NURS 316 Unit Quiz 5, 6 7 Questions And Answers Unit 5 1) A clinic nurse is caring for a 66-pound child who has acute otitis media. The physician h as
... [Show More] ordered ceftibuten (Cedax) 9mg/kg per day PO for 10 days. The drug comes in an oral suspension of 90mg/5mL. How many mL will the nurse administer? A) 20 mL B) 10 mL C) 5 mL D) 15 mL 2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after being bitten by a rattlesnake. The nurse asks the patient to describe the snake that bit him. Why would the nurse ask this question? A) Antivenin only responds to a specific group of spiders of snakes. B) Antivenin can only respond to cells that have not been attacked by the venom. C) Antivenin is very non-specific about a class of snakes or spiders. D) Antivenin is very specific to antigens to which it can respond 3) Which of the following outpatients are at a greater risk for developing treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis? Select all that apply. A) A homosexual male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years. B) An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with 3-4 different men a week. C) A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money. D) A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors. 4) Which of the following individuals is experiencing a health problem that is the result of a parasite? Select one. A) A hospital client who has developed post-operative pneumonia. B) A woman who developed Hepatitis A, from eating at an unhygienic restaurant. C) A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation. D) A college student who contracted chlamydia trachomatis during an unprotected sexual encounter. 5) 6) The nurse administers aldesleukin to a patient diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma. When assessing the patient a few days later, what abnormal findings would the nurse attribute to the medication? Select all that apply. A) Increased lymphocyte count B) Irregular pulse rate C) Increase platelet count D) Increased blood pressure E) Increased Red Blood Cell count 7) The nurse explains that the drugs metronidazole (Flagyl) or tinidazole (Tindamax), can be administered to treat what protozoan? Select all that apply. A) Trichomoniasis B) Cryptosporidium Parvum C) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D) Amebiasis E) Giardiasis 8) A child’s thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult. Which of the following processes that contributes to immunity takes place in the thymus gland? Select one. A) Production of natural killer (NK) cells. B) Differentiation of B cells. C) Filtration of antigens from the blood. D) Proliferation of T cells. 9) The client is to receive ranitidine hydrochloride 150 mg bid via nasogastric tube. The medication is available as ranitidine hydrochloride 15 mg per milliliter. How many milliliters does the nurse need to administer? A) 15 B) 20 C) 5 D) 10 10) A patient is told that he or she will have to undergo extensive dental surgery. The dentist prescribes a course of antibiotic therapy before beginning the procedures and continuing for 5 days after the procedure. What is this an example of? A) Chemotherapy B) Synergism C) Prophylaxis D) Curative treatment 11) A nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor has direct effects on the HIV virus activities within the cell. What drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor? Select one. A) Efarvirenz (Sustive) B) Econazole nitrate (Spectazole) C) Olanzapine (Zyprexia) D) Oxaliplatin (Eloxatin) 12) The nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with Hepatitis B. the family comes to visit and a family member asks the nurse if it's safe to visit. What is the nurse’s best response? Select one. A) “The patient should be isolated and have limited visitation” B) “You seem fearful. Why do you think you are at risk?” C) “There is no risk unless you come in contact with blood or body fluids” D) “Don’t worry, you will not contract the disease from the patient.” 13) The client is to receive thioridazine 150 mg PO twice a day. The medication is available as thioridazine 30 mg/ml. How many teaspoons should the nurse instruct the client to take for each dose? Select one. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 14) Which of the following statements from a group of young adults demonstrates the need for further teaching related to HIV and prevention of spread? Select one. A) “Having oral sex is one way I can prevent passing on HIV to my partner.” B) “Good perineal care following sex will not have an effect on the transmission of HIV.” C) “A woman can still get pregnant if she is HIV positive.” D) “My HIV medications do not prevent me from passing the virus on to my partners.” 15) The client is to recieve methyldopa 300 milligrams BID via nasogastric tube. The medication is available as methyldopa 250 milligrams per 5 mLs. How many milliliters does the nurse need to administer? Select one. A) 7.5 B) 6.5 C) 7 D) 6 16) A college student has been called into the student health office because she tested positive for HIV on the enzyme Musa pre-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The student asks, “What is this Western blot assay going to tell you?” The best response by the health care provider is: A) “The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens.” B) “We always want 2 positive test results before we give you medicine.” C) “This assay will actually look at all the individual cells in your blood and count how many HIV cells you have, so we can treat you with the proper medication.” D) “If you are afraid of another blood test, we can do a rapid oral test to see if we get the same results.” 17) A patient, aged 72, is brought to the clinic by her daughter. The daughter asks how often her mother should receive the influenza vaccine. What would be the nurse's best response? Select one. A) “Your mother should receive the vaccine once, with two booster injections” B) “Your mother needs the influenza vaccine yearly.” C) “Your mother needs the influenza vaccine every 10 years.” D) “Your mother only needs the influenza vaccine once in her lifetime.” 18) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a broad-spectrum anti-infective agent. The nurse would assess the patient for what common adverse effect of broad-spectrum anti-infective agents. Select one. A) Decrease in inflammation B) Destruction of normal flora C) Destruction of pathogens D) Decrease in infection 19) What infestation would the nurse suspect when the patient manifests with intestinal obstruction caused by the adult worms clogging the lumen of the intestine? Select one. A) Cestode B) Platyhelminth C) Trichinosis D Nematode 20) While discussing the effector function of activated members of the complement system, the faculty member will include which of the following concepts? Select all that apply. A) Chemotaxis B) mobilization of immunoglobulins C) phagocytosis D) pathogen lysis E) opsonization 21) In the usual course (stages) after a pathogen has entered the host body, the stage when the host initially develops the appearance of signs/symptoms like a mild fever and body aches is: Select one. A) Acute B) Convalescence C) Incubation D) Prodromal 22) Which of the following are accurate characteristics of prions? Select all that apply. A) Prions lack reproductive functions so are not very harmful to humans. B) Disease usually progresses slowly. C) Prions tend to aggregate into amyloid-like plaques in the brain. D) The primary manifestation includes ataxia and dementia. E) Prions are protease sensitive. 23) Which of the following clients is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection? Select one. A) a breast cancer client who has a WBC count of 8000 B) a hyperthyroid client who has received treatment with radioactive iodine C) a teenager who attends a crowded high school D) an AIDS client with a decreased CD4+ TH1 count 24) The client must receive phenytoin oral solution 100 milligrams PO 3 times a day. The medication is available as phenytoin oral solution 125 milligrams per 5 mLs. How many milliliters of medication would the client receive? Select one A) 4 B) 3 C) 3.5 D) 4.5 25) The client is to receive theophylline elixer 120 mg PO twice a day. The medication is available as theophylline elixer 80 mg per 15 mLs. How many milliliters of the medication would the client receive? Select one. A) 20 B) 27.5 C) 25 D) 22.5 Unit 6 1) While studying the antihypertensive drugs the, nursing students learn about the pressure in the cardiovascular system is determined by three elements. What are they? Select all that apply. A) Heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Preload D) Total peripheral resistance E) Pulse pressure 2) The nurse is providing patient teaching to a patient who has been prescribed Digoxin. The patient tells the nurse that she occasionally uses herbals and other alternative therapies. What herb would the nurse warn the patient to avoid taking with the digoxin. Select one. A) black cohosh B) ginseng C) Saw palmetto D) Valerian 3) What assessment finding would indicate the patient’s left-sided heart failure is worsening? A) Increased pulse rate B) Increased crackles in lung fields C) Increased jugular venous pressure D) Liver enlargement 4) 5) A patient is being discharged on Cholestyramine (Questran). Patient teaching should include what about this medication? Select one. A) Should be administered with other medications B) Should be administered on an empty stomach C) Should be administered 1 hour before or 4 to 6 hours after other medications D) Should be administered one hour after other medications 6) The nurse is taking a health history on a 38 year old man who is taking Atorvastatin (Lipitor) for high cholesterol. What will the nurse question specifically related to the safe use of this drug? Select one. A) Alcohol B) Caffine C) Herbal therapy D) Nicotine 7) For which of the following types of shock might intravenous antibiotic therapy be indicated? Select one. A) Hypovolemic shock B) Distributive shock C) Obstructive shock D) Cardiogenic shock 8) Which of the following individuals is suffering the effects of acute coronary syndrome (ACS)? A) A client who sometimes experiences chest pain when climbing stairs B) A client who occasionally experiences persistent and severe chest pain when at rest C) A client who has recently been diagnosed with vasospastic angina D) A client whose most recent ECG indicates that silent myocardial ischemia has occurred 9) A health care provider was asked by a client, “Why do my hands turn blue when I drive my car in the winter without gloves?” Which of the following is the best response? Select one. A) “Your arteries in your hands as fingers are going to spasm, which decreases blood flow and circulating oxygen.” B) “Nothing to worry about. We all develop this as we age.” C) “We better order a CT scan. It might be due to a blood clot in your radial artery.” D) “This sounds like an inflammation of the lining of your veins you need to take some NAIDS.” 10) A client awaiting a heart transplant is experiencing decompensation of her left ventricle that will not respond to medications. The physician suggests placing the client on a ventricular assist device (VAD). The client asks what this equipment will do. The health care providers respond. Select one. "This device will decrease the workload of the myocardium while maintaining cardiac output and systemic arterial pressure." 11) Which of the following assessment be suggestive of cardiac tamponade select one A) A normal ECG combined with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath B) Increasing PaCO2 and decreasing Pa02 C) A 20mm Hg drop in systolic blood pressure during respiration D) Audible crackles on the chest auscultation and presence of frothy sputum 12) The nurse would anticipate that which of the following clients we considered a great candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)? Select one. A) A 56-year-old with a history of MI experiencing new onset chest pain and ST elevation B) A 24 year old auto accident client diagnosed with pericardial effusion and cardiac effusion and cardiac tamponade C) A 87 year old client admitted with uncontrolled dilated cardiomyopathy D) A 78 year old client admitted with increasing fatigue related to aortic stenosis 13) The nurse is preparing to teach the patient about diet therapy when beginning by sequestrant medication to lower lipid levels. What important teaching point will the nurse include in this teaching plan? Select one. A) Increasing carbohydrate intake B) Increasing fiber intake C) Reducing fluid intake D) Reducing protein intake 14) Which of the following statements about vascular compliance is accurate? Select one. A) Arteries have thick muscular walls that constrict tightly, thereby ejecting blood without storing it for use later. B) A continuous flow through the capillaries occurs primarily during systole. C) Veins can act as a reservoir for storing large quantities of blood. D) Arteries are much more distensible than veins. 15) The emergency department nurse is asked to prepare a nitroprusside (Nitropress) infusion for a patient being brought to the hospital in an ambulance. The nurse knows this drug is only used in what circumstances? a) Hypertensive emergencies b) Hypertension in a patient having a myocardial infarction c) Hypertension complicated by symptoms of a stroke d) Hypertension associated with diabetic ketoacidosis 16) The nurse provides teaching about Digoxin to the 62 year old patient. The nurse evaluates patient understanding and determinates further teaching is needed when the patient says she will do what? Select one. A) Take the medication with a meal B) Weigh herself daily at the same time C) Take the medication daily in the morning D) Take her pulse before taking her down 17) What class of antiarrhythmic agent would the nurse be most likely to administer to a lactating new mother? Select one. A) Class Ib B) Class II C) Class III D) Class IV 18) A client with a diagnosis heart failure has returned from a visit with his primary care provider with a prescription for the change in his daily medication regimen. Which of the following drugs is likely to improve the client cardiac function by increasing the force and strength of ventricular contractions? Select one. A) An ACE inhibitor B) A cardiac glycoside C) A diuretic D) An adrenergic blocker 19) Upon admission assessment, the nurse hears a murmur located at the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. The client asks, “What does that mean?” The nurse will base her answer on which of the following physiological principles? A) “You have a heart valve that is diseased.” B) “Your heart has enlarged, so naturally your valves had to enlarge as well.” C) “You have been exposed to infection that went into your bloodstream.” D) “Your heart has been pumping your blood so hard, that pressure has damaged the valves.” 20) A patient who has been taking cyclosporine to prevent rejection of a kidney transplant has had diltiazem ordered. Why would the nurse question this order? A) Serious diltiazem toxicity could occur. B) The combination may result in elevated or even toxic cyclosporine levels. C) The combination could lead to kidney rejection. D) A kidney recipient would not effectively excrete the diltiazem. 21) If the parasympathetic neurotransmitter releases acetylcholine, the nurse should anticipate observing the following changes in the ECG pattern? Select one. A. Heart rate 150 beats/minute, labeled as supraventricular tachycardia B. Slowing of heart rate to below 60 beats/minute C. Complete cardiac standstill D. Disorganized ventricular fibrillation 22) What would the nurse teach the patient about potency of Nitroglycerin? Select all apply. A) Older tablets may require you use 2 tabs at a time B) “The tablet should fizzle or burn when placed under the tongue.” C) “Protect the drug from heat and light.” D) “Always replace when past the expiration date.” E) “Nitroglycerin doesn't lose its potency easily.” 23) The nurse is preparing a patient for discharge who will receive a prescription for a beta-hydroxy-beta- methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) inhibitor What statement by the patient demonstrates that they have a clear understanding of the teahing provided by the nurse? Select one. A) "I will not need to follow that low-fat diet anymore because this drug will take care of my lipids." B) "I should plan to take this drug before bedtime, because my body makes lipids mostly at night." C) "After I start taking this drug, I will not have to worry about the exercise routine the doctor prescribed." D) "I should take this drug first thing in the morning and make sure I drink a full glass of water." 24) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been noncompliant with treatment for hypertension. The nurse explains that untreated hypertension increases the risk of what? Select all that apply. A) Renal disease B) Cholecystitis C) Migraine headache D) Heart failure E) Cerebral infarction 25) A client is receiving home care for the treatment of a wound on the inside of her lower leg that is 3 centimeters in diameter with a yellow wound bed and clear exudate. Assessment of the client’s legs reveals edema and a darkened pigmentation over the ankles and shins of both legs what is the clients most likely diagnosis A) Chronic venous insufficiency B) Peripheral arterial disease C) Varicose veins D) Deep vein thrombosis Unit 7 1) Dry itchy plaques on her elbows and knees have prompted a 23-year-old woman to seek care. The clinician has subsequently diagnosed the client with psoriasis, a disorder that results from. Select one. A) Increased epidermal cell turnover B) Human papilloma virus (HPV) C) An Igf mediated immune reaction D) Hormonal influences on sebaceous gland activity 2) 3) The nurse administers polymyxin B to a patient with a gram-negative bacterial infection. What symptoms would cause the nurse to suspect drug fever, hold the medication and call the health care provider immediately? Select all that apply. A) Ataxia B) Reduced urine output C) Dizziness D) Fever E) Increased activity 4) The physician ordered furosemide 100mg in 250 mL of D5W. It is to infuse at 25 mg/hour per infusion pump. How many hours will the IV run? Round to the nearest hour. Select one. A) 6 B) 8 C) 4 D) 10 5) A child weighs 30 pounds. How many kilograms does this child weigh? Round to the nearest hundredth. A) 13.93 B) 13.84 C) 13.73 D) 13.64 6) An 85-year-old man who is a resident in an extended care facility has athlete’s foot. After applying an antifungal cream what is the nurses next action? A) Apply clean dry socks B) Wipe away excess medication from the affected area C) Elevate the feet for 30 minutes D) Wrap a sterile cling dressing around both feet 7) A client is exhibiting manifestations of superficial dermatophytosis of the skin with skin scaling and nail disintegration. Based on these findings the nurse can anticipate that the client will be with prescribed what? Select all that apply. A) An antifungal like ketoconazole B) Topical corticosteroid C) An antihistamine like Benadryl D) An antibiotic like tetracycline 8) A 44-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department with severe electrical burns resulting from a workplace accident. The most immediate threat to this client’s survival at this time is? Select one. A) Acute pain B) Decrease protein synthesis and impaired healing C) Infection D) Hemodynamic instability 9) The nurse administers erythromycin, a drug that is known to irritate the mucosa in the stomach lining. When the patient reports abdominal discomfort after taking this medication, the nurse would classify this discomfort as what type of adverse effect? Select one. A) Allergic reaction B) Hypersensitivity reaction C) Secondary action D) Primary action 10) The nurse explains that the drugs metronidazole (Flagyl) or Tinidazole (Tindamax) can be administered to treat what protozoan infections? Select all that apply. A) Giardiasis B) Cryptosporidium parvum C) Trichomoniasis D) Amebiasis E) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia 11) The patient, a physician returning from a trip to the tropics, is prescribed chloroqine and asks how it works. What is the nurses best response? Select one. Changes the metabolic pathways necessary for the reproduction of the plasmodium. 12) A child has been admitted to the burn unit after pulling a pan of hot water off the stove. Given the fact that there is primarily second- and third-degree burns, the health care worker should prioritize care to focus on which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Focus on replacing fluids that have been lost from the vascular, interstitial, and cellular compartments. b. Assess for indications that the child's airway has been compromised by assessing breath sounds and voice quality. c. Maintain sterile field when doing dressing changes and debridement. d. Withhold foods/nutrition since the GI tract may have slowed down in response to stress. e. Minimize pain medication administration to not compromise the child's respiratory effort. 13) The nurse collects the past medical history of a patient new to the clinic. The patient states he or she has an allergy to penicillin. What would the nurse question next? Select all that apply. A) How many doses were administered before the reaction occurred? B) What signs and symptoms were displayed with the reaction? C) How was the medication administered? D) What treatment was required to control the allergic reaction? E) Had the medication ever been prescribed before the time when the reaction occurred? 14) A 5-year-old girl has been presented for care by her father due to her recent development of macules on her trunk, extremities, and mucous membranes. The child is mildly febrile but her primary symptom is extreme pruritus. What disorder of the skin should the clinician who is assessing the child first suspect? A) Impetigo B) Rosacea C) Lichen planus D) Varicella 15) A child weighs 40 kg, and the recommended dosages of clindamycin palmitate hydrochloride oral suspension is 8 to 25mg/kg/day in four divided doses. What is the maximum dosage for this child in 24 hours? Select one. A) 320 B) 640 C) 500 D) 1000 16) Which of the following actions could result in pressure sore formation? A) Applying powder to the buttocks area when diaphoresis has become a problem B) Turning a client from side to side every 2 hours C) Pulling a stroke patient up in bed D) Allowing a client to sit up in a chair at mealtimes 17) Papulosquamous dermatoses, such as psoriasis, are a group of skin disorders characterized by? Select one. A) Granular scabbing B) Raised red boarders C) Scaling papules D) Nodular ulcerations 18) The physician ordered 100 units of regular insulin in 250mL of NS. It is to infuse at 8 units/hour per infusion pump. What is the correct IV rate in milliliters per hour? Round to the nearest whole number. A) 16 B) 18 C) 22 D) 20 19) The nurse admits a patient suspected of having a fungal infection. What action will the nurse need to take before a systemic antifungal can be prescribed? Select all that apply. A) Assess history of lymphatic disease B) Initiate IV therapy C) Assess history of liver and kidney disease D) Obtain a culture of the fungus E) Request the patient sign a consent form 20) The clinic nurse provides teaching for a patient prescribed pyrimethamine (Daraprim) to prevent malaria and instructs on the need to notify the prescriber immediately if what signs and symptoms occur. Select one. A) Diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and anemia B) Irritation, rash, or inflammation C) Headache, nausea, or constipation D) Anorexia, nausea, or vomiting 21) Overuse of anti-infective agents is known to contribute to the onset of superinfections in the body. What is a causative agent of a superinfection? Select one. a. Escherichia coli b. Probenecid c. Protozoans d. Pseudomonas 22) The physician ordered metaraminol 50mg in 250 mL of D5W. It is to infuse at 50mcg/minute per infusion pump. What is the correct IV rate in milliliters per hour? Round to the nearest whole number. A) 20 B) 15 C) 25 D) 10 23) Which of the following changes are normal in the elderly population? Select all that apply. A) the dermis and epidermis thin as one age B) An increase in the amount of subcutaneous tissue C) a thickening of blood vessels D) Increased amount of padding on the buttocks E) skin may become dry, rough and scaly 24) A client has just received the diagnosis of malignant melanoma. He asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should respond relaying which of the following information? Select all that apply. A) This cancer rarely metastasizes B) Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer C) Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B). D) This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area. 25) The nurse needs to consider teratogenic effects of medications when caring for what population of patients? A) Older adults B) Young adult women C) Patients with a history of cancer D) Children [Show Less]