asthma B. pesticide exposure C. elevated blood lead concentration D. mercury poisoning - CORRECT ANSWER C A multi-state regional coalition is in place to identify successful state-level strategies for enhancing healthcare and other community services for children with special health needs. The coalition membership currently includes health care professionals and representatives from the state departments of public health., housing, education, Medicaid, and social services. There is one remaining open seat. Which of the following representatives is most appropriate to fill the open slot? A. a principal from one of the region's elementary schools B. a member of a parent advocacy group C. a pediatric cardiologist D. a pharmacist - CORRECT ANSWER B A public health worker is charged with investigating family violence in a community of nearly 1 million residents. The worker uses principles of systems theory in her approach. She incorporates individuals, groups, and their environments. Which of the following terms best describes this concept? A. community psychology B. demography C. ethnobiology D. social ecology - CORRECT ANSWER D Variation in medical procedures by race, even when controlling for insurance status, income, age, and severity of conditions, is an example of A. health disparity B. racism C. inadequate access to healthcare D. a high rate of uninsured individuals - CORRECT ANSWER A Which of the following is the largest source of radiation dose to the general public nationwide ? A. medical use of x-rays B. nuclear powerplants C. nuclear weapons testing fallout D. radon gas - CORRECT ANSWER D [Show Less]
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CPH Exam 125 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam 125 Questions with Verified Answers It is well recognized that one of the easiest ways to increase statistical power is to increase the sample ... [Show More] size. Which of the following could also be used to increase power in a study. - CORRECT ANSWER Reduce error through using appropriate methods **Power is primarily influenced by two things, sample size and variability. Power increases as sample size increases or variability decreases. Variability includes two parts, true variability and error varibility. We collected 100 samples of size thirty of household income in Arkansas with population mean, mu=50 (in thousands). the sample mean, X and sample standard deviation, s, were recorded and the 95% confidence interval for mu was taken for each sample. Given the 100 confidence intervals, how many do you expect to cover the population mean mu=50? - CORRECT ANSWER 95 **A 95% confidence interval implies that were the estimation process repeated again and again, the 95% of the calculated intervals would be expected to contain the true parameter value mu=50. Randominzation, stratified analysis, and matching - CORRECT ANSWER minimize confounding Which of the following about the stage of change from the Transtheoretical Model is true - CORRECT ANSWER Action refers to behavior change for less than 6 months The best time to prepare an evaluation plan for a health intervention program is: - CORRECT ANSWER During the program planning period **An evaluation perspective when applied during planning can assure that the program intervention is specific enough to support rigorous evaluation A major obstacle to risk communication effectiveness is that most risks are derived from uncertainty, complexity, and incompleteness of environmental data. Which of the following are additional obstacles to risk communication? - CORRECT ANSWER The distrust felt by the general public due to disagreements among experts; lack of coordination among risk management organizations; inadequate training of experts and spokespersons in risk communication skills Jacobson v massachusetts brought to light that there are difficult tradeoffs between public and private interets awhich can extend to many areas of public health concern. What prominent and still current public health issue was the basis of this debate. - CORRECT ANSWER Compulsory vaccination The national consensus public health strategy of the government, public health organizations and citizens is known as: - CORRECT ANSWER Healthy People Which of the following intervention messages is most likely to have an impact on behavior? - CORRECT ANSWER Based on health education theory and tailored to the target audience Which of the following is not a method for controlling confounding by demographic variable like age in epidemiologic studies? - CORRECT ANSWER Blinding Which of the following questions should one ask to determine whether programs are evidence-based interventions? - CORRECT ANSWER What interventions have been scientifically proven to promote good health behaviors? A limitation to using hospital discharge data to assess community health problems is: - CORRECT ANSWER Data are only available for sicker people who are admitted to a hospital. A group of high school teachers are concerned about the increased level of aggressive behavior they are observing on school grounds and decide to take action by trying and evaluating an intervention based upon a new untested idea. Which of the folliwing tools might be the most useful in designing the intervention program and the evaluation? - CORRECT ANSWER A logic model that describes program resources, activities, and outcomes Motivational Interviewing is - CORRECT ANSWER Often times used to assist individuals in overcoming ambivalence about changing a risk behavior **MI is a directive, client centered counseling style or technique for eliciting behavior change by helping individuals to explore and resolve their ambivalence toward the behavior. Which of the following probability distributions is used to model very rare events? - CORRECT ANSWER Poisson Which of the following statements is true with respect to power - CORRECT ANSWER Power is the capacity of person A to influence person B to do something that person B would not otherwise choose to do The standard error (SE) of a sample statistic is - CORRECT ANSWER The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of a statistic Stidoes A, B, C show similar results. One limitation of a meta-analysis of these three studies is the failure to: - CORRECT ANSWER display differences between trials The value of accreditation by national accrediting bodies is to: - CORRECT ANSWER improve performance by creating a structure to allow organizations to assess their capacity and improve health outcomes The statement that most accurately reflects the primary intent of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act when enacted in 1996 is - CORRECT ANSWER Provide better acess to health insurance, reduce administrative costs, and protect the privacy of health information According to the theory if reasoned action (TRA), the most important determinant of behavior is a person's - CORRECT ANSWER behavioral intention Case Control Study - CORRECT ANSWER Collection of exposure histories from a group of persons with a specific disease and from a comparison group to determine the relative frequency of an exposure under study In a study to determine the incidence of a chronic disease, 150 people were examined at the end of a three-year period, and 12 cases were found, giving a cumulative risk of 8%. In addition, 50 other members of the initial cohort could not be examined; 20 of these 50 could not be examined because they died. Which source of bias may have affected the study? - CORRECT ANSWER Survival bias A new screening test for Disease A was tested in 200 people. 40 out of 45 people with Disease A tested posiitve on the test. 145 out of 155 people without the disease tested negaitve. What is the positive predictive value of the new test? - CORRECT ANSWER 40/50=.80 PPV=a/a+b A tobacco user has contemplated quitting smoking. He is aware that smoking is a problem for him and wants to quit in the future. If the tobacco user is moving along the Stages of Change, you can assume his next action will be - CORRECT ANSWER Skipping a few cigarettes The two most important environmental justice components that affect exposure to environmental health and injury risks are: - CORRECT ANSWER Race and income A local health department has begun to evaluate the way it provides services to the community. After completing a stratefic plan and reorgaizing its programs, the LHD starts to restructure programs offered to the community, based ont he objectives in the Ottawa Charter. What is the correct approach for the LHD to utilize in its pursuit of a healthy community? - CORRECT ANSWER Facilitate programming with organizations which have both helath and non-health related policies Which of the following is likely to be the singlem most effective method of communicating helath education to middle aged men in an African-American community characterized by lower socioeconomic status? - CORRECT ANSWER Community health workers in barbershops, convienence stores, and takeout food businesses Which of the following statements correctly describes a characteristic of hte helath care marketplace? - CORRECT ANSWER Providers often face abarriers to entry To specify individual susceptibilities, researchers have developed various biomarkers. Which of the following biomarkers could be ethically questionable? - CORRECT ANSWER The determination of the genotype can lead to unequal treatment of individuals with the "wrong" genotype Which of the following represents a method of precenting adult mosquitoes from developing - CORRECT ANSWER Using larvicides, such a Bacillus sphaeius or Methoprene The t-distribution approaches what distribution as its degress of freedom increases - CORRECT ANSWER Standard normal distribution The process of reducing risks and alleviating disease to promote, preserve, and restore health and minimize suffering and distress is - CORRECT ANSWER Disease prevention The lengths of stay for six patients were 0,0,1,2,2 and 16 days. Which are the best measure to summarize these data? - CORRECT ANSWER Median and range An epidemiologist attempts to predict the weight of an elderly person from demispan. She randomly chooses 70 elderly subjects in a particular geographic area and records their weight and the demispan measurements in the form of (x i, y i) for i=1,..., 70 Given that the value of the Pearson correlation coefficient is zero, what can be deduced? - CORRECT ANSWER There could be some nonlinear relationship between weight and demispan **Pearson coorelation only looks at linear relationships. The zero value means that there is no limnear relation but there could be a nonlinear one. Which of the following statistical tests is not considered a nonparametric test? - CORRECT ANSWER Turkeys test A reasearcher is designing a new questionnaire to examine patient stress levels on a scale of 0-5. What type of outcome variable is being collected? - CORRECT ANSWER Ordinal I f the chances for a second event to occur say the same, regardless of the outcome of a first event, the the two events are: - CORRECT ANSWER independent In simple linear regression, what is a method of determining the slope and intercept of the best-fitting line? - CORRECT ANSWER Least squares In a group of individuals, the probability of characteristic C is 0.4, and the probability of charateristic D is 0.2. The probability of their intersection is .10. Which of the following states is correct? - CORRECT ANSWER Characteristics C and D are not independent If all of the numbers in a list increase by 2, then the standard deviation is: - CORRECT ANSWER Unchanged The sensitivity of a particular screening test for a disease is 95%, and the specificity is 90%. Which of the following statements is most correct? - CORRECT ANSWER Of 100 people sampled from a population with the disease, the test will correctly detect 95 individuals as positive for the disease Which is the most correct statement about a scatterplot? - CORRECT ANSWER It is used to investigate the relationship between two continuous variables The cnetral limit theorem states that - CORRECT ANSWER The sample mean is approximately normal Assume that a researcher has measured weight in a sample of 100 overweight adults before and after a diet and exercise program conducted at the locall health department's weekly Eat Healthy-Be Fit community program. To determine whether the mean weight decreased six weeks after the exercise program compared to the initial baseline measures, the researcher should - CORRECT ANSWER Conduct a t-test for dependent samples Now assume that the researcher has meausre weight in a sample of 200 overweight adults who have been randomized to receive either the diet and exercise program. All subjects are weighed at baseline and again six weeks later. Choosing from the following analysis options, which is the most appropriate way to determine whether the diet program had an impact on weight loss? - CORRECT ANSWER Conduct an analysis of covariance using the weight at six weeks as the dependent variable, the diet and exercise program versus control group as the independent variable, and the baseline weight as a covariance Select the most correct statement concerning relative risk and odds ratios - CORRECT ANSWER A relative risk of 10 has the same strength of association as a relative risk of 0.1 **A risk ratio measures the increased risk for developing a disease after being exxposed to a risk factor compared to not being exposed to the risk factor. It is given by RR=risk for the exposed/risk for the unexposed, and it is often referred to as the relative risk, which is a proportion A type I error is defined as - CORRECT ANSWER The probability of rejecting the null hyptohesis when the null hypothesis is ture Assume that a linear regression analysis is performed. Which of the following results would justify a different method of analysis for the data? - CORRECT ANSWER The r 2=.001 Which of the following statements expresses the basic logic of financial accounting - CORRECT ANSWER Assests=liability + equity Sensitivity and specificity of a screening test refer to its - CORRECT ANSWER Validity When evaluating an ongoing program to increase the number of childhood vaccinations in a local community, which type of measure should be used to gather feedback on the satisfaction with collaborative partnerships? - CORRECT ANSWER Process **Process measures feedback on how well you are performing a process designed to impact the outcome Under the toxic substances control act, the most important way that toxic substances are controlled to limit human and environmental exposure is by - CORRECT ANSWER Requiring chemical inventory, chemical testing and reporting and pre manufacturing notice Which of the following componenets of a strategic planning process in a public health agency has logical priority over the others - CORRECT ANSWER Reviewing and revising the vision and mission statements for the agency In the box and whisker plot, what does the middle bar in each box represent? - CORRECT ANSWER The median What data analysis method would be used to determine if there was a significant difference in the group means? - CORRECT ANSWER Analysis of variance Which of the following estimates of an odds ratio most strongly suggests a computational error? - CORRECT ANSWER -0.9 A ratio of probabilities can bever be negative What are the four elements of a systems framework as applied to health care delivery - CORRECT ANSWER inputs, structure, processes, outputs Which of the following parameters are used to assess proper municipal wasterwater treatments - CORRECT ANSWER five-day biochemical oxygen demand What intrinsic parameters is a researcher converned with when evaluating the microbial count in a food sample? - CORRECT ANSWER Nutrient content Waiting until a program or intervention is complete to begin evaluation activities misses important and valuable opportunities for what type of evaluation? - CORRECT ANSWER Process evaluation What are the five major incident command management functions? - CORRECT ANSWER Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance and Administration Incident Command - CORRECT ANSWER sets incident objectives, strategies and priorities and has overall responsibility Operations - CORRECT ANSWER develops tactical objectives, conducts tactical operations to carry out the plan and directs all tactical resources Planning - CORRECT ANSWER prepares Incident Action Plan to meet incident objectives, collects and evaluates information, and maintains both resource status and incident documentation Logistics - CORRECT ANSWER provides support, resources and all services to meet operational objectives Finance/Administration - CORRECT ANSWER monitors costs, provides accounting, procurement, time recording, and cost analyses Which of the following is not a characteristic of the organization as an open system? - CORRECT ANSWER Predictable and determinate outcomes A study is conducted to evaluate the relationship between relaxation techniques and having depressive symptoms. 120 participants are identified to be using a relaxation technique or not using a relaxation technique. Participants are categorized as having or not having symptoms or depression. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to evaluate the association between using relaxation techniques and having depressive symptoms in this population? - CORRECT ANSWER Chi square test of independence or relationship Which of the following population groups is the most susceptible to severe health effects of methylmercury exposure - CORRECT ANSWER A fetus in the mother's womb The SWOT matrix as a strategic planning tool is usefule in identifying - CORRECT ANSWER External threats and opportunities faced by the organization Which of the following statements best characterizes research findings about trait-based approaches to leadership theory? - CORRECT ANSWER No one set of traits has been established as necessary and sufficient for effective leadership behavior A public health worker has moved to Sudan to designing a malaria prevention program for a rural village. Which of the following is an appropriate first step in planning the intervention? - CORRECT ANSWER Contact community leaders to gain their buy-in and support for the program A requirement of public health laws established by city or county boards is that they be - CORRECT ANSWER approved by referndum Rate data such as the number of events occurring in a specified period of time are often described by which probability distribution? - CORRECT ANSWER Poisson distribution The number of independent events needed for selecting the appropriate probability model is specified by the - CORRECT ANSWER number of degrees of freedom A combination of procedures, methods and tools by which a policy program or projects may be judged as to its potential effects on the health of a population and the distribution of those effects iwthin the population is called a - CORRECT ANSWER Health impact assessment We are asked to obtain a 95% confidence interval for the population mean of the following six observations: 10, 9, 14, 11, 17, and 15. If we assume the sample comes from a normal population the appropriate distribution used in constructing the confidence interval is - CORRECT ANSWER t distribution In a dose response assessment which of the following represents the highest exposure level at which there is no biologically significant increase in the frequency or severity of adverse effects between the exposed population and the control? - CORRECT ANSWER No-observed-adverse-effect level (NOAEL) An individual thinks starting an exercise program and becoming physically active will be uncomfortable, expensive and time-consuming. What term from the Health Belief Model best categorized his/her thoughts? - CORRECT ANSWER Perceived barriers Ordinal - CORRECT ANSWER order matters but not the difference between values (little, some, alot, excurciating nominal - CORRECT ANSWER no order (hair color, sex) Interval - CORRECT ANSWER temperature, order matters, no absolute zero ratio - CORRECT ANSWER order matters, absolute zero Which of the following statement about the PRECEDE-PROCEED model is true? - CORRECT ANSWER Social assessment involves asking the community what it wants and needs to improve community health and quality of life When performing simple linear regression, a two-tailed test of the population slope (B>1) is usually performed in order to determine whether there is sufficient eveidence to infer that a linear relationship exists. The null hypothesis for this test is stated as which of the following? - CORRECT ANSWER H0: B1=0 Researchers would like to investigate the natural histopry of a very rare childhood cancer. Which study design is the most appropriate for this study? - CORRECT ANSWER Case-control study There is not always clear scientific proof about human helath effects from exposures to environmental pollutants. The responsibility to intervene and protect the public from potential harmful exposures is known as - CORRECT ANSWER The precautionary principle Community health workers can be most useful in which of the following health promotion activities - CORRECT ANSWER Enhancing the cultural relevance of health promotion programs If an individual were in the contemplation stage of change for using condoms consistenly, what principle of behavior change should be emphasized? - CORRECT ANSWER Countering of the person's negative opinions about the behavior If two events are mutually exclusive, to determine the probability that one or the other happened: - CORRECT ANSWER Add their individual probabilities According to the health belief model, the likelihood of a woman participating in regular pap testing depends on several factors, including her perceptions of her susceptibility to vervical cancer and her perceptions of - CORRECT ANSWER barriers to cervical cancer screening Which data analysis method should be used to compare the means? - CORRECT ANSWER An independent t test with 28 degrees of freedom **Comparing two means from different or independent groups is done with the t test with n1+n2-2 degrees of freedom Which of the folloiwing statements best explains the claim that "any policy is what it becomes through implementation - CORRECT ANSWER Policies evolve in response to the political pressures and the sociocultureal and economic constraints that affect execution of the policy mandate Which of the following is the least desirable outime of a negotiation to resolve conflict? - CORRECT ANSWER Compromising the core values and beliefs of one or both parties Which of the following describes the key constructs of Social Cognitive Theory - CORRECT ANSWER Reinforcement refers to responses to an individual's behavior that increase or decrease the chances of recurrence Which of the following numbers is not a possible value for Pearson's correlation coefficient? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.2 Which of the following factors is thought to have the smallest impact on the health of the U.S. population - CORRECT ANSWER medical care factors A, B, and C can each individually cause a certain disease without the other two factors, but only when followed by exposure to factor X. Exposure to factor X alone is not followed by the disease, but the disease never occurs in the absence of exposure to factor X. Factor A is... - CORRECT ANSWER Neither necessary nor sufficient The bell shaped adoption curve in the diffusion of innovations theory indicates that : - CORRECT ANSWER Waves of individuals use a new idea or product Specificity - CORRECT ANSWER D/D+B Which of the following poses the largest threat of lead exposure to children? - CORRECT ANSWER Lead based paint and lead-contaminated dust in older buildings Some physicians may examine women who use oral contraceptives more often or more thoroughly than women who do not. If so, and if an association is observed between phlebitits and oral contraceptive use, the association may be due to: - CORRECT ANSWER Surveillance bias A health department is beginning a quality improvement project and has decided to follow the PDCA cycle. PDCA stamnds for: - CORRECT ANSWER Plan, Do, Check, Art The three primary interrelated goals of national health policy are to: - CORRECT ANSWER Achieve an optimal balance among access to, and the cost and quality of, health care Which one of the following is true regarding the utilization of medical resources - CORRECT ANSWER It is influenced by unmet need Which of the following leadership strategies is likely to be most effective for the project director of a university research team in designing and implementing an evaluation study of the long-term effects of an intervention to prevent high-risk sexual behavior in a lower SES community? - CORRECT ANSWER Invite community leaders to work collaboratively to plan, develop, and implement the research study/intervention According to the Institue of Medicine (IOM), medical errors are primarily attributable to: - CORRECT ANSWER Faulty organizatoinal system The fundamental framework that describes public health activities is called: - CORRECT ANSWER Essential public health services Which of the following scenerios represents a population-based public health intervention - CORRECT ANSWER A chamber of Commerce program that encourages local businesses to participate in a city-wide workplace exervise program the use of mammography to detect cancer is an example of - CORRECT ANSWER Secondary prevention When a statistical procedure is not sensitive to departures from the conditions and assumptions on which it is based, the procedure is said to be? - CORRECT ANSWER Robust Most states have laws that make it a crime to possess or distribute neddles, and many have laws that require a prescription to buy a needle or syringe. Consequently, injection drug users (IDUs) often do not carry syringes for fear of police harassment or arrest. To address this issue, the Connecticut legislature passed a partial repeal of needle prescription and drug paraphernalia lws. This action resulted in dramatic reductions in needle sharing as well as increases in IDU pharmacy puchases of syrnges. This type of intervention is referred to as - CORRECT ANSWER Structural intervention As an employee of the county health department, you are asked to assess the health needs of adolescents who reside in the county and are between the ages of 14 and 19. you must first conduct a needs assessment. what should be the goal of your needs assessment? - CORRECT ANSWER 1Collect and analyze data to determine the health needs of the population Which of the following activities is not essential in developing effective public helath/community partnerships? - CORRECT ANSWER Taking quick action to resolve the problem Which of the following is an element of helath risk assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Quantifying how much of a pollutatnt people are exposed to over a specific time period When assessing the performance of a regional hospital system comprising a service area of several counties, which indicator is most appropriate for assessing resource availability - CORRECT ANSWER Hospital beds pre 1,000 popualtion A health educator at a local health department has implemented and evaluated an evidenced-based program. The health educator did not achieve the same outcomes as those obtained by the developers of the original program at another local health department. Which of the following is a plausible reason for this result? - CORRECT ANSWER The implementation of the evidenced-based program was not true to the design of the original program the mission of which federal entity is to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and by provdiding training, outreach, education, and assistance - CORRECT ANSWER Occuaptional Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Which of the following is one of the ten basic requiremtns for good care? - CORRECT ANSWER Completeness We are asked to obtain a 95% confidence interval for the population mean of the following sex observations: 10, 9, 14, 11, 17 and 15. If the interval is too wide, what should we do to make the interval narrower - CORRECT ANSWER Increase the sampel size A chi-square goodness of fit test is always conducted as which of the following: - CORRECT ANSWER An upper tailed test What pitafall usually occurs early in a strategic planning process? - CORRECT ANSWER Confusion between long range planning versus strategic planning Which statement best describes the P-value - CORRECT ANSWER The probability of obtaining the observed data or data that are more extreme if the null hypothesis were true Given a point estimator, its standard deviation is called - CORRECT ANSWER Standard error [Show Less]
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CPH EXAM 334 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH EXAM 334 Questions with Verified Answers autonomy - CORRECT ANSWER •Free from external influence over independent decision-making. PH scenario... [Show More] s that defy autonomy: -Mandatory vaccination -Isolation - Separation of an infected person -Quarantine - Detention of healthy persons exposed to contagious disease 4th Amendment - CORRECT ANSWER Protects against unreasonable searches and seizures (not licensed businesses) -can have random inspections in PH, scope is lower Federalism - CORRECT ANSWER •Constitution establishes authority to enact laws, including those pertaining to public health Distribution of power between the individual states and the national government. 10th Amendment - CORRECT ANSWER •10th Amendment gives states all powers that are neither given to the federal government nor prohibited by the Constitution police powers - CORRECT ANSWER •States retain police powers to protect public's health •Powers exercised by states to: -Enact laws and promulgate regulations -That are used to protect public and to promote the common good Home rule authority - CORRECT ANSWER Gives local officials the ability to enact ordinances or regulations that are specific to the community, not otherwise prohibited. Public health laws - CORRECT ANSWER •Public health laws are the system of rules created for the protection or promotion of community health. -Congress passes laws Public health regulations - CORRECT ANSWER •Regulations are the set of rules that describe the implementation of legislation. -FDA passes regulations Privacy - CORRECT ANSWER •Freedom from intrusion; having control over the extent, timing, and circumstances of sharing PHI. security - CORRECT ANSWER •Practices, policies, and procedures created to protect a person's PHI Utilitarianism - CORRECT ANSWER -Promotes the goal of the "greatest good for the greatest number" Communitarian - CORRECT ANSWER -Individuals inseparable from community life and no one person and no one community can ever be completely self-determining. Liberalism - CORRECT ANSWER -Focuses on individual rights and freedom to choose, seeks to guarantee individual freedom without state infringement on personal choice. Priority setting - CORRECT ANSWER -A component of health planning that involves the community in decisions related to allocation of scarce resources. Reciprocity - CORRECT ANSWER -Community input regarding decisions by listening and speaking to the community. Transparency - CORRECT ANSWER Not concealing information public trust - CORRECT ANSWER -Avoid interventions that employ force or command without reason fidiciary duty - CORRECT ANSWER -Serving public in a way that maintains public's trust Legislative branch - CORRECT ANSWER Makes laws (congress) Executive branch - CORRECT ANSWER Implements laws- responsible for enforcing laws Judicial Branch - CORRECT ANSWER Interprets the laws parens patriae - CORRECT ANSWER State legal action on behalf of individuals who cannot protect themselves, such as suspected victims of child neglect or elder abuse PH Surveillance - CORRECT ANSWER acquisition, use, retention and transmission of data about populations health that supports essential health functions of the PH system civil commitment order - CORRECT ANSWER confines an individual in a medical facility for a specific period of treatment nuisance abatement - CORRECT ANSWER control or interference with community's use of public space or public's common welfare (I.e. building codes, fire codes) window of opportunity - CORRECT ANSWER The window of opportunity is open when there is a favorable confluence of problems, possible solutions, and political circumstances direct costs - CORRECT ANSWER costs that are incurred directly as the result of some specific cost object would not be incurred any longer if program were to disappear indirect costs - CORRECT ANSWER costs incurred whether or not program is dicontinued variable costs - CORRECT ANSWER incurred only when resources are used to provide the services of the program fixed costs - CORRECT ANSWER costs incurred regardless of the volume of services provided Gantt chart - CORRECT ANSWER A time and activity bar chart that is used for planning, managing, and controlling major programs that have a distinct beginning and end. -Task -Who/Responsible -Duration Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) - CORRECT ANSWER Plan Do Study Act cost-benefit analysis - CORRECT ANSWER quantifies tangible "soft" outcomes into a monetary dollar amount Cost-effectiveness analysis - CORRECT ANSWER measures program outcomes in similar units across programs (light years saved) rather then trying to quantify outcome in numbers Quantify all costs and outcomes to compare alternative interventions by measuring the change in "cost per unit change in effect" cost utility analysis - CORRECT ANSWER measures outcomes by using a standardized morbidity or mortality measure, often a metric called a quality-adjusted life year (QALY) benchmarking - CORRECT ANSWER performance measurement process in which you find organizations that provide programs and services similar to yours and that are considered "best in class" in their processes and outcomes in delivering them Return on Investment (ROI) - CORRECT ANSWER financial ratio that is used to measure program efficiency economic evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER considers both costs and outcomes with costs in the numerator and outcomes in the denominator variance reports - CORRECT ANSWER monthly budget reports that compare the budgeted revenues and expenses with the actual revenues and expenses for each line in the budget contribution margin - CORRECT ANSWER revenue - variable costs block grants - CORRECT ANSWER large sum of money that the federal government passes through the states , with broad discretion on how the states can spend the funds capitation - CORRECT ANSWER the service provider receives a set amount of revenue per person enrolled per time period regardless of the volume of services delivered to each person Backbone organization - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Guide vision and strategy 2. Support aligned activities 3. Established shared management practices 4 .Build public will 5. Advance policy 6. Mobilize funding epidemiologic triangle - CORRECT ANSWER agent, host, environment Agent - CORRECT ANSWER entity that causes disease; can be chemical physical or biological Host - CORRECT ANSWER susceptible organism, human or animal environment - CORRECT ANSWER conditions that are not part of the agent and/or host but influence their interaction causative agent - CORRECT ANSWER Any microorganism or biologic agent that is capable of causing disease Reservoir or source - CORRECT ANSWER the environment where the agent resides; water resources, feces, bodily secretions (ie. nasal cavity) portal of exit - CORRECT ANSWER how the agent leaves reservoir of the host DALYs - CORRECT ANSWER Disability-Adjusted Life Years) measure of overall disease burden, expressed as the number of years lost due to ill-health, disability or early death. Fomites - CORRECT ANSWER inanimate objects capable of transmitting a pathogen Zika - CORRECT ANSWER Causative agent- Zika Virus Vector- aedes aegypti (mosquito) lyme disease - CORRECT ANSWER Causative agent- borrelia burgdorferi vector- lxodes scapularis (deer tick) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever - CORRECT ANSWER causative agent- Rickettsia rickettsii vector- dermacentor variabilis (tick) SEIR model - CORRECT ANSWER Susceptible, exposed, infectious, recovered active immunity - CORRECT ANSWER develops in response to an infection or vaccination passive immunity - CORRECT ANSWER develops after you receive antibodies from something or someone else naturally acquired active immunity - CORRECT ANSWER antibodies developed in response to an infection artificially acquired active immunity - CORRECT ANSWER antibodies developed in response to vaccination naturally acquired passive immunity - CORRECT ANSWER antibodies received from mother via breast milk or placenta artificially acquired passive immunity - CORRECT ANSWER antibodies received from medicine ionizing radiation - CORRECT ANSWER gamma or xrays; causes problems with eyes, microcephaly and intellectual disabilities cigarette smoke - CORRECT ANSWER Low birth weight, miscarriage, stillbirth rubella - CORRECT ANSWER crosses placental barrier, causing congenital defects syphilis - CORRECT ANSWER STD that produces microcephaly and intellectual disabilities toxoplasmosis - CORRECT ANSWER parasite linked to undercooked contaminated meat, exposure to infected cat feces, and mother-to-child transmission sulfur dioxide (acid rain) - CORRECT ANSWER causes respiratory effects particularly in people with asthma and other susceptible populations nitrogen oxide (smog, acid rain) - CORRECT ANSWER linked to respiratory effects , particularly affecting people with asthma carbon monoxide - CORRECT ANSWER reduces blood ability to carry oxygen to body tissues- affect those with CV conditions ozone - CORRECT ANSWER causes airway irritation, coughing and difficulty breathing. Can affect those with COPD or asthma lead - CORRECT ANSWER metal that occurs naturally cause neurological effects in children and can also affect kidney, immune, development, and reproductive systems NAAQS - CORRECT ANSWER National Ambient Air Quality Standards by EPA greenhouse gases - CORRECT ANSWER created by humans and largest driver of climate change primary greenhouse gases - CORRECT ANSWER Mneumonic: If Green- C(a)N MOW CO2 Nitrous oxide Methane Ozone Water vapor Cryptosporidium - CORRECT ANSWER single-cell protozoan found in surface waters contaminated by sewage and animal waste *resistant to chlorine treatment* Giardia lamblia - CORRECT ANSWER single-cell protozoan found in soil, food, or water contaminated with feces of infections humans or animals legionella - CORRECT ANSWER bacteria discovered in 1976 at American legion conference in Philly that is naturally in the environment but becomes a health risk if it becomes aerosolized and inhaled resulting in lung infection Steps for water treatment - CORRECT ANSWER 1. coagulation and flocculation 2. sedimentation 3. Filtration 4. Disinfection coagulation and flocculation - CORRECT ANSWER Adding chemical with positive charge to neutralize effects of dirt and other dissolved particles later combine -> floc sedimentation - CORRECT ANSWER floc settles to the bottom of the water filtration - CORRECT ANSWER floc settles at the bottom & clear water on top passes through various filters disinfection - CORRECT ANSWER Disinfectant such as chlorine is added to the water to kill the remaining parasites, bacteria, viruses danger zone of food - CORRECT ANSWER 39-140 degrees farenheight leachate - CORRECT ANSWER water that has passed through waste and collected contaminates of that waste superfund regulations - CORRECT ANSWER require that responsible parties must assume liability for the cleanup of environmental hazards that they cause toxicology - CORRECT ANSWER study of how chemicals cause injury to living cells and whole organisms dose - CORRECT ANSWER refers to the amount of chemical in the body Risk= - CORRECT ANSWER toxicity x exposure Lethal dose 50 - CORRECT ANSWER Level at which 50% of test population is expected to die clean air act 1970 - CORRECT ANSWER provided establishment of NAAQS by regulating 6 classes of air pollutants or criteria air pollutants, regulated vehicle emissions, and est protocols for regulating other air pollutants Toxic substances control - CORRECT ANSWER Mandated manufacturers of chemical develop safety and health data on chemicals and mixtures and required EPA to regulate substances and mixtures that may pose risk of injury to heath and environment clean water act - CORRECT ANSWER national standards for waterways and set limits on pollutant discharges Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) - CORRECT ANSWER Cleanup of existing inactive and abandoned hazardous waste sites through creating of superfunds comprehensive air quality act of 1967 - CORRECT ANSWER first attempt to control of air pollution. Clean air act moves power from states to federal government (EPA) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act - CORRECT ANSWER controls hazardous waste with a cradle to grave system Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) - CORRECT ANSWER The US federal agency with a mission to protect human health and the environment est in response to water, air and land arsenic - CORRECT ANSWER muscle spasms, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain also a fertilizer hazard assessment - CORRECT ANSWER determination if the chemical under consideration is likely to cause disease in humans Eutrophication - CORRECT ANSWER A process by which nutrients, particularly phosphorus and nitrogen, become highly concentrated in a body of water, leading to increased growth of organisms such as algae or cyanobacteria. VOC - CORRECT ANSWER Volatile Organic Compound- easily become vapors and would not end up in the water stream Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) - CORRECT ANSWER a measure of the quantity of oxygen used by microorganisms in the aerobic oxidation of organic matter herd immunity - CORRECT ANSWER Resistance within a population to a certain infection directly related to vaccine use and effectiveness mosquito bites an individual who later develops fever and abdominal rash. What is this type of vector? - CORRECT ANSWER biological vector transmission infectious agent that causes malaria is what type of parasite? - CORRECT ANSWER protozoan Agent: Plasmodium falciparum, P. malariae, P. ovale.... Vector: Anopheles species (A. gambiae most common) what is true about newborn screening programs - CORRECT ANSWER Genetic conditions screened follow AR patterns of inheritance Contaminant that causes dizziness, headaches, nausea, breathlessness, collapse, and LOC - CORRECT ANSWER carbon monoxide Source of bacteria of legionella - CORRECT ANSWER water supply and storage What substance should not be in potable water - CORRECT ANSWER radionuclides why is cryptosporidium a problem in water systems - CORRECT ANSWER can survive chlorine water treatment HUS is caused by what organism - CORRECT ANSWER E. Coli strain 0157:H7 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) is commonly called what? - CORRECT ANSWER superfund the clean air act directs EPA to establish _________ air quality standards? - CORRECT ANSWER AMBIENT count - CORRECT ANSWER refers to the number of cases of a disease or other health phenomenon being studied proportion - CORRECT ANSWER a measure that states a count relative to the size of the group upper=fraction lower=whole ratio - CORRECT ANSWER divide one number into another but the numerator does not have to be subset of denominator rate - CORRECT ANSWER similar to proportion and ratio but additionally does have a time component cohort study - CORRECT ANSWER -group disease free at baseline -follow them over time and record exposures what is MOA of cohort studies - CORRECT ANSWER relative risk what is cohort study best for? - CORRECT ANSWER rare exposures - subjects are selected based on their exposure status prevalent diseases Case control - CORRECT ANSWER -compares cases to controls -collect exposure data retrospectively -classified on disease status (outcomes) what is MOA of case control study? - CORRECT ANSWER Odds ratio What are case controls best for? - CORRECT ANSWER rare diseases Interpreting OR - CORRECT ANSWER think CASE CONTROL STUDY Begin conclusion on outcome Ex: The odds of having diabetes are 2 times higher among those who are sedentary compared to those who are not sedentary Interpreting RR - CORRECT ANSWER think COHORT study Begin with exposure Ex: Those who are sedentary have 2 times the risk of DM as those who are not sedentary attributable risk - CORRECT ANSWER how much of the disease that occurs can be attributed to a certain exposure background risk - CORRECT ANSWER the risk of non-exposed people null hypothesis - CORRECT ANSWER assumes nothing is going on, usually carries equality type-I error - CORRECT ANSWER Reject the null hypothesis when it is true. Making claims that something is statistically significant when it was not Alpha most dangerous type-II error - CORRECT ANSWER Fail to reject a null hypothesis when it is false Beta - there is a significance but we did not realize Power - CORRECT ANSWER probability that we will correctly reject a false null Aka the probability of being to detect a true difference. Power=1-B dependent on effect size! what is the most visual tool for exploring relationships in bivariate data (paired measurements of two quantitative variables). - CORRECT ANSWER Scatterplot percent variation attributed to predictor values - CORRECT ANSWER r2 If correlation coefficient r is 0.4. What percent of variation in the outcome is explained by age and socioeconomic status - CORRECT ANSWER 16% if RR or OR=1 - CORRECT ANSWER no association between exposure and outcome if OR >1, then - CORRECT ANSWER exposure increases the risk of the outcome if OR <1, then - CORRECT ANSWER exposure decreases the risk of the outcome ANOVA - CORRECT ANSWER Compares mean values of 3 or more groups Chi square test of independence - CORRECT ANSWER best for two categorical variables: EX. Living arrangements and exercise Z test - CORRECT ANSWER statistical inference test to be used when the sample size is 30 or greater Continuous variables often know the standard deviation! cumulative incidence - CORRECT ANSWER The number of new cases in a time period. CI= Number of new cases in a time period/Population incidence rate - CORRECT ANSWER number of new cases of the disease during person-time of observation case studies - CORRECT ANSWER studies used to alert people of new illness or new association with illness cross-sectional studies - CORRECT ANSWER studies that include people who are representative of a given population- not selected based on illness or exposure observational study that analyzes data from a population at a specific point in time ecological fallacy - CORRECT ANSWER group-level data that are used to report on individuals ecological studies - CORRECT ANSWER a study in which the units of analysis are populations or groups of people rather than individuals Types of descriptive studies - CORRECT ANSWER case reports cross-sectional ecological studies type of analytical studies - CORRECT ANSWER case-control cohort randomized controlled trials systematic reviews or meta-analysis Relative risk - CORRECT ANSWER Ratio of the risk (incidence) of disease in exposed to the risk nonexposed RR = [a/(a + b)] / [c/(c + d)] Odds ratio - CORRECT ANSWER The odds of an event occurring= Ratio of probability of the event occurring divided by probability of even not occurring OR= AD/BC confouding - CORRECT ANSWER third variable that distorts the finding and true association effect modification - CORRECT ANSWER occurs when the magnitude of the association between exposure and outcome varies by the presence of a third variable stratum-specific measurements are close to one another Crude will be outside the range of stratum specific estimates - CORRECT ANSWER Confounder only stratum-specific measurements are significantly different from one another Crude will fall within range of stratum specific estimates - CORRECT ANSWER Effect modifier stratum-specific measurements are significantly different from one another Crude outside range of stratum specific estimates - CORRECT ANSWER Confounder AND Effect modifier analogy - CORRECT ANSWER Researcher can identify similar relationship between another exposure and/or disease biological gradient - CORRECT ANSWER dose-response relationship Does risk of disease increase with risk of exposure primordial prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Earliest stage: prevention of the development of risk factors for disease primary prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Concerned with preventing disease- occurs PRIOR to biological onset of disease secondary prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Addressed by most screening programs Occurs in preclinical phase, after disease is present but before disease progresses tertiary prevention - CORRECT ANSWER Rehab and support Disease occurred and goal=improve QoL and reduce symptoms reliability - CORRECT ANSWER consistency of measurement; repeatability validity - CORRECT ANSWER screening test is the ability of a test to accurately identify disease and non-diseased individuals sensitivity - CORRECT ANSWER the ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease: True positive specificity - CORRECT ANSWER The ability of the test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease: True negative PPV - CORRECT ANSWER number of people who test positive who actually have the disease divided by number of positive tests NPV - CORRECT ANSWER Number of people who test negative for a disease and do not have disease divided by total number of people who test negative Probability that subjects with a negative screening test truly don't have the disease sentinel surveillance - CORRECT ANSWER monitors a special community to look for changes in distribution of disease how many beds available to treat specific disease states - CORRECT ANSWER prevalence postoperative infarction rate in the cardiothoracic surg dept during May 2017 - CORRECT ANSWER incidence rate Physician looks back at his records and discovers that many of his patients were eventually diagnosis with DM. What kind of study design is this? - CORRECT ANSWER Case series Patients with a particular disease or sample are sampled. Researcher studies RF of lung CA in women. Researcher matches lung CA cases with patients who do not have lung CA. What kind of study is this? - CORRECT ANSWER Case-control nominal variable aka categorical - CORRECT ANSWER data collected on the category in which the participant falls in Describes variable in the categories ex. genotype, blood type, zip code, gender, race, eye color, political party dichotomous variables - CORRECT ANSWER Variables that can take on only two different values (ie exposure status as exposed or nonexposed) ordinal variable - CORRECT ANSWER Similar to nominal but categories have an inherent order continuous variable - CORRECT ANSWER variable that can take any valuable between minimum and maximum, indefinite amount Example: Age, weight, height best charts for categorical variables - CORRECT ANSWER pie and bar charts best charts for ordinal variables - CORRECT ANSWER histograms best charts for continuous variables - CORRECT ANSWER box and whisker plots Central Limit Theorem - CORRECT ANSWER even though raw data is not normally distributed, with repeated sampling the individual mean calculations of samples will form a normal distribution Sample with Fewer than 30 observations and std deviation is unknown. What test is appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER T test and T distribution what components make up a confidence interval? - CORRECT ANSWER Z score (or T score) + standard error, point estimate match paired test - CORRECT ANSWER Twin studies sum of squares between (SSB) - CORRECT ANSWER sum of squared differences of the means of each sample and the overall mean sum of squares error - CORRECT ANSWER sum of squared difference of each member of each sample with the sample mean chi square goodness-of-fit - CORRECT ANSWER comparing proportions of a categorical variable against specified portions what test is best when predictor and outcome variables are both continuous? - CORRECT ANSWER Linear regression Heteroscedasticity - CORRECT ANSWER A regression in which the variances in y for the values of x are not equal Constant variance of errors at different values of X Pearson correlation coefficient (r) - CORRECT ANSWER measure of the fit of the data to the regression line and the direction of association between the variables negative r - CORRECT ANSWER as independent variable increases, dependent variable decreases Distance of r value from 0 reveals strength of relationship - CORRECT ANSWER -0.9/0.9= strong -0.1/0.1= weak Age is considered a(n) ________________variable. - CORRECT ANSWER continuous Testing whether there is a statistically sig diff in number of sick days between vaccinated and unvaccinated individuals, what test should be used? - CORRECT ANSWER Two-sample t test range of R^2 values - CORRECT ANSWER 0-1.0 describes fit of regression lines to data Strong fit=closer to 1.0 Multiple Logistic Regression Analysis - CORRECT ANSWER Regression analysis on outcome variable that is dichotomous : vaccinated vs unvaccinate ANOVA with 3 sample groups consisting of 32 elementary students 20 middle school 15 high school What are degrees of freedom of numerator and denominator? - CORRECT ANSWER Numerator= K-1 3-1=2 Denominator=N-k 67-3=64 chi square test of independence Gender (M/F) vs. Color of backpack ( black, yellow, white, other) - CORRECT ANSWER (r-1)(c-1) (2-1)(6-1)= 5 r=number of categories in the first variable c=number of categories in the second variable two-sample T test Geography test scores between girls and boys in the class Boys= 22 Girls=19 Degrees of freedom - CORRECT ANSWER N1+N2-2= 22+19-2= 39 secondary audience - CORRECT ANSWER group that may have direct or immediate influence over the primary audience (ie. religious leaders, rock stars) The four Ps of marketing - CORRECT ANSWER Price Place Product Promotional strategy Key tool used to plan emergencies - CORRECT ANSWER Covello's Message Maps Four key questions to non-emergent communication - CORRECT ANSWER Description - What did you find? Explanation - Why did it happen? Interpretation - What does it mean? Action - What needs to be done about it? Engagement Strategies - CORRECT ANSWER creating a level of trust and familiarity towards individuals BEFORE informing or attempting to persuade ex. Hosting a facebook page for parents to discuss experiences REALM-SF - CORRECT ANSWER Rapid Estimate of Adult Literacy in Medicine - Short Form seven-item word recognition test to provide clinicians with a valid quick assessment of patient health literacy McKinsey 7-S Framework - CORRECT ANSWER Shared values as the center with interconnection hard elements (Strategy, structure, and system) and soft elements (skills, style, staff) to create a model for leadership Astin Model - CORRECT ANSWER consciousness of self, congruence, commitment, collaboration, common purpose, controversy, with civility and citizenship -- interconnected around change Three core functions of public health - CORRECT ANSWER assessment, policy development, assurance advisory board /committee - CORRECT ANSWER informing the design, implementing and evaluating PH programs, identifying resources, reviewing policy, making recs, and providing input to decision-makers task force - CORRECT ANSWER action-oriented group tasked with addressing an issue or priority coalition - CORRECT ANSWER formal alliance of organizations that come together to work for a common goal Executive board/committee - CORRECT ANSWER formal group whose membership may be elected. May provide oversight, strategy development, governing and planning for a larger entity Stages of Coalition Development - CORRECT ANSWER Formation, Maintenance, Institutionalization gatekeepers - CORRECT ANSWER those who formally or informally control access to a priority population or control specific aspects of a community opinion leaders - CORRECT ANSWER represent the views of the priority population 4 Levels of stakeholder engagement - CORRECT ANSWER inform consult involve Collaborate/empower social planning - CORRECT ANSWER Stress problem-solving and usually rely on expert practitioners to solve problems social action - CORRECT ANSWER Focus instead on an overarching goal to increase community capacity to solve problems and achieve concrete changes that address social injustices critical consciousness - CORRECT ANSWER Community members discuss root causes of problems and plan actions to address them Community Coalition Action Theory (CCAT) - CORRECT ANSWER Coalitions engage in core processes that include analyzing problems, assessing needs and assets, action planning, implementing strategies, and monitoring outcomes Collective impact framework - CORRECT ANSWER Success in collaborative efforts -- common agenda, shared measurement systems, mutually reinforcing activities, continuous communication, backbone support The Planned Approach to Community Health (PATCH) - CORRECT ANSWER Broad participation of wide spectrum of people at the local community level in goal determination Community health problems prioritized Asset Based Community Development (ABCD) - CORRECT ANSWER identify the types of skills and resources in the community and then consults with the community members on improvements they would like to make Mobilizing for Action through Planning and Partnerships (MAPP) - CORRECT ANSWER Community-driven specific planning process for improving community health SMART objectives - CORRECT ANSWER Specific Measurable Achievable Relevant Time-bound vision - CORRECT ANSWER what your organization thinks are the most ideal conditions of the community Mission statement - CORRECT ANSWER What the group is actually going to do and why -more concrete strategies - CORRECT ANSWER How you will reach objectives The Generalized Model of Planning - CORRECT ANSWER Assessing Need Setting goals and objectives Developing interventions Evaluating Results action plan - CORRECT ANSWER helps groups specify how objectives will be accomplished Phases of the PRECEDE-PROCEED Model - CORRECT ANSWER Social assessment Epidemiological assessment Educational and ecological assessment Administrative and Policy Assessment Social assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Focuses on quality of life Epidemiological assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Encompasses health issue, and those behavioral, genetic and environmental issues educational and ecological assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Determine predisposing, enabling and reinforcing factors Administrative and Policy Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Health program designed and educational and admin and policy factors need to be taken into consideration MAP-IT - CORRECT ANSWER Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track- developed in 2010 to allow communities to implement their adaptation of Healthy People 2020 anticipating challenges of program implementation - CORRECT ANSWER Formative evaluation Pilot implementation Process eval Human resources management Monitoring plan Formative evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER Encompasses research conducted that contributes to the design of the program Formative evaluation assesses the feasibility and appropriateness of a program before full-scale implementation. Process evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER Measures and describes the implementation of the program Process evaluation is concerned with how the program is delivered. It deals with issues such as when program activities occur, where they occur, and who delivers them. In other words, process evaluation asks whether the program is being delivered as intended Summative evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER occurs after components of the program has been implemented and assesses the short-term and long-term intended consequences and ultimately the effects of the program on the population impact evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER Examines more immediate effects such as changes in participants' knowledge, attitudes, beliefs, or behaviors The Impact evaluation will reveal information about the degree to which the program meets its ultimate goal and provides evidence for use in policy and funding decisions. why are stakeholders used in evaluation? - CORRECT ANSWER Improves validity and credibility Useful in interpreting evaluation findings and validating judgements systematic inquiry - CORRECT ANSWER the ability to acquire information from a variety of sources and to organize and interpret that information. It begins with designing and conducting investigations Ensures accuracy and credibility in methods and results, with transparency regarding limitations of the research utility standards - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure evaluation will be relevant and useful to program participants and stakeholders Feasibility Standards - CORRECT ANSWER Ensure scope and activities within an eval are not overreaching propriety standards - CORRECT ANSWER Address ethical considerations on behalf of those involved in eval and those who could be impacted by the results Accuracy Standards - CORRECT ANSWER Validity and adequacy of info used and conveyed by the evaluation agenda setting - CORRECT ANSWER key in the policy process and pertains to getting the problems on the agenda whereby congress, state legislators and public officials seek to address identified problem Policy formulation - CORRECT ANSWER the stage of the policymaking process during which formal proposals are debated; inaction may occur policy adoption - CORRECT ANSWER laws or ordinances passed by lawmakers streams of activity in policymaking - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Strong support from voting public 2. support for proposed policy design 3. political relationships receptive to change moral hazard - CORRECT ANSWER The demand for services increased, particularly unnecessary services, if they are provided at no cost to patients Bill becoming a law - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Both chambers pass version of bill. 2. Bills referred to conference committee 3. If consensus, conference report sent back to House and Senate for a vote 4. If passed by both chambers, President can sign bill or veto 5. If Vetoed, president vote may be overrided with 2/3 vote Medicaid expansion - CORRECT ANSWER An expansion of the Medicaid program under the ACA gives states the ability to expand Medicaid to cover all adults 18-64 living up to 138 percent of the federal poverty level. US Department of Health and Human Services - CORRECT ANSWER Encompasses medicine, social services, and PH It accomplishes its mission though various offices and agencies, which include CDC, FDA, National Institutes of Health (NIH), Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA), Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, Indian Health Service (IHS), Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry, Office of Civil Rights, Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA Iron triangle - CORRECT ANSWER Access, quality and cost Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA) - CORRECT ANSWER Passed by congress in 1986 to ensure medical care is accessible to all persons and not based on person's ability to pay cost shifting - CORRECT ANSWER The practice of shifting costs to some payers to offset losses from other payers Value-based purchasing - CORRECT ANSWER This is mandated by ACA. Medicare hospitals can earn incentives based on their clinical outcomes and patient satisfaction scores. They also can receive deductions in payments based on their compliance with Medicare criteria. Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) - CORRECT ANSWER Asks hospital patients about their satisfaction with doctors and nurses, responsiveness of staff, discharge instructions, and overall rating Title V of the Social Security Act - CORRECT ANSWER Provided funds for maternity care and children (and those with special needs) Each state administers this program through its state health agency. Funded through a Maternal and Child Health block grant, which is funded annually by Congress. These federal funds must be matched with state or local funds. IOM model - CORRECT ANSWER forming community coalitions to identify and prioritize health problems and subsequently develop, implement, and monitor intervention strategies grass roots lobbying - CORRECT ANSWER Encouraging members of public or professional association to contact policymakers about particular policy under consideration Political Action Committee (PAC) - CORRECT ANSWER Fundraising entities that exist to generate funds to advance specific issues, candidates, or political parties Earmarks - CORRECT ANSWER Special spending projects that are set aside on behalf of individual members of Congress for their constituents. cost-minimization analysis - CORRECT ANSWER Compare two different interventions relative to intended outcome Paris Agreement (2015) - CORRECT ANSWER Agreement made between the United Nations countries to cut down on the emissions of greenhouse gases in an attempt to slow down global warming. Mneumonic: All the air at top of the eiffel tower is too green. Hill-Burton Act of 1946 - CORRECT ANSWER provided funds to construct hospitals Roemer's Law - CORRECT ANSWER a built bed is a filled bed Comprehensive health planning act of 1966 - CORRECT ANSWER Transition of the State to block grants that gave states enhanced flexibility to meet PH priorities Medicare Part C - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare Advantage: HMO, PPO risk for losing money dependent on needs of enrollees incentive to recruit healthy old people Medicare Part D - CORRECT ANSWER Prescription drug coverage Donut hole - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare part D coverage gap Veterans choice program - CORRECT ANSWER Program where the VA enrolled member is authorized to receive care from community-based providers. TRICARE - CORRECT ANSWER provides the military and their families with health care Senate finance committee - CORRECT ANSWER Jurisdiction over taxes and other revenue-related affairs. One of most powerful committees with jurisdiction over health programs under social security act: Medicare, Medicaid and CHIP Senate committee on appropriations - CORRECT ANSWER Largest; responsible for legislation that allocates for federal funds to govt programs, agencies and organizations House Energy and Commerce Committee - CORRECT ANSWER oversight over nations laws ranging from telecommunications to health care Also has jurisdiction over Medicaid precontemplation - CORRECT ANSWER individual has no intention of taking action now or in seeable future (6 months) contemplation - CORRECT ANSWER individual intends to engage at some point in the foreseeable future preparation - CORRECT ANSWER individual plans to act and engage in the next 30 days. Taking small steps towards behavioral change. collaborating - CORRECT ANSWER Attempts to find a solution that will meet the needs of all parties. Compromising - CORRECT ANSWER Attempts to find a solution that will at least partially please all parties. Accomodating - CORRECT ANSWER An accommodating style forsakes your own needs or desires in exchange for those of others most accurate denominator for calculating disease rates - CORRECT ANSWER united states census system dynamics - CORRECT ANSWER modeling and simulation tool used to investigate stocks, flows, and feedback loops of complex problems Nazi Human Experimentation - CORRECT ANSWER in 1947 established international code of ethics point prevalence - CORRECT ANSWER number of current cases ÷ number of persons in the population passive surveillance - CORRECT ANSWER Requiring health care providers to report individual cases of disease as they are diagnosed to state or local health departments three core functions of the roles and responsibilities of public health agencies - CORRECT ANSWER Assessment Policy Development Assurance Std deviation of a sample mean. Sample size is 100 - CORRECT ANSWER standard deviation of the sample mean is given by σ / √n , here n = 100. The goal of ANOVA - CORRECT ANSWER The means of two or more populations are different Negative feedback loop - CORRECT ANSWER Results to a change dampens or buffers its effects Transactional Leadership - CORRECT ANSWER Transactional Leadership occurs where a leader influences another through a reciprocal relationship or an exchange of things of value to advance both of their agendas. It could be through contingent reward where the worker performs a task and both benefit from the outcome or through punishment. It is more closely aligned with management functions, getting a job done and achieving expected outcomes. Succession planning - CORRECT ANSWER deliberate and systematic effort by an organization to ensure leadership continuity in key positions, retain and develop intellectual and knowledge capital for the future, and encourage individual advancement sludge - CORRECT ANSWER The secondary biological treatment process used by most large municipalities produces substantial quantities of settled solids, termed "sludge," composed largely of masses of bacteria. About half of this organic-rich material is recycled each year as fertilizer, but its use is strictly regulated by the EPA because some sludge may contain potentially harmful concentrations of heavy metals and other toxic substances. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) - CORRECT ANSWER Before the National Environmental Policy Act, there was no requirement for a systematic study of the environmental effects of a proposed project. Thus, projects could be executed with little or no regard to the environmental effects. Poor environmental stewardship was apparent in many cases, for example, in disposal of hazardous waste and groundwater contamination. The significant environmental movement of the 1960s pressured Congress to pass the National Environmental Policy Act to promote developments that are in harmony with environmental protection. This approach is executed by ensuring that the environmental effects of a proposed major Federal action or project are studied, understood, and mitigated as much as possible and that better alternatives to a proposed project are preferred. HACCP - CORRECT ANSWER Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) is a systematic, science-based approach to identify and control problems that may cause foodborne illness before they happen. In the PRECEDE-PROCEED model, the step in program planning where planners use data to identify and rank health problems - CORRECT ANSWER Needs assessment In simple linear regression, what is a method of determining the slope and intercept of the best-fitting line? - CORRECT ANSWER Least squares Resevoir host of WNV - CORRECT ANSWER Bird Hard reduction - CORRECT ANSWER A set of practical strategies aimed at reducing the negative consequences of drug use. Accepts that licit and illicit drug use is part of our world and chooses to work to minimize its harmful effects rather than simply ignore or condemn them. Does not attempt to minimize or ignore the real and tragic harm and danger associated with licit and illicit drug use. incremental planning - CORRECT ANSWER Results in plans that may be immediately necessary, but results in gaps or overlaps The incremental approach to program planning will address only part of the problem, may be the result of disjointed efforts and leave many factors unaccounted for. Path-goal theory - CORRECT ANSWER leadership maintains that the leader can affect the performance, motivation, and satisfaction of followers Contingent theory - CORRECT ANSWER adoption of management style to meet the needs of all personnel one's task-relationship orientation can only be modified within certain limits and that structural and power factors will dictate whether you have a good leadership Douglas McGregor Theory Y - CORRECT ANSWER assumption that employees are highly/intrinsically motivated to do the work Douglas McGregor Theory X - CORRECT ANSWER employees are generally not satisfied with work and are motivated by salary alone; people are basically lazy Board of health - CORRECT ANSWER Level of government typically provides the oversight and guidance to prioritize public health needs and resources that focuses program planning and evaluation Language Needs Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Language Needs Assessment includes a review of four factors-the Four Factor Analysis-to guide LHDs (recipients) in meeting these mandates and to provide recommendations for providing translated materials and interpretation services. The four factors are: 1. The number or proportion of LEP residents within each district, 2. The frequency with which LEP individuals come into contact with VDH programs, 3.The nature and importance of the program, activity or service provided by the recipient to its beneficiaries, and, 4. The resources available to the grantee/recipient and the costs of interpretation/ translation services social cognitive theory - CORRECT ANSWER learning occurs in a social context with a dynamic and reciprocal integration of the person, environment, and behavior Focuses on the maintenance of behavior rather jus ton initiation. People learn through their own experiences but also by observing actions of others. Theory of Planned Behavior - CORRECT ANSWER Critical to this model is behavioral intent and the belief that these intentions are influenced by the likelihood that the behavior will result in an expected outcome. A study design that includes people who are representative of a given population. They are not selected on the basis of illness or exposure and can be used to determine initial associations and to identify the prevalence of either exposure or illness in a group.. - CORRECT ANSWER Cross-sectional Studies that select people on the basis of EXPOSURE and determine if people develop disease at different rates. - CORRECT ANSWER Cohort studies An systematic error in epidemiology as compared to an error attributable to chance alone - CORRECT ANSWER Bias Surveillance - CORRECT ANSWER The systematic ongoing collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination of health data. The systematic ongoing collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination of health data. - CORRECT ANSWER Mode The ability of a test to accurately identify diseased and nondiseased individuals. - CORRECT ANSWER Validity of screening test A datasource for evidence and decision making such as this website created by the Robert Wood Johnson (RWJ) Foundation which allows for choosing a state or county to review overall health outcomes and health factors - CORRECT ANSWER RWJ County Health Rankings & Roadmaps Web site A program that provides federal funds for care and support services to underinsured or uninsured patients who have HIV. - CORRECT ANSWER Ryan White HIV/AIDS Program A professional association and advocacy organization that works with its members and state affiliates to address current public health concerns. - CORRECT ANSWER American Public Health Association (APHA) three major routes of exposure by which chemicals can enter the body. - CORRECT ANSWER Dermal, oral, inhalation Tools and techniques, such as continuous, repeatable, defined processes and measurement methods, to systematically study and improve programs, activities, and efforts. - CORRECT ANSWER quality improvement A QI tool that uses horizontal bar charts to visually represent the list of activities that must be completed, with the timeline of when they will be completed. - CORRECT ANSWER Gantt Chart Beneficence - CORRECT ANSWER Protecting the well-being of research participants and ensuring the benefits of the research are greater than the risk One of the three research ethics principles that related to the obligation to treat research participants as autonomous agents and obtain informed consent to participating in research. - CORRECT ANSWER Respect for persons Permission granted in the knowledge of the possible consequences; typically given by a patient to a doctor for treatment with full knowledge of the possible risks and benefits or permission granted to participate in research that is competent and free from coercion . - CORRECT ANSWER informed consent Trying your intervention on a small scale which allows for process evaluation and identification of unintended consequences, as well as the opportunity to incorporate critical feedback to improve and refine the intervention. - CORRECT ANSWER piloting A type of research design that is concerned with establishing answers to the whys and hows of the phenomenon in question. - CORRECT ANSWER Qualitative research design analysis that can help identify existing community strengths or assets that can support the intervention, identify weaknesses, and plan for opportunities and potential threats, which can be both internal and external. - CORRECT ANSWER SWOT analysis safe harbor provisions - CORRECT ANSWER data elements to remove to create de-identified data sets p-value - CORRECT ANSWER probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true predisposing factor - CORRECT ANSWER Such factors are antecedents that provide the rationale or motivation for or against a behavior. Anything that makes the body more susceptible to disease. point source pollution - CORRECT ANSWER pollution that comes from a discrete source such as a factory , hazardous waste site, or landfill nonpoint source pollution - CORRECT ANSWER Pollution that comes from diffuse source. This includes runoff, which may come from agricultural sources, construction, urban streets, etc. contingency theory of leadership - CORRECT ANSWER Contingency theory has broadened the scope of leadership understanding from a focus on a single, best type of leadership to emphasizing the importance of a leader's style and the demands of different situations [Show Less]
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CPH Exam Practice 87 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CPH Exam Practice 87 Questions with Verified Answers Public Health professionals have to learn to work effectively with the media. Public health is po... [Show More] tentially appealing for the popular press because: 1. its stories have urgency, drama and novelty. 2. it is a source rich in detail, facts and figures. 3. scientists and journalists have a long history of mutual trust. 4. public information officers issue press releases. - CORRECT ANSWER its stories have urgency, drama and novelty in the design and implementation of public health data systems, installing security features should be: 1. inherent in privacy by design at all stages. 2. a task separately done by an expert cybersecurity team. 3. limited to firewalls and administrative control. 4. the final step before release of software systems. - CORRECT ANSWER inherent in privacy by design at all stages When beginning work with a coalition of community groups to improve health outcomes in the community, a key first step would be to: 1. Develop a shared vision 2. Develop an evaluation plan 3. Develop a data collection plan 4. Develop a logic model - CORRECT ANSWER Develop a shared vision If two copies of a mutant allele are necessary to cause symptoms of a disease to appear in the phenotype, what type of genetic disease is this? 1. Recessive 2. Sex-linked 3. Autosomal 4. Dominant - CORRECT ANSWER Recessive River water pollution due to stormwater runoff from chemically fertilized farm fields is an example of: 1. Non-point source pollution 2. Point source pollution 3. Accidental and unforeseeable pollution 4. Unpreventable and inconsequential pollution - CORRECT ANSWER non-point source pollution Count data, such as the number of events occurring in a specified period of time, are often described by which probability distribution? 1. Binomial 2. Chi-square 3. Normal 4. Poisson - CORRECT ANSWER Poisson is often used to describe count data and can be used to describe rate data by including an offset term for the denominator of the rate - CORRECT ANSWER Poisson Distribution the probability distribution for the number of successes in a sequence of Bernoulli trials, which are a series of trials where each trial can either succeed or fail, the trials are independent, and the probability of success is the same for each trial. - CORRECT ANSWER binomial distribution is a right-skewed distribution where the area under the curve is equal to one, it starts at 0 on the x-axis and extends infinitely to the right but never touches the x-axis, and where the curve looks increasingly normal as the degrees of freedom increase - CORRECT ANSWER Chi-square distribution a type of bell-shaped curve that is centered around a mean and approaches the x-axis when it is greater than 3 standard deviations away from the mean. - CORRECT ANSWER Normal Distribution The Dartmouth Atlas of Healthcare demonstrates that small area variations in Medicare expenditures across geographic areas are primarily attributable to differences in: 1. Physician practice styles 2. Consumer preferences for high-cost services 3. Age of the population served 4. Health status of the population served - CORRECT ANSWER Physician practice styles After identifying and appointing expert members to inter-professional teams for implementing health initiatives, the administration: 1. has shifted all responsibility to the team. 2. role should only consist of receiving periodic progress reports. 3. should plan to confirm the team norms and dynamics are productive. 4. can announce that the initiative was successfully launched. - CORRECT ANSWER should plan to confirm the team norms and dynamics are productive What is an evaluation designed to present conclusions about whether a program should be sustained, changed, or eliminated? 1. Formative evaluation 2. Implementation evaluation 3. Process evaluation 4. Summative evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER Summative evaluation evaluation falls into one of the two broad categories: formative and summative. ____________ evaluations should be completed once your programs are well established and will tell you to what extent the program is achieving its goals - CORRECT ANSWER summative evaluations Which of the following practices enhances equity across populations when making health policy decisions in a community? 1. Requiring randomized control evidence of effectiveness 2. Allocating resources based on population size 3. Collecting health-related data about the individuals in the community 4. Including diverse constituencies in the decision-making groups - CORRECT ANSWER including diverse constituencies in the decision-making groups A short narrative or statement that describes the general focus and purpose of a program is called: 1. A mission statement 2. A long-term goal 3. A long-range plan 4. An objective - CORRECT ANSWER mission statement To learn more about the "natural course" of syphilis, from 1932-1972, the US Public Health Service left infected study participants (comprised of poor black men) untreated. This resulted in pain, blindness, infertility, and death, as well as transmission of the disease to partners and children. The Tuskegee Syphilis Study, is a sentinel public health event because of these ethical violations and resulted in: 1. The Nuremberg Code 2. The Belmont Report 3. Rose-Welch Report 4. The Legal Epidemiology Competency Model - CORRECT ANSWER The Belmont Report The t-distribution approaches which distribution as its degrees of freedom increases? 1. Exponential distribution 2. Normal distribution 3. Binomial distribution 4. Chi-square distribution - CORRECT ANSWER Normal Distribution Which of the following pairs of values are most likely to conflict during a response to a public health emergency? 1. Truth-telling versus community welfare 2. Beneficence versus justice 3. Individual autonomy versus community welfare 4. Community welfare versus justice - CORRECT ANSWER Individual autonomy versus community welfare Historically, which of the following had the greatest impact on average life expectancy? 1. Vaccinations for infectious diseases 2. Improvements in sanitation and hygiene 3. Advances in medical care technology 4. Increased application of health education - CORRECT ANSWER Improvements in sanitation and hygiene Income, interpersonal stress, and education level are all examples of ____________, which determine the overall health, and quality of life of our communities. 1. Physical determinants 2. Spatial determinants 3. Environmental determinants 4. Social determinants - CORRECT ANSWER Social determinants As a first step in public health emergency preparedness, jurisdictions should: 1. Ask a local government leader what will be expected of them. 2. Outsource public health emergency preparedness responsibilities. 3. Self-assess their ability to address resource elements for each preparedness capability and then assess their ability to demonstrate the functions associated with each capability. 4. Design and conduct at least one table-top exercise. - CORRECT ANSWER Self-assess their ability to address resource elements for each preparedness capability and then assess their ability to demonstrate the functions associated with each capability. In the PRECEDE-PROCEED model, the step in program planning where planners use data to identify and rank health problems is called: 1. Behavioral assessment 2. Needs assessment 3. Ecological assessment 4. Environmental assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Needs assessment Policy analysis when designing public health programs is: 1. involves a straightforward statistical analysis of health and public polling data. 2. a subjective political task accomplished by legislative debate and trade-offs. 3. complex, involving data collection and clarification of objectives. 4. impossible to define because different policy areas require different approaches. - CORRECT ANSWER complex, involving data collection and clarification of objectives A district health department is trying to decide whether to invest in interpretation services and translated materials to address local language barriers, address needs of limited English proficient (LEP) clients and meet Federal requirements. The Four Factor Analysis-to guide LHDs in meeting these mandates and to provide recommendations for providing translated materials and interpretation services- is part of a 1. National Standards for Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) Assessment 2. Language Needs Assessment 3. Health Resource Access Assessment 4. Community Literacy Assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Language needs assessment Which of the following evaluates asymmetry in a distribution? 1. Skew 2. Range 3. Confidence interval 4. Kurtosis - CORRECT ANSWER Skew- refers to the symmetry of the curve a measure of the "peakedness" of the probability distribution of a real-valued random variable - CORRECT ANSWER kurtosis is a range of values that are, at a specified probability, likely to contain a specific parameter - CORRECT ANSWER confidence interval is a measure of dispersion that expresses the lowest and highest value contained in a dataset. - CORRECT ANSWER range Social marketing is the use of marketing principles to influence human behavior in order to improve health. Which one below is NOT one of the 4 P's of social marketing? 1. Price 2. Promotion 3. Place 4. Process - CORRECT ANSWER Process The four P's of social marketing is Price, Promotion, Place, and Product. A public health professional is asked to conduct a needs assessment for a community. A needs assessment: 1. Introduces resources to fill community gaps 2. Ensures a competent public and personal health care workforce 3. Assists to identify and prioritize health problems 4. Provides health resources for medically underserved populations - CORRECT ANSWER Assists to identify and prioritize health problems n some cases of food bourne illness, Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by which organism? 1. Listeria 2. E. coli strain 0157:H7 3. Cryptosporidium 4. Salmonella - CORRECT ANSWER E. coli strain 0157:H7 Which of the following survey items best assesses an individual's socioeconomic status in terms of increasing validity and response rate? 1. Income in the past month 2. Highest level of education attained 3. Eligibility for public assistance 4. Perception of economic insecurity - CORRECT ANSWER Perception of economic insecurity Which of the following approaches recognize that health of people is interconnected with health of animals and environment; and collaborate with physicians, veterinarians, ecologists, epidemiologists, and other related healthcare providers to monitor and control public health threats and to learn about how diseases spread among people, animals, and the environment? 1. Veterinary Public Health 2. Environmental Health 3. One Health 4. Population Health - CORRECT ANSWER One Health A researcher is working with local barber shops to plan a health promotion intervention. The intervention activities will include health education training workshops and educational print materials for the customers. The intervention activities are hypothesized to lead to changes in customers' fruit/vegetable intake, physical activity, and screening adherence. Which of the following statements describes how the researcher might start a formative evaluation plan? 1. Document which participating barbers attended each of the training workshops 2. Document the barbers' change in fruit/vegetable intake 3. Document the customers' change in physical activity 4. Convene focus groups in two barber shops to discuss print materials - CORRECT ANSWER Convene focus groups in two barber shops to discuss print materials A supervisor of a small community health clinic serving a largely multi-national immigrant community assigns their project manager the responsibility of developing a new process to ensure complaints and conflicts are addressed promptly and respectfully for each patient. This is prompted by a recent complaint that a staff member was rudely addressing a limited English-speaking patient and her family when trying to communicate a diagnosis. In order to create a new process that takes into account the cultural and communication needs of the patients, the program manager must: 1. Create a new conflict process based solely on examples from other clinics. 2. Select a group of patients to provide input on how complaints should be resolved. 3. Wait until a new complaint occurs to observe the existing process. 4. Ask their coworkers how they personally deal with complaints and conflicts in the office. - CORRECT ANSWER Select a group of patients to provide input on how complaints should be resolved. After reviewing evidence demonstrating increased survival of narcotic self-overdose after immediate naloxone administration, the State Commissioner of Health issues the following standing order: "This order authorizes pharmacists who maintain a current active license practicing in a pharmacy located in Virginia that maintains a current active pharmacy permit to dispense one of the following naloxone formulations (notes intranasal or autoinject kits options), in accordance the current Board of Pharmacy-approved protocol." "The State Good Samaritan Act states in part that any person who, in good faith prescribes, dispenses, or administers naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal in an emergency to an individual who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opiate overdose shall not be liable for any civil damages for ordinary negligence in acts or omissions resulting from the rendering of such treatment if acting in accordance with the Good Samaritan Act or in his role as a member of an emergency medical services agency." This order demonstrates: 1. Secondary Prevention and Harm Prevention Strategy 2. Secondary Prevention and Harm Reduction Strategy 3. Tertiary Prevention and Harm Reduction Strategy 4. Tertiary Prevention and Harm Prevention Strategy - CORRECT ANSWER Tertiary Prevention and Harm Reduction Strategy In the funding applications that state public health departments typically submit every year, program and organizational budget requests: 1. are not included, only research project funding is described. 2. are justified by reasonable numbers on accounting spreadsheets. 3. need explanation in a budget narrative. 4. tend to always be funded. - CORRECT ANSWER need explanation in a budget narrative. May a state officer or employee of a regulatory agency concurrently conduct an outside (private) business or accept outside employment? 1. Yes, provided the outside business activity is unrelated to the area that he or she regulates. 2. No, any outside business engagement gives the appearance of unacceptable conflict of interest. 3. Perhaps, but only if the outside business engagement is approved by the agency's head. 4. There is no clear ethical standard - this is more a question of ability to manage both schedules. - CORRECT ANSWER Perhaps, but only if the outside business engagement is approved by the agency's head. Which of the following is an example of a utilization rate used to monitor health system performance? 1. Congenital syphilis rate 2. Late stage breast cancer incidence rate 3. Infant mortality rate 4. Readmission rate for depression - CORRECT ANSWER readmission rate for depression Which of the following best characterizes the contingency theory of leadership? 1. The leader's authority is contingent upon subordinates 2. The leader's effectiveness depends upon factors in the leadership context 3. The leader's effectiveness depends upon the technical competency of staff 4. The leader's authority is contingent upon formal rules and sanctions - CORRECT ANSWER The leader's effectiveness depends upon factors in the leadership context All written intervention messages (whether printed, computer-delivered, or Internet-based) must: 1. Start with the most important information first 2. Include graphics, pictures, and the like to attract people's attention 3. Be at a reading level suitable to the target population 4. Be no longer than four sentences long - CORRECT ANSWER Be at a reading level suitable to the target population Select the qualitative method that collects data through a simultaneous conversation with a group of people. 1. key informant interviews 2. discourse analysis 3. surveys 4. focus groups - CORRECT ANSWER focus groups Waterborne diseases can result from fecal contamination. Which of the following would be classified as a waterborne disease? 1. Cryptosporidium parvum 2. Flavivirus 3. Plasmodium spp. 4. Borrelia burgdorferi - CORRECT ANSWER Cryptosporidium parvum The objective of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 and its equivalent at the State level is to: 1. Subject a proposed major project or action to a comprehensive environmental review study 2. Ensure that an important industrial project or action is constructed 3. Ensure that the environment is protected at all cost 4. Achieve sustainable development while relieving communities concerns - CORRECT ANSWER Subject a proposed major project or action to a comprehensive environmental review study An investigator measures a continuous variable on four independent groups of people and would like to know whether the means of each group differ. Which statistical method should the investigator use to answer this question? 1. Logistic regression 2. Cox regression 3. Chi-square test of association 4. Analysis of variance - CORRECT ANSWER Analysis of variance The "Greenhouse Gas" of primary concern in global warming is: 1. Chlorofluorocarbons 2. Carbon monoxide 3. Sulfur dioxide 4. Carbon dioxide - CORRECT ANSWER Carbon dioxide In the planning process, the group being served is referred to as the: 1. Pilot population 2. Key informants 3. General population 4. Priority population - CORRECT ANSWER Priority population An understaffed city health department submits an annual budget to it's city leadership; including a request for an additional 6.0 FTE positions. This budget includes the funding request but no accompanying narrative and was submitted despite the City Manager's request for each department to avoid any funding increases in their requests. When asked about this, the department responds by: 1. Submitting another budget with no new positions. 2. Asking another department to decrease their budget by 6.0 FTE positions. 3. Provide information to justify the increased number of positions. 4. Reaching out to the media to gain citizen support for the new positions. - CORRECT ANSWER Provide information to justify the increased number of positions. The primary disadvantage of incremental program budgeting is: 1. It makes comparison from one year to the next difficult 2. It requires the justification of all dollars allocated 3. It requires far more time and effort than zero-based budgeting (ZBB) 4. It may not reflect the current programmatic priorities of the organization - CORRECT ANSWER It may not reflect the current programmatic priorities of the organization Can federal environmental laws allow States to make parallel environmental laws? 1. Yes, if more stringent than federal standards 2. Yes, if less stringent than federal standards 3. Yes, if no less stringent than federal standards 4. No, states may not make their own environmental laws where federal laws exist - CORRECT ANSWER Yes, if no less stringent than federal standards Public health agencies should be aware of how to communicate the role of public health with external stakeholders. What is the role of public health agencies when communicating with external stakeholders? 1. To promote the agency and engage in advocacy 2. To promote favorable legislation 3. To provide STI tests and keep the public safe 4. To provide vaccinations - CORRECT ANSWER To promote the agency and engage in advocacy Under which circumstance would there be no ethical violation for an officer or employee of a governmental regulatory agency to accept food or beverage paid for by others? 1. Any meal, at any time, can be accepted from anyone except when an actual regulatory transaction is taking place. 2. Breakfast or dinner alone at his or her hotel provided in lieu of an honorarium for speaking at an industry-sponsored event. 3. Lunch provided on-site by an organization to everyone involved during day-long inspections of their operational facilities. 4. Meals or social events provided to all registrants at a regional conference attended as a registrant at an agency approved event - CORRECT ANSWER Meals or social events provided to all registrants at a regional conference attended as a registrant at an agency approved event By what programmatic mechanism does the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) work with states to implement national environmental standards such as NAAQS? 1. By creating a memorandum of understanding focusing on cost-sharing of environmental burdens 2. By establishing air quality monitoring stations 3. By using a State Implementation Plan (SIP) approved by the EPA 4. By funding risk assessment studies that provide a basis for the NAAQS for any criterion pollutant - CORRECT ANSWER By using a State Implementation Plan (SIP) approved by the EPA The logic model that has been the dominant paradigm representing types of information that may be collected to draw inferences about quality of care provided by a healthcare system has been: 1. Donabedian's model 2. Shewart's PDCA 3. Theory of Change 4. Web of Causation - CORRECT ANSWER Donabedian's model When conducting a research study, which of the following is an unique requirement when the study involves human subjects? 1. Securing enough funding for the project 2. Reporting only the data that strengthens support of the hypothesis 3. Ensuring that all participants receive an incentive upon completion of data collection 4. Obtaining a waiver or an approval from an Institutional Review Board prior to the start of the study - CORRECT ANSWER Obtaining a waiver or an approval from an Institutional Review Board prior to the start of the study Which of the following is an expected benefit of consolidating independent hospitals and provider groups into an integrated health care system? 1. Economies of scale in production 2. Lower costs of integration 3. Ease of accommodating diverse organizational cultures 4. Immediate gains in administrative efficiency - CORRECT ANSWER Economies of scale in production An appropriately tailored intervention message most importantly should: 1. Take into account characteristics of the target population 2. Be designed through community organizational strategies 3. Meet the criteria established by the funding agency 4. Be designed and tested by colleagues and experts in the field - CORRECT ANSWER Take into account characteristics of the target population Public health actions frequently involve a balancing of individual rights vs. the good of the community. Where that balance is struck based on: 1. Explicit direction found in the Nations constitution 2. Societal values 3. Science 4. Deontological principles - CORRECT ANSWER 2. societal values A clinical experiment with four treatment groups was analyzed using an ANOVA and a significant difference in the population means is found. Which of the following is a natural next step? 1. Tukey's or a similar method of pairwise comparison 2. Conduct multiple t tests 3. Conduct multiple chi-square tests 4. Power analysis - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Tukey's or a similar method of pairwise comparison The difference between primary and secondary prevention of disease is: 1. Primary prevention focuses on control of causal factors, while secondary prevention focuses on control of symptoms 2. Primary prevention focuses on control of acute disease, while secondary prevention focuses on control of chronic disease 3. Primary prevention focuses on control of causal factors, while secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment of disease 4. Primary prevention focuses on increasing resistance to disease, while secondary prevention focuses on decreasing exposure to disease - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Primary prevention focuses on control of causal factors, while secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment of disease Activists criticized America's public health policy response during initial years of its AIDS epidemic on the grounds that: 1. Absence of universal health care insurance prevented victims from accessing expensive treatment 2. Government indifference and political infighting resulted in apathy toward a suffering gay community. 3. Too much money was being spent on treatment, not enough on prevention to stop the epidemic. 4. Too much resource was being spent on urging people to change risk behaviors, not enough on medication. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Government indifference and political infighting resulted in apathy toward a suffering gay community. An incremental approach to program planning in public health: 1. Uses multiple sources and methods to collect similar information 2. Provides an intensive, detailed description and analysis of a single project 3. Produces a plan where the specification of every step depends upon the results of previous steps 4. Results in plans that may be immediately necessary but may overlap or leave gaps - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Results in plans that may be immediately necessary but may overlap or leave gaps Criteria pollutants of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) include: 1. Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) 2. Particulate matter and ozone 3. Mercury compounds 4. Carbon dioxide and methane - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Particulate matter and ozone To inform a policy decision so that an intervention will result in the largest possible number of persons benefitted, which of the following statistics provides the most useful indication of the magnitude of exposure to a factor and subsequent development of disease? 1. Likelihood ratio 2. Absolute risk difference 3. Relative risk ratio 4. Prevalence rate - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Absolute risk difference The best example of community engagement and empowerment refers to which of the following? 1. Teaching community members how to best communicate with providers 2. Conducting health needs and assets assessment with communities and sharing the information 3. Teaching self-determination to community members 4. Reciprocal transfer of knowledge and skills among all collaborators and community partners - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Reciprocal transfer of knowledge and skills among all collaborators and community partners A supervisor asks three staff members to work together on developing and implementing a community health needs assessment. The supervisor has requested the final needs assessment to be completed in three weeks and after two and a half weeks, only two of the staff members have completed their sections. What would be the best way for the supervisor to give constructive feedback to the staff member who has not completed their assignment? 1. Point out all the issues they have had with this staff member's performance to-date. 2. Prepare by developing a "feedback sandwich" approach with two reinforcing statements surrounding a corrective statement. 3. Give feedback to the staff member as the supervisor catches them on their way into the office. 4. Hold the entire team accountable in group meeting. - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Prepare by developing a "feedback sandwich" approach with two reinforcing statements surrounding a corrective statement. Waterborne diseases can result from fecal contamination. Which of the following would be classified as a waterborne disease? 1. Cryptosporidium parvum 2. Flavivirus 3. Plasmodium spp. 4. Borrelia burgdorferi - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Cryptosporidium parvum To evaluate public health performance, we consider capacity, process, and outcomes. Which of the following represents an example of an "outcome?" 1. An increase in the types of vaccines offered to protect against common childhood diseases 2. Decrease in number of children age 0-2 with vaccine preventable disease 3. Routine health care 4. Increase in number of patients seen in the mobile immunization van - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Decrease in number of children age 0-2 with vaccine preventable disease Using a qualitative evaluation method would be most useful in which of the following scenarios? The researcher is: 1. primarily concerned with the generalizability of the results. 2. interested in capturing the context of program participation and the participants' stories. 3. concerned with ease of analysis and interpretation of data 4. comparing outcomes for a group participating in a program to the outcomes for a similar group not receiving the program - CORRECT ANSWER 2. interested in capturing the context of program participation and the participants' stories. In a population of 5,000 people, 100 ate spinach contaminated with E. coli (O157:H7) and became ill. Of the ill, 15 died. What was the case fatality rate? 1. 20 per 1,000 2. 3 per 1,000 3. 150 per 1,000 4. 15 per 1,000 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. 150 per 1,000 15/100 = 0.15 X 1000 = 150/1000 persons. Which term is used to characterize the movement addressing the social condition of unequal distribution of environmental hazards experienced by minority populations or groups with low income? 1. Environmental equity 2. Environmental justice 3. Environmental pollution 4. Environmental democracy - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Environmental justice A collaborative approach to research that equitably involves all partners in the research process and recognizes the strengths that each brings. For example, these partners could include community members, organizational representatives, and researchers. Please identify which of the following options best describes this type of research. 1. Ecological Study 2. Community Based Participatory Research 3. Theory of Reasoned Action 4. Randomized Community Trial - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Community Based Participatory Research Which of the following factors is the least essential requirement for effective public health emergency preparedness? 1. Identifying surge capacity in the public health infrastructure 2. Developing channels for real-time interagency communication 3. Training key decision-makers and first responders for coordinated action 4. Developing and testing emergency preparedness plans on a monthly basis - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Developing and testing emergency preparedness plans on a monthly basis As identified in the seminal 1988 Institute of Medicine report on the future of public health, which of the following is not one of the three core functions of the roles and responsibilities of public health agencies? 1. Assessment 2. Financial performance management 3. Policy development 4. Assurance - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Financial performance management Cryptosporidium can become a problem in municipal water supplies because it: 1. Bioaccumulates in fish 2. Can survive the chlorine treatment process 3. Can infect the lungs when water is vaporized, such as in a shower 4. Can bore directly through the skin - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Can survive the chlorine treatment process When a person is healthy, without signs or symptoms of disease, illness, or injury, the level of prevention most appropriate would be: 1. Primary prevention 2. Secondary prevention 3. Tertiary prevention 4. Quaternary prevention - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Primary prevention To work effectively, a public health specialist should be able to meet the social, cultural and linguistic needs of individuals within the community. This is termed cultural: 1. awareness 2. competence 3. feasibility 4. measures - CORRECT ANSWER 2. competence Which of the following statements is not associated with the current paradigm of quality management? 1. Sanctioning individuals for mistakes is the most appropriate method for ensuring effective quality of care 2. The appropriate locus for ensuring quality is at the system level 3. Process improvement is essential to ensuring quality of care 4. Employee satisfaction and patient satisfaction are closely linked - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Sanctioning individuals for mistakes is the most appropriate method for ensuring effective quality of care An outbreak of pneumonia has occurred at a resort and it is determined that Legionella is the organism that is responsible. To find the source of the bacteria, one of the highest priorities would be to check: 1. food handlers for infected cuts and sores 2. for dead animals on the property 3. resort water supply and storage 4. employees who have come to work with influenza - CORRECT ANSWER 3. resort water supply and storage To report on a program to local officials about the degree to which the program meets its ultimate goal and provides evidence for use in policy and funding decisions, what is needed? 1. Feasibility study 2. Cost analysis study 3. Process evaluation 4. Impact evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Impact evaluation Waiting until a program or intervention is complete to begin evaluation activities misses important and valuable opportunities for what type of evaluation? 1. Outcome and impact evaluation 2. Summative evaluation 3. Process evaluation 4. Participant evaluation - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Process evaluation The first step in the policy process typically is: 1. Undertake Consultation 2. Problem definition 3. Policy analysis 4. develop options and proposals - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Problem definition The U.S. Supreme Court interpreted the 10th amendment to the U.S. Constitution to give the states 'police powers' to pursue public health initiatives that protect general welfare, however differences in such initiatives persist across the states because: 1. Police powers prohibit states from defining standards of care and required the federal government to do so 2. Standards of care are implied by police powers but implementation is left to the states 3. Police powers permit each state the right to define and delegate authority and responsibility for public health services 4. States use police powers to fund public health services only through property taxes, and these vary from state to state - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Police powers permit each state the right to define and delegate authority and responsibility for public health services National Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans suggest adults need to participate in at least 150 minutes per week in moderate intensity physical activity for substantial health benefits. A study was designed to test whether there is the difference in mean time (in minutes) spent in moderate intensity physical activity in adults with no, mild, moderate and severe depression. Time spent in moderate intensity physical activity is a continuous measure which can be assessed using an accelerometer. Which among the following is the most appropriate statistical technique to test the difference in time spent in moderate intensity physical activity between adults with no, mild, moderate and severe depression? 1. Spearman correlation 2. ANOVA 3. t-test 4. chi-square test - CORRECT ANSWER 2. ANOVA Facilitation takes work and in a meeting of multiple stakeholders it becomes important for the facilitator to prioritize his or her role. Above all the facilitator should: 1. Be neutral 2. Focus on the content 3. Take notes 4. Listen to the active speakers - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Be neutral The most important reason for reduced mortality during the initial stage of a demographic/epidemiologic transition in a population is: 1. Increased use of antibiotics 2. Improved sanitation 3. Increased immunization 4. Screening for common infectious diseases - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Improved sanitation [Show Less]
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