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CMCA PRACTICE EXAM 136 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMCA PRACTICE EXAM 136 Questions with Verified Answers The Joint Commission (JC) requires the Factors that Affect Learning must be assessed for a hospit... [Show More] al or hospital owned physician practice as well as other health care facilities. When assessing this element what does this include? A. The patient's ability to read, method of learning and understanding. B. Any language or physical disabilities. C. Cultural beliefs. D. All the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. All the above Report copies and printouts, films, scans, and other radio logic service image records must be retained for how long according to Federal Regulations? A. 10 years B. 7 years C. 5 years D. 3 years - CORRECT ANSWER C. 5 years At which point should a provider repay over payments reported by self-disclosure to the office of Inspector General? A. Make the payment to your carrier immediately. B. Make the payment at the conclusion of the OIG injury. C. Make the payment to the carrier prior to the self disclosure. D. Make the payment to the OIG with a self disclosure report. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Make the payment at the conclusion of the OIG injury Which of the following may be considered essential element (s) of an operative report and will allow for accurate coding? A. The approach B. The type of anesthesia required C. The location and severity of wounds repaired D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. All of the above Which of the following is NOT a covered entity under HIPPA? A. Physician B. Health Plan C. Health Care Consultant D. Physician Assistant - CORRECT ANSWER C. Health Care Consultant When referring to the authentication of a medical record entry, what does this entail? A. Legible signature of author and date signed B. A physician's order for ancillary services C. An original document filed in the record D. The patient's personal information - CORRECT ANSWER A. Legible signature of author and date signed What is the time limit mandated by CMS for adding a late entry to the medical record? A. One Week B. One Month C. One Year D. No time limit - CORRECT ANSWER D. No time limit When should a ABN be signed? A. Prior to performing a statutorily excluded procedure for a Medicare beneficiary. B. Prior to performing a procedure that may be denied due to medical necessity for a Medicare beneficiary. C. Prior to submitting a claim to Medicaid for a non- service. D. After performing a procedure and finding it is denied. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Prior to performing a procedure that may be denied due to medical necessity for a Medicare beneficiary. Under a Corporate Integrity Agreement (CIA), how many claims must be randomly selected to review to determine the financial error rate? A. 15 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100 - CORRECT ANSWER B. 50 When using LCDs and CMS program Guidance as a resource for an audit, what should the auditor keep in mind? A. QICs are bound by NCDs, LMRPs, and CMS Program guidance, but ALJs and MACs are not. B. Local carriers and QICs are bound by LCDs and LMRPs C. Local carries follow LCDs, LMRPs, and CMS program guidance, but QICs, ALJs, and MACs are not bound by them. D. Local Carriers, QICs, ALJs, and MACs are all bound by NCDs and CMS program guidance. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Local carries follow LCDs, LMRPs, and CMS program guidance, but QICs, ALJs, and MACs are not bound by them. When reporting the claims review findings under a CIA audit, the Independent Review Organization (IRO) must provide: A. A detailed analysis listing the patient files reviewed and findings and previous audit disclosures for all services B. A detailed report with a narrative explanation of finding and supporting rationale approved by the providers attorney. C. A detailed report with an analysis and narrative explanation with findings and supporting rationale regarding the claim review, including the results of the discovery or full sample. D. A list of data reviewed and findings in a narrative form - CORRECT ANSWER C. A detailed report with an analysis and narrative explanation with findings and supporting rationale regarding the claim review, including the results of the discovery or full sample. Which statement is most accurate regarding NCCI? A. NCCI are national coding guidelines and must be followed regardless of the insurance carrier. B. You need to check individual carriers to see if they follow NCCI or if they have their own set of bundling edits. C. Each individual carrier will have its own bundling edits and will not use NCCI. D. NCCI edits are suggested ways to bundle procedure codes, but are not necessary to review during an audit. - CORRECT ANSWER B. You need to check individual carriers to see if they follow NCCI or if they have their own set of bundling edits. A provider request you to perform an audit of claims that have been denied payment by XYZ insurance. Since the physician contracted with XYZ insurance, all claims submitted that include the E/M service and EKG interpretation on the same day have been denied for the EKG interpretation. You review the medical record and the EOB and determine the services are documented and coded correctly. Which of the following items will you need to complete your audit? A. Provider contract with XYZ insurance. B. Provider internal billing polices. C. RAC statement of work D. OIG work plan for the current year. - CORRECT ANSWER A. Provider contract with XYZ insurance. According to the "OIG Compliance Program for Individual and Small Group Physician Practices," There are essential elements for a compliance plan. These elements included: A. Mandatory employment of an internal auditor B. Conduct appropriate training and education C. Disciplinary action for employees who file a qui tam suit D. Develop an effective E/M Audit Tool with reproducible results. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Conduct appropriate training and education John presents today for his yearly physical and during the encounter he alerts his physician to some abdominal issues he has been having including sharp pains that come and go and have been increasing in severity especially after eating. After examination the doctor orders an ultrasound which is performed in the office and medications and schedules a follow-up for two weeks. What is the appropriate modifier for this encounter? A. No modifier necessary B. 25 C. 57 D. 24 - CORRECT ANSWER B. 25 Which of the following accurately describes the financial impact for appending modifier 24 to an E/M service performed during the global period of a major surgery? A. The E/M service will not be paid when performed during the global period. B. The E/M service will be paid at 20% of the physician fee schedule C. The E/M service will be paid at 100% of the physician fee schedule minus the patients responsibility. D. The E/M service will not be paid and a ABN should be signed since the service provided is unrelated to the surgery. - CORRECT ANSWER C. The E/M service will be paid at 100% of the physician fee schedule minus the patients responsibility. Select the scenario that would support medical necessity for observation services. A. A patient with severe asthma exacerbation who requires repeated nebulizer treatments and ABGs. B. A patient who is recovering from abdominal surgery who requires observation until awake from anesthesia. C. A patient who is receiving infusion chemotherapy for the first time and is anxious about that procedure D. A patient who is dependent on a ventilator and requires pulse oximetry to monitor 02 staturation - CORRECT ANSWER A. A patient with severe asthma exacerbation who requires repeated nebulizer treatments and ABGs. When may a focused audit be initiated? A. After a prepayment or retrospective audit has identified a specific problem B. When the auditor first decides to conduct an audit C. To compare coding and billing patterns for the entire practice D. To ensure compliance with all coding guidelines - CORRECT ANSWER A. After a prepayment or retrospective audit has identified a specific problem Which of the following represents the most logical initial step in the audit process? A. Develop an audit tool and tally form B. Determine the objective(s), the type, and the scope of the audit C. Gather the medical records to be audited. D. Analyze the audit and compare the documentation to the procedure and diagnosis code(s) billed. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Determine the objective(s), the type, and the scope of the audit What are the the Seven Elements defined by the OIG? - CORRECT ANSWER The Seven Elements defined by the OIG are: 1. Implementing written policies and procedures 2. Designating a compliance officer and compliance committee 3. Conducting effective training and education 4. Developing effective lines of communication 5. Conducting internal monitoring and auditing 6. Enforcing standards through well-publicized disciplinary guidelines 7. Responding promptly to detected problems and undertaking corrective action The office of Inspector General (OIG) - CORRECT ANSWER The mission of the Office of Inspector General is to protect the integrity of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) programs, as well as the health and welfare of the beneficiaries of those programs Fraud - CORRECT ANSWER Fraud is an intention deception made for personal gain. Fraud is a crime and a civil law violation Abuse - CORRECT ANSWER Abuse is an act that directly or indirectly results in unnecessary reimbursement without defined intent. A qui tam suit - CORRECT ANSWER (Whistle blower) One in which an action that will grant the plaintiff a portion of the recovered penalty and gives the rest of it to the state. How often does the Compliance program Guidance for Individual and Small Group Physician Practices recommends employees be trained on compliance programs? - CORRECT ANSWER As soon as possible after their start date and receive refresher training on an annual basis or as appropriate. Improper Payments - CORRECT ANSWER The discovery of billing errors does not man that the provider should freeze billing of all services. At Minimum, the provider should hold billing services with noted deficiencies until the appropriate corrective action plan is implemented. Federal Anti-Kickback Law - CORRECT ANSWER Prohibits the knowing and willful solicitation, offer, payment, or receipt of any remuneration (broadly interpreted to encompass anything of value), whether direct or indirect, in cash or in like kind, to induce or in return for referring an individual, or purchasing or arranging for an item of service for which payment may be mad under the Medicare, Medicaid, or other government health program. Safe Harbor Provisions - CORRECT ANSWER Describes various payment and business practices that, although they potentially implicate the Federal Anti-Kickback Statute, are not reated as offenses under the statute. The Safe Harbor provisions are updated by the OIG and maintained on their website. False Claims - CORRECT ANSWER A false Claim includes a claim that does not conform to Medicare's (or other programs) requirements for reimbursement. The Civil False Claim Acts - CORRECT ANSWER Imposes civil monetary penalties of between $5,500 and $11,000 plus three times the value of each claim. It prohibits the knowing submission of a false or fraudulent claim for payment to the United States, the knowing use of a false record or statement to obtain payment on a false or fraudulent claim, or a conspiracy to defraud the United States by having a false or fraudulent claim allowed or paid The Criminal False Claim Act: - CORRECT ANSWER Prohibits knowingly and willfully making or causing to be made any false statement or representation of material fact in any claims or application for benefits under federally funded health plans as well as commercial carriers. Violations are felonies and are punishable by up to five years imprisonment and/or $25,000 in fines. The Civil Monetary Penalties Law: - CORRECT ANSWER Provides for the imposition of civil monetary penalties up to $10,000 per false service claimed, plus assessments equal to three times the amount claimed, for services that the provider knows or should know were not provided as claimed or for claims the provider knows or should know are false or fraudulent. Other federal criminal laws: - CORRECT ANSWER Also may be used to prosecute the submission of false claims, including prohibitions on making false statements to the government and engaging in mail fraud. Felony convictions will result in exclusion from Medicare for a minimum of a five-year period. Option for Providers - CORRECT ANSWER Self Disclosure: Fines may be less if a practice self-disclosed its knowledge of the violation. Appeal Rights: A practice has the right to an appeal process, and may choose to request a hearing before an administration law judge (ALJ). The OIG and the respondent have the right to present evidence and make arguments to the ALJ, who issues a written decision. Additional Appeal: The ALJ's decision may be appealed administratively and to federal court. OIG Work Plan - CORRECT ANSWER OIG Work Plan The OIG Work Plan is released annually and identifies priority areas for OIG review/ investigation, which the agency believes are HHS' most vulnerable programs and activities, with the goal to improve HHS agency efficiency and effectiveness Corporate Integrity Agreement (CIA) What is a Corporate Integrity Agreement? - CORRECT ANSWER It is an agreement between the OIG and a health care provider or other entity. CIA agreements are detailed and restrictive agreements imposed on providers when serious misconduct (fraudulent or abusive type action) is discovered through an audit or self-disclosure. The government may enter into a CIA with an entity instead of seeking to exclude the entity from Medicare, Medicaid, and other federal health care programs. The typical term of a comprehensive CIA is five years Discovery Sample - CORRECT ANSWER The claims review procedures require a Discovery Sample. A Discovery Sample is used to determine the financial error rate. The Discovery Sample is a review of 50 units to be randomly selected. The purpose of conducting a Discovery Sample as part of the claims review is to determine the net financial error rate of the sample that is selected. If the net financial error rate equals or exceeds 5 percent, the results of the Discovery Sample are used to determine the Full Sample size. The Full Sample size is based on an estimate of the variability of the overpayment amount in the population from which the sample was drawn. The results of the Discovery Sample allow the reviewer to estimate how many sample units need to be reviewed in order to estimate the overpayment in the population within certain confidence and precision levels (eg, generally, a 90 percent confidence and 25 percent precision level Stark Law - CORRECT ANSWER The Stark Law is primarily defined as a physician self-referral law, 42 USC 1395nn. Physician self-referral is defined by the Stark Laws as: the practice of a physician referring a patient to a medical facility in which he has a financial interest, be it ownership, investment, or a structured compensation arrangement. The Stark Law was sponsored by Congressman Pete Stark (Calif.). Individuals such as Stark contend such arrangements may encourage over-utilization of services, in turn driving up health care costs. This law prohibits a physician from making a referral to an entity with which the physician or his or her immediate family has a financial relationship if the referral is for the furnishing of designated health services, unless the financial relationship fits into an exception set forth in the statute or impending regulations. What services are not targeted by the Stark Law? - CORRECT ANSWER Services such as sleep studies, EKGs, NCVs, and Holter monitoring, or services personally performed or provided by the referring physician are, however, not targeted by the Stark Law. Referral for services provided by non-physician providers is exempt as well. The exceptions to the Stark Law covered relationships internal to a physician group include items such as those involving in-office ancillary services or certain compensation/ownership arrangements. The Joint Commission - CORRECT ANSWER The Joint Commission (JC), formerly the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations (better known as JCAHO), is a private sector United States-based, not-for-profit organization. The Joint Commission operates voluntary accreditation programs for hospitals and other health care organizations. RAC Audits CMS Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC) Program - CORRECT ANSWER CMS has implemented a system to identify improper payments, fraud, and abuse in the Medicare system. When should a Self disclosure occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Self disclosure should occur within 30 days of knowing about the violation, and does not require any form of legal assistance. Payments relating to the disclosed matter should not be made until the conclusion of the OIG inquiry to allow the OIG time to verify the information disclosed How often are records requested from RAC auditors and how many? - CORRECT ANSWER Each 45 days, records may be requested based on the entity's size: less than 5 providers—10 records 6-24 providers—25 records 25-49 providers—40 records 50 or more providers—50 records RAC Audit Appeals Process - CORRECT ANSWER Providers who choose to appeal must send a rebuttal of the findings directly to the RAC within 15 days of receiving the RAC's letter identifying an overpayment. Note, however, this does not stop the clock on the 120 day time period during which a request for redetermination (first level appeal) from the Medicare contractor must be submitted. Additionally, the clock is still running with regard to the interest accrued when money is not refunded within 30 days of the request. Providers who choose to send a rebuttal to the RAC will want to either simultaneously file a request for redetermination to the Medicare contractor or carefully track the status of the rebuttal and be prepared to file the request for redetermination within the 120-day time period, if needed. Medicaid appeals processes will vary from state to state as well as Medicare Advantage appeals will vary by MCO PATH Audits - CORRECT ANSWER Another HIPAA mandated audit process under the jurisdiction of the OIG operation is the Physicians at Teaching Hospitals (PATH) Audit. This audit process has two forms: purely government-conducted audits (PATH I), and a self-audit alternative (PATH II). This self-audit process implies through the OIG interpretation as having more lenient penalties for self disclosure of deficiencies, but does not guarantee this initiative. PATH II - CORRECT ANSWER PATH II gives teaching institutions the opportunity to designate a third-party auditor of their choice to be approved by the OIG prior to any government-initiated audit. Some advantages of the PATH II process are the ability to select an institution's own auditor, with the approval of OIG, and the ability to control the audit process in a way that minimizes disruption of ordinary operation. The auditor must be an independent organization, and may not have a pre-existing relationship with the facility. There is no provision for credit of the cost of the audit against any repayment to Medicare. The cost of the self-audit must be weighed against the potential savings in repayment obligations and the waiver of confidentiality Conditions of Participation (CoP) - CORRECT ANSWER Conditions of Participation (CoPs) and Conditions for Coverage (CfCs) are rules and guidelines set forth by CMS to ensure health care organizations meet minimum standards when providing services under the Medicare and Medicaid programs. CMS considers the health and safety standards of their requirements to be the foundation for improving not only the quality of their participant's health care but also protecting the patient's health and safety. These standards are expected to be the minimum and accrediting organizations should seek to exceed the Medicare standards set forth in the CoPs/CfCs [Show Less]
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CMSP REVIEW Exam 85 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMSP REVIEW Exam 85 Questions with Verified Answers Give 3 reasons why motorcycle is more risky than driving - CORRECT ANSWER - Vulnerability. No sheet ... [Show More] metal cage around you for protection - Visibility. Harder to be seen by other drivers - Judgement is much more critical What is Rider Readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER Understanding the challenges of motorcycling and riding within your abilities What are 6 important parts of Rider Readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Mental Readiness - Being focused and attentive 2. Physical Readiness - Ride rested and avoid riding fatigued, stressed, or preoccupied 3. Proper Riding Gear - Keeps you comfortable which helps you focus on riding safely 4. Understanding Your Abilities and Limitations - Ride within your skill level 5. Know Your Motorcycle - Understand the design limitations of your motorcycle 6. Awareness Of Riding Conditions. What is the benefit of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? - CORRECT ANSWER Fully squeeze clutch to cutoff power to rear wheel. Ease out slowly and roll on throttle to gradually get bike moving. (Friction zone: area of clutch travel where the engine's power begins to transmit to rear wheel) What does it mean to accept your responsibility? - CORRECT ANSWER Accepting the fact that you must ride within your limits and manage risks while riding How does riding gear make a rider more comfortable? - CORRECT ANSWER The gear is designed for specific riding conditions. (Rain, wind, flying debris) What is the difference between retro-reflective and reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER Retro-reflective material reflects light back to the source and illuminates the rider. Reflective material reflects light away from the source. Why aren't ordinary glasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER They are not shatter resistant and do not provide enough coverage. What are 3 things you should consider when shopping for riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER Bright colors, retro reflective, protective pads/armor What is the purpose of the engine cutoff switch and where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER Shuts off the engine without you having to remove hands from hand grips. Located on right handgrip. How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Fully squeeze clutch to cutoff power to rear wheel. Ease out slowly and roll on throttle to gradually get bike moving. (Friction zone: area of clutch travel where the engine's power begins to transmit to rear wheel) Body position for turning? - CORRECT ANSWER Inside - 15mph + Outside - slow turns How should you release the clutch when downshifting? - CORRECT ANSWER Smoothly What is the recommended following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER 2 seconds What is a head check? - CORRECT ANSWER Looking over your shoulder to check blind spot What are the leading causes of single-vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER Incorrectly negotiating turns When should you turn your head for cornering? - CORRECT ANSWER Throughout the entire turn What is the quickest way to stop in a curve? - CORRECT ANSWER Straighten bike first before applying maximum straight-line braking Or.. (braking in a lean) Gradually square handle-bars and increase brake pressure until bike stops. What should you do if you come upon deer alongside the roadway? - CORRECT ANSWER Slow down to walking speed if possible. 3 Examples of impairment - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue, hunger, drunkenness When should you consider carrying a passenger? - CORRECT ANSWER When you have enough riding experience and are comfortable handling your bike. What instructions do you give your passenger and when? - CORRECT ANSWER Wait for approval when mounting and dismounting, hold onto the hips or waist, both feet on pegs at all times, keep hands and feet away from moving and hot parts, look over rider's shoulder in the direction of turns, avoid sudden moves. Give instructions before the ride. What is the primary cause of tire failure? - CORRECT ANSWER Under inflation How can you be prepared for long-distance riding? - CORRECT ANSWER Inspect tires, bring layers of clothing, first aid kit, tools for maintenance/repair, have a tire repair/inflation kit. What is the minimum vehicle insurance coverage in CA? - CORRECT ANSWER - 15000 injury or death of 1 person or more - 30000 2 people or more - 5000 property damage Lane splitting can be done in what lanes? - CORRECT ANSWER Pocket, cycle net draped across gas tank, on license plate device, storage compartment on bike, windshield What do double yellow lines mean? - CORRECT ANSWER They are a barrier. Do not cross over them for turns. How does cold/hypothermia impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER It distracts your awareness and lowers your ability to respond. How can you shift without using the clutch? - CORRECT ANSWER Match engine speed to road speed and shift quickly How do you calculate the following distance in a staggered formation? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.5 - 2 seconds between each rider Where do you find the maximum load capacity for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER Owner's manual What are some ways of intervening to prevent a friend from driving under the influence? - CORRECT ANSWER Taking their keys, getting friends to help, arrange a safe ride home, stop serving them, secure the bike. How do daily events affect Rider Readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER A hard day at work can make you feel fatigued. Personal problems can affect your focus and concentration. What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER 90 degrees When braking in a lean, what is important to remember? - CORRECT ANSWER The more upright the bike is, the more braking force is available. Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Straight ahead How do you know if you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER If .. Stopping Distance > Headlight Distance Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Intersections What two words best describe scanning? - CORRECT ANSWER Aggressive and Purposeful Which brake provides more stopping power? - CORRECT ANSWER Front. 70% stopping power What are the four steps to turning? - CORRECT ANSWER SPAT: Speed - adjust speed Position - select outside lane position prior to turn Aim - Look through the curve Turn - Lean to turn (15mph +). What are 3 things you should consider when shopping for riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER Bright colors, retro reflective, protective pads/armor How does riding gear make a rider more comfortable? - CORRECT ANSWER The gear is designed for specific riding conditions. (Rain, wind, flying debris) What does it mean to accept your responsibility? - CORRECT ANSWER Accepting the fact that you must ride within your limits and manage risks while riding. What is Rider Readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER Understanding the challenges of motorcycling and riding within your abilities What are the 5 primary controls and where are they located? - CORRECT ANSWER Throttle (right hand grip), clutch (left hand grip), front brake (right hand grip), rear brake (right pedal), gearshift lever (left pedal). What is ONE-C? - CORRECT ANSWER On, Neutral, Engine Cutoff switch (on/off), clutch/choke. Describe good riding posture? - CORRECT ANSWER Back straight, head and eyes up, look where you want to go, knees against the tank. Bend elbows slightly. Why is the "aim" step important? - CORRECT ANSWER It sets up your path of travel How can you improve your visibility to other traffic? - CORRECT ANSWER Wear bright retro reflective clothing, always use headlights, signal early and often, flash your brake lights, be in a good lane position for being seen. What should you consider when choosing lane position? - CORRECT ANSWER Being in a position that allows you to see and be seen. What can you do to reduce your reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER Increase your space cushion How do you link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER Use late apex line to link turns How is the rear brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Apply light to lighter pressure to rear brake pedal. Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Straight ahead How should you ride across low-traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Slowly. Use throttle smoothly and carefully. Make no sudden or abrupt moves. What % of rider fatalities are alcohol related? - CORRECT ANSWER 52% How should the passenger be dressed? - CORRECT ANSWER hey should be wearing proper protective gear and shoelaces should be tucked in. What should you adjust when carrying loads? - CORRECT ANSWER Suspension and tire pressure When should you move to single file? - CORRECT ANSWER When passing vehicles, entering or exiting a highway, approaching a corner, or when encountering limited visibility. What are some ways that long-distance riding can lead to riding impaired? - CORRECT ANSWER It causes mental and physical fatigue. How does heat/dehydration impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER It can result in fatigue, muscle cramps, headache, dizziness, and even unconsciousness. It slows your mental and physical abilities. What is the difference between M1 and M2 endorsement? - CORRECT ANSWER M2 - You can operate motorized bicycle, moped, or bike w/attached motor or motorized scooter M1 - You can operate anything listed under M2 in addition to any 2 wheel motorcycle, motor driven cycle, or motorized scooter What does lifting or pressing on the shift lever accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER Changes gears What is the 20 second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Looking ahead to an area it will take you 20 seconds to reach, giving you situational awareness and time to prepare for a hazard before it is in your immediate path. How does SIPDE make you an expert rider? - CORRECT ANSWER It helps you develop expert judgement and reduce risks in traffic. Expert riders are aware of their surroundings and act early responding to potential problems before they become life threatening. The SIPDE mental strategy encompasses that. At what point should you turn toward the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER As you lean into the turn How is the front brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Squeezed smoothly, firmly, and with increasing pressure What is countersteering? - CORRECT ANSWER Pushing the handlebars opposite the direction you want to turn in order to initiate lean. What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles?How should you ride across low-traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER 90 degrees How should you ride across low-traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Slowly. Use throttle smoothly and carefully. Make no sudden or abrupt moves. What should you do if you suspect your side stand will sink into the parking surface? - CORRECT ANSWER Place a rigid object underneath it. 3 Examples of impairment - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue, hunger, drunkenness How does riding under the influence affect the SIPDE process? - CORRECT ANSWER Scan - clear vision is impaired Identify - more attention is diverted to operating controls as impairment increases Predict - Judgement and ability to process info is impaired Decide - Ability to divide attention, analyze risk, and make decisions is flawed When should you consider carrying a passenger? - CORRECT ANSWER When you have enough riding experience and are comfortable handling your bike. What instructions do you give your passenger and when? - CORRECT ANSWER Wait for approval when mounting and dismounting, hold onto the hips or waist, both feet on pegs at all times, keep hands and feet away from moving and hot parts, look over rider's shoulder in the direction of turns, avoid sudden moves. Give instructions before the ride. Where should you carry heavier items? - CORRECT ANSWER Center of the bike, ahead of the rear axle. When should you move to single file? - CORRECT ANSWER When passing vehicles, entering or exiting a highway, approaching a corner, or when encountering limited visibility. How can you shift without using the clutch? - CORRECT ANSWER Match engine speed to road speed and shift quickly What are some ways that long-distance riding can lead to riding impaired? - CORRECT ANSWER It causes mental and physical fatigue. How does cold/hypothermia impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER It distracts your awareness and lowers your ability to respond. How does heat/dehydration impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER It can result in fatigue, muscle cramps, headache, dizziness, and even unconsciousness. It slows your mental and physical abilities. What is the minimum vehicle insurance coverage in CA? - CORRECT ANSWER - 15000 injury or death of 1 person or more - 30000 2 people or more - 5000 property damage What is the maximum speed when towing? - CORRECT ANSWER 55 mph Lane splitting can be done in what lanes? - CORRECT ANSWER 1 and 2 [Show Less]
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CMSP TEST 75 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMSP TEST 75 Questions with Verified Answers Give three reasons why motorcycling is more risky than driving a car? - CORRECT ANSWER 1- motorcycles are m... [Show More] ore vulnerable than cars 2-they are harder to see than cars 3-you are exposed to the elements What is rider readiness - CORRECT ANSWER Being mentally focused, physically fit, wear proper riding gear, know your limitations, awareness of conditions, and knowing your motorcycle What does it mean that to "accept your responsibility"? - CORRECT ANSWER Ride within your limits and the bike's to reduce the risk of motorcycling and set an example. What is the benefit of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? - CORRECT ANSWER How does riding gear make a rider more comfortable? - CORRECT ANSWER With some jackets you are able to adjust the amount of wind you want and you can button down straps to avoid them flapping in the wind. What is the difference between retro-reflective and reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER Reflective reflects the light in any which way,retro-reflective directs the light back to the source. Why aren't ordinary sunglasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER Might shatter upon impact What three things should you consider when shopping for riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER In the motorcycle operation manual ( MOM). What are the five primary controls and where is each located? - CORRECT ANSWER Throttle, clutch lever, gearshift lever, front brake lever, rear brake pedal What is the purpose of the engine cut off switch and where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER To avoid taking your hands off the bar in a situation where control is critical and you need to turn off the engine. Located on the right side of the handlebars. What must you remember when your motorcycle turn signal? - CORRECT ANSWER To turn it off after you have completed the movement. What is the significance of ONE-C? - CORRECT ANSWER O- turn the petcock and ignition ON N- make sure the bike is in NEUTRAL E- move the ENGINE cut off switch to ON C- cover the CLUTCH and if the engine is cold turn the CHOKE to the on position. What is SPAT? - CORRECT ANSWER S-decrease SPEED P- set your body into POSITION A- look and AIM where you are going T- complete the movement and TURN What is ONE-C used for? - CORRECT ANSWER Pre start checklist to start the engine What is SPAT used for? - CORRECT ANSWER Turning maneuvers What is counter-steering? Why is it important? - CORRECT ANSWER A way of steering, it is a more reliable way of steering at speed. When should you lean with your bike? - CORRECT ANSWER Higher speed turns When should you counter the lean of your bike? - CORRECT ANSWER Lower speed turns What is the friction zone? What is it used for? - CORRECT ANSWER The point where the clutch starts to grab Describe good riding posture - CORRECT ANSWER Straightened back, eyes up, feet on foot rests, knees against the tank, relax your arms and bend your elbows a little. How can you improve your visibility to other traffic? - CORRECT ANSWER Have bright clothes, ride with your headlight on, use your turn signals, flash your brake light before you stop completely, and use your horn. What is the 20 second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER What is the recommended minutes mum following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER What should you consider when choosing a lane position - CORRECT ANSWER What is SMOG-C? What is it used for? - CORRECT ANSWER What is SIPDE? - CORRECT ANSWER What is a head check? - CORRECT ANSWER Looking back to check your blind spots Where do most multi vehicle crashes occur - CORRECT ANSWER In an intersection What can you do to reduce reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER How do you know if you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER Wha are the leading causes of single vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER At what point should you turn toward toward the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER How do you link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER When should you turn your head for cornerIng? - CORRECT ANSWER How is the front brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER How is the rear brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER What is the quickest way to stop in a curve? - CORRECT ANSWER When braking in a lean, what is important to remember? - CORRECT ANSWER What should you always avoid while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER What indicates a potential change in roadway traction? - CORRECT ANSWER How should you ride across low traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER What should you do if you come upon deer alongside the road way? - CORRECT ANSWER What should you do if you suspect your side stand will sink into the parking surface? - CORRECT ANSWER How do daily events affect rider readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER What are three examples of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER What percentage of ride fatalities are alcohol related? - CORRECT ANSWER 52% How does riding under the influence affect the SIPDE process? - CORRECT ANSWER Slows your mental functions/ motor skills What are some of the ways of intervening to prevent a friend from driving under the influence? - CORRECT ANSWER Bring out food, water, games, then if all else fails hide the keys When should you carry a passenger? - CORRECT ANSWER When you feel comfortable on the road riding yourself How should the passenger be dressed? - CORRECT ANSWER The same as you are dressed( full safety gear) What instructions do you give to your passenger and when? - CORRECT ANSWER Where do you find the maximum load capacity for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER In the owners manual What should you adjust if you are carrying loads? - CORRECT ANSWER Where should you carry heavier items? - CORRECT ANSWER Towards the center of the motorcycle or I front of the rear axle How do you calculate the following distance in a staggered formation? - CORRECT ANSWER When should you move single file? - CORRECT ANSWER Where in the formation should the least experienced rider be? - CORRECT ANSWER In front behind the leader What is the primary cause of fire failure? - CORRECT ANSWER Under inflation Where do you find information about tire pressure? - CORRECT ANSWER In the motorcycle operation manual. How can you shift without using the clutch? - CORRECT ANSWER Match engine speed to road speed If you experience a wobble, what should you do? - CORRECT ANSWER Don't fight the wobble, ease off the throttle, move your weight foreword and low as possible, avoid braking unless you have to, don't try to accelerate out of the wobble. What are some ways that long distance riding can lead to riding impaired? - CORRECT ANSWER Physical and mental fatigue How can you be prepared for long distance riding? - CORRECT ANSWER By building up distances How does cold/ hypothermia impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue, cramps, headaches, dizziness, weakness, nausea, loss of conscious. How does heat/ dehydration impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue,cramps, headaches, nausea, dim vision, confusion, loss of consciousness. What is the minimum vehicle insurance coverage in California? - CORRECT ANSWER $15,000 for injury or death of one person $30,000 for injury or death of two or more people $5,000 for property damage What do double double yellow lines mean? - CORRECT ANSWER It means that it represents a barrier and you cannot Ride over unless there is a designated break in the line What is the difference between a class M1 and M2 endorsement? - CORRECT ANSWER M1- you may ride any two wheeled vehicle M2- you can ride anything but a motorcycle What is the maximum speed when towing? - CORRECT ANSWER 55 mph Are motorcycles allowed to be in the carpool/HOV lanes? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes Lane splitting should be done in what lane numbers? - CORRECT ANSWER What are the 5 locations where the electronic toll transponder can be placed? - CORRECT ANSWER -in the motorcyclists pocket -inside a cycle net draped across the gas tank of the motorcycle -on the license plate device, if the toll operator provides such a device -in a storage compartment on the motorcycle -on the windshield of the motorcycle [Show Less]
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CMSP Course Exam 77 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMSP Course Exam 77 Questions with Verified Answers Give three reasons why motorcycling is more risky than driving a car? - CORRECT ANSWER 1- motorcycle... [Show More] s are more vulnerable than cars 2-they are harder to see than cars 3-you are exposed to the elements What is rider readiness?1 - CORRECT ANSWER Be mentally and physically prepared Wear proper riding gear Understand your abilities and limitations Know the riding conditions Know you motorcycle's capabilities and limitations What does it mean to act responsibly? - CORRECT ANSWER Ride within the limits of your personal ability, the motorcycle's capabilities, be aware of environmental conditions and manage the risks of riding. What is the benefit of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? - CORRECT ANSWER Keeps rider comfortable, covered and protected, protects from the elements, improves your control and makes you more visible to others How does riding gear make a rider more comfortable? - CORRECT ANSWER You can get a jacket that fits the way you like and riding gear is designed for riding posture. What is the difference between retro-reflective and reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER Reflective reflects the light in all directions; retro-reflective directs the light back to the source. Why aren't ordinary sunglasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER They are not impact resistance, not designed for the elements and may blow off. What three things should you consider when shopping for riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER Comfort, protection and visibility. Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER In the motorcycle operation manual ( MOM). What are the six primary controls and where is each located? - CORRECT ANSWER Throttle, clutch lever, gearshift, front brake lever, rear brake pedal, handle bars What is the purpose of the engine cut off switch and where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER To avoid taking your hands off the bar in a situation where control is critical and you need to turn off the engine. Located on the right grip. What must you remember when your motorcycle turn signal? - CORRECT ANSWER To turn it off after you have completed the movement. How do you start the bike? - CORRECT ANSWER ONE-C O- turn ignition ON N- make sure the bike is in NEUTRAL E- move the ENGINE cut off switch to ON C- cover the CLUTCH and if the engine is cold turn the CHOKE to the on position. How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Release the clutch slowly until you get power to the back wheel and the bike starts moving. What are the elements of good riding posture? - CORRECT ANSWER -Head/eyes up and look where you want to go -Back straight -Arms relaxed, bend your elbows slightly -Place the balls of your feet on the foot pegs -Knees against the tank What are the 4 steps to turning? - CORRECT ANSWER S-decrease SPEED P- set your body into POSITION A- look and AIM where you are going T- complete the movement and TURN Why is it important to look through the turns? - CORRECT ANSWER Develop a mental plan to manage risk, gather info through the turn and get directional info. "If you look there, you get there." What does lifting or pressing on the shift lever accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER Change gears or put the bike in neutral. Which brake provides more stopping power and how much? - CORRECT ANSWER Front brake provides 70% of stopping power. How should you release the clutch when down shifting? - CORRECT ANSWER Release it gradually and smoothly. How can you improve your visibility to other traffic? - CORRECT ANSWER Have bright clothes, ride with your headlight on, use your turn signals, flash your brake light before you stop completely, and use your horn, lane position. What is the 20 second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Line of Sight - Looking ahead for situational awareness to an area it will take you 20 seconds to reach and give you time to prepare for any spotted hazards. What two words best describe scanning? - CORRECT ANSWER -Aggressive -Purposeful What is the recommended minimum following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER 2 seconds What should you consider when choosing a lane position? - CORRECT ANSWER -See and be seen -Space cushion -Escape routes -Avoid hazards How does the A3 Strategy help make you an expert rider? - CORRECT ANSWER Helps us make assessments to use expert judging. Mental exercise used to make sound judgments and reduce risk. Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Intersections How do you check your blind spot? - CORRECT ANSWER Turn you head (head check). What can you do to reduce reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER Be prepared ahead of time and cover the clutch and brake. Adjust speed, slow down, have a bigger space cushion How do you know you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER When you can't see too far ahead and your riding faster than what you can react to. What is the leading cause of single-vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to negotiate the curves. At what point should you turn towards the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER When you can see all the way through the exit of the curve How do you link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER Make the exit line of the first curve match the entry line for the next. When should you turn your head for cornerIng? - CORRECT ANSWER As you enter the curve and you can see your target. How is the front brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Smoothly, firmly and with increasing pressure. How is the rear brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Light to lighter pressure. What is the shortest way to stop in a curve? - CORRECT ANSWER Straighten then brake. What is countersteering? - CORRECT ANSWER Pushing on a grip to turn that direction. Push right, go right; push left, go left. When braking in a lean, what is important to remember? - CORRECT ANSWER Use brakes smoothly and gradually so you don't exceed your available traction. What should you always avoid while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER Braking. Hold your speed steady. Where should you look while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER On your escape path where you want to go. Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Ahead, forecast your path of travel. What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER 90° What indicates a potential change in roadway traction? - CORRECT ANSWER Changes in color and texture. How should you ride across low traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Ride straight across, steady throttle. What should you do if you come upon deer alongside the road way? - CORRECT ANSWER Slow down to a walk to pass, stop or u-turn What should you do if you suspect your side stand will sink into the parking surface? - CORRECT ANSWER Find a flat surface or use a flattened soda can or water bottle, stick, rock, etc. What are three indicators of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER Impaired judgement Divided attention Impaired vision Blood Alcohol Concentration What are three examples of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER -Alcohol -Medications -Fatigue What percentage of ride fatalities are alcohol related? - CORRECT ANSWER 35% How does riding under the influence affect the A3 Strategy process? - CORRECT ANSWER Slows your mental functions/ motor skills What are some of the ways of intervening to prevent a friend from driving under the influence? - CORRECT ANSWER Arrange a ride Secure the bike Get others to help Stop serving Use excuses Hide the keys Distraction When should you carry a passenger? - CORRECT ANSWER After you have significant experience and you feel comfortable riding on the road by yourself How should the passenger be dressed? - CORRECT ANSWER Proper protective gear like the rider, with laces tucked in. What instructions do you give to your passenger and when? - CORRECT ANSWER Inform the passenger hot to get on and avoid hot pipes before starting the ride. Where do you find the maximum load capacity for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER In the owners manual What should you adjust if you are carrying loads? - CORRECT ANSWER Tire pressure and suspension. Where should you carry heavier items? - CORRECT ANSWER On or in front of the rear axle. How do you calculate the following distance in a staggered formation? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.5 to 2 seconds When should you move single file? - CORRECT ANSWER -Passing other vehicles -Enter/exit highway -Approach a corner -Encounter limited visibility Where in the formation should the least experienced rider be? - CORRECT ANSWER Right behind the leader What is the primary cause of tire failure? - CORRECT ANSWER Under inflation Where do you find information about tire pressure? - CORRECT ANSWER In the motorcycle operation manual. How can you shift without using the clutch? - CORRECT ANSWER Match engine speed to road speed and shift quickly If you experience a wobble, what should you do? - CORRECT ANSWER Slow down immediately. -Keep a firm grip on the handlebars and don't fight the wobble -Ease off the throttle, -Move your weight forward as low as possible over the tank -Avoid braking unless you have to -Don't accelerate to try to stop the wobble. What are some ways that long distance riding can lead to riding impaired? - CORRECT ANSWER Physical and mental fatigue How can you be prepared for long distance riding? - CORRECT ANSWER By building up distances How does cold/ hypothermia impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue, cramps, headaches, dizziness, weakness, nausea, loss of conscious. How does heat/ dehydration impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue,cramps, headaches, nausea, dim vision, confusion, loss of consciousness. How can you stay cool, hydrated and protected? - CORRECT ANSWER Wear a cooling vest Wet a long-sleeve t-shirt and wear it under a mesh jacket What is the minimum vehicle insurance coverage in California? - CORRECT ANSWER $15,000 for injury or death of one person $30,000 for injury or death of two or more people $5,000 for property damage What do double double yellow lines mean? - CORRECT ANSWER It means that it represents a barrier and you cannot ride over unless there is a designated break in the line What is the difference between a class M1 and M2 endorsement? - CORRECT ANSWER M1- you may ride any two wheeled vehicle M2- you can ride anything but a motorcycle What is the maximum speed when towing? - CORRECT ANSWER 55 mph Are motorcycles allowed to be in the carpool/HOV lanes? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes Lane splitting should be done in what lane numbers? - CORRECT ANSWER Between lanes 1 and 2 What are the 5 locations where the electronic toll transponder can be placed? - CORRECT ANSWER -in the motorcyclists pocket -inside a cycle net draped across the gas tank of the motorcycle -on the license plate device, if the toll operator provides such a device -in a storage compartment on the motorcycle -on the windshield of the motorcycle [Show Less]
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CMSP Exam 186 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMSP Exam 186 Questions with Verified Answers A nurse in a clinic receives a telephone call from a client who has tuberculosis and was prescribed rifamp... [Show More] in 3 days ago. The client reports, "My saliva and tears are red. What should I do?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER This is an expected adverse effect of the medication A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has multiple sclerosis and a new prescription for dantrolene. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions? - CORRECT ANSWER I know that I'll have to get the blood tests to make sure my liver is okay. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is receiving lithium carbonate. The nurse should plan to monitor which of the following laboratory values? - CORRECT ANSWER BUN A nurse is caring for a client who is immunosuppressed. The nurse should identify which of the following immunizations is contraindicated for this client? - CORRECT ANSWER Varicella A nurse is assisting with the care of a group of clients. For which of the following client situations should the nurse complete an incident report? - CORRECT ANSWER A client receiving packed RBCs through an 18-gauge IV catheter A nurse in a long-term care facility is collecting data from a client who has new prescription for glyburide. The client reports feeling anxious and having profuse sweating. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? - CORRECT ANSWER Decreased blood glucose level A nurse is collecting data from a client who has schizophrenia and takes chlorpromazine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of this medication. - CORRECT ANSWER Tardive dyskinesia (adverse reaction) A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of an anaphylactic reaction to oxacillin. The provider prescribes amoxicillin (clavulanic acid) for the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Request a prescription for a different antibiotic A nurse is caring for a client who is requesting assistance with smoking cessation. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer. - CORRECT ANSWER Bupropion (Bupropion hydrochloride) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to an infant. Which of the following identifiers should the nurse use in identifying the infant? (select all that apply ) - CORRECT ANSWER Medical identification number-Admitting the diagnosis of the infant-Guardian or parent-Date of birth A nurse is planning care for a client who has angina and a new prescription for nitroglycerin ointment. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? - CORRECT ANSWER Cover the administration area with plastic wrap A nurse is collecting follow-up data from a client who has taken simvastatin for 3 months. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report - CORRECT ANSWER Muscle pain A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative. For which of the following findings should the nurse administer ondansetron? - CORRECT ANSWER Clients report nausea A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for lisinopril 20 mg daily. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective? - CORRECT ANSWER Blood pressure 118/60 mmHg A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the Ipledge program with a female client who has a new prescription for isotretinoin. The nurse should tell the client that which of the following is a requirement of the program? - CORRECT ANSWER Seuxally active female client must use two forms of birth control during treatment A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder. Which of the following findings indicate the client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal? - CORRECT ANSWER Tremor A nurse is checking the forearm of a client who received a tuberculin skin test 48 hr ago. Which of the following findings at the injection site should indicate to the nurse a positive result. Ulceration excoriation, bleeding, firmness - CORRECT ANSWER Excoriation A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for penicillin G. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse plan to monitor - CORRECT ANSWER Urticaria A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a client who continues to have migraine headache after taking sumatriptan orally 2 hr ago. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report? - CORRECT ANSWER Tingling sensation A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Obtain 0.9 % sodium chloride solution for IV infusion A nurse is administering the first dose of ramipril to a client who has hypotension. The client reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded. Which of the following should the nurse administer? - CORRECT ANSWER Naloxone A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who reports taking kava for the last 6 months. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to monitor? - CORRECT ANSWER Serum potassium A nurse in a mental health facility is collecting data from a client who is taking lithium. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as an indication of lithium toxicity? - CORRECT ANSWER Slurred speech A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is to start therapy with insulin lispro and insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? - CORRECT ANSWER Take insulin lispro right before a meal A charge nurse is evaluating a newly licensed nurse caring for a client who is using a PCA device. Which of the following actions by the nurse requires intervention by the charge nurse? - CORRECT ANSWER The nurse administers PCA dose for the client A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is having an allergic reaction to the medication - CORRECT ANSWER Wheezing A charge nurse working in a long-term care facility is reinforcing teaching about incident reporting with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following situations requires the creation of an incident report? - CORRECT ANSWER A nurse cannot administer a medication because the medication is not available A nurse is collecting data from a client who has been taking diazepam several times per day but recently ran out of medication. Which of the following findings should nurse recognize as a manifestation of withdrawal from diazepam? - CORRECT ANSWER Tremors A nurse in a provider's office is collecting data from a client who has salicylism after taking an excessive amount of aspirin. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? - CORRECT ANSWER Tinnitus A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should determine that the teaching was effective when the client states she will report which of the following adverse effects to the provider? - CORRECT ANSWER Blurred Vision A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin to a client. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse to withhold the medication? - CORRECT ANSWER Heart rate 52/min A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving gemfibrozil. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? - CORRECT ANSWER Liver Enzymes A nurse is collecting the data from a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine and should be reported to the provider? - CORRECT ANSWER Sore throat A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and has been taking hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse evaluate? - CORRECT ANSWER Serum electrolyte levels A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about the administration trimethoprim. Which of the following should the nurse include? - CORRECT ANSWER Do not eat for 1 hour after ingestion A nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin PO to a client who has an infection. The nurse checks the client's medical record and notes that the client has a severe allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Request a different medication from the provider A nurse is caring for a client who started taking amitriptyline 6 days ago. The client reports that the medication is not helping. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER You will need to wait a couple of weeks to feel the therapeutic effect of the medication A nurse is collecting data from a client who has cancer and receiving morphine for pain control. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer to counteract an adverse effect of morphine? - CORRECT ANSWER Docusate sodium A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly licensed nurse about age-related changes that affect medication administration for older patients. - CORRECT ANSWER Renal excretion time slows for medication A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic hypertension. The client's morning vital sign include BP 148 over 80 mm Hg, heart rate 54 a min, and respiratory rate 18 amin. which of the following medications should the nurse plan to withhold? - CORRECT ANSWER Atenolol A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking omeprazole for GERD and thiazide diuretic for hypertension. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider? - CORRECT ANSWER Magnesium 1.0 mEq/L A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has heart failure and prescription for a repeat dose of furosemide 40 mg orally. Which of the following actions is the nurses' priority? - CORRECT ANSWER Record the client's urinary output A nurse is reinforcing a teaching with a parent of a child who is to receive the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine. The nurse should instruct the parent to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? - CORRECT ANSWER Vomiting and rashes A nurse is talking with a client who has been taking levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid taking which of the following over-the-counter medications within 4 hour of taking levothyroxine? - CORRECT ANSWER Oral antihistamines A nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg rectally. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Have the client lie on his left side for 5 min after insertion A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for prednisone to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understand the teaching - CORRECT ANSWER "I will report a sore throat to my provider" A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking epoetin alfa for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication? - CORRECT ANSWER Hgb A nurse in an urgent care clinic is collecting the data from a client who reports itching for the past 5 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe? - CORRECT ANSWER Diphenhydramine A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for celecoxib to treat osteoarthritis. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for medication? - CORRECT ANSWER Sulfonamide allergy A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle cell anemia and is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority? - CORRECT ANSWER Administer analgesics on a schedule A nurse administered ketorolac 30 mg IM to a client who is postoperative. Which of the following information should the nurse document? (Select all that apply) - CORRECT ANSWER Site of injection-Medication expiration date-Time of administration-Dose of medication administered A client has a new prescription for spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse recognize as a reason to withhold the morning dose of the medication and notify the provider? a. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L b. Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L c. Serum creatinine 1.2 mEq/L d. Serum chloride 106 mEq/L - CORRECT ANSWER b. Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed daily doses of both digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The client's potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. For which of the following medication interaction is the client at risk? a. Toxic levels of furosemide b. Toxic levels of digoxin c. Sub-therapeutic levels of furosemide d. Sub-therapeutic levels of digoxin - CORRECT ANSWER b. Toxic levels of digoxin Propranolol (Inderal) is contraindicated for a client who has which of the following conditions? a. Asthma b. Diabetes c. Angina d. Dementia - CORRECT ANSWER a. Asthma A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has a prescription for verapamil (Calan). Which of the following statements by the clients indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should increase the amount of fiber in my diet since the medication causes constipation." b. "I should eliminate grapefruit juice from my diet while taking verapamil." c. "I should decrease the amount of calcium in my diet while taking the medication." d. I should take the medication with food if it causes an upset stomach." - CORRECT ANSWER c. "I should decrease the amount of calcium in my diet while taking the medication." A nurse is caring for a client with prescription for nifedipine (Procardia) to treat angina pectoris. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following findings? a. Weight loss b. Reflex tachycardia c. Grand mal seizures d. Urinary Retention - CORRECT ANSWER b. Reflex tachycardia A nurse is caring for a client on a medical unit who takes regular doses of propranolol (Inderal) for hypertension. Before administering the client's morning dose of propranolol, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor? (SATA) a. Urinary output b. Pulse rate c. Temperature d. Blood pressure e. Deep tendon reflexes - CORRECT ANSWER b. Pulse rate d. Blood pressure 7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider? (SATA) a. Fatigue b. Constipation c. Anorexia d. Rash e. Diplopia - CORRECT ANSWER a. Fatigue c. Anorexia e. Diplopia A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) for chronic stable angina. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following findings? a. Bradycardia b. Fever c. Hypertension d. Headache - CORRECT ANSWER d. Headache A nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to start a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? a. Ranitidine (Zantac) b. Docusate sodium (Colace) c. Acetaminophen d. Aspirin - CORRECT ANSWER d. Aspirin A nurse is caring for a client who has angina pectoris and is prescribed a nitroglycerin patch (Nitro-Dur) once daily. Which of the following are true regarding the administration of transdermal nitroglycerin? (SATA) a. Apply the patch at the same time each morning b. Leave the patch in place for 24 hr before replacing. c. Put patch on a hairless area of skin. d. Rotate the sites of administration with each application. e. Cut patches in half to allow for smaller doses of prescribed medication. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Apply the patch at the same time each morning c. Put patch on a hairless area of skin. e. Cut patches in half to allow for smaller doses of prescribed medication. After instilling an eye drop that has a systematic effect, the nurse should press on which of the following to prevent absorption into the circulation? a. The bony orbit b. The nasolacrimal duct c. The conjunctival sac d. The outer cantus of the eye - CORRECT ANSWER b. The nasolacrimal duct A nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) during a screening examination. Which of the following data collection finding should the nurse expect? a. Sudden loss of central vision b. Intraocular pressure 19 mm Hg c. No reports of pain d. Intact peripheral vision - CORRECT ANSWER c. No reports of pain A nurse is preparing to administer timolol (Timoptic) ophthalmic drops into the eye of a client who has glaucoma. For which of the following adverse effects should this client be monitored? a. Hypertension b. Bradycardia c. Seizures d. Jaundice - CORRECT ANSWER b. Bradycardia A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for tizanidine (Zanaflex) for relief of muscle spasm following a back injury. Which of the following lab values should the nurse expect to monitor while the client is taking this medication? a. Serum creatinine b. Liver enzymes c. WBC count d. RBC count - CORRECT ANSWER b. Liver enzymes A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client with asthma about how to use cromolyn (Intal). Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply) a. Take the medication 15 min before exercising. b. Follow a fixed-dosage schedule for long-term control of asthma. c. Expect to lose weight while taking the medication. d. Observe for adverse effects such as tremors, restlessness, and palpitations. e. Do not crush or chew tablets. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Take the medication 15 min before exercising. b. Follow a fixed-dosage schedule for long-term control of asthma. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client with a prescription for a beclomethasone (QVAR) inhaler to be used for the long-term management of asthma. Which of the following dietary supplements should the client be sure to consume in sufficient amounts to prevent a deficiency while taking the QVAR inhaler? a. Iron and Protein b. Calcium and Vitamin D c. Vitamin B¹² and folic acid d. Vitamin E and K - CORRECT ANSWER b. Calcium and Vitamin D A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed oral prednisone (Deltasone) for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following findings? a. Weight loss b. Infection c. Hypoglycemia d. Angina Pain - CORRECT ANSWER b. Infection A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) nasal drops for the past 10 days for her upper respiratory symptoms. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following findings? a. Sedation b. Nasal congestion c. Productive cough d. Constipation - CORRECT ANSWER b. Nasal congestion A nurse is caring for a preschool-age child who may have taken an overdose of diphenhydramine (Benadryl). To identify antihistamine toxicity, the nurse should plan to monitor the child for which of the following? a. Hallucinations b. Bradycardia c. Pinpoint pupils d. Pallor - CORRECT ANSWER a. Hallucinations A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has hypertension and is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the client's teaching? a. "You should avoid foods high in potassium." b. "Take the second dose of the day by early afternoon." c. "Watch for ankle swelling that may appear late in the evening." d. "Limit your daily fluid intake to 1½ L." - CORRECT ANSWER b. "Take the second dose of the day by early afternoon." A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who is prescribed lovastatin (Mevacor). Which of the following should be included in the teaching? a. Take the medication with the evening meal. b. Change position slowly when rising from a chair. c. Maintain a steady intake of green leafy vegetables. d. Consume no more than 1L of fluid/day. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Take the medication with the evening meal. A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is to begin taking a new prescription for niacin (Niacor). The nurse should instruct the client to expect which of the following? a. Facial flushing b. Frontal headache c. Blurred vision d. Dry mouth - CORRECT ANSWER a. Facial flushing A nurse is caring for a client who takes a daily dose of warfarin (Coumadin). The client begins vomiting blood. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to give to reverse the effects of warfarin? a. Vitamin K b. Atropine sulfate c. Protamine sulfate d. Calcium gluconate - CORRECT ANSWER a. Vitamin K A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking a daily dose of warfarin for the past two weeks following an acute myocardial infarction. The client's most recent INR is 1 to 2. If the client has been taking the warfarin as prescribed, the nurse should expect which of the following changes to the client's prescription? a. The warfarin will be continued at the same dose. b. The warfarin will be discontinued. c. The warfarin dosage will be increased. d. The warfarin dosage will be decreased. - CORRECT ANSWER c. The warfarin dosage will be increased. When caring for a client taking aspirin to reduce the risk for a myocardial infarction, the nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply) a. Petechiae b. Hypertension c. Tinnitus d. Bruising e. Black stools - CORRECT ANSWER a. Petechiae d. Bruising e. Black stools Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement when preparing to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) for the first time to a client who has undergone a bone marrow transplant? a. Administer intramuscularly in a large muscle mass to prevent injury. b. Give orally with a meal or snack to prevent severe gastrointestinal upset. c. Shake vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose. d. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) three times a week for several weeks. At a visit to the clinic, the client's Hgb has increased from 7 g/dL to 8.5 g/dL in the past week. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect to take regarding today's dose of epoetin alfa? a. To increase today's dose. b. To administer the ordered dose. c. To withhold today's dose. d. To discontinue the medication. - CORRECT ANSWER c. To withhold today's dose. [Show Less]
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CMSP Course My edit Exam 93 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMSP Course My edit Exam 93 Questions with Verified Answers Give three reasons why motorcycling is more risky than driving a car? - CORRECT ANSWER 1- mo... [Show More] torcycles are more vulnerable than cars 2-they are harder to see than cars 3-you are exposed to the elements What is rider readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER Be mentally and physically prepared Wear proper riding gear Understand your abilities and limitations Know the riding conditions Know you motorcycle's capabilities and limitations What is the percentage of fatalities that occur in a car crash? - CORRECT ANSWER 20% What is the percentage of fatalities that occur in a motorcycle accident? - CORRECT ANSWER 80% Fear comes from which part of brain? - CORRECT ANSWER Reptile (small) brain. It is perception based, not danger-based. When wearing gear, how much less likely are you to have an open wound injury? - CORRECT ANSWER 73% What are the two categories of operation of the motorcycle anatomy? - CORRECT ANSWER Left side transmission, right side accelerate/decelerate What does it mean to act responsibly? - CORRECT ANSWER Ride within the limits of your personal ability, the motorcycle's capabilities, be aware of environmental conditions and manage the risks of riding. What is the benefit of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? - CORRECT ANSWER Keeps rider comfortable, covered and protected, protects from the elements, improves your control and makes you more visible to others How does riding gear make a rider more comfortable? - CORRECT ANSWER You can get a jacket that fits the way you like and riding gear is designed for riding posture. What is the difference between retro-reflective and reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER Reflective reflects the light in all directions; retro-reflective directs the light back to the source. Why aren't ordinary sunglasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER They are not impact resistance, not designed for the elements and may blow off. What three things should you consider when shopping for riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER Comfort, protection and visibility. Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER In the motorcycle operation manual (MOM). What are the six primary controls and where is each located? - CORRECT ANSWER Throttle, clutch lever, gearshift, front brake lever, rear brake pedal, handle bars What is the purpose of the engine cut off switch and where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER To avoid taking your hands off the bar in a situation where control is critical and you need to turn off the engine. Located on the right grip. What must you remember when your motorcycle turn signal? - CORRECT ANSWER To turn it off after you have completed the movement. How do you start the bike? - CORRECT ANSWER ONE-C O- turn ignition ON N- make sure the bike is in NEUTRAL E- move the ENGINE cut off switch to ON C- cover the CLUTCH and if the engine is cold turn the CHOKE to the on position. How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Release the clutch slowly until you get power to the back wheel and the bike starts moving. What are the elements of good riding posture? - CORRECT ANSWER -Head/eyes up and look where you want to go -Back straight -Arms relaxed, bend your elbows slightly -Place the balls of your feet on the foot pegs -Knees against the tank What are the 4 steps to TURNING - CORRECT ANSWER S-decrease SPEED P- set your body into POSITION A- look and AIM where you are going T- complete the movement and TURN Why is it important to look through the turns? - CORRECT ANSWER Develop a mental plan to manage risk, gather info through the turn and get directional info. "If you look there, you get there." What does lifting or pressing on the shift lever accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER Change gears or put the bike in neutral. Which brake provides more stopping power and how much? - CORRECT ANSWER Front brake provides about 70% of stopping power. How should you release the clutch when down shifting? - CORRECT ANSWER Release it gradually and smoothly. How can you improve your visibility to other traffic? - CORRECT ANSWER Have bright clothes, ride with your headlight on, use your turn signals, flash your brake light before you stop completely, and use your horn, lane position. What is the 20 second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Line of Sight - Looking ahead for situational awareness to an area it will take you 20 seconds to reach and give you time to prepare for any spotted hazards. What two words best describe scanning? - CORRECT ANSWER -Aggressive -Purposeful What is the recommended minimum following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER 2 seconds What should you consider when choosing a lane position? - CORRECT ANSWER -See and be seen -Space cushion -Escape routes -Avoid hazards What is the A3 Strategy - CORRECT ANSWER Awareness of your surroundings Assessment of risks Action to manage the hazards using time and space Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Intersections How do you check your blind spot? - CORRECT ANSWER Turn you head (head check). What can you do to reduce reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER Be prepared ahead of time and cover the clutch and brake. Adjust speed, slow down, have a bigger space cushion How do you know you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER When you can't see too far ahead and your riding faster than what you can react to. What is the leading cause of single-vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to negotiate the curves - ineffective counter steering At what point should you turn towards the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER When you can see all the way through the exit of the curve How do you link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER Make the exit line of the first curve match the entry line for the next - stay inside longer When should you turn your head for cornerIng? - CORRECT ANSWER As you enter the curve and you can see your target. How is the front brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Gradually, firmly and with increasing pressure. How is the rear brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Light to lighter pressure. What is the shortest way to stop in a curve? - CORRECT ANSWER Use A3 strategy before to avoid doing this. If you have to, straighten then brake. What is countersteering? - CORRECT ANSWER Pushing on a grip to turn that direction. Push right, go right; push left, go left. When braking in a lean, what is important to remember? - CORRECT ANSWER Use brakes smoothly and gradually so you don't exceed your available traction. What should you always avoid while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER Braking. Hold your speed steady. Where should you look while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER On your escape path where you want to go. Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Ahead, forecast your path of travel. What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Minimum 45º, 90º when possible What is the most dangerous time frame during a rain storm? - CORRECT ANSWER The first 30 minutes How can you avoid slipping during a rainstorm? - CORRECT ANSWER Slow speed ride in the tracts of the vehicle in front And don't do anything suddenly What indicates a potential change in roadway traction? - CORRECT ANSWER Changes in color and texture. How should you ride across low traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Ride straight across, squeeze clutch and coast through When you encounter a lot of wind for example on your front left, where should you push? - CORRECT ANSWER Your front left hand grip What should you do if you come upon deer alongside the road way? - CORRECT ANSWER Slow down to a walk to pass, stop or u-turn What should you do if you suspect your side stand will sink into the parking surface? - CORRECT ANSWER Find a flat surface or use a flattened soda can or water bottle, stick, rock, etc. What are three indicators of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER Impaired judgement Divided attention Impaired vision Blood Alcohol Concentration What are three examples of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER -Alcohol -Medications -Fatigue What percentage of motorcycle rider fatalities are alcohol related? - CORRECT ANSWER 35% How does riding under the influence affect the A3 Strategy process? - CORRECT ANSWER Slows your mental functions/ motor skills What are some of the ways of intervening to prevent a friend from driving under the influence? - CORRECT ANSWER Arrange a ride Secure the bike Get others to help Stop serving Use excuses Hide the keys Distraction Are you required to report injuries to DMV? - CORRECT ANSWER Any injuries exceeding $1k and within 10 days Urine tests for DWI arrestes may be - CORRECT ANSWER Permitted in lieu of blood test for people with hemophilia Lane splitting recommendations - CORRECT ANSWER Only at speeds greater than 30 mph, no more than 10 mph than cars How is the HOV lane depicted? - CORRECT ANSWER Diamond When should you carry a passenger? - CORRECT ANSWER After you have significant experience and you feel comfortable riding on the road by yourself How should the passenger be dressed? - CORRECT ANSWER Proper protective gear like the rider, with laces tucked in. What instructions do you give to your passenger and when? - CORRECT ANSWER Inform the passenger hot to get on and avoid hot pipes before starting the ride. Where do you find the maximum load capacity for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER In the owners manual What should you adjust if you are carrying loads? - CORRECT ANSWER Tire pressure and suspension. Where should you carry heavier items? - CORRECT ANSWER On or in front of the rear axle. How do you calculate the following distance in a staggered formation? - CORRECT ANSWER 1.5 to 2 seconds When should you move single file? - CORRECT ANSWER -Passing other vehicles -Enter/exit highway -Approach a corner -Encounter limited visibility Where in the formation should the least experienced rider be? - CORRECT ANSWER Right behind the leader What is the primary cause of tire failure? - CORRECT ANSWER Under inflation Where do you find information about tire pressure? - CORRECT ANSWER In the motorcycle operation manual. How can you shift without using the clutch? - CORRECT ANSWER Match engine speed to road speed and shift quickly If you experience a wobble, what should you do? - CORRECT ANSWER Slow down immediately. -Keep a firm grip on the handlebars and don't fight the wobble -Ease off the throttle, -Move your weight forward as low as possible over the tank -Avoid braking unless you have to -Don't accelerate to try to stop the wobble. What are some ways that long distance riding can lead to riding impaired? - CORRECT ANSWER Physical and mental fatigue How can you be prepared for long distance riding? - CORRECT ANSWER By building up distances How does cold/ hypothermia impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue, cramps, headaches, dizziness, weakness, nausea, loss of conscious. How does heat/ dehydration impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue,cramps, headaches, nausea, dim vision, confusion, loss of consciousness. How can you stay cool, hydrated and protected? - CORRECT ANSWER Wear a cooling vest Wet a long-sleeve t-shirt and wear it under a mesh jacket What is the minimum vehicle insurance coverage in California? - CORRECT ANSWER $15,000 for injury or death of one person $30,000 for injury or death of two or more people $5,000 for property damage What do double double yellow lines mean? - CORRECT ANSWER It means that it represents a barrier and you cannot ride over unless there is a designated break in the line What is the difference between a class M1 and M2 endorsement? - CORRECT ANSWER M1- you may ride any two wheeled vehicle M2- you can ride anything but a motorcycle Motorcycle trailer rules - CORRECT ANSWER 55 max mph and cannot be in the fast lane Are earbuds legal? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes but not recommended All helmets must - CORRECT ANSWER Prevent large and direct impacts. Are passengers required to wear a helmet by law? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes Are motorcycles allowed to be in the carpool/HOV lanes? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes Lane splitting should be done in what lane numbers? - CORRECT ANSWER Between lanes 1 and 2 What are the 5 locations where the electronic toll transponder can be placed? - CORRECT ANSWER -in the motorcyclists pocket -inside a cycle net draped across the gas tank of the motorcycle -on the license plate device, if the toll operator provides such a device -in a storage compartment on the motorcycle -on the windshield of the motorcycle How much more dangerous is motorcycling than driving a car? - CORRECT ANSWER 38 TIMES [Show Less]
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California Motorcycle Safety Program Test 156 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
California Motorcycle Safety Program Test 156 Questions with Verified Answers Give five reasons why motorcycling is more risky than driving a car. - COR... [Show More] RECT ANSWER 1. More vulnerable 2. Maneuvers are more dangerous 3. Have to balance. 4. Skids and spins 5. Exposed to wind and rain What does it mean to "accept your responsibility"? - CORRECT ANSWER Choose to ride within your limits every single time What five items make up Rider Readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Mentally readiness (focused unimpaired distraction free) 2. Physical Readiness (rested, healthy, free of stress/impairements) 3. Proper riding gear 4. Understanding your abilities and limitations 5. Knowledge of the riding conditions (road and weather etc.) 6. Motorcycle in good condition and awareness of your motorcycles capabilities and limitations What are the three benefits of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? - CORRECT ANSWER Improves -Comfort -Concentration -Safety What is the difference between retro-reflective and reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER -Retro reflective reflects the light back to the source. -Reflective can reflect in any direction. Why aren't ordinary glasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER -Not impact resistant (not shatter proof) -Not secured What three items should you consider when shopping for riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER Increases: -Comfort -Protection -Visibility Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER Motorcycle Owners Manual (MOM) What are the five primary controls and where is each located? - CORRECT ANSWER -Throttle -Clutch lever -Gearshift lever -Front brake lever -Rear brake pedal What is the purpose of the engine cut-off switch and where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER -Shuts off engine. -Right handgrip. What must you remember when using your motorcycle turn signal? - CORRECT ANSWER -Does not self cancel What is ONE-C? - CORRECT ANSWER It's how you start your motorcycle: -O - ignition/fuel turn ON -N - Neutral -E - Engine cut-off switch to on -C - Clutch pull in and press starter button How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Uses minor clutch slipping to ease power to wheels - SMOOTHLY let the clutch out until you feel power start to deliver to the rear wheels and ease on the gas as you smoothly let the clutch slip out the rest of the way Describe three components of good riding posture. - CORRECT ANSWER -Sitting up -Relaxed -Neutral What are the four steps to turning? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Speed, Position, Aim, Steer (Course) 2) Slow, look, press, roll (DMV) Why is the "aim" step important? - CORRECT ANSWER Because your likely to ride where you look and aim. What does lifting or pressing on the shift lever accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER Change gears Which brake provides more stopping power? How much does it provide? - CORRECT ANSWER Front, 70% How should you release the clutch when downshifting? - CORRECT ANSWER Slowly - SMOOTHLY What five items can you improve your visibility to other traffic? - CORRECT ANSWER -Wearing bright colored gear. -Wear reflectivity. -Drive with headlights on. -Flash break lights when stopped -Signal well in advance What is the 20-second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Look ahead to scan your path for potential dangers ahead - situational awareness What two words best describe scanning? - CORRECT ANSWER -Aggressive -Purposeful What is the recommended minimum following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER -Two seconds What four items should you consider when choosing a lane position? - CORRECT ANSWER -Visibility -Line-of-sight -Space cushion -Escape route What is S.I.P.D.E? - CORRECT ANSWER S-Scan ahead I-Identify vehicles, people, hazards P-Predict hazard will do D-Decide what you are going to do E-Execute plan How does S.I.P.D.E help make you an expert rider? - CORRECT ANSWER By learning to anticipate and act on hazards Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Intersections What is a head check? - CORRECT ANSWER Looking over shoulder prior to changing lanes or turning What can you do to reduce reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER Use SIPDE How do you know if you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER Unable to see and react to hazards past your headlight field What are the leading causes of single-vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to negotiate turns. At what point should you turn toward the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER After you've entered the outside of the turn. How do you link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER -Use a late apex line. -Start outside, aim towards apex as soon as you see exit of turn, then towards outside for next turn. When should you turn your head for cornering? - CORRECT ANSWER As soon as you can see your target. How is the front brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Smooth, firm and with increasing pressure. How is the rear brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Light to lighter pressure. What two methods are the quickest way to stop in a curve? (2) - CORRECT ANSWER -Straighten, then brake. -Braking in a lean. When braking in a lean, what is important to remember? - CORRECT ANSWER The more friction used in the lean, the less traction available for braking. What should you always avoid while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER Braking Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Ahead, forecast your path of travel. What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER 90 degrees What indicates a potential change in roadway traction? - CORRECT ANSWER Shiny surfaces. How should you ride across low-traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER -Slow down -Decrease lean angle. What should you do if you come upon deer alongside the roadway? - CORRECT ANSWER -Slow down -Anticipate more What should you do if you suspect your sidestand will sink into the parking surface? - CORRECT ANSWER Place flat object underneath kickstand. How do daily events affect Rider Readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER Decrease your ability to concentrate. What are three examples of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER -Alcohol -Medications -Fatigue What percentage of rider fatalities are alcohol related? - CORRECT ANSWER 52% How does riding under the influence affect the SIPDE process? - CORRECT ANSWER -Decreases your ability to concentrate and reason. What are three ways of intervening to prevent a friend from driving under the influence? - CORRECT ANSWER -Stop serving -Time and food -Take the keys When should you consider carrying a passenger? - CORRECT ANSWER After much experience driving solo. How should the passenger be dressed? - CORRECT ANSWER Same as rider, full safety gear. What instructions do you give to your passenger and when? - CORRECT ANSWER -Before first ride -Notify when you mount or dismount. -Hold on to waist. -Look over shoulder in direction of turn. -No sudden weight shifts. Where do you find the maximum load capacity for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER -Motorcycle owners manual. What two items should you adjust if you are carrying loads? - CORRECT ANSWER -Tire pressure -Suspension Where should you carry heavier items? - CORRECT ANSWER -Low -Ahead of rear axle How do you calculate the following distance in a staggered formation? - CORRECT ANSWER Two seconds off the leaders rear tire. What four conditions when group riding should you move to single file? - CORRECT ANSWER -Passing -Entering, exiting -Approaching corners -Limited visibility What is the maximum recommended number of riders in a group? - CORRECT ANSWER Five Where in the formation should the least experienced rider be? - CORRECT ANSWER Right behind leader What is a primary cause of tire failure? - CORRECT ANSWER Under inflated tires Where do you find information about proper tire pressure? - CORRECT ANSWER Motorcycle owners manual How can you shift without using the clutch? - CORRECT ANSWER Match road speed with RPPM If you experience a wobble, what three things should you do? - CORRECT ANSWER -Look ahead -Hold handlebars firmly -Ease off throttle What are some ways that long-distance riding can lead to riding impaired? - CORRECT ANSWER -Weather and long hours can cause fatigue How can you be prepared for long-distance riding? (3) - CORRECT ANSWER -Rest frequently -Mechanically sound bike -Plan How does cold/hypothermia impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Decreases alertness and ability to analyze How does heat/dehydration impair you? - CORRECT ANSWER Decreases alertness and ability to analyze How can you stay cool, hydrated and protected? - CORRECT ANSWER Cooling vest or wet shirt with vents open. How soon and how far to signal before a turn? - CORRECT ANSWER Five seconds or 100 feet. If you have not triggered a light sensor, when can you proceed? - CORRECT ANSWER After two light cycles What is the minimum vehicle insurance coverage in California? - CORRECT ANSWER • $15,000 for injury or death of one person; • $30,000 for injury or death of two or more people; and • $5,000 for property damage. What do the double double yellow lines mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Barrier, no driving. What is the difference between a Class M1 and M2 endorsement? - CORRECT ANSWER Class M1—You may operate any two-wheel motorcycle, motor-driven cycle or motorized scooter and all vehicles listed under Class M2—You may operate any motorized bicycle, moped or a bicycle with an attached motor or motorized scooter. What is the maximum speed when towing? - CORRECT ANSWER 55 miles per hour Are motorcycles allowed to be in the carpool/HOV lanes? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes Lane splitting should be done in what lane numbers? - CORRECT ANSWER Between the number one lane and number two lane. What are the 5 locations where the electronic toll transponder can be placed? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Pocket. 2) Tank bag. 3) License plate device. 4) Other storage compartment. 5) On the windshield. You cannot park within how many feet of a fire hydrant? - CORRECT ANSWER 15 ft. When two vehicles arrive at an intersection, who has the right of way? - CORRECT ANSWER The vehicle on the right. Stop vehicle within go many feet of a crosswalk? - CORRECT ANSWER Five White Parking Zone - CORRECT ANSWER Passengers or mail Green parking zone - CORRECT ANSWER Temporary parking Yellow parking zone - CORRECT ANSWER Passengers or freight. When being passed, what section of the lane should you drive in? - CORRECT ANSWER Center. Which vehicle has the right of way, uphill traveling vehicle or downhill traveling vehicle? - CORRECT ANSWER Uphill traveling vehicle has the right of way. Penalty for evading police pursuit? - CORRECT ANSWER One year or less in jail. D.U.I. blood alcohol for adults and minors? - CORRECT ANSWER Adult: .08% Minors under 21 years old: .01% How loud can exhaust be in California? - CORRECT ANSWER 88 decibles When changing lanes, what should you do? (ACRONYM) - CORRECT ANSWER SMOG-C Signal Mirror Over the shoulder Go Cancel Signal What is the max speed of most highways? - CORRECT ANSWER 65 mph Can you legally always drive the speed limit? - CORRECT ANSWER No, the law says NEVER faster than is safe for conditions Where can you legally mount phones/com devices? - CORRECT ANSWER In a car, anywhere but the middle -> on a motorcycle, as long as it's not blocking the instrument cluster/panel! How much money does damage from accidents/injury need to exceed to require a report? When that happens who do you report it to? How many days do you have to report it? - CORRECT ANSWER When accident damage exceeds $1k you need to report it to the DMV within 10 days What kind of tests are permitted during DUI stops for hemophiliacs or persons taking anticoagulants? - CORRECT ANSWER Chemical Urine tests What are the different kinds of DUI test you can get when being stopped? - CORRECT ANSWER Field sobriety test, chemical urine test, blood test, breathalyzer, remember ALL OF THE ABOVE What's the speed limit when driving near a school or where children are crossing the street? - CORRECT ANSWER 25 mph Children under what age may not be left unattended in a vehicle? - CORRECT ANSWER 6 years of age How many times more dangerous is driving a motorcycle than a car? - CORRECT ANSWER 38 times more dangerous What percentage of motorcycle accidents result in injury? - CORRECT ANSWER 80% of motorcycle accidents result in injury What functions of the brain does fear interrupt? - CORRECT ANSWER Frontal lobes - logic, planning, judgement, skill, fight or flight takes over and you lose good judgement abilities How do we manage fear? - CORRECT ANSWER Accept whatever is happening is what is normal and should be happening. We manage fear through knowledge and skill, and practice (muscle memory) How do you know what type of bike to choose? - CORRECT ANSWER Choose a bike for your style of riding and goals. Get a bike that you are able to move around, balance, and hopefully not drop. (probably a lighter bike to start). Able to reach and operate controls. Your feet can touch the ground. Adjust Handlebars, brakes, gearshift lever, clutch lever if it's possible on your bike for a more ideal fit What are 6 qualities of good riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Protects against injury, wind, flying debris, dirt, rocks, etc. 2) Improve concentration and safety 3) Improves comfort for all riding conditions 4) Reflective for night riding (retro-reflective ideally) 5) Abrasion-resistant materials 6) Protective armor (pants and jacket) What are 5 main benefits of wearing a helmet? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Protect your head and brain against injury 2) Protects hearing and vision 3) Reduces exposure to weather and debris 4) Increase visibility with bright colors/reflective 5) Does not limit peripheral vision What are the 3 helmet standards worldwide for safety? List them in order of increasing safety - CORRECT ANSWER 1) DOT - Department of Transportation 2) Snell Memorial Foundation 3) (ECE) - U.N. Economic Commission for Europe What are the 4 types/styles of helmets? List them in decreasing order of safety (safest first) - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Full face helmets 2) Modular Helmets 3) Three-quarter shell helmet 4) Half-Shell Helmet In an accident, what area of the helmet is the most likely to be impacted? - CORRECT ANSWER The chin How do helmets work? What roll does the outer and inner shell play during an accident? - CORRECT ANSWER Outer shell resists penetration and distributes energy of the impact Inner shell absorbs energy during impact If you drop or compress the inner liner of your helmet, how many more times can you use it? - CORRECT ANSWER Zero times, get a new helmet What two compounds should you not expose your helmet to? - CORRECT ANSWER Petroleum products or aerosols. If you are at the gas station leave your helmet on - don't expose it to the vapors of gas What's the benefit of wearing earplugs while riding? - CORRECT ANSWER blocks wind noise which improves your comfort and concentration. Won't impair your ability to hear traffic What are the three benefits of a face shield and goggles - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Impact and penetration resistant 2. Protects against exposure 3. Provides comfort and improves vision What are 4 benefits of wearing gloves? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Protect hands from elements 2. Reduces vibration 3. Protects against abrasion and other injury in a crash 4. Improves grip What's the benefit of wearing motorcycle boots? What do they protect your ankles and feet from? - CORRECT ANSWER Protect ankles and feet from: 1. Elements 2. Hot and sharp parts 3. Injury in a crash Rubber soles and low heels improve your grip and control Rider wearing any over the ankle boot were what percentage less likely to have an injury to their feet or ankles? - CORRECT ANSWER 53% What's the protective benefit of motorcycle jackets, pants and boots? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Reduce exposure to wind, weather and debris 2) Improves visibility of you to other drivers 3) Vented and weather tight for temperature control a) Warmer in the cold weather b) Cooler in the hot weather 4) Improves concentration 5) Reduces injury and abrasian High quality armor can reduce impact energy by as much as? - CORRECT ANSWER 70% Rider's wearing body armor were what percentage LESS likely to have open wound injuries during an accident? - CORRECT ANSWER 73% What three (3) weather dependent ailments can proper equipment help manage/prevent? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Dehydration 2) Heat injuries 3) Hypothermia How can you dress to increase visiblity? - CORRECT ANSWER Retro-reflective material (NOT reflective) Bright colors! What does a pre-ride check include? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Tires 2. Check controls 3. Electrics (indicator lights, headlight, brakes etc.) 4. Fluids (Everything up to the fill line and doesn't look like muck) 5. Drive chain (check that the chain or drive is in good repair On a tire you will find an oval with 4 digits. What do the digits mean exactly? - CORRECT ANSWER They define the expiration date. The first two digits is the week, and the 2nd two digits represent the year the tire was manufactured in What's the maximum tire lifetime regardless of miles driven? - CORRECT ANSWER sportbike tires is 2 years, sport touring 3 years, tour, standard and cruiser is 4 years What are the 6 main primary controls on a motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Throttle 2) Clutch lever 3) Gearshift lever 4) Front brake lever 5) Rear brake pedal 6) Handlebars Where is the engine cutoff switch? - CORRECT ANSWER Right handlebar When coming to a stop to park your motorcycle, what's the first thing you should do? What's the second thing? - CORRECT ANSWER First - Hit your engine kill switch with your right thumb Second - turn off your ignition Where is the fuel supply valve located? - CORRECT ANSWER left side of motorcycle Where is the choke located? - CORRECT ANSWER left side of motorcycle What 3 controls are on the left handlebar of your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. High Beam/Low Beam 2. Turn Signal 3. Horn Where is your engine start button? How long do you need to hold it down? - CORRECT ANSWER Right side of handlebar, hold it until you hear the engine has started What are the 6 steps for mounting your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Approach from the left side only 2. Grip the handlebars and squeeze front brake 3. Mount the motorcycle from the left side 4. Sit and straighten the motorcycle 5. Raise sidestand 6. Adjust mirrors What are the 5 steps for dismounting your motorcycle (after killing your engine and turning off your ignition)? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Sidestand down 2. Lean bike onto sidestand 3. Squeeze front brake 4. Dismount 5. Turn handlebards towards sidestand What method do you use to start your motorcycle? (think acronym) - CORRECT ANSWER ONE-C -O - ignition/fuel turn ON -N - Neutral -E - Engine cut-off switch to on -C - Clutch pull in and press starter button What are the three steps to stopping any engine? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Engine cut-off switch 2. Ignition off 3. Fuel suppy valve to off (if not fuel injected) What is the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Area of the clutch travel where the power is first transmitted from the engine to the rear wheel What comprises a good riding position? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Head and eyes up and forward 2. Shoulders relaxed 3. Arms slightly bent 4. Left hand covering clutch 5. Right wrist low 6. Knees against tank (squeezing it) 7. Rest the balls of your feet on the footpegs What's the basic upshift procedure? - CORRECT ANSWER Roll - Squeeze - Lift - Ease - Roll 1. Roll off the throttle 2. Squeeze in the clutch 3. Lift up on gear shift lever 4. Ease out the clutch smoothly 5. Roll back on the throttle What's the basic downshift procedure? - CORRECT ANSWER Roll-squeeze-press-ease 1. Roll off throttle 2. Squeeze in clutch 3. Down on gear shift lever 4. Ease out clutch If you need to stop your motorcycle (stoplight, intersection etc.), what's the basic procedure? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Keep eyes up and ahead 2. Roll off throttle 3. Squeeze clutch 4. Apply both front and rear brakes 5. Downshift to first 6. Left foot down first Front brakes produce what percentage of your stopping power? - CORRECT ANSWER 70% What acronym do we use for turning and describe it's use? - CORRECT ANSWER SPAT 1. Speed -Accelerate, decelerate, maintenance throttle -Do not squeeze clutch or use brakes in turn, 2. Position -Body, lane, traffic, group -Lean your shoulders into the turn -Traffic - adjust for traffic -Group - adjust for the group 3. Aim -Look, Plan, Connect the Dots -Look as far as you can into the turn and stay, plan your path 4. Turn -Steering, leaning -Steer with handlebars and lean -Push in the direction you want to go What is counterbalancing and when should you use it? - CORRECT ANSWER Counterbalance - lean away when going slower What is countersteering and when should you use it? - CORRECT ANSWER Countersteering - lean in when going faster Crash research shows that motorcyclist who get into crashes fail to do what 5 things? - CORRECT ANSWER Riders fail to: 1. Actively Scan for hazards 2. Command attention 3. Communicate presence and intentions 4. Detect motorists 5. Anticipate right-of-way violations What are 5 ways you can command and communicate your presence on the road as a motorcyclist? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Bright and Reflective Clothing 2. Headlights 3. Signals 4. Brake light (flash before stopping if appropriate) 5. Horn What two adjectives would describe HOW WE SCAN/SEARCH? - CORRECT ANSWER Aggressive and Purposeful What is target fixation and how do we avoid it? - CORRECT ANSWER Intense focus on an object causes awareness of other objects to diminish. We tend to move towards what we are trying to avoid. Avoid by: Keep your head on a swivel and keep your focus on your objective, not what you're trying to avoid Situations with a 10 second path of travel require what? - CORRECT ANSWER Immediate response. AGGRESSIVELY scan for situations 10 seconds ahead of you. What are the 5 factors that determine a good lane position? - CORRECT ANSWER Pick a lane that allows you to: 1. See and be seen 2. Maintain a space cushion 3. Maintain an escape route 4. Protect your lane (don't let cars come into your lane 5. Avoid surface hazards (debris, potholes etc.) What is an expert motorcyclist? - CORRECT ANSWER A rider who uses expert judgement to avoid using expert skills What is SMOG-C used for? What is it? - CORRECT ANSWER Used for changing lanes: Signal Mirror Over the shoulder Go Cancel Signal If someone is tailgating you, what should you do? - CORRECT ANSWER Increase your space cushion by applying your brakes. Plan b: move to the side to let them pass What's a leading cause of motorcycle accidents at intersections? What should you watch out for the most? - CORRECT ANSWER A car that does not see you, making a left into your path regardless of whether you have the right of way. Most common is drivers not seeing you to their left and making a left into you (same direction) but also very common left turn from opposite direction. What should you check before making a stop? - CORRECT ANSWER Your rear view mirror for oncoming hazards from behind What's so dangerous about U-turns? What can you do about other drivers making u-turns? - CORRECT ANSWER Other cars often don't see motorcyclists and make sudden U-turns cutting off your path of travel. Slow down and try to get their attention - be ready to act [Show Less]
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Medicare/Medicaid CMS Exam 52 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Medicare/Medicaid CMS Exam 52 Questions with Verified Answers What does CMS stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Centers of Medicare and Medicaid services Wha... [Show More] t are the requirements to qualify for Medicare? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. over 65 2. entitled to Railroad Disability Benefits 3. entitled to disability benefits (SSI) for 24 months 4. entitled to SSI due to Low Gehrig's Disease 5. with End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) Medicare A - CORRECT ANSWER Hospital insurance No premium if paid Medicare taxes! Medicare B - CORRECT ANSWER Medical insurance Can choose to enroll if pay premiums Medicare C - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare Plan-private insurers Medicare Advantage Medicare D - CORRECT ANSWER Prescription drugs What places can a Med A pt go to? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Inpatient hospitalization 2. SNF 3. Home health 4. Hospice 5. Acute rehab *HH can also be Med B! What places can a Med B pt go? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Outpatient 2. Physician services 3. Durable medical equipment 4. Mental health services 5. Ambulance What is covered under Med C? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Health maintenance org (HMO) 2. Preferred provider org (PPO) 3. Private fee-for-service (PFFS) 4. Point of service options (POS) 5. Medicare medical savings accounts (MSA) *similar to private insurances-but have different regulations! What is covered under Med D? - CORRECT ANSWER Voluntary enrollment with A or B coverage Medicare contracts with private companies Medigap benefits - CORRECT ANSWER Supplemental health insurance policy Fills "gaps" within original Medicare plan -basically covers some or most out of pocket Through private insurance companies *must enroll in BOTH part A and B within 6 months of eligibility for Medicare Who manages Medicaid? - CORRECT ANSWER At the Federal level=CMS At the state level=Department of Health and Human Services AKA it changes state->state!!! What are the requirements to qualify for Medicaid? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pregnant women and children under 6 who's income is at or below 133% federal poverty level (FPL) 2. Children 6-19 w/ family income up to 100% FPL 3. Certain children in foster care, adoption assistance programs, or disabilities 4. Non-elderly low income parents/caretaker relatives 5. Adults with disability (under 65) 6. Medicare recipients with low income *can ONLY be OVER 65 if have low income also! Medicaid expansion - CORRECT ANSWER 2014-state choice Coverage to non-elderly, non-disabled adults! Covers the "gap" for those who didn't qualify, but make too little to get private insurance *benefits state by lowering hospital/state costs of unpaid ER/health bills Medicare A reimbursement: Acute care - CORRECT ANSWER Inpatient Prospective Payment System (IPPS) DRG=covers all services given in hospital Medicare A reimbursement: Inpatient rehab - CORRECT ANSWER IRF PPS (IRF PAI)=inpt rehab facility prospective payment system/pt assessment instrument PT must report amount and mode of tx (concurrent, co-tx, group, individual) Inpatient rehab mode of tx: concurrent - CORRECT ANSWER 1:2 PT/PTA:pt's pt's performing DIFFERENT activities Inpatient rehab mode of tx: co-tx - CORRECT ANSWER +2:1 More than 1 therapist from different disciplines treating 1 pt at a time Inpatient rehab mode of tx: group - CORRECT ANSWER 1:2-6 pt's performing SAME activities Inpatient rehab mode of tx: individual - CORRECT ANSWER 1:1 Medicare A reimbursement: SNF - CORRECT ANSWER Case mix PPS (RUG!!!!!!!) "sniff the rug" 30 day rule=if need tx more than 30 days, must request before end of 30 days or will go back to hospital for min 3 days 100 calendar days benefit Medicare A reimbursement: home health - CORRECT ANSWER Home bound status must be met *can also be Med B! What are criteria for home bound status for HH? - CORRECT ANSWER 2 met: 1. need aid of supportive devices-use of special transportation, or assistance of another person in order to leave home OR leaving home is medically contraindicated 2. (MUST meet BOTH of these) normal inability to leave home AND leaving home requires a considerable and taxing effort Medicare B reimbursement: outpatient - CORRECT ANSWER FFS (fee for service) ACO (accountable care org) Medicare B: therapy cap - CORRECT ANSWER Cap for PT and SLP combine (OT separate) $1,940 paid per calendar year $3,700 exception-need KX modifier and medical necessity to extend therapy! *does NOT apply to Med C (Med advantage) What is an Advanced Beneficiary Notice of Non-coverage? (ABN) - CORRECT ANSWER Given to pt (beneficiary) to inform if service will not be covered by Medicare and pt will be responsible for paying-must explain why! Formal documentation of notification to pt! pt may request not to receive the service *GA modifier must be used on claim!!! CPT code modifiers - CORRECT ANSWER 2 digit codes that tells payer to pay for something they usually wouldn't OR used to give extra info 59, KX, or GA Medicare quality reporting programs - CORRECT ANSWER To ensure services they pay for are high quality Triple aim: 1. better care 2. improve health 3. lower costs What is IMPACT? - CORRECT ANSWER Improving Post-Acute Care Transformation Act of 2014 Expands reporting requirements for post-acute providers Uniform assessment instruments Physician quality reporting system-outpatient - CORRECT ANSWER System to report quality indicators Gives incentive to providers who report 6 measures on 50% or more Medicare pt's (won't get 2% reduction in pay) Functional limitation reporting - CORRECT ANSWER G-codes!!!!!!!!!! *MUST be submitted with severity modifiers! Determine largest functional limitation for pt and use G-code and severity modifier Categories: 1. mobility: walking and moving around (PT use most) 2. Changing and maintaining body position 3. Carrying, moving and handling objects 4. Self care 5. Other When do you use functional limitation reporting? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. onset of therapy episode 2. min. of every 10th visit 3. eval OR re-eval 4. limitation has ended and further PT is needed for different limitation 5. discharge How do you choose functional limitation? - CORRECT ANSWER Use valid/reliable assessment tools/objective measures If more than 1 primary limitation... -most clinically relevant to successful outcome OR -quickest/greatest functional progress OR -greatest priority for pt When do you report a goal functional limitation G-code? - CORRECT ANSWER EVERY TIME!!!! Medical review program is made up of...? and does...? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. MACs 2. Certs 3. RACs 4. ZPICs There to reduce Medicare improper payments ZPICs job? - CORRECT ANSWER Police men Look for fraud and investigate (not random) complex audits Work directly with FBI What is different about MACs? - CORRECT ANSWER They are geographical! Transmittals - CORRECT ANSWER National coverage decisions (NCDs)=CSM Local coverage decisions (LCDs) =MACs Levels of supervision: general - CORRECT ANSWER PT is NOT required to be on-site for direction and supervision, but MUST be READILY AVAILABLE Levels of supervision: direct - CORRECT ANSWER PT is PHYSICALLY PRESENT and IMMEDIATELY AVAILABLE for supervision. PT will have DIRECT CONTACT with pt during each visit. "Line of site" Levels of supervision: direct personal - CORRECT ANSWER PT is PHYSICALLY PRESENT and IMMEDIATELY AVAILABLE for supervision. Direction and supervision is CONTINUOUS throughout time of tasks performed. "attached at the hip" Medicare A intern requirements - CORRECT ANSWER Student considered an extension of PT Direct supervision-"line of site" Student can write documentation, PT co-signs Medicare A modes of therapy options - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Individual 2. Concurrent 3. Group Medicare B intern requirements - CORRECT ANSWER Direct personal-"attached at the hip" In order to be billed, PT must... -be present in room -direct services -make skilled judgement -is responsible for assessment and tx *can ONLY do 1:1 individual tx mode! *Billing MUST be done by PT What are 3 requirements for Medicare documentation? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. physician signature for certification 2. progress report every 10th visit 3. re-certification required every 90 days Medicare coverage guidelines - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pt is "under care of a physician" 2. Services require skilled PT 3. Expectation that condition will improve significantly in reasonable time 4. Amount, frequency, and duration of service reasonable 5. Documentation reflects medical necessity Payable PT services must... - CORRECT ANSWER 1. show medical record and info on claim consistent and accurate 2. services that are covered by medicare 3. documentation must be legible, relevant, and sufficient to justify billing, and must comply with regulations! When can a Med pt get a re-evaluation? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. significant improvements 2. decline 3. change in pt's condition or functional status not anticipated in plan of care Initial certification - CORRECT ANSWER If Med pt does direct access, PT must get physician signature within 30 days! MUST document attempt to get signature Can get a verbal certification-must sign within 14 days What is a treatment encounter note? - CORRECT ANSWER Documentation required for EVERY tx day, EVERY therapy service done! Must include: -date -total tx time -each intervention/billed untimed and timed codes -detail of tx -signature -modification of tx What is a progress note? - CORRECT ANSWER Signature by physician NOT needed! Must be completed: -every 10 treatment days OR -at least once in 30 calendar days (whichever is less) What are some red flags for PT's? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. frequent use of KX modifier 2. in private practice-billing under 1 PT number instead of each separate PT enrolling 3. excessive # of codes billed per session [Show Less]
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CMSP Exam 49 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMSP Exam 49 Questions with Verified Answers Why is motorcycling more risky than driving a car? - CORRECT ANSWER We are difficult to see so ppl hit us! ... [Show More] Protection (no seatbelts, no metal frame wrapped around you, no airbags) Less stability What is Rider Readiness? - CORRECT ANSWER Our mental and physical preparedness to be on a motorcycle What does it mean to "accept your responsibility"? - CORRECT ANSWER Ride w/in your limits What is the benefit of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? - CORRECT ANSWER It is designed to protect us How does riding gear make a rider more comfy? - CORRECT ANSWER Don't have to worry about the 'what-ifs' if something flies up and hits us (peace of mind) Designed for motorcycling, so pre-bent How does retro reflective material work? - CORRECT ANSWER better bc it reflects most of the light back to the source Are ordinary glasses or sunglasses alone sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER No, bc they aren't safety glasses, they weren't designed to survive a crash Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your bike? - CORRECT ANSWER 3 things you should consider when shopping for riding gear - CORRECT ANSWER -Comfort -Protection -- Specifically designed for motorcycling - has the armor etc. -Visibility Six primary controls and where each is located - CORRECT ANSWER Clutch - left hand Front brakes - right hand Rear brake - left hand Shift level - left foot Throttle - right hand Handlebars Purpose of engine-cut off switch and location - CORRECT ANSWER Right thumb, shuts off power to engine What do you need to remember about the turn signal? - CORRECT ANSWER does not self cancel ONE-C - CORRECT ANSWER -Engine ON -Neutral -Engine cutoff switch - on/run -Clutch/Choke (pull it in) How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Gradually ease it out Area of the clutch travel where power is first transmitted from the engine to the rear wheel Coordinate clutch and throttle smoothly Good riding posture... - CORRECT ANSWER -Wrist low -Left hand covering clutch -Legs squeezing bike -Shoulders tall -On the balls of our feet on the footpads SPAT means... - CORRECT ANSWER Speed, Position, Aim, Turn Why is it important to look through turns? - CORRECT ANSWER Identify hazards/change in the roadway We look where we go What does lifting or pressing on the shift lever accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER Up= up gear down = down gear Which brake provides more stopping power? How much does it provide? - CORRECT ANSWER front brake, 70% How should you release the clutch when downshifting? - CORRECT ANSWER Ease it out, you don't want to lock the back tire How to improve visibility to other traffic: - CORRECT ANSWER Bright clothing/helmet Reflective materials Move around within the lane Flash your break lights, use your headlight Honk your horn What is the 20-second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Scanning far enough down the road that you can count 20 seconds before reaching that spot Scanning should be ____ and _____. - CORRECT ANSWER agressive / purposeful Recommended minimum following distance - CORRECT ANSWER 2 seconds When choosing a lane position: - CORRECT ANSWER Protecting your lane/moving around it Space cushion Escape route If there is in front of you, don't drive directly behind them (they can drive over a tire in the road, you can't) What does SIPDE mean? - CORRECT ANSWER Search, Identify, Predict, Decide, Execute (Mental tool to identify hazards well in advance) Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Intersections What is a head check? - CORRECT ANSWER looking over your shoulder (don't rely on mirrors) To reduce reaction time in hazardous situations: - CORRECT ANSWER Cover your clutch and your break How to know you are overriding your headlight: - CORRECT ANSWER if you are surprised by hazards more often What is the leading cause of single vehicle interactions? - CORRECT ANSWER Running wide (Not looking far enough through the curve Going too fast Not counter steering enough Don't slow down!! Push more on the inside handgrip and maintain your speed) At what point should you turn toward the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER When you can see your exit How to link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER Adjust exit of first turn to set up for second turn When should you turn your head for cornering? - CORRECT ANSWER Before the curve begins Key to a front brake stop in a straight line: - CORRECT ANSWER smooth, increasing pressure Rear brake quickly? - CORRECT ANSWER Lighter pressure Quickest way to stop in a curve? - CORRECT ANSWER Straighten-then-brake technique When braking in a lean, remember that you have... - CORRECT ANSWER less traction, consuming traction in lean and braking, so be gentle and gradual with the break What is counter steering? - CORRECT ANSWER Push your handlebar right to go right, visa versa What to avoid while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER braking When swerving, look toward... - CORRECT ANSWER toward the escape route (not toward the thing you are trying to swerve away from) Where approach angle when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Minimum 45 degrees Indicators of changes in road - CORRECT ANSWER change in color and texture How do you ride across low traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER Avoid abrupt changes in speed, less lean (reduce your consumers of traction) What do you do if you see a deer? - CORRECT ANSWER Slow down! Then assess the situation further What should you do if you suspect your side stand will sink? - CORRECT ANSWER Put something flat underneath the side stand Daily events affect... - CORRECT ANSWER Rider Readiness because they are distracting ___% of fatalities are alcohol related - CORRECT ANSWER 29 Ways to intervene to prevent a friend from riding under the influence - CORRECT ANSWER Fake shots of water, steal their keys, arrange a ride home [Show Less]
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CMSP 101 Chapter 3 and 5 Exam 73 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMSP 101 Chapter 3 and 5 Exam 73 Questions with Verified Answers Onion Model - CORRECT ANSWER suggests an inner core covered up with layer after layer o... [Show More] f information and characteristics right out toward the surface skin -Superficial -Intimate -Personal -Core Selective Exposure - CORRECT ANSWER You are more likely to expose yourself to that which supports you beliefs, values, and attitudes Selective Perception - CORRECT ANSWER You are more likely to percieve and focus on things that which supports your beliefs, values, and attitudes Selective Retention - CORRECT ANSWER You are more likely to recall things that which supports your beliefs, values, and attitudes Schemata - CORRECT ANSWER mental structures that are used to organize information in part by clustering or linking associated material Prototype - CORRECT ANSWER The best case example of something Personal Constucts - CORRECT ANSWER Individualized ways of constructing or understanding the work and its contents Bipolar dimensions used to measure and evaluate things Symbolic Self - CORRECT ANSWER A self that exists for other people and goes beyond what it means to you Arises from social interactions Perception - CORRECT ANSWER How people view the world, organize what is perceived, interprets information, and evaluates information Symbolic Interactionism - CORRECT ANSWER How broad social forces affect or even transact an individuals view of self Self Description - CORRECT ANSWER Description that involves information about self that is obvious to others through appearance and behavior i.e. being tall or wearing a hat Self Disclosure - CORRECT ANSWER The revelation of personal information that other could not know unless the person made it known i.e. Values, fears, secrets Front Region - CORRECT ANSWER Frame where a social interaction is regarded under public scrutiny, acting out professional roles Back Region - CORRECT ANSWER a frame where a social interaction is regarded as not under public scrutiny, so people do not have to present their public face nonverbal communication - CORRECT ANSWER symbolic activity other than use of language misconception 1 - CORRECT ANSWER 93% of meaning comes from nonverbal communivation misconception 2 - CORRECT ANSWER some nonverbal communication is universally understood misconception 3 - CORRECT ANSWER deception can be accurately detected through nonverbal communication misconception 4 - CORRECT ANSWER people read nonverbal communication decoding - CORRECT ANSWER assigning meaning to nonverbal symbols you recieve encoding - CORRECT ANSWER putting feelings into behavior through nonverbal communication dynamic - CORRECT ANSWER elements of nonverbal communication that are changeable during an interaction. Posture, facial expression, gesturing static - CORRECT ANSWER elements of nonverbal communication that are fixed during an interaction. clothes, shape of the room, eye color leakage - CORRECT ANSWER unintentional betrayal of internal feelings through nonverbal communication proxemics - CORRECT ANSWER study of personal space haptics - CORRECT ANSWER study of touch functional touch - CORRECT ANSWER touch is permitted by context. i.e. medical exam social touch - CORRECT ANSWER touch is formal (handshake) friendship-warmth touch - CORRECT ANSWER touch is expressed of regard love-intimacy touch - CORRECT ANSWER lets you convey deep emotional feelings positive affect - CORRECT ANSWER support, appreciation, inclusion, affection playful touch - CORRECT ANSWER playful affection or playful agression control touch - CORRECT ANSWER gain compliance, attention, or invoke a response ritualistic touch - CORRECT ANSWER greeting or departing touch hybrid touch - CORRECT ANSWER positive/ritualistic touch task related touch - CORRECT ANSWER touch used to get something done accidental touch - CORRECT ANSWER unintentional/meaningless touch regulators - CORRECT ANSWER nonverbal face and body movements used to indicate to others how you want them to behave intimate distance - CORRECT ANSWER 18in personal distance - CORRECT ANSWER 18-48 in social distance - CORRECT ANSWER 48-144 in public distance - CORRECT ANSWER 12-25 ft Deintensification - CORRECT ANSWER emotional display is lessened Overintensification - CORRECT ANSWER emotional display is increased neutralization - CORRECT ANSWER emotions are nonexistent or neutralized masking - CORRECT ANSWER emotion displayed in the opposite of being experienced eye contact - CORRECT ANSWER direct visual contact with the eyes of another person gaze - CORRECT ANSWER one person looking at another vocalics - CORRECT ANSWER vocal characteristics that provide information about how verbal communication should be interpreted and how the speaker is feeling pitch - CORRECT ANSWER the highness or lowness of the speaker's voice volume - CORRECT ANSWER the loudness or softness of the speaker's voice silence - CORRECT ANSWER meaningful lack of sound Territoriality - CORRECT ANSWER the establishment and maintenance of space that people claim for their personal use primary territory - CORRECT ANSWER space that you own or have principal control over secondary territory - CORRECT ANSWER established as your own through repeated use public territory - CORRECT ANSWER open to everyone but available for your sole temporary occupancy personal space - CORRECT ANSWER space legitimately claimed or occupied by a person for the time being; the area around a person that is regarded as part of the person and in which only informal and close relationships are conducted body buffer zone - CORRECT ANSWER a kind of imaginary aura around you that you regard as part of yourself and your personal space kinesics - CORRECT ANSWER movement of the face and body that takes place during an interaction emblems - CORRECT ANSWER face and body movement represent feelings or ideas not necessarily being expressed verabally illistrators - CORRECT ANSWER face and body movements used to visualize or emphasize verbal communication affect displays - CORRECT ANSWER nonverbal face and body movement used to express emotion adapters - CORRECT ANSWER nonverbal behaviors that satisfy a personal need and help a person adapt or respond to the immediate situation [Show Less]
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CSMP Exam 39 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CSMP Exam 39 Questions with Verified Answers Prior to developing a CMSP, who should you contact to obtain latest copy of their guide - CORRECT ANSWER Se... [Show More] rvicing MLC Detailed estimate should include - CORRECT ANSWER Labor hours, materials, subcontractor costs Email routing of pics, sketches, charts, etc. are encouraged to do what? (submitted in CMPLUS) - CORRECT ANSWER Supplement Info Equipment & structures that need to be removed to accomplish work - CORRECT ANSWER Interferences On a CSMP when new electrical equipment is being installed, what needs to be specified - CORRECT ANSWER The panel # and nameplate data The cutters servicing (who) conducts a thorough review of the cutter's CSMP - CORRECT ANSWER NESU port engineer Who conducts the final review before approving it - CORRECT ANSWER NESU CO The CSMP help guide established & maintained by what (or) what - CORRECT ANSWER MLCLANT or MLCPC The CSMP help guide can be accessed by - CORRECT ANSWER Internet on ELC homepage The cutter should make & estimate based on (what) & complete cost of materials to perform the job - CORRECT ANSWER The cost of total hours Cutters shall generate all CSMP's within CMPLUS & export them electronically to what - CORRECT ANSWER FLS- Fleet Logistics System Database Provide the info needed to draft item specifications for shipyards availabilities - CORRECT ANSWER Another important function of CSMP CSMP's shall be prepared & submitted by the unit to - CORRECT ANSWER MLC- Maintenance & Logistics Commands If hazardous materials are known or suspected to be generally present aboard the ship in the area where repair has been scheduled, what should be written - CORRECT ANSWER Supplemental shipwork scpecification If a proposed change is within the scope of contract, the change is handled via - CORRECT ANSWER Contract modification If a proposed change is not within the scope of contract, what is required - CORRECT ANSWER New contract Priority for items to maintain personnel safety - CORRECT ANSWER High Is an extended maintenance period that has been planned to accomplish major repairs - CORRECT ANSWER Availability period Legally bonding contractual document key piece of evidence identifying what work the gov requires the ship manager to accomplish - CORRECT ANSWER A specification Used to initiate the specifications for a specific work item - CORRECT ANSWER CSMP CSMP approval - CORRECT ANSWER CO approval Criteria for determining whether requirements are met - CORRECT ANSWER Complete Spec = work requirements Primary method of documenting the need to accomplish major repairs and allerations - CORRECT ANSWER CSMP CSMP prep guide can be found - CORRECT ANSWER At your servicing MLC Measures Contractors Performance - CORRECT ANSWER Statement of Work The element by element examination of estimated or actual costs and proposed profit - CORRECT ANSWER Cost analysis Method of contracting that employs competitive bids, public openings of bids, and ultimate award of a fixed-price contract - CORRECT ANSWER Sealed bidding Procedure used by contracting officer that includes receipt of proposal from offers permits bargaining, and usually affords an opportunity to revise offers before contract and modification - CORRECT ANSWER Negotiations Any cost directly identified w/ a single final objective but identified w/ 2 or more final cost objectives. Also referred to as an overhaul - CORRECT ANSWER Indirect Cost CG form 2920 - CORRECT ANSWER Current Ships Maintenance Project (CSMP) After command approval, cutter exports CSMP to what using CMPLUS OPFAC (operating facility code) module. - CORRECT ANSWER FLS Items required to assure continued operational capability - CORRECT ANSWER Medium priority Items required to maintain operational capability involves cutter or personnel safety or is required by directives - CORRECT ANSWER High priority Extended maintenance period that has been planned for the accomplishment of major repairs and maintenance - CORRECT ANSWER Availability Items that improves the efficiency of the vessel or improve habitability. May be postponed w/ out affecting operational capability or reliability - CORRECT ANSWER Low priority Technical document that describes the min. Ship specific work requirements in clear , concise, well-defined and contractually sound term - CORRECT ANSWER Well written shipwork specification Legally binding contractual document that is the key piece of evidence identifying what work the government requires the ship manager to accomplish on prime/ sub contractors... and the repair contractor to accomplish under Invitation for Bid (IFB) type contractors - CORRECT ANSWER A specification Used to initiate the specifications for a specific work item - CORRECT ANSWER CSMP Who approves a CSMP - CORRECT ANSWER CO [Show Less]
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Motorcycle Training Course Exam 26 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Motorcycle Training Course Exam 26 Questions with Verified Answers Give three Reasons why motorcycling is more risky than driving a car - CORRECT ANSWER... [Show More] 1.) Motorcycles lack Cocoon roll cages, belts & air bags. 2.) maneuvers that are routine in a car can be hazardous on a moto. 3.) cars don't have to be balanced What is Rider Readiness - CORRECT ANSWER Being mentally prepared & attentive. physically rested & unimpaired & having your motorcycle in good condition. Wearing appropriate gear and being aware & prepared for weather roadway & traffic What does it mean to "accept your responsibility"? - CORRECT ANSWER Ride within All the limits of your abilities & machines capabilities What is the benefit of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? - CORRECT ANSWER It will protect you, provide comfort and improve control. What is the difference between retroflective and reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER Retroflective reflectslight directly back into its source Why aren't ordinary glasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER Because they are not shatterproof What three things should you consider when shopping for your gear? - CORRECT ANSWER Visibility, protection, and comfort Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER MOM (Motorcycle's Owners Manual) Why is ONE-C? - CORRECT ANSWER The pre start routine -On -Neutral -Engine Cut Off -Clutch/Choke How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER ease out the clutch and let the motorcycle get underway Describe good riding posture - CORRECT ANSWER Straight back with you're head and eyes up, feet on foot rests, knees against the tank, relax your arms and bend your elbows slighty What are the four steps to turning? - CORRECT ANSWER Speed, Position, aim and turn Why is the "aim" step so important? - CORRECT ANSWER You may be able to manage any risks through the curve once you see it What does lifting of pressing on the shift lever accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER Shifting gears Which brake provides more stopping power? - CORRECT ANSWER Front Brake-70% How should you release the clutch when downshifting? - CORRECT ANSWER Ease it out, How can you improve your visibility to other traffic? - CORRECT ANSWER Headlight, Signals, Brake light & Horn What is the 20 second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER The recommended Space allowed to identify and manage risks by scanning your path What two words best describe scanning? - CORRECT ANSWER Aggressive, purposeful What is the recommended minimum following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER Three seconds What should you consider when choosing a lane position? - CORRECT ANSWER Visibility, line of sight, space cushion and escape route How does SIPDE help make you an expert rider? - CORRECT ANSWER By learning to anticipate and act on hazards Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Intersections What is a head check? - CORRECT ANSWER Looking over shoulder prior to changing lanes or turning What can you do to reduce reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER Use SIPDE How do you know if you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER When you are unable to see and react to hazards past your headlight field [Show Less]
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California Motorcyclist Safety Program 63 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
California Motorcyclist Safety Program 63 Questions with Verified Answers Give three reasons why motorcycling is more risky than driving a car - CORRECT... [Show More] ANSWER 1. More vulnerable 2. Less visible 3. Less wheels (less traction & stability) What are some ways to prepare for the risks of riding? (4 ways) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Proper Gear 2. Understand abilities and limitations 3. Awareness of riding conditions 4. Know your moto What does it mean to act responsibly? (2 factors) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Understand moto's capabilities 2. Reduce risks of riding What is the benefit of wearing apparel specifically designed for motorcycling? (3 reasons) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Protection 2. Comfort 3. Visibility How does riding gear make a rider more comfortable? - CORRECT ANSWER Forms to the position of the bike What is the difference between retro-reflective & reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER Reflective: light is reflected back in all directions Retro-Reflective: light is reflected directly back to the source (such as another car whose lights are shining at you) Why aren't ordinary glasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? (4 factors) - CORRECT ANSWER - Air can still get through - Can be moved around - Can be penetrated/crack - Tint isn't always necessary What three things should you consider when shopping for riding gear? (3 features) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Protection 2. Comfort 3. Visibility Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER Operator's manual What are the six primary controls and where is each? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Throttle - right handgrip 2. Front brake - right handgrip 3. Clutch - left handgrip 4. Handlebars 5. Rear brake - right footpeg 6. Gear shift - left footpeg What is the purpose of engine cut-off switch & where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER Start or turn off bike; located on right handgrip What must you remember when using your moto turn signal? - CORRECT ANSWER Signal does not turn off by itself, must click button Pre-Ride Check (5 factors) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Tires 2. Controls 3. Electrics 4. Fluids 5. Final Drive (what drives rear wheel? Chain, belt, or shaft?) What are the basic types of protective gear? (7 components) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Pants 2. Jacket 3. Gloves 4. Helmet 5. Eye Protection 6. Ear Protection 7. Boots What is the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Clutch begins to deliver power to wheel How should posture be for NORMAL-SPEED TURNS - CORRECT ANSWER Lean with the bike How should posture be for SLOW, TIGHT TURNS? - CORRECT ANSWER Remain upright How do you start the bike? (5 steps) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Turn key in ignition 2. Ensure in neutral 3. Press cut-off switch on 4. Pull in clutch 5. Press starter button How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Smoothly - between clutch & throttle What are elements of good riding posture? (7 elements) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Looking straight ahead 2. Left fingers hovering over clutch 3. Right hand wrapped around throttle 4. Low right wrist 5. Knees squeezing fuel tank 6. Shoulders, arms relaxed 7. Sitting up straight What are the four steps to turning? - CORRECT ANSWER SPAT Speed Position Aim Turn Why is it important to look through turns? - CORRECT ANSWER Direction Control - to remain on road Gather information - see what's on corner What does lifting or pressing on shift lever accomplish - CORRECT ANSWER Changes gear Which brake provides more stopping power and how much? - CORRECT ANSWER Front brake - 70% How should you release the clutch when downshifting? - CORRECT ANSWER SMOOTHLY Leading causes of single vehicle crashes (3 reasons) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Overriding sight distance (not turning head) 2. Excessive speed 3. Ineffective countersteering SPAT on road: things to identify in curve before reaching it (7 factors) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Traffic 2. Hazards 3. Radius (how sharp curve is) 4. Camber (slant of road) 5. Surface 6. Sight distance (how far can you see through turn?) 7. Uphill or downhill How to adjust speed (3 steps) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Roll off throttle 2. Brake before turn 3. Trail-braking (advanced technique) Define Space Cushion - CORRECT ANSWER Area surrounding you in traffic flow Define Escape Route - CORRECT ANSWER Alternate path of travel to take if hazard develops in path How can you improve your visibility to other traffic? (5 ways) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Clothing 2. Headlight 3. Signals 4. Brake Light (can flash) 5. Horn What is the 20-second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Looking ahead at an area that will take you 20 seconds to reach--this gives situational awareness & time to prepare for the hazard What two words describe scanning? - CORRECT ANSWER Aggressive & Purposeful What is the recommended minimum following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER Minimum of 2 seconds What should you consider when choosing a lane position? (4 factors) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Optimum visibility 2. Line-of-sight 3. Space cushion 4. Escape route What is the 3A process? What does it accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER Awareness, Assessment, Action Increases visibility & better preparation to deal with hazards at intersections Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER Intersections How does AAA help make you an expert rider? - CORRECT ANSWER Helps develop expert judgement and reduce risks How do you check your blind spot? - CORRECT ANSWER Turn head to see what mirrors missed What can you do to reduce reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER Cover clutch and brakes How do you know if you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER Surprised by oncoming objects What are the leading causes of single-vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER Excessive speed At what point should you turn toward the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER When coming into curve, closest to inside How do you link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER Use exit of first line as entrance of entry line for next curve When should you turn your head for cornering? - CORRECT ANSWER Before entering the curve How is the front brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Gradually and firmly How is the rear brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER Light to lighter pressure What is the shortest way to stop in a curve? - CORRECT ANSWER Straighten then break When braking in a lean, what is important to remember? - CORRECT ANSWER Apply brakes gently & gradually What is countersteering? - CORRECT ANSWER Steering in the opposite direction to turn the desired direction What should you always avoid while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER ALWAYS SEPARATE BRAKING AND SWERVING Where should you look while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER Look at escape route, not at hazard Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER Eyes up, not on obstacle What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER 90 degree angle What indicates potential change in roadway traction? (2 features) - CORRECT ANSWER Changes in color & texture How should you ride across low-traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER 1. In tracks of vehicle in front 2. Reduced speed & lean angle (lean less) 3. Increase following distance 4. Avoid pooled water & highway ruts, lightning & shiny surfaces What should you do if you come upon deer alongside the roadway? (3 steps) - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Predict more than one 2. Slow down 3. Slow & prepare to stop or U-turn What should you do if you suspect your sidestand will sink into the parking surface? - CORRECT ANSWER Find an object to support it underneath (can be a stick, rock, can, etc.) What are three indicators of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER - Loss of smooth control - Increased number of surprises - Slow reaction times What are three examples of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER - Fatigue or drowsiness - Stress - Aggression & emotions - Aging - Overconfidence - Underconfidence What percentage of rider fatalities are alcohol related? - CORRECT ANSWER 35% How does riding under the influence affect the AAA process? - CORRECT ANSWER - Unable to focus or adjust to changes in light - STM is impaired - Slow reaction time, less precise control What are some ways of intervening to prevent a friend from driving under the influence? - CORRECT ANSWER - Hide keys - Find alternative sleeping - Plan ahead - Stop serving [Show Less]
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Motorcycle Written Test 47 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Motorcycle Written Test 47 Questions with Verified Answers What is the difference between retro-reflective and reflective? - CORRECT ANSWER retro-reflec... [Show More] tive: reflects in the direction of the source reflective: Reflects in all directions Why aren't ordinary glasses or sunglasses sufficient eye protection? - CORRECT ANSWER goggles and some safety eyewear can restrict peripheral vision What three things should you consider when shopping for riding gear? - CORRECT ANSWER -COMFORT -VISIBILITY -Weather Where do you find the recommended maintenance schedule for your motorcycle? - CORRECT ANSWER A few moments before every ride to inspect your motorcycle. What is the purpose of the engine cut-off switch and where is it located? - CORRECT ANSWER Located on the right handgrip and operated by the right thumb. It allows you to shut off the engine without removing hands from controls. What must you remember when using your motorcycle turn signal? - CORRECT ANSWER Most models do not self-cancel (left hand grip) How do you start the bike? - CORRECT ANSWER -Turn the fuel valve from off to on -Turn the ignition switch on -Shift the transmission to neutral -Rock the motorcycle back and forth with the clutch out before starting the engine -Move the engine cut-off switch to run or on -Many motorcycles require squeezing the clutch before the starter will operate How do you use the friction zone? - CORRECT ANSWER Squeeze the clutch and shift into first gear What are the elements of good riding posture? - CORRECT ANSWER -straight back -head/eyes up -look where you wanna go -relax arms -elbows bent What are the four steps to turning? - CORRECT ANSWER SPAT Why is it important to look through turns? - CORRECT ANSWER gives you the essential information to negotiate turns safely and skillfully What does lifting or pressing on the shift lever accomplish? - CORRECT ANSWER You must change gears to keep the engine within its best operating range at all speeds. Which brake provides more stopping power and how much? - CORRECT ANSWER The front brake provides at least 70% of the motorcycle's total stopping power. (Always use both) How should you release the clutch when downshifting? - CORRECT ANSWER ease out the clutch to avoid skidding the rear tire What does SPAT stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER SPEED: Adjust your speed before you get to the turn POSITION: select an outside lane position prior to the turn AIM: Prior to starting the turn your head and eyes and visually aim through the turn TURN: Lean the motorcycle into the turn by applying gentle, forward pressure to the handgrip in the direction of the turn How can you improve your visibility to other traffic? - CORRECT ANSWER **CLOTHING HEADLIGHT SIGNALS BRAKE LIGHT HORN What is the 20-second visual lead? - CORRECT ANSWER Look ahead as far as you can to scan a 20-second path of travel. (gives you situational awareness—time to prepare for a hazard before it is in your immediate path) What two words best describe scanning? - CORRECT ANSWER assessment safety. What is the recommended minimum following distance? - CORRECT ANSWER 2 seconds What should you consider when choosing a lane position? - CORRECT ANSWER -SEE AND BE SEEN -SPACE CUSHION How does the A3 Strategy™ help make you an expert rider? - CORRECT ANSWER AWARENESS: search for potential hazards ASSESSMENT: once you've become aware of the hazard, the next step is to quickly predict what it will do ACTION: act on your decision Where do most multi-vehicle collisions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER intersections How do you check your blind spot? - CORRECT ANSWER -turn head and check mirrors What can you do to reduce reaction time in hazardous situations? - CORRECT ANSWER The A3 Strategy How do you know if you are overriding your headlight? - CORRECT ANSWER -Your headlight only shines a certain number of feet in front of you. -at higher speeds you have less time to respond to what you see. -In conditions of darkness, slow down to avoid "overriding" your headlight. -Use the headlights of other vehicles to see farther ahead and their taillights for clues about curves, bumps or maneuvers What are the leading causes of single vehicle crashes? - CORRECT ANSWER suffer self-inflicted injury from failure to negotiate curves At what point should you turn towards the apex? - CORRECT ANSWER Outside—After reaching the apex of your turn (the point at which you are the closest to the inside), allow the motorcycle to move back toward the outside portion of the lane How do you link turns smoothly? - CORRECT ANSWER Strive to make the exit line of the first curve match the entry line for the next curve When should you turn your head for cornering? - CORRECT ANSWER How is the front break applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER How is the rear brake applied to stop quickly in a straight line? - CORRECT ANSWER What is the shortest way to stop in a curve? - CORRECT ANSWER the amount of traction available for braking is limited by the traction that is being used to grip the corner When breaking in a lean, what is important to remember? - CORRECT ANSWER Keep your eyes on your intended path, not on the obstacle What is countersteering? - CORRECT ANSWER one forward push on the grip to avoid the obstacle, held long enough to clear the obstacle, followed by a forward push opposite grip to regain a straight path after the obstacle is cleared What should you always avoid while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER brake before or after swerving, never during Where should you look while swerving? - CORRECT ANSWER look to your escape path Where should you look when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER look ahead What approach angle is recommended when crossing obstacles? - CORRECT ANSWER 90 degrees What indicates a potential change in roadway traction? - CORRECT ANSWER -Metal covers and plates -Painted or plastic roadway markings -Bridge gratings -Railroad tracks and rubberized crossings -wet leaves What should you do if you suspect your sidestand will sink into the parking surface? - CORRECT ANSWER What should you do if you come up on deer alongside the roadway? - CORRECT ANSWER A3 there might be more that might dart in front of you (slow down speed) How should you ride across low traction surfaces? - CORRECT ANSWER A3 and no sudden/abrupt movements What are 3 indicators of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER -IMPAIRED JUDGMENT -DIVIDED ATTENTION -IMPAIRED VISION What are 3 examples of impairment? - CORRECT ANSWER What percentage of fatalities are alcohol related? - CORRECT ANSWER 35% How does ridding under the influence affect the A3 strategy? - CORRECT ANSWER -Clear vision is impaired -The ability to process information are impaired -The ability to react properly and precisely is affeced What are some of the ways to intervene to prevent a friend from riding under the influence? - CORRECT ANSWER -Arrange a safe ride home. -Secure the motorcycle. Riders are often unwilling to leave their motorcycle. Find a secure location for your friend's bike. -Get others to help. The more support you have, the better your chances of success. -Stop serving if you are the host. -Use any excuse to keep your friend from getting on the motorcycle. Serve food or non-alcoholic drinks to pass the time. Let your friend sleep over at your place.•If all else fails, hide the k [Show Less]
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Cisco 1 Exam 148 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
Cisco 1 Exam 148 Questions with Verified Answers In which year was Cisco incorporated? a. 1974 b. 1984 c. 1990 d. 1993 - CORRECT ANSWER b. 1984 ... [Show More] Cisco's networking product lines include: a. Routers b. Switches c. Networking Management Software d. Internet Devices e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Broadly speaking, what are Cisco's three main market segments? a. Geographic, Demographic, Behavioral b. Large Enterprises and Public Sector, Service Providers, Small and Midsize Business correct c. Business to Business (B2B), Industrial, Professional Services d. Business to Consumer (B2C), Business to Government (B2G), Education Services - CORRECT ANSWER b. Large Enterprises and Public Sector, Service Providers, Small and Midsize Business correct Which of the following is Cisco's company mission statement? a. Changing the way we work, live, play, and learn. b. To lead market transitions with customer-centric systems, solutions, and architectures. c. Shape the future of the Internet by creating unprecedented value and opportunity for our customers, employees, investors, and ecosystem partners. d. The Network Works. No Excuses. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Shape the future of the Internet by creating unprecedented value and opportunity for our customers, employees, investors, and ecosystem partners. Which of the following statements best describes Cisco's technology vision goals? a. Digitization, workplace transformation, and investment protection. b. To lead market transitions with customer-centric systems, solutions, and architectures. c. To create an intuitive system that anticipates actions, stops security threats in their tracks, and continues to evolve and learn. d. All of the above. correct - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above. correct Which of the following statements best describes Cisco's environmental vision goals? a. To reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from our worldwide operations by 60 percent by 2022. b. Cisco is aiming to use electricity generated from renewable sources for at least 85% of the company's global electricity needs by 2022. c. Improve product power consumption from plug to port, with a goal to achieve a six to seven percent increase in system energy efficiency to a target of 92 percent by 2020. d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above. Which of these statements describes the categories that Cisco sells? a. Routers, Switches, Voice, Security b. Products, Solutions, Services, Architectures correct c. IoT, Cloud, Data Center, Security d. Networks, Servers, Wireless, Services - CORRECT ANSWER b. Products, Solutions, Services, Architectures correct Which of the following statements best describes Cisco's products? a. Data Center, Security, Analytics b. Networking, Wireless and Mobility, IoT c. Collaboration, Video d. Security, Software e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above What are some of Cisco's services offerings? a. Advisory, Implementation, Training, Optimization, Managed, Technical b. Plan, Build, Operate c. Finance, Risk and Fraud, Mobile Consulting and Solutions d. Cloud Business Solutions, Digital Operations e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Advisory, Implementation, Training, Optimization, Managed, Technical Which of the following statements best describes Cisco's four Routes to Market? a. Direct Sales, Tele Sales, Digital Sales, Channel Sales b. Field Sales, Virtual Sales, Digital Touch, Partners c. Inside Sales, Online Selling, Affiliates, Distributors d. Logistics, Distribution, Trade Marketing, Integration - CORRECT ANSWER b. Field Sales, Virtual Sales, Digital Touch, Partners Which of the following describes Cisco's partnership levels? a. Bronze, Silver, Gold, Platinum b. Select, Premier, Silver, Gold, Platinum c. Select, Premier, Gold, Multinational, Global Gold Specialized, Premier, Gold, Global Gold - CORRECT ANSWER c. Select, Premier, Gold, Multinational, Global Gold Which of the following are the three levels of Cisco Cloud Managed Services Program (CMSP)? a. Master CMSP Partner, Advanced CMSP Partner, Express CMSP Partner b. Select CMSP Partner, Premier CMSP Partner, Gold CMSP Partner c. Valued CMSP Partner, Expert CMSP Partner, Platinum CMSP Partner d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Master CMSP Partner, Advanced CMSP Partner, Express CMSP Partner Which of the following statements best describes the three components of Cisco ONE software's value proposition? a. Personal Value, Business Value, Technical Value b. Customer Intimacy, Operational Excellence, Product Leadership c. Business Value, Agility and Innovations, Financial Predictability d. Quality, Cost, Speed/Reliability - CORRECT ANSWER c. Business Value, Agility and Innovations, Financial Predictability Which are the stages of the Cisco ONE software lifecycle? a. Development, Growth, Maturity, Decline b. Exploration, Development, Extraction, Reclamation c. Purchase, Deploy, Refresh d. Develop, Operate, Decommission - CORRECT ANSWER c. Purchase, Deploy, Refresh Which of the following areas are covered by the Cisco ONE software suite portfolio? a. Compute b. Networking c. Routing d. Switching e. Wireless f. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER f. All of the above Which statement is the definition of a business outcome? a. A business outcome tells the story of what you produced or your organization's activities b. A business outcome is a measurable result of an activity or process within the business c. The quantity of goods or services produced in a given time period d. A business outcome is a tangible or intangible good or service produced that is intended to be delivered to a customer - CORRECT ANSWER b. A business outcome is a measurable result of an activity or process within the business Which statement could be an example of an organization's business priorities? a. Organizational Growth b. Increase Total Shareholder return by 5% for next fiscal year c. Deliver training to 10% of the employees d. Increase operational efficiency by a 15 - CORRECT ANSWER a. Organizational Growth SMART is a mnemonic to help us remember how to develop business outcomes. Which statement describes the mnemonic SMART? a. Standard, Meaningful, Attainable, Relevant, Tactical b. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Timebound correct c. Smart, Meaningful, Attributes, Realtime, Timed d. Switching, Managed, Accessible, Random, Traceable - CORRECT ANSWER b. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Timebound correct Which statement describes the steps in Cisco's business outcomes sales methodology? a. Prospecting, Initiate Contact, Identify Needs, Present Offer, Manage Objections, Close and Sale b. Review, Define, Plan, Do c. Awareness, Consideration, Purchase, Retention, Advocacy d. Customer Knowledge, Research and Analyze, Develop and Verify, Customer Commit, Deploy and Measure - CORRECT ANSWER d. Customer Knowledge, Research and Analyze, Develop and Verify, Customer Commit, Deploy and Measure Which of these statements are true about Cisco's approach to Business Outcomes Sales? a. You will have the opportunity to effectively engage with business leaders by understanding their business, needs, and challenges. b. A focus on business capabilities and solutions allows you to gain an early insight to its relevance to the true business requirements of the customer c. Understanding the business provides an opportunity for you to participate in the process of creating, shaping, or influencing the business capabilities and solutions that are relevant to achieving the business goals d. You can demonstrate value beyond just technology early in the engagement e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above During which phase of the Business Outcomes Sales methodology is the the Business Focus usually defined? a. Customer Knowledge of the Business b. Research and Analyze c. Develop and Verify d. Customer Commit - CORRECT ANSWER c. Develop and Verify Which statement defines the customer journey based on Cisco's definition of the customer value proposition and value chain? a. A business-focused view of how the customer sees their business and what is relevant to them b. A customer's roadmap c. The path to be taken by a customer to achieve their business goals d. The customer's business history - CORRECT ANSWER a. A business-focused view of how the customer sees their business and what is relevant to them Which must be determined to create and capture business value? a. Competition Capabilities, Organizational Capabilities, and Business Model b. Business Ecosystem, Return on Investment (ROI), and Value Proposition c. Business Priorities, Business Capabilities, and Business Solutions d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER c. Business Priorities, Business Capabilities, and Business Solutions What is the goal of a business requirement? a. Define what provides value to the business b. Define business solutions c. Define business goals d. Define customer goals - CORRECT ANSWER a. Define what provides value to the business Which statement best describes the types of customer business requirements? a. Business b. Functional c. Technical d. Transitional e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which is an example of a technical requirement? a. How long emails should be retained b. How often are backups required c. Change management procedures d. Ability to access certain market places on mobile devices - CORRECT ANSWER b. How often are backups required Which is the meaning of the abbreviation, BMC? a. Business Meetings and Conferences b. Business Model Canvas c. Business Management Console d. Business Matrix Compatibility - CORRECT ANSWER b. Business Model Canvas Which role uses the BMC? a. Cisco Business Architects b. Stakeholders c. Cisco Engineers d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Cisco Business Architects Which are the building blocks that deliver value proposition and support to the business model in the BMC? a. Key Partners, Key Activities, Customer Relationships, and Customer Segments b. Cost Structure and Revenue Streams c. Customer Relationships, Customer Segments, Channels, and Revenue Streams d. Key Resources, Key Activities, Key Partners, and Cost Structure - CORRECT ANSWER d. Key Resources, Key Activities, Key Partners, and Cost Structure Which statements are true regarding Flexible Licensing and Consumption Models? a. Greater flexibility in software and licensing and consumption can add value to the entire hardware/software stack b. Lifecycles of hardware and software are often different, but it's the software that often adds value in addressing customers' specific use cases c. Providing greater flexibility in software ownership and licensing can make it easier for organizations to scale or switch to new generations of hardware d. Can make trying out new solutions less risky and create new buying opportunities e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which statement best represents Cisco's software strategy in terms of business outcomes? a. Apply some of the world's most popular strategy frameworks to create additional dimensions to the strategic plan b. To use software and software-defined solutions to help customers realize more value from their IT investments across their organizations c. The high-level description of how the system realizes both the core assets and products d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. To use software and software-defined solutions to help customers realize more value from their IT investments across their organizations Which statements are true regarding the importance of customer relationship management? a. Customer relationship management is an important process only for engaging business owners b. Individual customer's natures will vary based on multiple factors c. The detailed nature of a person is about their personality and their intrinsic and extrinsic motivations d. All of the Above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Individual customer's natures will vary based on multiple factors Which statement is a step in customer relationship management? a. Identifying stakeholders and business leaders b. Building and maintaining rapport with relevant individuals c. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about investments and initiatives d. All of the Above - CORRECT ANSWER c. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about investments and initiatives Which template is used to help articulate new offers such as solution bundles in terms of offerings, markets, pricing methods, routes to market, and more? a. Business Motivational model template b. Offer structure template c. Business Model Canvas (BMC) d. Stakeholder Analysis Grid - CORRECT ANSWER b. Offer structure template Which are the four BOST Enterprise Architecture Framework views? a. Business, Organizational, Security, Time b. Business, Operations, Systems, Technology c. Budget, Operational, Systems, Tactical d. Business, Operations, Systems, Talents - CORRECT ANSWER b. Business, Operations, Systems, Technology Which statement is true about Enterprise Networks in the digital age? a. Enterprises can identify market opportunities and offer business services to customers to capitalize on those opportunities by using rapid, agile application development. b. Application delivery allows the deployment of such new services with investments in server or networking infrastructure. c. Cloud computing is accelerated by establishing new software stacks and drawing pre-existing data from a multitude of information sources. d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Enterprises can identify market opportunities and offer business services to customers to capitalize on those opportunities by using rapid, agile application development. Which statement is true about Enterprise Networks in the digital age? a. Enterprises can identify market opportunities and offer business services to customers to capitalize on those opportunities by using rapid, agile application development. b. Application delivery allows the deployment of such new services with investments in server or networking infrastructure. c. Cloud computing is accelerated by establishing new software stacks and drawing pre-existing data from a multitude of information sources. d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Enterprises can identify market opportunities and offer business services to customers to capitalize on those opportunities by using rapid, agile application development. Which component is covered by intent based networking architecture? a. Performance b. Analytics c. Security d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Analytics Which is the management component in Cisco's intent based networking solution? a. DNA b. UCS Director c. CloudCenter d. UCS Central - CORRECT ANSWER a. DNA Which function is provided by Identity Services Engine (ISE) within DNA Center? a. Application visibility b. Network bandwidth management c. Policy control d. Cloud connectivity - CORRECT ANSWER c. Policy control Which component in DNA Center achieves automation? a. Tetration b. Identity Service Engine c. Network Data Platform d. Network Control Platform - CORRECT ANSWER d. Network Control Platform Which feature in DNA Center can see and block all threats, even those in encrypted traffic? a. Identity Service Engine b. Cisco FirePower c. Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA) d. Application-centric infrastructure (ACI) - CORRECT ANSWER c. Encrypted Traffic Analytics (ETA) What are the benefits of implementing SD-WAN? a. Significantly reduces WAN costs and time to deploy new services b. Robust security architecture critical for hybrid networks c. Can automatically establish transport independent WAN for lower cost and higher diversity d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above With virtual routers, what network services can you get for public and private hosted clouds? a. Remote b. Multitenant c. Automated d. Single User - CORRECT ANSWER b. Multitenant Which of the following benefits can be achieved using NFV Infrastructure Software? a. Wireless device management b. Virtualizing and abstracting the network services c. Virtualizing bare metal servers d. Network monitoring - CORRECT ANSWER b. Virtualizing and abstracting the network services Which is a business benefit of using switches? a. Enable connectivity between network devices b. Data management c. Assured Network Policy and Compliance d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER c. Assured Network Policy and Compliance Which of these are key areas in the Cisco Wireless and Mobility Framework? a. Guest Access Service b. Security Service c. Location Service d. Voice Service e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which of the following can be achieved from Cisco Unified Wireless Network? a. Access information anytime, anywhere b. Build mobility directly into the network c. Increase employee productivity and responsiveness d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which of the following are key features of using Cisco Wireless and Mobility? a. Provide guest networks for customers b. Track and secure assets using location services c. Protect Personnel and property through wireless video surveillance d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which are the four pillars of DNA? a. Cloud, Virtual Infrastructure, Networking, Reporting b. Automation, Virtualization, Security, Analytics c. Analytics, Security, Elasticity, Automation d. Automation, Virtualization, Assurance, Cloud Management - CORRECT ANSWER b. Automation, Virtualization, Security, Analytics Which DNA pillar allows customers to troubleshoot faster and increase IT productivity with context that delivers actionable insights? a. Virtualization b. Security c. Automation d. Analytics - CORRECT ANSWER d. Analytics Which statement best describes the use cases for Cisco DNA? a. Network Security b. Network Automation c. Network Analytics d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which statement is a benefit of Cisco SD-Access? a. Hypervisor management solution b. Superior network awareness c. DevOps Platform d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Superior network awareness Which functions are supported by Cisco SD-Access? a. Datacenter security platform b. Hypervisor integration and management c. Easily design, provision, and apply policy d. Application provisioning - CORRECT ANSWER c. Easily design, provision, and apply policy Which capability is supported by Cisco SD-Access? a. FHRP b. Fabric based infrastructure c. Support only SAN d. Support only Ethernet with high speed - CORRECT ANSWER b. Fabric based infrastructure Which statement best describes factors contributing to the time spent troubleshooting IT issues due to network complexity? a. More time is spent collecting data, rather than actual troubleshooting b. IT often are unable to replicate the issue or see it in real time c. Slow resolution d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which of these statements is true about DNA Center? a. Not designed for analytics b. Limited data that is not actionable c. Receives telemetry from 16 sources and correlates this with contextual information d. Inconsistent API architecture e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER c. Receives telemetry from 16 sources and correlates this with contextual information Which statement best describes key benefits of Cisco DNA Center? a. Single dashboard to manage and automate your network b. Quickly scale the business with intuitive workflows and reusable templates c. Deploy group-based secure access and network segmentation based on business needs d. Configure and provision thousands of network devices across the enterprise in minutes, not hours e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above During which phase of protection is the Next Generation Firewalls (NG-firewall) for access control deployed? a. Before b. During c. After - CORRECT ANSWER a. Before During which threat-centric security phase is the Email and Web Security appliance product deployed? a. Before b. During c. After - CORRECT ANSWER b. During What are the critical competencies of an adaptive protection architecture? a. Preventative, Detective, Retrospective, Predictive b. Infiltration, Expansion, Extraction c. Analyze, Develop, Implement, Optimize d. Security Governance, Information Risk, Compliance - CORRECT ANSWER a. Preventative, Detective, Retrospective, Predictive Which of the adaptive security architectures includes forensic analysis? a. Preventative b. Detective c. Retrospective d. Predictive - CORRECT ANSWER c. Retrospective Which of the following is not a key input of adaptive security architecture? a. Surveillance intelligence b. Threat intelligence c. Vulnerability insights d. Policy - CORRECT ANSWER a. Surveillance intelligence Which benefits are a result of deploying Cisco Firepower NGFW? a. Fully Protected, Threat Detected, and Web-based Management b. Fully Automated, Threat Focused, and Unified Management c. Full Visibility, Threat Focused, and Web-based Management d. Fully Integrated, Threat Focused, and Unified Management - CORRECT ANSWER d. Fully Integrated, Threat Focused, and Unified Management Which statement best describes Cisco Meraki MX? a. The Meraki MX is an enterprise security appliance designed for distributed deployments that require remote administration. b. The Meraki MX is a mid-size security appliance designed for Network Administration. c. The Meraki MX is an enterprise security appliance designed for distributed Network Administration. d. The Meraki MX is an enterprise security appliance designed for distributed Network Management. - CORRECT ANSWER a. The Meraki MX is an enterprise security appliance designed for distributed deployments that require remote administration. Which is a unique capability of Meraki MX? a. Java-API console management b. Single pane of glass management for full stack branch infrastructure c. API-based management d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Single pane of glass management for full stack branch infrastructure What is described by the abbreviation NVE? a. Network Virtualization and Enable b. Network Visibility and Enforcement c. Network Visible and Enable d. Network Virtualization and Enforcement - CORRECT ANSWER b. Network Visibility and Enforcement Which technology uses software defined segmentation to reduce the customer's attack surface, simplify access control, and streamline compliance? a. Cisco Identity Services Engine b. Cisco TrustSec Technology c. Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise d. Cisco DNA - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cisco TrustSec Technology Which product helps to simplify identity management across diverse devices and applications? a. Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise b. Cisco TrustSec Technology c. Cisco Identity Services Engine d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER c. Cisco Identity Services Engine How does Stealthwatch Enterprise gather telemetry across the network and detect malicious activity? a. Using Artificial Intelligence b. Using Machine Learning c. Using Virtual Reality d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Using Machine Learning Which is an embedded technology in Cisco switches, routers, wireless, and security devices? a. Cisco TrustSec b. Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise c. Cisco Identity Service Engine d. Cisco TrustSec and Stealthwatch - CORRECT ANSWER a. Cisco TrustSec Which Cisco product provides breach prevention, continuous monitoring of malicious behavior, rapid malware detection, and malware removal? a. Cisco Talos b. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) c. Cisco Security d. Cisco Advisory - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) How does AMP for Endpoints help customers? a. Authenticate and Protect b. Authentication, Authorization, and Access c. Securing the network with AAA d. Detect, Prevent, and Respond - CORRECT ANSWER d. Detect, Prevent, and Respond Which threat intelligence service or product analyzes millions of malware samples and terabytes of data per day and pushes that intelligence to AMP? a. Cisco Talos b. Cisco ISE c. Cisco TrustSec d. Cisco Advisory - CORRECT ANSWER a. Cisco Talos What is Cisco Umbrella? a. New, converged branch platform with leading network, compute, and WAN services b. Industry's first secure Internet gateway in the cloud c. Open, software-driven approach to network architecture d. Offload resource-intensive content security to the cloud - CORRECT ANSWER b. Industry's first secure Internet gateway in the cloud Which statement best describes the key benefits of Cisco Umbrella? a. Intelligence to see attacks before launched b. Visibility and protection everywhere c. Enterprise-wide deployment in minutes d. Offload resource-intensive content security to the cloud e. Integrations to amplify existing investments f. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER f. All of the above Which statement best describes the key differentiators which set Umbrella apart from the competition? a. Fastest and most reliable cloud infrastructure b. Most open platform for integration c. Most predictive intelligence to stop threats earlier d. Easiest connect-to-cloud deployment e. Broadest coverage of malicious destinations and files f. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER f. All of the above Which statement best describes the key features of Cisco Cloudlock? a. Continuously monitor cloud environments for sensitive information and exposures b. Activate automated end-user notifications to educate employees and reduce future data loss prevention violations c. Enforce cross-platform automated response actions to mitigate risk rapidly d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which product/service protects an organization's people, data, and organization? a. Cisco Telemetry b. Cisco ISE c. Cisco Talos d. Cisco Advisory - CORRECT ANSWER c. Cisco Talos Which is prevented as a result of the protection delivered by Cisco Talos? a. Attacks and malware b. Secure authentication c. Device authentication d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Attacks and malware Which statement best describes the Cisco Talos team? a. 250 full-time threat researchers, data scientist and engineers b. 1100 decoy systems and threat traps to collect and study malware c. Cisco uses information learned by the Talos team to develop protection for Cisco products d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which statement best describes Cisco Talos? a. Talos is an opportunity to route the network traffic b. Talos helps to switch the traffic in the network c. Talos is Cisco's threat intelligence organization d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER c. Talos is Cisco's threat intelligence organization Which architecture best describes how the Cisco Unified Data Center platform combines compute, network, management, and storage access? a. A redundant architecture b. A single architecture c. An independent architecture d. Both A and B - CORRECT ANSWER b. A single architecture Which statement best describes the benefits achieved when the Cisco Unified Data Center is deployed? a. Innovation b. Increase budget efficiency c. Simplify IT Operations d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which statement best describes the pillars of the Cisco Unified Data Center? a. Cisco Unified Fabric and Unified Computing b. Cisco Unified Mobility and Unified Fabric c. Cisco Unified Management d. Both A and C - CORRECT ANSWER d. Both A and C Which statement best describes key Cisco UCS benefits? a. Superior performance, scalability, and high performance b. Unified network fabric c. Centralized infrastructure management d. Application-centric design e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which of these Unified Computing products delivers unified storage industry-standard form factor? a. UCS B - Series Blade Servers b. UCS S - Series Storage Servers c. UCS C - Series Rack Servers d. UCS Management software - CORRECT ANSWER b. UCS S - Series Storage Servers Which statement is true regarding the Cisco UCS product range? a. Cloud-based service that allows customers to set up and configure an entire virtual data center in just a few minutes b. Increased productivity, reduced total cost of ownership, and scalability to the data center c. Communicate on an all-in-one platform designed to fit the way customers work d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Increased productivity, reduced total cost of ownership, and scalability to the data center What is Cisco Unified Management? a. An open platform for centrally managing all data center resources across physical, virtual, and cloud environments. b. A flexible and comprehensive data center networking solution that delivers intelligent and high-performing network services to servers, storage, and applications c. The foundational connectivity and unifies storage, data networking, and network services d. A platform to manage virtual, physical, and wireless resources - CORRECT ANSWER a. An open platform for centrally managing all data center resources across physical, virtual, and cloud environments. Which statement best describes the key benefits of Cisco Unified Management? a. Reduces the time and cost of setting up and provisioning infrastructure b. Provides lifecycle management and process automation c. Allows for role- and policy-based provisioning d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which platform provides automation, orchestration, service-catalog, and self-service user interface for cloud services? a. Cisco UCS Manager b. Cisco UCS Director c. Cisco Network Services Manager d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cisco UCS Director Which Cisco Unified Management solutions support Network as a Service and Cloud Use Cases? a. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud b. Cisco UCS Manager c. Cisco Network Services Manager d. Cisco Network Director - CORRECT ANSWER c. Cisco Network Services Manager Which statement best describes the functions of the Cisco UCS Manager? a. Automatically detect, inventory, manage, and provision system components that are added or changed b. Support Network as a Service and Cloud Use Cases c. Optimize Capacity Use and Cut Costs d. Allow for Network Services Automation - CORRECT ANSWER a. Automatically detect, inventory, manage, and provision system components that are added or changed Which statement best describes the functions of Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud? a. Support Financial and Portfolio Management Support Network as a Service and Cloud Use b. Cases c. Automatically detect, inventory, manage, and provision system components that are added or changed d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Support Financial and Portfolio Management Which is supported by Cisco Unified Fabric? a. Supporting for mobility b. Improved customer satisfaction c. Cloud-based, virtualized and general purpose data center architecture d. Advanced cloud management capabilities - CORRECT ANSWER c. Cloud-based, virtualized and general purpose data center architecture Which is a feature of the Cisco Unified Fabric? a. Cloud communication b. Architect flexibility c. Scalable wireless voice services d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Architect flexibility Which aspect of system operation benefits from improvements in scalability and performance resulting from a Cisco Unified Fabric deployment? a. Faster resolution of voice issues b. Comprehensive set of infrastructure c. Leading security d. Intelligent, high-performing infrastructure - CORRECT ANSWER d. Intelligent, high-performing infrastructure Which product version is used in Cisco Unified Fabric? a. Nexus 2000 b. Nexus 5000 c. Nexus 7000 d. Nexus 3000 - CORRECT ANSWER b. Nexus 5000 What is converged infrastructure? a. A converged infrastructure combines compute, networking, storage, and IT administration into a preconfigured package that operates as a single system b. Converged infrastructure is a hardware defined solution c. Converged infrastructure is a software defined solution d. Both A and C - CORRECT ANSWER b. Converged infrastructure is a hardware defined solution Which statement best describes the benefit of converged infrastructure? a. Simplified and consistent IT management b. Create dependency between storage and VM admins c. Require multiple tools and teams to achieve subpar visibility d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER Simplified Which is included in Cisco's portfolio of converged infrastructure solutions? a. Cisco ONE Enterprise Cloud Suite b. SDA c. Cisco HyperFlex d. DNA Center - CORRECT ANSWER c. Cisco HyperFlex Which statement best describes Cisco's Converged Infrastructure Solutions? a. FlexPod b. Vblock and FlashStack c. VersaStack d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which is an integrated infrastructure solution by Cisco and Pure Storage? a. HyperFlex b. FlexPod c. VersaStack d. FlashStack - CORRECT ANSWER d. FlashStack Which of the following statements is true regarding the VersaStack? a. Combines Cisco UCS Integrated Infrastructure with IBM Storwize storage b. Integrated infrastructure solution developed by Cisco and NetApp c. Combines compute, storage, and networking into an easy-to-use system with Nimble storage d. Integrates compute, network, and storage technologies from Cisco, EMC, and VMware - CORRECT ANSWER a. Combines Cisco UCS Integrated Infrastructure with IBM Storwize storage Which statement best describes the benefits of on-premises infrastructure with Cisco Hyperflex HX-Series? a. Multiple hypervisors b. Multicloud services c. Flash optimized d. Simplified data management e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which statement best describes the Integrated data management functionality of Cisco HyperFlex HX-Series? a. Instant provisioning b. Cloning c. Snapshots d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above What are the key features of Cisco HyperFlex? a. Increase capacity use while maintaining performance with data deduplication and compression b. HyperFlex separates fabric network and computing technology c. Computing and capacity are dependent in HyperFlex clusters d. All the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Increase capacity use while maintaining performance with data deduplication and compression Which statement best describes the solutions supported by Cisco HyperFlex? a. Container support b. Enterprise email and collaboration c. Enterprise-class data management and optimization d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which statement is true when your customer is running Microsoft SQL, Oracle, or SAP? a. HyperFlex solutions provide the speed and performance needed for database deployment and the mission critical apps that use them. b. All are controlled by a single point of management. c. HyperFlex simplifies the operation and management. d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. HyperFlex solutions provide the speed and performance needed for database deployment and the mission critical apps that use them. Which customer environment can make use of the Cisco multicloud? a. Customers who plan to build a private cloud b. Customers who want to extend their network to the cloud c. Customer who want to build new cloud services d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which statement is true regarding Cisco Cloud Connect? a. Securely extends private networks into public clouds and ensures the application experience b. Helps customers design, plan, accelerate, and minimize risk when they migrate to multicloud c. Deploys, monitors, and optimizes applications in multicloud environments d. Protects multicloud identities, direct-to-cloud connectivity, data, and applications including Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) - CORRECT ANSWER a. Securely extends private networks into public clouds and ensures the application experience Which of the statements is true regarding Cisco Cloud Advisory? a. Securely extends private networks into public clouds and ensure the application experience b. Helps customers design, plan, accelerate, and minimize risk when they migrate to multicloud c. Deploy, monitor, and optimize applications in multicloud environments d. Protect multicloud identities, direct-to-cloud connectivity, data, and applications including Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) - CORRECT ANSWER b. Helps customers design, plan, accelerate, and minimize risk when they migrate to multicloud Which statement best describes the benefits of Cisco Multicloud? a. Brings together the essential solutions and services for successful multicloud deployments b. Simplifies ordering of products, implementation, and support of your multicloud environment c. Lowers TCO with software, labor, and support savings d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which portfolio includes Cisco CloudCenter, AppDynamics, and Container Platform? a. Cloud Advisory Services b. Cloud Connect c. Cloud Consume d. Cloud Protect - CORRECT ANSWER c. Cloud Consume Which statement best describes the benefits of Cisco Cloud Protect? a. Securing cloud identities, data, and apps/SaaS b. Providing secure cloud access for users on and off the network c. Enabling compliance in the cloud d. Lowering risk by providing increased visibility and control e. Providing increased visibility tied into automated threat defense f. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER f. All of the above Which statement best describes Cisco CloudCenter? a. A platform which addresses important data center security challenges by providing behavior-based application insight, automating whitelist policy generation, and enabling zero-trust security using application segmentation. b. Application-centric Hybrid cloud management platform which securely provisions infrastructure resources and deploys applications in multiple datacenter, private cloud, and public cloud environments. c. A portfolio of security technologies to provide advanced threat protection. d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Application-centric Hybrid cloud management platform which securely provisions infrastructure resources and deploys applications in multiple datacenter, private cloud, and public cloud environments. Which statement best describes key CloudCenter features? a. Cloud-agnostic blueprint b. Centralize governance and security c. Scalable architecture d. Apply lifecycle policies to promote another phase, cloud, or upgrade application e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which use cases are not part of Cisco CloudCenter? a. Multicloud IT as a service b. Onboard and manage applications c. Automate and optimize application deployment on HyperFlex d. The ability to continuously detect malware and block it is critical - CORRECT ANSWER d. The ability to continuously detect malware and block it is critical Which automation software suite includes Cisco Orchestration Engine? a. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation b. Cisco Dynamic Fabric Automation c. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER a. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Which statement best describes the innovations with boosts in network flexibility and efficiency as a result of Cisco Dynamic Fabric Automation (DFA) deployment? a. Optimized Fabric Infrastructure b. Simplified Fabric management c. Automated Provisioning d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which is not a key benefit of Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud? a. Self-Service Portal b. Network Services Automation c. Financial and Portfolio Management d. Tenant Segregation e. Reduces cost - CORRECT ANSWER e. Reduces cost Which statement best describes the features offered by Cisco IoT analytics infrastructure? a. Infrastructure for real-time analytics b. Cloud to fog c. Enterprise analytics integration d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which statement is true with IoT? a. Audit and logging standards are defined for IoT components b. IoT infrastructure technologies and products gives you deeper insights with analytics on IoT data c. Discovers and creates a relationship model of each system, giving staff a single, accurate view of all components d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. IoT infrastructure technologies and products gives you deeper insights with analytics on IoT data Which one of the following is a feature of Cisco Fog Data Services? a. Security and privacy b. Automate your service delivery c. Real-time Analytics d. Automation - CORRECT ANSWER a. Security and privacy Which statement is true regarding Cisco Fog? a. Gives you a foundation for organizational transformation b. Organizations may continuously tune their devices to maintain optimal performance and also adhere to the specifications c. Lowers the operational cost d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Organizations may continuously tune their devices to maintain optimal performance and also adhere to the specifications Which statement best describes the key benefits of Cisco Meraki? a. No controller hardware or management software to install and maintain b. Stay protected and up-to-date with seamless over-the-web firmware and security updates c. Develop and roll out customized functionality and new digital initiatives with open APIs d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which of these features are not included in the Meraki solution offering? a. SD WAN and Security: Unified Threat Management (UTM) devices with Software Defined Wide Area Networking (SD-WAN) capability b. Command-line interface: Experienced administrators can perform a wide range of common functions correct c. Mobility Management: Complete Enterprise Mobility Management solution including device, application, content, and identity management d. Security Cameras: Indoor and outdoor security cameras eliminating traditional external storage such as NVRs - CORRECT ANSWER b. Command-line interface: Experienced administrators can perform a wide range of common functions correct Which of these products support Cisco Video Conferencing technology? a. Web Conferencing b. Room Video Conferencing c. Telepresence d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above How does integrated architecture help simplify business processes? a. Increases productivity and lowers total cost of ownership b. Accelerates time to market and increases revenue growth c. Improves customer satisfaction and generates new ideas d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which services are integrated when Cisco's Unified Communication Platforms is deployed? a. Voice, video, and mobility b. Voice, video, and presence services c. Voice, video, mobility, and presence services d. Applications that run on devices - CORRECT ANSWER c. Voice, video, mobility, and presence services Which of these benefits are provided by Enterprise Unified Communications and Collaboration? a. Get tools up and running faster and predict costs b. Choose how you collaborate and Access Data Centers around the world c. Reduce the cost of business travel and save time d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which solution is best suited for Scalable Collaboration with more than 1000 users? a. BE 6000 b. BE 7000 c. UCM d. UCCX - CORRECT ANSWER b. BE 7000 Which statement best describes the features of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager (UCM) Call Manager? a. IP Telephony b. High Definition Video c. Presence d. Unified Messaging e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which of these features is not part of Webex Teams? a. Messaging and content sharing b. Whiteboarding c. Team-based meetings d. Calling e. Integration and bots f. Emailing - CORRECT ANSWER f. Emailing Which is not a Cisco Endpoint? a. Desktop IP Phones b. Telepresence Video Conferencing c. WebEx Teams d. Cisco UCM - CORRECT ANSWER d. Cisco UCM Which statement best describes the features of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager (UCM) Call manager? a. IP Telephony b. High Definition Video c. Presence d. Unified Messaging e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which one of these endpoints are not part of the Room and Immersive Systems? a. WebEx Board b. Whiteboarding c. MX Series d. SX Series e. IX Series f. Meraki Series - CORRECT ANSWER f. Meraki Series The Cisco DX Series is ideal for everyone who collaborates, and can replace a desk phone. Which of these is not a feature or benefit? a. Business-class HD video at your desk b. Intuitive touchscreen c. Build face-to-face relationship d. Replace your desktop computer - CORRECT ANSWER d. Replace your desktop computer Which Cisco Conferencing Solution would you recommend to a customer who is looking for an immersive state-of-the-art multiscreen solution? a. DX Series b. MX Series c. IX Series d. Webex teams - CORRECT ANSWER c. IX Series The MX series turns any conference room into a video collaboration hub. Which statement best describes the key features of the MX series? a. Single and dual-screen options b. PresenterTrack c. Superior video and audio experience d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above Which of these is not a Cisco WebEx Solution? a. Cisco WebEx Calling b. Cisco WebEx Meetings c. Cisco WebEx Teams d. Cisco WebEx Contact Center - CORRECT ANSWER d. Cisco WebEx Contact Center Which statement best describes key features of Cisco WebEx? a. Open platform allows for customization and integration of features into unique workflows. b. Enterprise grade security provides end-to-end data encryption and protection. c. Full tool suite enables calling, meeting, and team collaboration. d. All of the above. - CORRECT ANSWER d. All of the above. Which of these statements about Cisco Webex is untrue? a. WebEx is a closed platform which does not allow for customizations and integrations. b. Cisco WebEx provides a better way to work by taking the meeting anywhere on any device. c. WebEx Meetings offers integrated audio, video, and content sharing with highly secure meetings from the Cisco Collaboration Cloud. d. Cisco WebEx solutions provide a better and more intuitive way to work. - CORRECT ANSWER a. WebEx is a closed platform which does not allow for customizations and integrations. Which of these features is not part of the options for Cisco Contact Center Solutions? a. Cisco Finesse b. Cisco Unified Workforce Optimization c. Cisco Remote Expert Mobile d. Cisco Unified IP Interactive Voice Response e. Cisco Webex Teams - CORRECT ANSWER e. Cisco Webex Teams Which Contact Center option supports quality management and supervisor monitoring? a. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center b. Cisco Finesse c. Cisco Remote Expert Mobile d. Cisco Unified Workforce Optimization - CORRECT ANSWER d. Cisco Unified Workforce Optimization Which one of these is not a key benefit of Cisco's Hosted Collaboration Solution (HCS)? a. Increased agility as teams reach new levels of productivity and innovation. b. IT resources are freed up so that they can focus on strategic priorities instead of provisioning c. Speed time to value by being able to scale more effectively d. Manage conferencing solution as a capital expenditure instead of an operating expense. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Manage conferencing solution as a capital expenditure instead of an operating expense. Which statement best describes the features supported on HCS? a. Cisco Unified Communications Manager b. Cisco Unity Connection c. Cisco Jabber d. WebEx Teams e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above Which statement best describes the features of HCS that deliver voicemail and unified messaging? a. Cisco Unified Communications Manager b. Cisco Unity Connection c. Cisco Jabber d. WebEx Teams e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER b. Cisco Unity Connection [Show Less]
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MEDS Manual Exam 20 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
MEDS Manual Exam 20 Questions with Verified Answers MEDS - CORRECT ANSWER Medical eligibility data system CDB - CORRECT ANSWER Central data base I... [Show More] EVS - CORRECT ANSWER Income eligibility verification system SAVE - CORRECT ANSWER Systematic alien verification entitlement HAPP - CORRECT ANSWER Homeless assistance payments program BIC - CORRECT ANSWER Benefit identification cards HCP - CORRECT ANSWER Health care programs BEOMB - CORRECT ANSWER Beneficiary explanation of medi-cal benefits INQS - CORRECT ANSWER Client inquiry summary INQM - CORRECT ANSWER Primary medi-cal/CMSP information CMSP - CORRECT ANSWER County medical services program INQ6 - CORRECT ANSWER Medi-cal/CMSP 13-15 months prior INQ7 - CORRECT ANSWER Eligibility by month INQE - CORRECT ANSWER Other client eligibility information INQF - CORRECT ANSWER Food stamp information INQA - CORRECT ANSWER MEDS address information INQP - CORRECT ANSWER Pending/denied applications & appeals INQX - CORRECT ANSWER Title XVI SSI/SSP information INQT - CORRECT ANSWER Bendex title II information SSI/SSP - CORRECT ANSWER [Show Less]
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CMS Quiz 46 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMS Quiz 46 Questions with Verified Answers Medicare - CORRECT ANSWER true social insurance and paid medicare tax for at least 10 years medicare cove... [Show More] rs - CORRECT ANSWER old people over 65 and some disabled individuals disabilities covered by medicare - CORRECT ANSWER ALS, chronic kidney (renal) disease, receive disability benefits from social security part a - CORRECT ANSWER hospital stays, short-term home health after hospitalization, and hospice care part a limitations - CORRECT ANSWER limits number of days that will be paid for part b - CORRECT ANSWER outpatient office visits, preventative services, medical equipment and supplies, and home health services part a funded by - CORRECT ANSWER social security payroll taxes part b funded by - CORRECT ANSWER beneficiary premium payments and federal revenues medicare advantage - CORRECT ANSWER part c part c - CORRECT ANSWER allows enrollment in private insurance plans (part a and b managed by another insurance company) part c funded by - CORRECT ANSWER medicare and beneficiaries have co-pays/deductibles part d - CORRECT ANSWER prescription drug coverage "traditional" medicare - CORRECT ANSWER part a, b, and d medicare funding - CORRECT ANSWER through federal government medicaid - CORRECT ANSWER not TRUE social insurance because not permanent medicaid reimbursement - CORRECT ANSWER at least 85-95% of what medicare pays medicaid covers - CORRECT ANSWER those with incomes below the FPL established by separate states medicaid coverage - CORRECT ANSWER required to offer minimum benefits medicaid funded by - CORRECT ANSWER federal and state governments (personal income tax and corporate taxes) third largest source of health insurance - CORRECT ANSWER medicaid low income 65+ - CORRECT ANSWER covered by medicare and medicaid part b co-insurance covered by medicaid directly reimburses service providers - CORRECT ANSWER medicaid reimbursed providers through intermediaries - CORRECT ANSWER medicare decrease of medicaid enrollment - CORRECT ANSWER raised the requirements (FPL) because of the recession why can we not raise medicare qualifying age - CORRECT ANSWER 65+ group most reliable voting block and won't let it happen enrollment for medicare - CORRECT ANSWER mid-October to first week of November other ways to get medicare - CORRECT ANSWER through spouse already eligible or pay premium for coverage on parts a, b, and d chip - CORRECT ANSWER insures low income children federal-state program chip coverage - CORRECT ANSWER very similar to medicaid varies by state chip funded by - CORRECT ANSWER both federal and state governments with federal making up larger part children's health insurance program - CORRECT ANSWER chip/schip CMS quality assessed by - CORRECT ANSWER prevention/health promotion, management of acute/chronic conditions, family experience care, and availability of services balanced budget act - CORRECT ANSWER established schip/chip program "hospital compare" launched in - CORRECT ANSWER 2005 "hospital compare" - CORRECT ANSWER used for satisfaction/quality improvement medicare payments in 1983 - CORRECT ANSWER shifted from fee for service to DRGs There are only a few Content Management Systems to choose from therefore it is very difficult to find one to use. - CORRECT ANSWER False Content Management Systems allow you to create web pages without the knowledge of HTML. - CORRECT ANSWER True It is usually easy to migrate an existing CMS to another CMS. - CORRECT ANSWER False A content management system does not allow more than one user/person to add or update content. - CORRECT ANSWER False All CMS are expanded using modules/plugins/add-ons. - CORRECT ANSWER True How long should you expect the lifespan of your Content Management System to be? - CORRECT ANSWER approx 5 years What in addition to the Core Components of the Content Management System (CMS) should you look at before considering adoption of that CMS? - CORRECT ANSWER plugins A ______ solution is one that is maintained for you. - CORRECT ANSWER hosted What does CMS stand for? - CORRECT ANSWER Content Management System You should Always choose a CMS with a large developer community which is active. - CORRECT ANSWER True [Show Less]
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TERM 2 CMS MIDTERM Exam 70 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
TERM 2 CMS MIDTERM Exam 70 Questions with Verified Answers 1. A nurse is reinforcing information with a client who wishes to complete their advance di... [Show More] rectives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER You will decline to have certain medical procedures performed in your living will 2. A nurse is reinforcing with a client who is premenopausal. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? - CORRECT ANSWER I might have headaches due to a decline in my estrogen levels 3. A nurse in a provider's office is calculating a client's BMI. Which of the following pieces of the client data should the nurse use as a part of the calculation? - CORRECT ANSWER height 4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about the use of a peak flow meter. Which of the following actions should the nurse make first? - CORRECT ANSWER Determine the client's knowledge of the use of the peak flow meter 5. A nurse is collecting data about a client's oral care. The client wears dentures and reports having mouth sores. The nurse should identify which of the following oral care practices by the client as a possible cause of the mouth sores? - CORRECT ANSWER Wears dentures while sleeping at night 6. A nurse is preparing to administer medication from an ampule. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to make? - CORRECT ANSWER Use a filter needle to aspirate the medication 7. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a safety hazard? - CORRECT ANSWER An assistive personnel raises all four side rails of a client's bed before leaving the room 8. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following statements by the client should the nurse identify as indicating an acceptance of the limb loss? - CORRECT ANSWER "I need to learn how to perform a dressing change on my leg" 9. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is collecting data from a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's BP was 126/72 mmHg 15 minutes ago. The nurse now finds that the client's BP is 176/96 mmHg. Which of the following actions should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER Measure the client's BP in the other arm 10. A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER Wear a surgical mask when giving the client direct care 11. A nurse is caring for a client who has dyspnea with an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which of the following images indicate the type of face mask the nurse should use to deliver the client of 90% oxygen concentration? - CORRECT ANSWER Partial rebreather mask (high-flow system) 12. A nurse working in a rehabilitation unit is caring for a client who has dysphasia and has difficulty swallowing during meals. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the client from aspiration while eating? - CORRECT ANSWER Add liquid to foods to thin consistency 13. A nurse in a provider's office performs a fecal occult blood test with a positive result on a client. Which of the following clients may have a false positive result? - CORRECT ANSWER A client who takes on iron supplement 14. A nurse is caring for a client who is flushed and has a temperature of 38.7C (101.7F). Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Remove blankets from the client 15. A nurse is caring for a client who has a hip fracture and plans to administer a pain medication prior to turning the client. Which of the following ethical principles is the nurse implementing? - CORRECT ANSWER Beneficence 16. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to hospice care and tells the nurse, "I am going to die, and my family is hoping for a cure. I am mad that they behave like everything will be fine." Which of the following responses should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER "You are feeling angry that your family continues to wish for a cure?" 17. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of an older adult who report's having nausea and vomiting for the last 48 hours. Which of the following findings indicate fluid volume deficit? (Select all that apply) - CORRECT ANSWER a. Dry mucous membranes b. Decreased skin turgor 18. A nurse is caring for a client who refuses a prescribed medical procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to act as the client's advocate? - CORRECT ANSWER Evaluate the client's concerns and communicate them to the provider 19. A nurse is assisting with scoliosis screenings for students at a public school. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of scoliosis? - CORRECT ANSWER Unequal height of the shoulders 20. A nurse is disinfecting the room of a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following solutions should the nurse use? - CORRECT ANSWER Chlorine bleach 21. A nurse is preparing to administer sucralfate 80 mg/kg/day to divide into four doses per day to a child who weighs 35 kg. The amount available is sucralfate oral suspension 1 g/10mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest whole number). - CORRECT ANSWER 7 mL à (80x35/1*1000x10)/4 22. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who follows a vegan diet and is interested in ways to increase protein to promote healing after a recent surgery. Which of the following suggestions is appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER Cottage cheese 23. A home health nurse is reinforcing teaching about dietary needs with the son of a client. The son states, "I don't know what to do because he's not eating." Which of the following responses should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER Tell me more about what happens at mealtime 24. A nurse is coordinating care of group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to the AP? - CORRECT ANSWER Reinforce teaching with a client about crutch-gait walking 25. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter and is verifying the client's express consent for the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Obtain verbal consent from the client 26. A nurse is planning to place a client into the Sims' position. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? - CORRECT ANSWER Place a pillow under the client's flexed leg 27. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about how to collect a stool specimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? - CORRECT ANSWER Avoid placing the toilet tissue in the bedpan after defecation 28. A nurse is planning to apply a belt restraint to a client who is confused and at risk for falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER Fasten the client's restraint using a quick-release tie 29. A nurse is collecting data from a client following lumbar puncture. For which of the following adverse effects of the procedure should the nurse monitor the client? - CORRECT ANSWER Headache 30. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is immobile and has a potential deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? - CORRECT ANSWER Calf swelling 31. A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative and is preparing to walk for this first time in several days. Which of the following interventions should the nurse give the client to prevent orthostatic hypotension? - CORRECT ANSWER Dangle your legs over the side of the bed 32. A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a different language than the nurse and is 6 hours postoperative. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to determine the client's level of pain? - CORRECT ANSWER Use a communication board to interact with the client 33. A nurse is performing wound irrigation for a client who has methicillin resistant. Staphylococcus aureus. When removing personal equipment, which of the following pieces should the nurse remove first? - CORRECT ANSWER gloves 34. While performing hygiene care for a client, a nurse notices a frayed electrical cord on the clients electronic BP monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? - CORRECT ANSWER Remove the device from the room 35. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a male client about collecting a mid-stream urine specimen. Which of the following interactions should the nurse include? - CORRECT ANSWER Urinate into the toilet and then place the cup into the stream to collect urine 36. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new ileostomy about nutrition therapy. Which of the following food choices by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching? - CORRECT ANSWER bananas 37. A nurse is collecting data regarding home safety from a client who is prone to falls. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as a placing the client at additional risk? - CORRECT ANSWER Throw rugs over electrical cords on the floor 38. A nurse is collecting data from a client who had a stroke and is unable to name common items. The nurse should recognize that the client's experiencing, which of the following types of aphasia? - CORRECT ANSWER Expressive aphasia 39. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for 2 days. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect? - CORRECT ANSWER Hyponatremia 40. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has an NG tube in place for gastric decompression. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? - CORRECT ANSWER Gastric contents are present in the air vent 41. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) perform mouth care for a client who is unconscious, which of the following actions by the AP requires intervention by the nurses? - CORRECT ANSWER Using two gloved fingers to open the client's mouth for cleaning 42. A nurse is assisting in creating to reduce environmental stressors for a client in an acute unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan? - CORRECT ANSWER Restrict the number of visitors for clients 43. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to use a walker and his left-leg weakness. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? - CORRECT ANSWER Move your right leg forward as you advance the walker 44. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about using guided imagery to manage chronic pain. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of this technique? - CORRECT ANSWER "I'll think about my grandfather's farm to reduce pain." 45. A nurse is assisting a client who is 4 hours postoperative to get out of bed. The client states, "Do not touch me! I can get up by myself." Which of the following response should the nurse make? - CORRECT ANSWER I will be next to you and will help if you need to 46. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly hired nurse about cultural sensitivity during death and dying. Which of the following information should the nurse include? - CORRECT ANSWER Devout practitioners of Islam prefer to have their heads turn toward Mecca at death 47. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about beginning an exercise program with an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following activities should the nurse recommend? - CORRECT ANSWER walking 48. A nurse is caring for a client who has hearing loss. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote communication? - CORRECT ANSWER Decrease background noise 49. A nurse is caring for a client who requires a sterile dressing change. The nurse should recognize that the surgical field has been contaminated if which of the following actions occur? - CORRECT ANSWER The sterile solution is poured with the bottle held over the field 50. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the adult children of a client who is receiving palliative care. Which of the following statements by the one of the adult children indicates an understanding of the teaching? - CORRECT ANSWER We will receive emotional support during other mother's illness 51. A nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client. In which order should the nurse perform the following steps? - CORRECT ANSWER a. Separate the labia with the non-dominant hand b. Clean around the urinary meatus from front to back c. Insert the catheter into the urethral meatus d. Inflate the catheter balloon e. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh 52. A nurse is assisting with the postmortem care of a client whose partner is at the bedside. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Ask the partner about any rituals they would like to be performed 53. A nurse is reinforcing a teaching plan regarding proper lifting with a client. Which of the following strategies should the nurse include to prevent back injury when lifting an object? - CORRECT ANSWER Tighten the abdominal muscles 54. A nurse in a provider's office receives a telephone call from a client's sibling requesting current information about the client's condition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Ask the caller to contact the client directly for information 55. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing fecal incontinence. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Increase the client's intake of raw fruits and vegetables 56. A nurse is caring for a client who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which following actions should a nurse take when administering an oral medication to this client? - CORRECT ANSWER Place the client in high-fowler's position 57. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following situations should the nurse complete an incident report? (Select all that apply) - CORRECT ANSWER a. A client becomes disoriented and falls out of bed b. A client's visitor becomes dizzy and faints in the client's room c. A client receives burns from a heating pad 58. A nurse is caring for a young adult client who is postoperative and requires physical therapy, pain management, and dietary advancement. The nurse enters the client's room and finds them dressing and stating that they are going home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Have the client sign an against medical advice form 59. A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced a cerebrovascular accident with resulting dysphagia. Which of the following therapists assists clients to learn to eat with less risk of aspiration? - CORRECT ANSWER Speech 60. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum. Which of the following documentations should the nurse include in the client's health record? - CORRECT ANSWER Oral temperature elevated at 0800 61. A nurse in a long-term care facility is transcribing a prescription for a client. Which of the following abbreviations is appropriate? - CORRECT ANSWER Mcg 62. A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to demonstrate the principle of advocacy? - CORRECT ANSWER I will speak with your provider on your behalf 63. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has crutches regarding the use of the three-point gait. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? - CORRECT ANSWER Bear weight on the unaffected leg 64. A nurse at a long-term care facility is caring for an older adult client who has dementia and is at risk for malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote an increase in food intake? - CORRECT ANSWER Restrict visitors during meals 65. A nurse is monitoring a client's oxygen saturation using a pulse oximeter. The client's oxygen saturation is 88% on 2 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Reposition the sensor probe 66. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who needs to increase vitamin C intake to promote wound healing. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as the best source of vitamin C? - CORRECT ANSWER 1 small pink grapefruit 67. A nurse in an acute care center is caring for a client who just died. The client's family requests to perform the postmortem care. Which of the following is an appropriate response for the nurse to make? - CORRECT ANSWER I will assist you in any way I can during this process 68. A nurse is wearing sterile gloves in preparation for assisting with a client's sterile procedure. While waiting for the procedure to begin, how should the nurse position her hands? - CORRECT ANSWER Interlock her fingers and hold her hand away from her body above her waist 69. A nurse is assisting in the transfer of a client who has left-side weakness from a bed to chair. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER Flex hips and knees when assisting the client to a standing position 70. A nurse is showing a newly licensed nurse how to use a mechanical lift. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of this assistive device? - CORRECT ANSWER The type of device is useful for a client who cannot assist [Show Less]
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CMS 345P Midterm Exam 55 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMS 345P Midterm Exam 55 Questions with Verified Answers 5 features of the "classical" model of public opinion - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Reasoned, rational di... [Show More] scourse 2) To find the common will 3) With open participation 4) Based on the merits of ideas 5) Participants must have access to information (informed public sphere) What is public opinion? - CORRECT ANSWER An aggregation of individual views Collective level product of discussion Only the majority (expressed the most and the actual majority) A product of groups and power A reflection of mediated and elite views communicated to the public A rhetorical term Linked to discussion and to the free flow of information, was supposed to reflect the common good, and it was cast as a new and powerful tribunal for checking the actions of the state and the idea most true to the general will gives way to the most commonly held idea Two conceptions of public - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Public referring to common access, as in a "public place" - openness, availability, and general access to the population 2) Public in reference to matters of general concern, the state, and the office - focuses on common good and common interest Key types of public - CORRECT ANSWER General public Voting public Attentive public Active public Elites Issue public General public - CORRECT ANSWER a population in its entirety Voting public - CORRECT ANSWER the electorate within the general public, ~70% Attentive public - CORRECT ANSWER the ~50% of the voting public that is attentive to politics regularly Active public - CORRECT ANSWER ~15% of attentive public that has active involvement and participation in politics, acting on a shared issue Elites - CORRECT ANSWER Elites: the most active members in politics, ~1% of the general public The opinion formers, political leaders, and activists Issue publics - CORRECT ANSWER the people who are most concerned with a specific issue, which determines how and where the person applies their effort and participation Someone may be attentive for healthcare reform but only in the general public for another issue, like terrorism Two conceptions of opinion - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Essentially epistemological - distinguishes a matter of opinion from a matter of fact, or something unknown from something known to be true, either by demonstration or faith 2) Equated with manners, morals, and customs - reputation, esteem, and a general regard of others - a kind of informal social pressure and social control Key types of opinion - CORRECT ANSWER Public/private Pro/con Intensity Informed Importance Habermas and the public sphere - CORRECT ANSWER space in which people can deliberate together to discuss issues of common concern; rational and egalitarian features of public opinion during the Enlightenment - reasoned discourse, active conversation, debate Possible critiques of the classic model - CORRECT ANSWER - Marxist interpretation of the public sphere as an aspect of capitalist/bourgeois ascendency - Debatable whether it was truly egalitarian, rational, and critical, as opposed to sensationalistic and celebrity-oriented moral criticism - Historical ambivalence to individualism and open contestation - public opinion transcends individual opinion and reflects an abstract, common good rather than a compromise of individual interests - The public as a political or ideological construct that was used as an instrument by the bourgeoisie in order to extract claim of public approval from the government and its critics - Systematic public relations by the government as proposed by Necker Majoritarian view of public opinion - CORRECT ANSWER the agglomerate interests of the men of the community; maximizing separate individual wills into a majority Only a select number of issues are represented and voted on Public = electorate, as the "deputies of the people" with the ability to decide on representatives 5 problems plaguing the modern public - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Lack of competence - people do not have the knowledge and skill to carry out investigations 2) Lack of resources - lack of sufficient methods for public communication, one can only judge the information available to them 3) Tyranny of the majority - a mediocrity of opinion will prevail in the face of the majority 4) Susceptibility to persuasion - the public is very susceptible to highly emotional and non-rational appeals 5) Domination by elites - increasing passivity on the part of the public leads to its domination by corporate and government elites Bandwagon effects - CORRECT ANSWER occur when voters decide to back the leader in polls, people alter their opinion according to majority views. effects are stronger for those with weaker political attachments 4 possible mechanisms of bandwagon effects - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Psychology: people are driven to support the winner 2) Social: if you know the opinion of the group, there is pressure to conform 3) Argument rehearsal: people may try to reason about why the candidate is in the lead 4) Cognitive miser: polls are a shortcut for people to reduce the field of candidates into something that is more manageable to pay attention to How does media coverage matter? - CORRECT ANSWER the ways that candidates and issues are framed matters in creating or reducing the amount of support - momentum (none, stagnant, or increasing) impacts how well a candidate does in an election strategic voting - CORRECT ANSWER voting for a candidate that is not your preferred candidate because you are trying to sway the outcome; assessing which candidate has the best chance to win the election and then modifying one's vote choice to account for this assessment - only done by political sophisticates positive strategic voting - CORRECT ANSWER voting for another candidate because your top choice has no chance of winning negative strategic voting - CORRECT ANSWER voting for another candidate when your top choice has no chance of losing - trying to choose an easily defeat-able opponent for your choice candidate candidate viability - CORRECT ANSWER perceived chances a candidate has of winning the party's nomination electability - CORRECT ANSWER the capability of a candidate to be elected into office projection - CORRECT ANSWER voters assume that their own opinion is shared by the broader public; favorability → viability when people assume that because they have a good opinion of a candidate, it makes him more viable effects of viability - CORRECT ANSWER -perceptions of candidate favorability -candidate preferences -campaign contributions -campaign workers -endorsers underdog effects - CORRECT ANSWER people changing their vote to favor the underdog; information that one candidate is in the lead motivates people to favor the candidate who is trailing Pre-election polling and election night projections (evidence on affecting turnout) - CORRECT ANSWER poll results can suppress turnout - one study finds evidence that news of the projected outcome decreased the likelihood of voting among those who has not already voted - others suggest that this is not terribly common sociotropic voting - CORRECT ANSWER determining your vote based on the national economic conditions pocketbook voting - CORRECT ANSWER determining your vote based on your personal economic circumstances retrospective voting - CORRECT ANSWER retrospective voting: voting based on prior economic circumstances prospective voting - CORRECT ANSWER prospective voting: voting based on perceived future economic circumstances as proposed by the candidate Which type of voting is most common? - CORRECT ANSWER Retrospective sociotropic 1992 election - CORRECT ANSWER economic factors favored Clinton - less disposable per capita income growth and greater deficit - and Bush failed to uphold his promise of no new taxes 1996 election - CORRECT ANSWER economic factors favored Clinton - economy averaging a high growth rate, unemployment and inflation low, budget deficits declining - tech boom and Internet - Clinton took credit and Dole tried to run on cutting taxes 2000 election - CORRECT ANSWER economic factors favored Gore - he was Clinton's VP and had a role in the economic growth, new jobs, low unemployment, higher wages, lower deficit - however, he chose to distance himself from this success, and people had forgotten how bad the economy had been before Clinton - the economy was less of an issue Why is the economy a good campaign issue? - CORRECT ANSWER because we know what people want and the economy rarely changes rapidly clarifying candidate - CORRECT ANSWER the economy is on their side insurgent candidate - CORRECT ANSWER the economy is not on their side strategies for insurgent and clarifying candidates - CORRECT ANSWER - Clarifying: stick to the economy and emphasize their role in the good economic conditions - Insurgent: draw attention to other issues, specifically an issue on which they are better - The other candidate can be "locked in" to their positions on issues Can vote choice be predicted? Using what variables? Obama Victory - CORRECT ANSWER - Partisanship, the incumbent approval rating, and economic indicators - Variables in campaigns and their dynamics are often missed, and when factored in, they can make the prediction even more accurate Examples - national ads, high profile moves (McCain choosing Palin as his VP) - Certain messages mattered 2008: McSame, McBush / McCain too old / Obama not experienced enough / Obama not as patriotic as McCain / Palin not ready to be presidential / Obama will raise taxes / Obama better on economy 2012: Romney's leaked "47%" comments, which essentially accused that number of Americans of being freeloaders / Obama's debate moment criticizing Romney's tax and economic plan, which drew similarity between Romney and Bush and appealed to common people's sense and did not insult them argument #1 citizens knowing basic facts - CORRECT ANSWER No, heuristics: these facts are not necessary for carrying out duties of citizenship because people can just use heuristics - Even without knowledge of basic political facts, we can still reach pretty good decisions - However, those who know more about basic political facts are better and using many shortcuts Example: using partisanship, polling results, or endorsements to make a vote choice argument #2 citizens knowing basic facts - CORRECT ANSWER No, memory-based vs. online processing: knowledge of basic political facts is not necessary because we don't memorize facts when assessing candidates - This is memory-based processing, and we don't really use it - When we encounter new information about a candidate, we update our overall impression of the candidate, but we forget the details (called online processing) - However, then we cannot reconcile conflicting information using this argument #3 citizens knowing basic facts - CORRECT ANSWER Yes: know basic argument and counter-argument: citizens do need to know basic political facts because this is related to learning new things about politics - The number of political facts you knew before making a decision is a better predictor - It is easier to learn something new when you already know a little bit about the subject - New information fits better with what we already know Predictors of learning political facts - CORRECT ANSWER Opportunity: media/political information available and interpersonal discussion Motivation: interest in political learning and the importance of the event Ability: education and background political knowledge knowledge of basic political facts over time - CORRECT ANSWER - Knowledge of basic political facts has changed little over time - It depends on a segment of the population - some groups persistently know more than others because of education, higher income, etc - Since the 1940s, scholarly studies have consistently found that the public is poorly informed key moments for political learning - CORRECT ANSWER Political (especially presidential) campaigns Pivotal events School and education opinionation - CORRECT ANSWER having an opinion; the people who tend to offer opinions are knowledgeable, interested, use media, and have a perceived ability to understand (not necessarily any actual ability) techniques to limit uninformed opinion - CORRECT ANSWER Offer a "don't know" or "no opinion" option on surveys Ask first if people have heard about an issue before asking about their opinion on it which comes first, opinions or reasons? - CORRECT ANSWER opinions come first, and reasons come later A possible revision - Opinions (some of which are uninformed) exist among the public Media attention is provided to an issue People learn the party positions THEN people adopt the position of a preferred party as their own What citizens should know - CORRECT ANSWER citizens are better able to make choices and respond to relevant cues if they have a broader range of information to draw upon, therefore citizens need to know what the government IS and DOES as well as WHO the government is government is - CORRECT ANSWER rules of the game - knowledge of the basic structure of government - its basic values, such as citizen participation, majority rule, separation of powers, civil liberties, and its basic elements, such as the two-party system, the two houses of Congress, the role of the judiciary, and the organization of the cabinet government does - CORRECT ANSWER substance of politics - the citizen is supposed to know what the issues are, what their history is, what the relevant facts are, what alternatives are proposed, what the party stands for, and what the consequences are government who - CORRECT ANSWER people and parties - because one of the responsibilities of citizens is to periodically evaluate and select representatives, citizens need specific information about these leaders both as individuals and as members of key political groupings examples of what citizens know - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Citizens do best at answering questions about the institutions and processes of politics - Institutions and processes tend to be more stable and thus require less regular monitoring of the political landscape - This is also the one domain of politics that is consistently taught in schools 2) Citizens do somewhat better on questions about foreign politics as opposed to the remaining topics, political leaders and domestic politics [Show Less]
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CMS TEST 51 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
CMS TEST 51 Questions with Verified Answers My doctor says he filed a claim and You did not pay. I want him paid, who do I need to talk to? - CORRE... [Show More] CT ANSWER This is an Claims appeal. The rep should recognize this is an appeal and offer to start the appeal process for them and ask for basic questions. Info asked should include provider info. ********************* Located? Medicare Ops Portal/ WP -CG&A & Billing I need to get a Pap test, can I go to my gynecologist to do this? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes, they can, no PA required. Is your Gynecologist in network? Yes , no need for referral ********************* Located? WORKBOOK & EOC - Chapter 3 Sec2.2 I want to get a flu shot, where can I go to get it and what will it cost me? - CORRECT ANSWER They can go to the PCP, their pharmacy or any in network pharmacy and cost will be zero. It is part b coverage, no cost associated to it, zero cost. ********************* Located? SOB & EOC - Chapter 4 I need to get a Hepatitis B shot, where can I go and how much will it cost me? - CORRECT ANSWER They can go to the PCP, their pharmacy or any in network pharmacy and cost will be zero. It is part b coverage, no cost associated to it, zero cost ********************* Located? SOB & EOC - Chapter 4 I received a letter telling me it is time for a mammogram, what is that, how do I get one, and how much will it cost. - CORRECT ANSWER Breast cancer screening (mammograms) Covered services include: One baseline mammogram between the ages of 35 and 39 One screening mammogram every 12 months for women age. Go to imiging center, PCP. There is no coinsurance, copayment, or deductible for covered screening mammograms. ********************* Located? SOB & EOC. Chapter 4 Someone called me and they want to do something called an HRA? - CORRECT ANSWER What is that and why do I need one? HRA = Health Risk Assessment, it is a questionnaire to help us understand what your healthcare needs are . These assessments are done by Nurses. This assessment is required by Medicare. The assessment helps us identify services that you may need and that we can provide. ********************* Located? Med Ops Portal/ WP(HRA)/MOC WP The agent talked about something called the Model of Care when he was here, what does that mean? - CORRECT ANSWER The Model of Care is Centene's plan for delivering our integrated care management program for members with special needs. It is the architecture for care management policy, procedures, and operational systems. MOC improves the member experience by: - Guiding members to the right level and site of care - Helping the member (and their care givers) to better self-manage their health - Assisting members with getting access to the care that they need ********************* Located? Med Ops Portal/ Call Flow: Model of Care What do you require of me in this model of care? - CORRECT ANSWER We need your participation in the assessment and setting your goals, then working with us and your doctors to achieve those goals, which is better health and quality of life for you. ********************* Located? Med Ops Portal/ Call Flow: Model of Care I called my cardiologist to get an appointment and his office says it will be 3 months before I can get in, I need to see him before then - CORRECT ANSWER It is a grievance, talking about practice guidelines/ Provider manual (new Medicare manual) ********************* Located? Med Ops Portal/ WP - CG&A - EOC I want to disenroll from the plan, will you help me? - CORRECT ANSWER There are a few ways you can go about disenrolling from our Medicare Advantage plan: 1. Enrolling in another plan 2. Calling 1-800-MEDICARE. 3. Filling out and signing a disenrollment letter that we can send to you 4. Mailing or faxing a signed written notice to [PLAN NAME] Advantage at 877-941-1931 Enrollment change will be processed for the 1st of the next calendar month. You will still be covered by [Plan Name] Advantage until that time. ********************* Located? Med Ops Portal/ Call Flow: Medicare Disenrollments I am interested in enrolling in the plan, will you help me? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes. We can have our licensed sales agent call you to enroll in our Medicare Advantage plan. You can also download the application from the website and mail it to us. ********************* Located? Med Ops Portal/ Call Flow: Prospective Medicare Member - Website/ Enrollement You denied my surgery and I want to file a complaint - CORRECT ANSWER Appeal, we will help you fill out an appeal form and forward it to the central review team. This will also be a grievance ********************* Located? Appeal form on the website; EOC Chapter 9, Section 6.3 - CG&A - WP Can I get my medications delivered to my home? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes we have 90 day mail order. Enroll in mail order over the phone. The prescriptions can be mailed or faxed in from the doctor. You can save money this way. It is charged as a one month copay. (FORM AVAIL IN SHAREPOINT) (MO will appear on formulary) (homescripts) ********************* Located? EOC/ Chapter 5 Sec2.3 I received a bill from a laboratory, what do I do? - CORRECT ANSWER SNP Plan no members responsibility. Tell the member that they will not be responsible for the bill. Mail it or fax it or gather the information over the phone ********************* Located? Med Ops Portal/ Work Process: Balance Billing How do I order the OTC items the agent says I have? - CORRECT ANSWER Pull the OTC form from the website and ask them if they have the otc. OTC should be on the website ********************* Located? Website/ Resourse Workbook I got something in the mail, it is an ANOC, what is this? - CORRECT ANSWER ANOC stands for Annual Notice Of Change and it tells you what changes will be made in your benefits on January 1, 2015 ********************* Located? Website I got a letter in the mail that says a medication I am taking is not going to be on the formulary and I should call my doctor? Why is my drug being removed and what can I do to keep taking it? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes we wanted to be sure you knew that this medication will not be covered next year so that your doctor can find a medicine that is covered that will work for you. Our formulary changes each year and our committee that designs the formulary reviews lots of data and drug information in order to design a formulary that will meet our members needs and be approved by CMS. If your doctor feels that this medication is better for you than the other similar drugs on our formulary he or she can file for an exception and we will review and make a decision on whether or not we will continue to cover the medication for you. Please do keep in mind we have medication on the formulary that is indicated for treatment of your condition as well. ********************* Located? EOC/ Chapter 5, Section 6.2 & formulary transtion fill I want to stay with the plan, what do I need to do for January? - CORRECT ANSWER If you want to stay with us next year, it's easy - you don't need to do anything. If you don't make a change, you will automatically stay enrolled in our plan. ** if they enroll in another plan, loose eligibility, move out of area ********************* Located? ANOC Pg 2. I want a private room in the hospital, how do I get that? - CORRECT ANSWER Your doctor will need to certify that it is medically necessary for you to have a private room ********************* Located? EOC/ Chapter 4 What is my inpatient hospital deductible cost? - CORRECT ANSWER Your impatient hospital deductible depends on your level of Medicaid if Medicaid pays for your Medicare deductibles and coinsurance you will pay nothing for impatient hospital services. ********************* Located? EOC & workbook I am diabetic and my doctor wants me to take Medical Nutrition Therapy, is this covered and how much will it cost me? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes it is covered under the preventative services benefit at no cost to you. ********************* Located? EOC I was visiting my daughter in North Dakota and had to have medication, the pharmacy made me pay, what shall I do? - CORRECT ANSWER Check formulary first. Contact the plan, Request documentation, and we will complete the DMR form for Argus. ********************* Located? EOC Chapter 7 / Med Ops Portal Forms I am an LIS level 4 what are my costs for medical visits (OHIO , Georgia, and Florida) - CORRECT ANSWER LIS only applies only applies to RX ********************* Located? LIS WP What dental benefits do I have? - CORRECT ANSWER 2015 Summary of Benefits ********************* Located? Workbook & SOB & EOC My doctor wants to put me in the hospital for mental health reasons, what are my benefits? - CORRECT ANSWER 2015 Summary of Benefits - any cost would be dependent upon your Medicaid Eligibility ********************* Located? Workbook & EOC & SOB I just had cataract surgery and my doctor says I need glasses, what are my cost? - CORRECT ANSWER one pair of glasses or contacts after surgery ********************* Located? Workbook & EOC & SOB I need a ride to the pharmacy to get my prescriptions, is that covered? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes, it is covered only if they schedule it at the time they are making the apt. ********************* Located? Workbook & SOB I want obesity counseling, is it covered and what would it cost? - CORRECT ANSWER If you have a body mass index of 30 or more, we cover intensive counseling to help you lose weight. This counseling is covered if you get it in a primary care setting, where it can be coordinated with your comprehensive prevention plan. Talk to your primary care doctor or practitioner to find out more. There is no coinsurance, copayment, or deductible for preventive obesity screening and therapy ********************* Located? EOC Chapter 4 I need a PSA (Prostate-specific antigen) test, is it covered and what will it cost? - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare-covered zero cost sharing preventive services - $0 copay ********************* Located? EOC - SOB (End of Section 2) I want help to quit smoking, does the plan provide anything and if yes what is the cost? - CORRECT ANSWER Smoking and tobacco use cessation (counseling to stop smoking or tobacco use) If you use tobacco, but do not have signs or symptoms of tobacco-related disease: We cover two counseling quit attempts within a 12-month period as a preventive service with no cost to you. Each counseling attempt includes up to four face-to-face visits. If you use tobacco and have been diagnosed with a tobacco-related disease or are taking medicine that may be affected by tobacco: We cover cessation counseling services. We cover two counseling quit attempts within a 12-month period; however, you will pay the applicable cost-sharing. Each counseling attempt includes up to four face-to-face visits. ********************* Located? EOC Why do you cover the generic version of my drug but not the brand? - CORRECT ANSWER https://cnet.centene.com/sites/MOR/Team/CC/Training%20Resources/2020%20Medicare%20New%20Hire%20Training/Week%204/Prescription%20Drug%20Module/Prescription%20Drug%20Module%202020.pdf What is Silver Sneakers? - CORRECT ANSWER A health club membership. EOB can reprinted or mailed or they can get a pharmacy coordinator to get the info ********************* Located? Workbook My first language is Spanish , I need my material in Spanish - CORRECT ANSWER I will put the language indicator in the system and order your material to be delivered in Spanish, in the interim the material is on the website in Spanish ********************* Located? Alternate material request WP My LIS level is 3 what are my brand name drug copays? - CORRECT ANSWER LIS Cross Walk - $0 I did not receive my Part D EOB this month and need to know what my TROOP is? - CORRECT ANSWER EOB can reprinted or mailed or they can get a pharmacy coordinator to get the info ********************* Located? Curretn TrOOP WP My PCP is not accepting your plan what are my options? - CORRECT ANSWER Offer to provide PCP's options, and then get PCP's name and send to Network to outreach for contracting or education if in network ********************* Located? PCP change - WP I received an EOB in the mail and it says you paid Dr. Garcia for a visit, I did not have an appointment with Dr. Garcia, I don't know who she is. - CORRECT ANSWER Gather the information, then advise member that you will investigate and keep them posted, if there is a claim, then we would send to SIU, if no claim, then we want to get a copy of the EOB and check and see if delivered to appropriate member Dr. Hernandez said he did not have time to review all my medications, I am scared to take Quality of Care Grievance and member services should gather info and route info to grievance team, advise member of process and when to expect contact, all these medications together. - CORRECT ANSWER member services should outreach to Care Manager immediately as member may not be taking medication that is needed or may have DDI issues New Question: If a member wants to pay their monthly premium in advance, can they? - CORRECT ANSWER Yes. A member can pay their monthly premium in advance. ********************* Located? (Source: Per Naomi Goddard, Enrollment Dept.) New Question: What is IRMAA? - CORRECT ANSWER IRMAA stands for Income Related Monthly Adjustment Amount (Part D-IRMAA). It applies to Part D plans and is a premium amount, separate from the Part D plan's monthly premium, for individuals whose incomes meet specific thresholds. ********************* Located? (Source: Medicare Managed Care Manual on CMS.gov site) New Question: Who determines how much IRMAA one has to pay? - CORRECT ANSWER The Social Security Administration assesses the amount annually based on the enrollee's available tax information. The plan does not collect the Part D-IRMAA as part of its premium. Typically, individuals pay the Part D-IRMAA through their Social Security, Office of Personnel Management or Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) benefit withholding. Some enrollees are directly billed for their Part D-IRMAA through invoices sent by CMS or the RRB. All Part D enrollees who are assessed the Part D-IRMAA are required to pay the IRMAA, even if the Part D coverage is provided through an EGHP. ********************* Located? (Source: Medicare Managed Care Manual on CMS.gov site) New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? New Question: - CORRECT ANSWER ********************* Located? [Show Less]
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