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HSA 4340 Exam Questions with Correct Answers 100%
A department manager has no responsibility for apparent compensation inequities other than reporting them to human resources. a. True b. False b. false ... [Show More] A particular strength of the team appraisal process lies in the implicit assumption that all team members perform at an equivalent level. a. True b. False b. false A department manager should never make a specific salary offer within the context of a selection interview. a. True b. False a. true The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) has essentially replaced the major provisions of the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA). a. True b. False b. false The terms "average" and "standard" are not interchangeable; the actual "average" of a group's performance is always higher than "standard" performance. a. True b. False a. true Completed performance appraisals can at times be considered legal documentation that the organization could be penalized for discarding. a. True b. False a. true Workers' Compensation is a benefit that is mandated by law. a. True b. False a. true It is not necessary for a department manager to know how the compensation systems works because such systems are the responsibility of human resources. a. True b. False b. false Portable benefits have been an innovation of recent years to serve an increasingly mobile work force. a. True b. False a. true The benefits most preferred by the majority of employees are health insurance, paid vacations, and flexible sick-time plans. a. True b. False b. false The single most important objective of performance appraisal is improvement of performance in the job the person presently holds. a. True b. False a. true There is little value in regularly appraising the performance of an individual who regularly does standard work and can go no higher in position or pay. a. True b. False b. false The manager should be familiar with current pay scales for all positions in the department and be able to explain to employees how the scales are administered. a. True b. False a. true It is essential for the department manager to be intimately knowledgeable of all of the organization's benefits plans. a. True b. False b. false Rather than rely solely on information from human resources, the department manager should periodically make an independent survey of wages for comparable positions in the community. a. True b. False b. false Many highly effective job-description based appraisal systems use only a three point scale. a. True b. False a. true In an appraisal rating scale it is best to use an even number of scale points, such as four or six, to discourage users from automatically focusing on a midpoint. a. True b. False b. false Unemployment compensation is generally made available to people who voluntarily resign their employment or who are discharged for cause. O True 6 False F A result of the steady replacement of defined benefit pension plans with defined contribution plans has been the increase of individuals' level of responsibility concerning their own eventual retirement income. a. True b. False a. true Individual employees have the right to know the hourly rate minimum and maximums for their pay scale as well as their own actual rates of pay. a. True b. False a. true Pay affects: a. employee motivation b. absenteeism and turnover c. level of employee satisfaction d. all of the above d. all of the above When a lower level position is paid more than a higher level position it is known as: a. internal equity b. external equity c. salary range d. salary inversion e. longevity d. salary inversion As compared with timing appraisals to coincide with each employee's anniversary date, the practice of evaluating all employees during the same brief time period: a. is recommended as the preferred timing of appraisals by external regulatory agencies. b. Has been proven to consistently produce inadequate appraisals that lack depth of detail. c. Enhances the accuracy with which a known budgeted amount of merit increase money can be distributed. d. Is preferred by many evaluators because it involves considerably less work overall. c. Enhances the accuracy with which a known budgeted amount of merit increase money can be distributed. Motivational theory based on measuring inputs and outputs. a. Equity Theory b. Expectancy Theory c. Maslovian Theory d. Angelettian Theorv a. Equity Theory The U. S. government ordering discontinuation of the process of freely sharing wage and salary information among organizations because: a. Too much erroneous information was regularly disseminated by individuals who were unqualified to conduct such surveys. b. Individual organization's conducting their own surveys were infringing on the territory of trade associations and professional survey firms. c. An uncontrolled variety of survey designs rendered most of the data that was gathered only marginally usable. d. The open salary survey activity was adjudged illegal under existing anti-trust legislation. d. The open salary survey activity was adjudged illegal under existing anti-trust legislation. A complaint of discrimination filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC): a. Must be taken to the EEC by an attorney acting on behalf of the complaining individual. b. Will, in most instances and in most states, be referred to the State Division of Human Rights (DHR) or comparable agency. c. Is costly to file, thus discouraging any number of potential complaints. d. Invariably means a hard time for the organization because the EEC is a federal regulatory body. b. Will, in most instances and in most states, be referred to the State Division of Human Rights (DHR) or comparable agency. The largest number of legal complaints centered on performance appraisal issues involves alleged violations of individual rights under this Act: a. Age Discrimination in Employment Act b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Civil Rights Act of 1964 d. Family Medical Leave Act e. Pregnancy Discrimination Act c. Civil Rights Act of 1964 The principal statutory benefits that must be provided to workers in all U. S. states and territories are: a. Workers' Compensation, unemployment compensation, and short-term disability. b. Workers' Compensation and unemployment compensation. c. Unemployment compensation, short-term disability, and pension. d. Workers' Compensation and short-term disability. b. Workers' Compensation and unemployment compensation. A wage increase that generally includes all employees, regardless of merit, is known as a: a. cost of living adjustment b. merit pay increase c. strategic planning increase d. pay rate a. cost of living adjustment Motivational theory focused on measuring effort, performance and outcome. a. Equity Theory b. Expectancy Theory c. Maslovian Theory d. Angelettian Theory b. Expectancy Theory A lower level position is paid more than a higher level position is an example of: a. salary range b. class differential c. salary inversion d. external equity e. internal equity c. salary inversion A significant feature of management by objectives (MBO) is: a. The person is evaluated on achievement of or progress toward specific objectives developed by the individual. b. The only comparison experienced by the person is with his or her own past performance. c. It lends itself well to the appraisal of higher-level technical or professional employees and managers. d. All of the above. d. All of the above. Pay is fair compared to other organizations is an example of: a. salary range b. class differential c. salary inversion d. external equity e. internal equity d. external equity When pay increases are derived from seniority, it is known as: a. internal equity b. external equity c. salary inversion d. salary range e. longevity e. longevity Claims for unemployment compensation by employees who have been terminated in one manner or another: a. Are of no concern in those few parts of the country where there is no unemployment compensation. b. Should always be challenged by the organization so as to keep associated expenses to a minimum. c. Are screened by the unemployment office to ensure their validity before being delivered to the organization. d. Should be challenged selectively based on whether the filing employee appears to be legally entitled to such compensation. d. Should be challenged selectively based on whether the filing employee appears to be legally entitled to such compensation. When pay is considered fair within an organization, it is known as: a. internal equity b. external equity c. salary range d. salary inversion e. longevity a. internal equity In a performance appraisal system, when the same standards are applied by the same rater to same or different individuals. a. intra-rater reliability b. inter-rater reliability c. intra-rater validity d. inter-rater validity a. intra-rater reliability Psychological theory that states that employees consider alternatives, measure costs and benefits, and choose a course of maximum utility. a. expectancy theory b. equity theory c. alternative theory d. financial motivation theory a. expectancy theory It established a minimum wage, hours and overtime pay standard for private employers: a. Civil Rights Act b. Civil Service Reform Act c. Fair Labor Standards Act d. Equal Pay Act c. Fair Labor Standards Act Under this principle, the employee with the longest service is given preference in such areas as promotions, transfers, layoffs, rehirings, choice of shifts, and choices of vacation periods. a. Contract work b. Union work c. Union contract d. Seniority d. Seniority During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if she is able to work overtime or weekends, if needed. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate a. Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate the name and address of of a person to be notified in the event of an accident or emergency. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate the date of his naturalization for U.S. citizen. a. appropriate b. not appropriate b. not appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if she is at least 18 years of age. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate a. Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate about her Worker's Compensation history. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. Not Appropriate The human resource model most common in hospitals and other labor-intensive service organizations is the a. Counseling model. b. Clerical model. c. Consulting model. d. Financial model. a. Counseling model. The majority of chief executive officers (CEOs) ordinarily expect their human resource departments to: a. Supervise recruitment, administer compensation and benefits, and maintain personnel records. b. Provide advice and counsel on employee matters. c. Keep the organization out of employment-related legal trouble. d. All of the above. d. All of the above. The most effective reporting relationship for the human resources director is: a. Reporting to the chief operating officer (COO). b. Reporting to the organization's financial executive. c. Reporting to the chief executive officer (CEO). d. Any of the above. c. Reporting to the chief executive officer (CEO). Of legislation in place prior to 1964, the regulations primarily affecting managers: a. Were non-existent. b. Affected only those managers working in financial capacities. c. Concerned only human resource managers. d. Were essentially limited to the Fair Labor Standards Act and the National Labor Relations Act. d. Were essentially limited to the Fair Labor Standards Act and the National Labor Relations Act. The most significant regulation of the employer-employee relationship by the government occurred with the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. a. True b. False a. true It is not necessary for a job description to capture every last detailed task that may be encountered in the performance of the job. a. True b. False a. true The process of obtaining information about jobs by determining the job's duties, tasks and activities defines which term? a. job analysis b. job evaluation c. job classification d. job specification e. job description a. job analysis It has been repeatedly proven that most health care workers are primarily motivated by the promise of material rewards. a. True b. False a. false The process of generating a job description begins with: a. A discussion between the department manager and a human resources representative about the content of the job. b. A draft of the job duties developed by the department manager. c. Researching published job descriptions for one that most closely compares with the job in question. d. A position analysis, that is, a thorough study and analysis of the job or position in considerable detail. d. A position analysis, that is, a thorough study and analysis of the job or position in considerable detail. The most effective managers invest considerable effort in developing a one-top-one relationship with each employee. a. True b. False a. true T/F. All offers of employment are made by the department manager, generally at the end of the interview process. a. True b. False b. false It is marginally easier to measure the cost-versus-benefits results of education than it is to measure cost savings in most other areas of organizational activity. a. True b. False b. false In most instances of hiring there is little need to ever interview more than about five applicants. a. True b. False a. true A health care provider organization's new-employee orientation plans are mandated by accreditation and regulatory agencies. a. True b. False a. true When providing reference information, any information shared: a. must be a subjective judgement of the manager b. must positively reflect the employee c. must be documented and verifiable in a personnel file d. must be limited to dates. titles and occasionally salaries c. must be documented and verifiable in a personnel file A health care organization's employee pension fund is ordinarily managed by an outside specialist rather than by the organization's HR department. A. True B. False A. True A health care provider organization's new-employee orientation plans are mandated by accreditation and regulatory agencies. A. True B. False A. True A departmental new-employee orientation program: A. Is not necessary for new employees who attend an organization-wide orientation. B. Addresses such matters as the organization's structure and leadership, employee benefits, the performance appraisal process, the dress code, parking, security, infection control and universal precautions. C. Should include an introduction to the people in the department and to the physical space, equipment, processes, and special department policies. D. Is sufficiently unimportant that it is often recommended to bypass the orientation and place the employee directly in the job C. Should include an introduction to the people in the department and to the physical space, equipment, processes, and special department policies. A department manager should never make a specific salary offer within the context of a selection interview. A. True B. False A. True A significant role of the position description in the recruiting process is: A. Describing the duties of the position to a potential employee. B. Assisting in guiding a department manager's interview questioning. C. Aiding in the development of print advertising copy. D. All of the above. D. All of the above. A department manager's most active and potentially most helpful involvement in reference requests concerning a former employee should be: A. Personally responding to reference requests in as much detail as practical. B. Ensuring that all pertinent official documentation concerning a former employee has been forwarded for inclusion in the personnel file. C. Refusing to supply reference information to a peer at another facility who does not willingly reciprocate. D. Preparing to respond with a detailed assessment of the ex-employees personality and character in case this is requested. B. Ensuring that all pertinent official documentation concerning a former employee has been forwarded for inclusion in the personnel file. An employee assistance program (EAP) is intended to assist employees in addressing particular personal problems that can affect work performance. A. True B. False A. True T/F. All offers of employment are made by the department manager, generally at the end of the interview process. a. True b. False b. false It is important that the interviewing manager be the person to extend the formal offer of employment. a. True b. False b. false In most instances of hiring there is little need to ever interview more than about five applicants. a. True b. False a. true All of today's interviewing prohibitions concerning information that cannot legally be requested came about with the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. a. True b. False b. false The interviewing manager should always rely on the employment recruiter to address apparent gaps in an applicant's employment history. a. True b. False b. false T/F. In many parts of the country, state codes prohibit workers from starting employment in a health care facility until they pass a pre-employment physical that includes a screening test for TB. a. True b. False a. true It is not valid to try judging whether an applicant would "fit in" with the group; rather, the sole basis for selection should be qualifications. a. True b. False b. false A health care provider organization's new-employee orientation plans are mandated by accreditation and regulatory agencies. a. True b. False a. true It is marginally easier to measure the cost-versus-benefits results of education than it is to measure cost savings in most other areas of organizational activity. a. True b. False b. false The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADA) removed most employers' ability to mandate retirement at a certain specified age. a. True b. False a. true T/F. Whereas most private employment agencies rely on candidates who are actively looking for positions, executive search firms, often called "headhunters," will approach highly qualified professionals who are currently employed and had not been looking for another position. Is this statement True or False? a. True b. False a. true T/F. The hiring of employees is generally an area of activity in which a department manager and HR personnel must usually work closely together. Is this statement True or False? a. True b. False a. true A department manager should continually compare observed performance with expectations in the ongoing assessment of training needs. a. True b. False a. true In certain specific instances it is legally permissible to ask an applicant if he or she has ever been arrested. a. True b. False b. false It is important for the manager or human resources to conduct all of a department's training sessions; it is inappropriate for non managerial staff to teach other non-managerial staff. a. True b. False b. false It is usually preferable to first recruit externally for new talent before opening up an available job to present employees. a. True b. False b. false Overall, compared with getting out the work of the department employee development is one of the least important aspects of a manager's role. a. True b. False b. false A department's better performers are more likely to remain with the organization if they see available training and development opportunities available to them. a. True b. False a. true It is preferable to start an interview with a question such as "Tell me all about yourself so as to elicit as much information as possible. a. True b. False b. false Requiring a physical exam or stress test for only those job applicants over the age of 50 is in violation of: a. the Civil Rights Act of 1964 b. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 c. the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 d. the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 e. ALL of the above b. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 The practice of "salary bumping." a. Stimulates expansion of the supply of a given occupation in the local area. b. Invariably demonstrates the existence of salary inequities when comparing the organization's pay scales to the scales of other facilities. c. When successful, raises the cost of doing business without increasing the local supply of talent. d. Is preferred and generally supported by the majority of human resource professionals. c. When successful, raises the cost of doing business without increasing the local supply of talent. The frequently occurring delay between the time an offer of employment is accepted and the individual starts work exists because: a. Time is required to check references and accomplish a pre-employment physical examination b. A certain delay is allowed in case the incoming employee has to work out a period of notice e at another job. c. It is necessary for the human resources department to clearly remain in control of the process. d. Alegally required orientation must be accomplished first. a. Time is required to check references and accomplish a pre-employment physical examination Experts have estimated that approximately this number of resumes include exaggerations or outright untruths. a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60% b. 40% An effective mentoring relationship between a new employee and an experienced employee: a. Usually seems to result when mentoring assignments are made at random or a senior employee is ordered to take on a mentoring role. b. Requires the department manager to constantly monitor all activities of both mentor and new employee. c. Requires the manager to remain sufficiently in touch with the process to be able to evaluate both the new employee and the mentor during and after the mentoring period. d. Is one that relieves a busy manager of all consideration of the activities of the new employee and the mentor. c. Requires the manager to remain sufficiently in touch with the process to be able to evaluate both the new employee and the mentor during and after the mentoring period. In most cases, a signing bonus and finder's fee bonus: a. cost less than a modest sized ad in a local newspaper b. cost more than a modest sized ad in a local newspaper c. cost the same as a modes sized ad in a local newspaper d. are considered poor human resources practices a. cost less than a modest sized ad in a local newspaper As compared with recruitment by transfer or promotion from within the organization, recruitment for an especially desirable position from outside of the organization: a. Is always preferable because there are seldom any qualified internal candidates. b. Is generally unnecessary and usually contrary to the recruiting policies of most modern health care organizations. c. Is sometimes the only available means of locating an individual having the appropriate qualifications. d. None of the above. c. Is sometimes the only available means of locating an individual having the appropriate qualifications. When providing reference information, any information shared: a. must be a subjective judgement of the manager b. must positively reflect the employee c. must be documented and verifiable in a personnel file d. must be limited to dates, titles and occasionally salaries c. must be documented and verifiable in a personnel file In interviewing an applicant for an entry-level position, it is important for an interviewer to: a. Find out early in the interview whether the applicant has completed high school. b. Insist on at least a minimal amount of working experience. c. Ask the person whether he or she intends to stay with the organization for the long term. d. Obtain a sense of the individual's willingness to learn. d. Obtain a sense of the individual's willingness to learn. When hiring entry level employees, a department manager should be able to select one suitable employee from among this number of candidates. a. 2 to 3 b. 5 to 6 c. 8 to 10 d. 12 to 14 b. 5 to 6 When the organization's finances are limited, education and training expenses are often cut from the budget because: a. Most of upper-level managers are not inclined to support education, which makes it easier for them to do without it. b. Education is often viewed as resources applied for no noticeable results. c. They constitute a large budget item presenting significant room for cutting. d. Education has been proven to play little or no part in retaining productive employees. b. Education is often viewed as resources applied for no noticeable results. During the early minutes of an interview, the interviewing manager should: a. Get immediately down to business by opening with a probing question and a no-nonsense attitude. b. Review the compensation and benefits structure with the applicant. c. Try some friendly social conversation to put the individual at ease. d. Ask the applicant why he or she wants this particular position. c. Try some friendly social conversation to put the individual at ease. A significant role of the position description in the recruiting process is: a. Describing the duties of the position to a potential employee. b. Assisting in guiding a department manager's interview questioning. c. Aiding in the development of print advertising copy. d. All of the above. d. All of the above. During the interviewing process, discussion of salary and benefits should be attempted by: a. the department manager b. the department secretary c. human resources d. anyone who participates in the interview process a. the department manager The department manager's role as a teacher in continuing education activities: a. Is usually significant because the manager is ordinarily well-versed in the department's tasks. b. is primarily one of training other employees to serve as teachers. c. Requires the manager to be highly proficient in all of the topics that will be taught in the department. d. Should be minimal. a. Is usually significant because the manager is ordinarily well-versed in the department's tasks. In preparing to interview a job applicant, the department manager should: a. Review the job description, modifying or rewriting it as necessary to fit the characteristics of the person to be interviewed. b. Do everything reasonably possible to meet with the applicant at the scheduled time. c. Prepare to describe his or her own rise in the organization as a means of "selling" the organization to the applicant. d. Remind the employment recruiter in human resources to be sure to send the application or resume with the applicant. b. Do everything reasonably possible to meet with the applicant at the scheduled time. Free agents are becoming more common: a. in occupations that remain in chronic short supply b. in occupations that remain in oversupply in the market c. in highly populated urban communities d. in low-income rural communities a. in occupations that remain in chronic short supply Over the past three decades, approximately how much of the information formerly requested on a typical employment application has become inaccessible because of legal contraints. a. 25% b. half c. two-thirds d. 75% c. two-thirds Free agent employees hold their allegience to: a. a particular organization b. several organizations c. their profession d. themselves only c. their profession With sign on bonuses, it is general industry practice to: a. pay 100% of the bonus when the employee is hired b. pay out 100% of the bonus after one year of successful employment c. pay 50% of the bonus at hire and pay 50% after successful employment of a stated time, generally between 3 months and one year d. pay 50% of the bonus at 6 months and pay 50% after one year of successful employment c. pay 50% of the bonus at hire and pay 50% after successful employment of a stated time, generally between 3 months and one year During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate the names of the applicant's relatives who are employed within the organization. a. appropriate b. not appropriate a. appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if her parent's or spouse are naturalized or native-born United States citizens. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if she is engaged. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate to submit baptismal records. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate whether she is a citizen of the United States. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate a. Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he has ever filed a Workers Compensation claim. a. appropriate b. not appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he has children. a. appropriate b. not appropriate b. not appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he is a veteran of the U.S. armed forces. a. appropriate b. not appropriate a. appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate about her abilities to perform the duties of the job under consideration. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate a. appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he is married. O appropriate not appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if she is at least 18 years of age. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate a. Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he holds the appropriate licenses or certificates for the position. a. appropriate b. not appropriate a. appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he has ever been arrested. a. appropriate b. not appropriate b. not appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate the origin's of his family name. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if she is a single parent. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. Not Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate the branch of armed forces if she served in the U.S. military. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate a. Appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he is of Arab descent. a. appropriate b. not appropriate b. not appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if his spouse would approve of the employment should he be hired. a. appropriate b. not appropriate b. not appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate if he has been honorably discharged from the U.S. armed forces. a. appropriate b. not appropriate b. not appropriate During a recruitment interview, asking a candidate where his family originally came from. a. Appropriate b. Not Appropriate b. not appropriate Union organizing was first legalized by the passage of the Norris-LaGuardia Act. a. True b. False a. true The human resources specialty of labor relations was established for the purpose of dealing with labor unions. a. True b. False a. true Under the provisions of the Employee Polygraph Protection Act (EPPA): a. At the option of an employer, all job applicants may be required to take polygraph tests. b. Routine use of polygraph tests is permitted in organizations that are concerned with nuclear power. c. An employee's failure of a polygraph test must result in the employee's discharge. d. Any employer is permitted utilize polygraph testing as long as the employees to be tested are selected at random. b. Routine use of polygraph tests is permitted in organizations that are concerned with nuclear power. [Show Less]
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HSA Questions and Answers 100% Correct
dividing powers between the state and national government. Federalism dividing powers among the 3 branches of government. Separation of Powers ... [Show More] Powers that each branch is given to keep the other branches under control. Checks and Balances Check and balance that the courts have to declare laws of congress and actions of the president unconstitutional. Judicial Review The form of gov. in which the people choose leaders to make decisions for them. Representative Democracy Our gov's power is limited by the constitution and the bill of rights. Limited Government Everyone must follow the laws no matter who they are. Rule of Law Each person has rights as well as responsibilities such as paying taxes and voting. Individual Rights and Responsibilities the people give the gov. the right to rule. Consent of the Governed More than half the people choose the leaders and influence the gov. Majority Rule Rule by the people. Popular sovereignty The 14th ammendment guarantees that all people are equally treated by the government. Equal Protection The government can take your land or property for public use, gov. must compensate or pay the owner for the property. Eminent Domain People accused of crimes must receive a trial. Bill of Attainder laws that punish people for actions before the action was illegal. Ex Post Facto Laws Early English document that established the principles of limited gov and due process. Magna Carta Proposed law is placed on a ballot for voters to vote on. Referendum Provides a means by which a petition signed by a certain minimum number of registered voters can force a public vote on a proposed statute. Initiative The person bring the suit. Plaintiff the person being sued Defendant An agreement etween two or more parties. Contract Breaking an agreement with another party. Breach of Contract Lawsuits in which someone is injured Torts the money the defendants have to pay if they are found liable. damages more than half the evidence preponderance of evidence jury that makes the decision in a case. petit jury agreements between two sides to settle the case outside of court. out of court settlements person on trial defendent represents the gov. prosecutor paper that says a person must be brought before a judge when they are put in jail. Writ of Habeus Corpus judicial review. Marbury vs. Madison supremacy of national law and upheld implied powers of congress. McCulloch vs. Maryland "seperate but equal" and segregation is constitutional. Plessy vs. Ferguson overturned Plessy and made segregation unconstitutional. Brown vs. BOE due process issue, accused must be informed of their rights. Miranda vs. Arizona due process issue, accused has a right to a lawyer. Gideon vs. Wainwright Freedom of expression in schools as long as it does not disrupt school activities, expanded student rights. Tinker vs. Des Moines 4th Ammendment, school officials only need reasonable cause to search students, reduced student rights. New Jersey vs. TLO [Show Less]
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HSA Revised Questions and Answers 100% correct
What is Health Saving Accounts A Health Savings Account (HSA) is to pay or reimburse certain medical expenses you incur. You must be an eligible individu... [Show More] al to qualify for an HSA. You set up an HSA with a trustee。e.g. bank What are the benefits os Health Saving Accounts 1. You can claim a tax deduction for contributions you, or someone other than your employer, make to your HSA even if you don't itemize your deductions on Schedule A 2. Contributions made by your employer may be excludedfrom gross income. 3. The interest or other earnings on the assets in the account are tax free. 4. Distributions may be tax free if you pay qualified medical expenses. 5. HSA is portable while you change employer Who qualifies for HSAs To be an eligible individual and qualify for an HSA, you must meet the following requirement 1. You are covered under a high deductible health plan (HDHP), described later, on the first day of the moth. 2. You have no other health coverage 3. You canot be enrolled in Medicare 4. You can't be claimed as a dependent on someone Under the last-month rule, you are considered to be an eligible individual for the entire year if you are an eligible individual on the first day of the last month of your tax year (December 1 for most taxpayers). Contributions to an HSA 1. For employee HSA, both employees and employer can contribute 2. For self-employed, family member can contribute 3. Contributions to an HSA must be made in cash. Limit on Contributions If you have self-only HDHP coverage, you can contribute up to $3,400. If you have family HDHP coverage, you can contribute up to $6,750. [Show Less]
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HSA 3110 Exam Questions with Correct Answers!!~
Which of the following is generally seen as less formal and less structured than the others? employee team When a full time employee plans to open ... [Show More] his own private practice on weekends, while continuing as a week day employee with his regular employer, he is free to do so without consulting the full time employer. false A due diligence report is carried out on an annual basis. false The initial strategic plan is usually completed after the organization has moved out of the youth stage of the life cycle and well into the middle age phase of the life cycle. false Standing committees focus on recurring issues, and the basic purposes of the committees and their characteristics remain the same over time. A sometimes-significant disadvantage of committees is that committee interaction, with its emphasis on deliberation and group participation, is relatively slow compared with other decision-making processes. the time consumed including the hours spent in formal meetings can be expensive. coordinating the availability of a number of busy committee members can be difficult. The plural executive is a body such as an organization's board of directors that exercises authority over the organization's management. The permanent record of committee proceedings is known as the minutes Advantages of the use of committees include multiple minds focused on the issue or problem to produce a result. the participation by, or representation of, more employees. the facilitation of communication across units and departments. The impetus for the creation of a task force is often complex work involving multiple systems. Top management can create a climate in which the work of committee members is valued by including an assessment of committee work and assignments in the employee evaluation system for merit raises and promotions. committee work as an important part of the job description. training for effective committee involvement as part of the training program for employees. Which of the following statements about committees is a FALSE statement? A larger body entrusts a smaller subset of members to do something for them. The task force is created to carry out a specific project or assignment and present it findings to a person or committee that has line authority. The standard classification of expenditures and other budget transactions is called the Uniform Code of Accounts. The budget in which the actual volume for the budget period is plugged in to tell the manager what the profits should have been for the actual volume attained is the flexible budget. Employees may be less committed to budget goals developed by bottom-up budgeting compared to the top-down approach. True The largest category of expense in a department's budget is usually personnel costs The budget category which cannot be cut or reduced is computer software licensing agreements. Costs associated with land, buildings, machinery, and equipment that are owned and operated by the organization are listed under capital expenses. The planning approach usually associated with budgeting is maximizing. Volume variances will be reflected by differences between the actual profit and the static budget profit. The best type of maintenance and repair plan for a department having a mix of new and older equipment is the fee-for-service plan. false The actual, flexible, and static budgets are utilized when performing a variance analysis. The expense budget focuses on the cost of providing services. Decreasing inefficiency of the revenue cycle by performing each process in the revenue cycle correctly the first time to eliminate redundant work processes and rework is referred to as revenue integrity The most common areas where hospitals fail to realize revenue for services they have delivered include all of the following except physician services. A common approach to maintenance and repair allocations is the service agreement. the fee-for-service plan The revenue budget combines volume data with data on how much reimbursement can be expected for each service provided. A graphical representation of an ordered sequence of events, steps or procedures is the flowchart The process known as DMAIC is a feature of Six Sigma. Objectivity is a necessary feature of control processes and tools. This means that control processes should be grounded in fact and the standards should be known and verifiable. The use of a professional association's initiative in quality control programs is an example of external benchmarks. The usual term for a visual control chart for plotting scheduling and progress is Gantt chart. In order to determine priorities by comparing factors and to facilitate sorting the few critical elements from the less urgent in workflow analysis, a manager would usually develop a Pareto chart. Measures of performance must be realistic and convincing to the people using them. valid enough to identify real objectives. reliable enough to measure actual change in performance. comparable over time The Six Sigma approach to total quality management is characterized by statistical analysis of variations. Which management function might be seen as a policing operation by the workers? Controlling To identify cost-effective improvement opportunities, organizations can look at data related to high-risk, high volume, and problem-prone areas, processes, and procedures. financial/operational data. staff suggestions about faulty processes. In order to identify trends in workflow, a manager would usually develop a run chart. As part of a quality control program, the work is inspected in the basic phase of the work process rather than at later levels or steps in the process. This characteristic of adequate controls is termed comprehensiveness. The comparison of one's activity or results with the level of activity or results of another department or organization is known as benchmarking. In order to show the relationship between two variable factors in workflow analysis, a manager would usually develop a scattergram. A graph that shows frequency distribution and can be used to measure the rate and frequency of occurrences to determine the usual and most predictable patterns when averaging is not a reliable indicator is the histogram. Which of the following is said to occur when two or more departments must be consulted as a normal part of a check and balance system when making changes to a process that involves these departments? concurring authority Functional authority is the right of individuals to exercise some degree of authority over the specialized tasks for which they are accountable, regardless of who exercises line authority over the employees performing the activities. true Benefits of this arrangement include reduced travel time, fewer interruptions, better work environment, and possibly flexible hours for the worker, while the organization is able to reduce expenses related to the need for space and often gains improvements in productivity. telecommuting. Telecommuters remain employees of the temporary agency that supplies them, and not the organization that utilizes them. false Job descriptions can be used for: recruitment selection orientation and training evaluation The dual pyramid form of organization refers to the traditional relationship of the medical staff to the administrative staff in health care organizations. A manager that has direct authority and responsibility of a unit, and has the right to command others to act is said to have line authority. An acute care hospital has received a major grant for a five year research project in neighborhood health care services. The continuance of the research project after the five years is uncertain. The most likely pattern of organization for the research project is temporary departmentation. Dual organizational units refers to the situation when departments are created for the purposes of control or competition. The use of independent contractors is a form of outsourcing. The use of split-reporting relationships is rare in the modern health care organizational environment. false The path from top to bottom that orders and instructions may be expected to follow is know as the organizational hierarchy. A staff assistant provides advice, counsel, or technical support that the line officer may accept or reject. Span of management refers to the number of immediate subordinates who report to any one manager. In health care, which of the following perform the line functions? Direct patient care units. Internal Revenue Service (IRS) guidelines defining an independent contractor state that the using organization decides whether a particular service provider is an employee or an independent contractor. Which alternate organizational pattern is used mostly to provide a flexible and adaptable organizational structure for specific projects? Matrix organization This alternate organizational pattern provides structure without interrupting the organization's normal business by hiring separate workers using funds available from a research grant. Temporary departments Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the use of temporary help from agencies specializing is supplying trained personnel? For any temporary position that last longer than six months, it is probably more economical to use temporary help than hiring permanent staff. The most common form of departmentation is based on function The company's personality, often exhibited in the way employees perceive, think and feel in relation to problems in the work place, is called the Corporate Culture. The authority associated with staff employees is termed functional authority. [Show Less]
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HSA 3170 Correctly Answered Questions 2022/2023
C- Corporation A traditional for- profit corporation S Corporation A for-profit corporation with a limited number of stockholders that, after fili... [Show More] ng an application with the Internal Revenue Services, is taxed as a proprietorship or partnership LLP Limited Liability Partnership; a partnership that limits the professional(malpractice) liability of its members For-Profit a legal business entity that is separate and distinct from its owners and managers Not-for-Profit businesses that are owned by the community at large and are controlled b a board of trustees. They are exempt from local, state, and federal income and property taxes. Pooling the spreading of losses over a large group of individuals or organizations Random Loss an unpredictable loss, such as that results from a fire or hurricane Moral Hazard the risk to an insurer that excess healthcare services are being consumed because individuals do not bear the full cost of the services provided Deductible the dollar amount that must be spent on healthcare services before any benefits are paid by the insurer Self-Insurers make a conscious decision to bear the risks associated with healthcare costs and set aside funds to pay for costs they may incur in the future Public Insurers Medicare, Medicaid, workers' compensation, TRICARE Medicaid a joint federal-state health insurance program that primarily covers low-income individuals and families; the federal government funds about half of the costs of the program while the state pays the remainder Medicare a federal health insurance program that primarily covers elderly individuals that are 65 or older; consists of 4 major parts: Part A: covers inpatient services, Part B: covers outpatient services, Part C: is managed care coverage that places Part A and B, Part D: covers prescription drugs Pay for performance a reimbursement system that rewards providers for meeting specific goals Variable Costs costs that are related to or depend on volume Average cost the total costs divided by the volume Cost allocations the assignments of overhead costs such as financial services costs from a support department to the patient services departments Zero-based budgeting a budget that starts with a zero balance on the budget; department managers must fully justify every line item on the basis of expected volume Expense budget- a list of expected expenses of an organization, usually by department and service and further broken down into components such as facilities, labor, and supplies Variance analysis an examination and interpretation of what has actually happened versus what is expected to happen The accounting function within business is broken down into two major area which are? Managerial and Financial How many cost allocation methods are there? 3 Which is not a step required to implement Activity Based Costing (ABC)? Calculate the total cost of the service by traditional costing services What method is the most difficult to understand and to implement? Reciprocal What are the Four Cs? Cost measurement and minimization, Cash management, Capital acquisition, Control of resources What does the term "healthcare finance" mean? Encompasses the accounting and financial management functions of healthcare obligations What are the major differences between investors-owned and not-for-profit corporations? Investors-owned are created to make a profit and must pay taxes on earnings before dividends are distributed. Not-for-profit do not make a profit and are exempt from paying taxes What are the different types of partnerships? Limited Liability Partnership, Limited Liability Company, Professional Corporation Commercial Health Insurance traditionally was issued by life insurance and casualty insurance companies What is a cost pool? A group of overhead costs to be allocated to the patient services department What is a simple budget? The original budget, unadjusted for actual volume A rolling budget is a? Continuous Budget The average cost of each inpatient stay is? Cost per Discharge The average profit made each inpatient stay is? Profit per Discharge What is the amount of inventory held to meet expected usage? Base Stock A value used to assess one element of performance is called what? Metric What is the fourth phase of revenue cycle activities? Those that are continuous Chapter 6 covers important managerial activities, what are they? Planning and Budgeting Which is not one of the four phases of the revenue cycle? 46% What happens when a borrower defaults? Borrower fails to make promised payment What are the benefits of payback? Accepted up to 5 years Which risk assessment technique covers financial and nonfinancial factors? Project Scoring What do you call a cash flow that was for last year on a lifelong project that has lost its value? Terminal Value An External examination of financial statements by outside parties? External Audit What does GAAP stand for? Generally Accepted Accounting Principles What is found on the income statement? Revenues, Expenses, Net Income Depreciation Expenses from the purchase of a long-lived asset such as building and equipment Non-Operating income is? An income unrelated to provision of patient services The process of creating and analyzing ratios from the data found in the business's financial statements are? Ratio Analysis 1.)What happens when a borrower defaults? a. failure to borrow to make a promised payment 2.) What are the benefits of payback? d. accepts paybacks up to 5 years 3.) Which risk assessment technique covers financial and nonfinancial factors? d. project scoring 4.) What do you call a cash flow that was for last year on a lifelong project that has lost its value? d. terminal value 5.) An external examination of financial statements by outside parties? b. external audit 6.) What does GAAP stand for? b. generally accepted accounting principles Different types of partnerships LLP LLC PC Traditionally was issued by life insurance and casualty insurance companies commercial health insurance [Show Less]
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HSA Exam Questions with Correct Answers 2022/2023
the word root nephr refers to kidney the word root cardi refers to heart which of the following word roots indicates uterus hyster ... [Show More] which of the following word roots indicates skin dermat which of the following word roots indicates joint? arthr the prefix hyper refers to above the prefix poly refers to many The suffix -ology refers to study of the suffix -ostomy refers to creating of an opening the suffix -megaly refers to enlargement this suffix means hardening sclerosis this suffix means surgical puncture centesis the medical abbreviation q.i.d. means four times a day the medical abbreviation ad lib means as often as needed the prefix tachy refers to fast the medical abbreviaiton stat means immediately the prefix macro refers to large the abbreviaiton T stands for temperature which of the following prefixes indicates red erythro the medical abbreviation gtt stands for drop the medical abbreviation CABG stands for coronary artery bypass graft the medical abbreviation CVA stands for stroke the medical abbreviation ROM stands for strenghthening exercises the medical abbreviation MRI stands for magnetic resonating image the medical abbreviation EEG stands for electroencephalogram the heart and lungs are contained in this body cavity thoracic the stomach is contained in this body cavity abdominal the reproductive organs are contained in this body cavity pelvic the body is divided into top and bottom sections by this plane transverse which of the following body cavities is located on the front of the body ventral this directional term refers to those body parts that are far away from the point of attachment distal the right lumbar region is located in which of the following body cavities? abdominal student A says that the eyes are lateral to the nose. Student B says that the stomach is superior to the heart. Who is correct? Student A Student A says that the elbow is distal to the wrist. Student B says that the stomach is inferior to the heart. Who is correct? Student B Student A says that the elbow is proximal to the wrist. Student B says that the heart is inferior to the brain. Who is correct? Both Student A and Student B the abdominal region located in the middle is the umbilical the appendix is located in this abdominal quadrant RLQ the brain encased in which of the following body cavities cranial this body plane divides the body into right and left sides midsaggital this body plane divides the body into front and back portions frontal [Show Less]
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HSA 3191 Exam Correctly Answered Questions 2023!
refers to the connection of people and diverse computer systems. interoperability is the use of computers and software to enter prescriptions and s... [Show More] end them to pharmacies electronically. e-prescribing was passed by the U.S. Congress and signed into law in 1996. Its goal was to make health insurance portable from one job to another and to secure the privacy of medical records. HIPAA has the task of overseeing the adoption and meaningful use of EHRs, setting standards, and judging the impact. ONCHIT Which of the following are obstacles in the way of adopting electronic records? Cost, privacy concerns, lack of interoperability The _____ is a code used by private and government insurers to determine insurance reimbursement. DRG informatics focuses on the use of technology to organize information in health care in order to improve health care; it includes the administrative, clinical, and special-purpose uses of computers. Clinical or medical _____ has the tasks of overseeing the adoption and meaningful use of EHR, setting standards, and judging the impact. ONCHIT The _____ is a longitudinal electronic record of patient health information generated by one or more encounters in any care delivery setting. EHR The _____ belongs to one health care institution—a doctor's office or hospital. EMR The EHR is the property of any one institution or practitioner. _____ False There are no specific differences between the EMR and EHR. _____ False Regional cooperation is being fostered through the establishment of RHIOs. _____ True One of the problems with paper records is that they may be illegible. _____ true HIPAA's goal was to make health insurance portable from one job to another and to secure the privacy of medical records. _____ True _____ will permit the exchange of all medical information in the United States. eHealth exchange PACS is a system associated with _____ information systems. radiology _____ applications include the use of computers in office management, accounting, scheduling, and planning. Administrative Medicare serves _____ . People 65 and older people with chronic renal disorders Practices that submit electronic claims use a/an _____, a business that collects insurance claims from providers and sends them to the correct insurance carrier. ... ____ uses computers and telecommunications equipment to deliver medical care at a distance. telemedicine ___ treats skin rashes at a distance. teledermatology ______ technology involves sharing information in a time- and place-independent way over the Internet. store-and-forward In ________, the pathologist sees images on a monitor instead of under a microscope. telepathology ______ involves the delivery of therapy using teleconferencing. Telepsychiatry Telemedicine involves __________. the linking of doctors and patients at a distance the transmission of radiologic images via telecommunications lines the transmission of patient data in any form One technology used in teleradiology is called ______. Store-and-forward Before telemedicine can deliver high-quality medical services at a distance, ______. a reliable broadband telecommunications network has to be in place state licensing barriers have to be overcome The transmission of microscopic images over telecommunications lines is called ______. telepathology Telemedicine projects in prisons have been found to ______. improve health care cut costs improve security allows doctors and patients to consult in real time, at a distance. interactive videoconferencing Remote medical consultations and exams were first tried _____ as soon as the telephone was invented The ______ program at Massachusetts General allows quick diagnosis and can determine if tPA should be used in treatment. telestroke Many telemedicine programs have been found to be effective; however, ______ is not. distance monitoring of problem pregnancies Medical insurance has limited and restricted telemedicine. _____ true The broadband links are in place to deliver telemedicine all over the world. ______ false State licensing of doctors is an obstacle to the development of telemedicine. ______ true The oldest form of telemedicine is teleradiology. ______ true Telemonitoring is used for a small percentage of ICU beds. ______ true [Show Less]
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HSA 3150 Review Questions And Answers 2023
A policy described as "allocative" seeks to distribute goods and resources to one group at the expense of others. Historically, food consumption an... [Show More] d physical activity have been viewed as inappropriate subjects for government regulation. true Which of the following is an example of an Allocative policy? Medicaid The primary reason to develop a health policy is to enhance health and/or support people in their quest for good health. Which of the following is a determinant of health? a. genetic makeup b. lifestyles and behaviors c. physical environment d. utilization of health services e. a and b are determinants of health f. all of the above are determinants of health all of the above are determinants of health market-entry restrictions and price regulations are types of regulatory policies health policy interventions in diseases that are behaviorally caused or exacerbated have focused on efforts to influence behavior through education Structurally and operationally, the healthcare market works very much like a perfectly competitive economic market. false "healthcare disparities" are best defined as differences in variables such as access, insurance, coverage, and quality of services received. The amount of health policy related information available to individual consumers has decreased in the last decade. false Which of the following statements concerning the United States Congress is FALSE? a. The Legislative Branch of the federal government consists of the House of Representatives and the Senate, which together form the United States Congress. b. All legislative power in the federal government is vested in Congress, meaning that it is the only part of the government that can make new laws or change existing laws. c. Congress has the sole power to interpret the law, determine the constitutionality of the law, and apply it to individual cases. d. In order to pass legislation and send it to the President for his signature, both the House and the Senate must pass the same bill by majority vote. Congress has the sole power to interpret the law, determine the constitutionality of the law, and apply it to individual cases. Criticisms of the pluralistic approach to policymaking include: a. Government seems more concerned with keeping the interest groups happy than doing what is best for the nation as a whole. b. Interest groups have become too influential in the policy-making process. c. Trying to satisfy all the various interest groups leads to contradiction and confusion in the policymaking process. d. All of the above. all of the above Which of the following statements is true? policies are frequently established that favor current voters, but impose costs on future generations US Supreme Court justices are appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate Individual citizens, health related organizations and interest groups may propose ideas for the development of legislation as guaranteed by the First Amendment. true The relationship between federal and state governments is constantly changing. true Who can be a demander of public policy? anyone State governments regulate all of the following EXCEPT medicare Though millions of Americans vote in a presidential election every four years, the President is not, in fact, directly elected by the people. true The public policymaking process is not influenced by external factors. false Hill-Burton was an act of Congress that provided funding for construction and renovation of medical facilities The era of dual federalism was characterized by a clash between states' rights and the national government's power. The grant-in-aid approach of the federal government is a way for the federal government to get the states to act in particular ways. In the United States, the term federalism means the federal and state governments are different sovereign powers that govern the same people, but with different responsibilities. The federal government issues licenses to doctors and hospitals because it has concurrent jurisdiction with the states. false Which of the following is not a power left to the state governments in the Constitution? power to regulate interstate commerce Which of the following is not a power delegated to the federal government in the Constitution? power to establish public schools Permitting states to pursue different approaches to the administration of federal-state cooperative programs such as Medicaid and the Affordable Care Act creates an unequal availability of services across the states. Which of the following is not an area of federal legislative interest? licensure of tong-term care facilities Which of the following characterizes the era of cooperative federalism? a. enactment of the Social Security Act of 1935 b. the "grant-in-aid" approach from the federal government to the states c. enactment of the Hill-Burton legislation d. all of the above all of the above Individual citizens, health related organizations, and interest groups may propose ideas for the development of legislation as guaranteed by the First Amendment. true Punctuated equilibrium theorizes that policymaking occurs in small incremental steps, disrupted by bursts of rapid transformation. What marks the transition from policy formulation to policy implementation in the policymaking process? enactment of legislation At which point do the decisions made in policymaking become final? There is always the potential to change policies. Policy should seek to minimize harm to society as a whole. This is an example of which ethical principle? nonmaleficence In agenda setting, the window of opportunity is created by the optimal interaction of problems, possible solutions, and political circumstances. Evaluating, designing, operating, and rulemaking are all elements of which policymaking phase? implementation phase Which ethical principles are defined as "seeking to do good" and "doing no harm"? Beneficence and nonmaleficence Which of the following is a real-world example of the ethical decision-making principle of respect for autonomy? advanced directives Environmental health policies are Typically created in response to a build-up of real-world evidence of environmental health hazards Health policies may take which of the following forms? a. laws b. rules/regulations c. judicial decisions d. all of the above all of the above A new health policy will impact all individuals in the same manner. false Who is responsible for the day-to-day enforcement and administration of federal laws? The Cabinet and independent federal agencies By federal law, public policies may not conflict with each other. false Two important demographic valuables affecting health policy are the changing age structure of the U.S. population and the growing racial and ethnical diversity Interest groups are not especially powerful in influencing policymaking. false In the process of developing a health policy, the demographics of the population are considered Resources related to the availability of and access to health services that are heavily influenced by health policies include a. money b. technology c. human resources d. a and b e. all of the above. all of the above Which of the following branches of government can be suppliers of health policies? a. Legislative branch b. Executive branch c. Judicial branch d. All of the above all of the above The model that is based on the idea that real political power in the United States is concentrated among a small proportion of the population that controls the country's key institutions and organizations, and most of its wealth, is know as the the Elitist perspective State level polices vary from state to state due to all of the following EXCEPT Whether or not the state has a health department How many years are the terms for members of the U.S House of Representatives and Senate? House-2 Senate-6 Criticisms of the pluralistic approach to policymaking include: a. The government seems more concerned with keeping the interest groups happy than doing what is best for the nation as a whole. b. Interest groups have become too influential in the policy-making process. c. Trying to satisfy all the various interest groups leads to contradiction and confusion in the policymaking process. d. a and c. e. All of the above. all of the above Political power that comes from an individual's relative position in a social system, organization, or group is known as legitimate power Permitting states to pursue different approaches to the administration of federal-state cooperative programs such as Medicaid and the Affordable Care Act creates an unequal availability of services across the states States can get waivers from the federal government to modify their Medicaid programs. true The president vetoes a bill that has passed in both the House and Senate. Which of the following could happen next? Congress can override the veto with a two-thirds vote in each chamber. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of legislation? negotiated resolution Policy implementation is primarily a management undertaking. true Policy formulation includes setting the policy agenda and developing legislation. ture for whom does the health policymaking process have consequences? a. individual consumers b. health professionals c. healthcare organizations d. all of the above all of the above about what potion of the spending on the health in the US is sourced from government (public) funds? about 50% in the process of developing a health policy, the demographies of the population are considered educational institutions, insurance companies, pharmaceutical companies, and medical supply companies are secondary provider organizations federal judges, who are nominated by the President and confirmed by the Senate, hold their office for life tenure, or until they resign, die, or are impeached and convicted by Congress though millions of Americans vote in a presidential election every 4 years, the President not, in fact, directly elected by the people true having influence in policy markets depends on possession of: a. legitimate and reward power b. reward and coercive power c. expert and referent power d. all of the above all of the above at which point do the decisions made in policymaking become final? there is always the potential to change policies in the US, health policy is made at which levels of government? a. local b. state c. federal d. all levels all 3 levels which of the following is a real-world example of the ethical decision-making principle of respect for autonomy? advanced directions decisions made in the public sector differ from those made in the private sector due to the political circumstances what makes the policymaking process an open system? the process both affects and is affected by factors in the external environment which amendment states that all powers not explicitly granted to the federal government are reserved for state governments? 10th amendment the constitution's supremacy clause has the effect of ensuring that federal laws preempt state laws regulating the same subject "policy power" is defined as the power of states to regulate a wide range of areas to protect their citizens A key way that federal courts differ from state courts is that state courts have general jurisdiction over a wide range of cases punctuated equilibrium theorizes that policy occurs in small incremental steps, disrupted by bursts of rapid transformation the concept that each branch of government possesses particular strengths and weaknesses relevant to policymaking is referred to as institutional competence compilation of all the nations laws the United State's code central purpose of health policy is to enhance and/or support people in their quest for good health By law, policies related to the federal budget and the reduction of deficits may not modify other policies. false the amount of health policy related information available to individual consumers has decreased in the last decade false on any given health issue the executive branch typically presents a more unified position compared to the legislative branch. In the eyes of the public, members of which branch of government generally bear more responsibility for the state of the economy? executive organizations that offer a continuum of health care services are known as integrated delivery system civil servants tend to make policy related decisions based on preserving the well-being of their agency each year, congress sets constraints on overall spending and spending by groups of programs/activities. these spending constraints are contained in a concurrent resolution who has the most power to initiate the modification of policies? chief executive [Show Less]
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HSA Questions and Answers 100% Correct 2023
the best type of identity theft insurance is one that: both a and b in general, a good way to save on insurance premiums is to increase your deduc... [Show More] tible which is a type of insurance to avoid? mortgage insurance which of the following will not likely lead to reduced insurance rates? speeding ticket an elimination period is the time period: between disabling events and when payments begin which of the following is not a true statement about an HSA? It is a good plan for people who have a lot to medical expenses which of the following statements is not true about cash value life insurance? cash value is essential for anyone over 65 term life insurance necessary credit card protection insurance not necessary and you should avoid identity theft protection necessary cancer insurance not necessary and you should avoid the purpose of insurance is to increase your investments false the stop-loss is what you pay before insurance will begin to pay false collision insurance pays for the damage to your car if you cause an accident true a good homeowner's insurance policy will include guaranteed replacement cost true term life insurance is more expensive because it funds a savings plan false Term life insurance is for a specified period, is more expensive, and has no savings plan built into it false Whole life insurance is normally for life and is cheaper because it funds a savings plan false life insurance for a specified period of time term insurance the amount you pay annually, quarterly, or monthly for insurance premium provides an income if the insured person is unable to perform the job he/she trained for occupational disability also known as universal or whole life insurance cash value insurance the time between the disabling event and when payments actually begin elimination period filed with an insurance company to get coverage for a loss claim covers the contents of a house or apartment when you rent it renter's insurance portion of the medical bill you pay before insurance kicked in deductible covers damage to a vehicle due to an accident collision covers damage to a vehicle not due to an accident comprehensive whole life insurance not necessary mortgage insurance not necessary term life insurance necessary identity theft insurance necessary cancer insurance not necessary credit card protection insurance not necessary accidental death insurance not necessary occupational disability insurance necessary [Show Less]
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HSA 3111 Correctly Answered Questions 2022/2023
Asylums are indicative of which illness treatment period? Moral era A diagnosis of mental illness is determined: through a combination of objectiv... [Show More] e and subjective data. This medical disorder involves the body, mood, and thoughts. Depression Hallucinations are characteristic of: schizophrenia Hyperventilation and tachycardia often accompany: panic disorder. What was the primary goal of The State Care Acts of 1890? Centralized financial responsibility for the care of individuals with mental illness in every state government. Mental health care is typically financed _____ general health care. less than Which of the following is not an ethical issue in mental health? Ageism Which of the following does not describe mental health? Mood disorders Which of the following is not true about the human services sector? Self-help groups play a major role for this group. [Show Less]
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