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NURS 316 BUNDLE: UNIT 1-7 (Quiz 1 - 7)
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NURS 316 Unit 1- Medical Calculation Quiz,100% CORRECT
NURS 316 Unit 1- Medical Calculation Quiz Question text The client is to receive fluoxetine hydrochloride oral solution 40 mg po every day. The medic ation... [Show More] is available as fluoxetine hydrochloride oral solution 20 mg per 5 mL. How many milliliters of medication would the client receive? Select one: a. 15 b. 10 c. 20d. 5 Question text The client is to receive famotidine 10 mg po ac for heartburn. When should this medication be administered? Select one: a. Before meals b. Every hour c. After meals d. Immediately Question text A child weighs 35 lb and has an order for cephalexin 150 mg po every 6 hours. The literature states that the usual children's dose is 25 to 50 mg/kg a day in four divided doses. The drug label reads 125 mg/5 mL. What is the safe dosage range per day for this medication? Select one: a. 297.75 to 725.5 b. 400.25 to 810.75 c. 197.75 to 695.75 d. 397.75 to 795.5 Question text The client is to receive prochlorperazine 10 mg IM every 4 hours prn for nausea and vomiting. The medication is available as prochlorperazine 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? Select one: a. 2 b. 1.5 c. 0.5 d. 1 Question text The physician ordered 50 mg of gentamicin IM three times daily. The drug is available in a vial labeled 40 mg/mL. Using a 3-mL syringe and rounding off to the nearest tenth, how many milliliters of gentamicin would the nurse give for each dose? Use proportion (ratios) to calculate the dosage. Select one: a. 1.1 b. 1.2 c. 1.3 d. 1.5 Question text The client is to receive theophylline elixir 120 mg po twice a day. The medication is available as theophylline elixir 80 mg per 15 mL. How many milliliters of medication would the client receive? Select one: a. 22.5 b. 27.5 c. 20 d. 25 Question text The physician ordered 500 mL D5 1/2 NS to run at 100 mL/hour with a drop factor of 60 gtt/mL. Calculate the IV flow rate in gtt/minute. Round off to the nearest whole number. Select one: a. 100 b. 25 c. 50d. 75 The client is to receive vitamin B12 1000 mcg IM once a month. Select the prescription that reflects this order. Select one: a. Administer vitamin B12 1000 micrograms intramuscularly once a month. b. Administer vitamin B12 1000 milligrams intramuscularly once a month. c. Administer vitamin B12 1000 milligrams intravenously once a month. d. Administer vitamin B12 1000 milliequivalents intravenously once a week. Question text The client is to receive docusate sodium 100 mg po bid. What is this dose of medication in grams? Select one: a. 1 b. 10 c. 0.1 d. 0.01 Question text The physician ordered 50 mg of gentamicin IM three times daily. The drug is available in a vial labeled 40 mg/mL. Using a 3-mL syringe and rounding off to the nearest tenth, how many milliliters of gentamicin would the nurse give for each dose? Select one: a. 1.1 b. 1.2 c. 1.3 d. 1.5 The client is to receive lorazepam 0.5 mg po four times a day and 1mg PRN at q8h. The maximum daily dose of lorazepam is 3mg. How many times can the patient safely have the prn dose of lorazepam? Select one: a. 0 b. 1.5 c. 1 d. 2 Question text A client weighs 200 lb. Available is 25,000 units of heparin in 1000 mL of D5W. The physician orders heparin sodium IV bolus of 80 units/kg, and starts the drip at 14 units/kg/hour. What is the correct IV rate in milliliters per hour? Round to the nearest whole number. Select one: a. 51 b. 53 c. 54 d. 52 Question text A child weighs 3 kg and has an order for phenobarbital sodium 10 mg po per day. The literature states that the usual children's dose is 3 to 5 mg/kg/day. The drug label reads phenobarbital elixir 20 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? Use the formula method to calculate the amount to give. Select one: a. 3 b. 2.5 c. 2 d. 1.5 Question text The physician ordered 500 mL of D5W to infuse over 8 hours with a drop factor of 20 gtt/mL. Calculate the correct IV flow rate in drops per minute. Round off to the nearest whole number. Select one: a. 21 b. 15 c. 25d. 18 Question text The client is to receive nitroglycerine 0.4-mg tablet. How many grams of medication are in this tablet? Select one: a. 400 b. 0.04 c. 0.0004 d. 0.004 Question text An elderly client takes her morning medications with 4 oz of Boost. The doctor wants her to increase her Boost intake by 50%. How many additional ounces would the client take with her morning dose of medications? Select one: a. 2 b. 2 1/2 c. 1 1/2 d. 1 Question text The physician ordered 10 mg of subcutaneous lidocaine. The medication is available in a multidose vial labeled lidocaine 2% (20 mg/ml). How many milliliters should the nurse prepare? Select one: a. 0.5 b. 2 c. 1 d. 1.5 Question text The physician ordered 80 units of regular insulin in 250 mL of NS. It is to infuse at 10 units/hour per infusion pump. What is the correct IV rate in milliliters per hour? Round to the nearest whole number. Select one: a. 28 b. 38 c. 21d. 31 a. 5 b. 15 c. 10d. 20 Question text A child weighs 50 lb and has an order for diazepam 2 mg po tid. The safe dosage for children is 1 to 2.5 mg tid or qid. What is the total daily dosage for this child? Is it safe? Select one: a. 10; not safe b. 8; not safe c. 4; safe d. 6; safe [Show Less]
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NURS316 Unit quiz 2,3,4 Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT
NURS316 Unit quiz 2,3,4 Questions and Answers Unit 2 Quiz 1) An intravenous minibag containing 100ml is to be infused in 15 minutes. What is the requ ired ... [Show More] flow rate in mL/hour? A) 100 ml/hour B) 50 ml/hour C) 25 ml/hour D) 400 ml/hour 2) A patient asks the nurse what a cancer cell’s growth rate is called. What is the nurses best response? Select one. A) Cancer cells growth rate is called neoplasm B) Cancer cells growth rate is called anaplasia C) Cancer cells growth rate is called proliferation D) Cancer cells growth rate is called pleomorphism 3) 4) What is chrysotherapy? A) Treatment with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDS) B) Treatment with salicylates C) Treatment with gold salts D) Treatment with antimalarials 5) When exercising outside on an extremely warm day, the client can feel his heart pounding very rapidly. Thinking in terms of the ability of the aorta to stretch to accommodate more blood circulating during exercise and the warm environment, this is an example of the function of which fibrous protein? A) Elastin B) Ligaments C) Reticular D) Collagen 6) Which describes the function of the nucleus? A) It contains the genetic code for the individual B) It initiates the process of aerobic metabolism C) It is basically the site of protein synthesis in the body. D) It is the transformer of cellular energy. 7) The client is to receive acetaminophen 325mg/tbsp. What does the abbreviation “tbsp” on the medication administration record mean? A) Ounce B) Double teaspoon C) Teaspoon D) Tablespoon 8) The nurse has to administer fentanyl citrate 60mcg, IM, 30 minutes prior to surgery. The medication is available as fentanyl citrate 50mcg/ml. How many milliliters of the medication would the nurse draw up in the syringe? A) 1 B) 1.1 C) 1.15 D) 1.2 9) A pregnant client is attending a Nutrional class for first time moms. During the class, the instructor stressed that they should avoid consumption of which food that may cause brain damage from methyl mercury exposure? A) Tuna B) Fresh milk C) Raw hamburger D) Beets 10) The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. The patient asks the nurse where his or her brain tumor came from. What is the nurse’s best response? A) “Your tumor originated from a single cell that is genetically different from nearby cells” B) “Your tumor originated from somewhere outside of the CNS, from a cell just like other cells” C) “Your tumor is from nerve tissues somewhere in your body” D) “Your tumor is from the pituitary gland origin” 11) What medication used to treat rheumatic arthritis not only has anti-inflammatory effects but is also used in premature infants to close a patent ductus arteriosus? A) Indomethacin B) Penicillamine C) Prednisone D) Antimalarials 12) A 12-year-old boy’s severe wound that he received from a dog bite has begun to heal and currently shows no signs of infection. Which of the following processes occurred first during this process of repair by connective tissue deposition? A) B) Angiogenesis C) Deposition of the extracellular matrix D) Emigration of fibroblasts to the wound site 13) Which statement is true about abbreviations for the international system of units (SI)? A) Volume measures in the SI system are based on the litre B) Weight measures in the SI system are based on the teaspoon C) The international system of units was adopted from the apothecary measures D) Differences between metric and SI systems occur in dosage 14) Despite low levels of radiation used in contemporary radiologic imaging, a radiology technician is aware of the need to minimize her exposure to ionizing radiation. What is the primary rationale for the technician's precautions? Radiation: A) Results in the accumulation of endogenous waste products in the cytoplasm. B) Stimulates pathologic cell hypertrophy and hyperplasia C) Decreases the action potential of rapidly dividing cells D) Interferes with DNA synthesis and mitosis 15) A mother asks the nurse how acetaminophen works. What statement best describes the therapeutic action of acetaminophen? A) B) Acetaminophen works by blocking the increase of interleukin-1 C) Acetaminophen acts directly on the hypothalamus to cause vasodilation and sweating 21) In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by which of the following phenomena? A) Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages B) A “shift to the left” of granulocytes C) Profuse fibrinous exudation D) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis 22) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking bicalutamide (Casodex). For what type of cancer would the nurse administer this drug? A) Prostate B) Breast C) Colon D) Bladder 23) The nurse is discussing ethnic differences in response to medication with your nursing students. What group of people would the nurse tell the students may have a decreased sensitivity to pain- relieving effects of anti-inflammatory drugs and should be educated concerning signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding from the use of these drugs? A) Hispanics B) African Americans C) White Americans D) Asians 24) A patient arrives at the emergency department brought by his or her friends. The friends tell the nurse that the patient has taken a whole bottle of aspirin. Blood work for salicylate toxicity is run. What does the nurse expect the results to be? A) >15g B) >10g C) >20g D) >5g 25) A nursing student is cleaning and changing the dressing on a client’s sacral ulcer. The student has vigorously cleansed the wound bed to remove all traces of the beefy, red tissue that existed in the wound bed. The student has most likely removed: A) Necrotic tissue B) The extracellular matrix C) Granulation tissue D) Stem cells Unit 3 Quiz 1) The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by: Select one. A) Increased osmolarity level B) Excessive thirst with fluid intake greater than 7000mL/ day C) Copious dilute urination with output of 500mL/ day D) Low serum sodium level 2) A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has been admitted to the emergency department, after ingesting more than 2 gallons of water in one sitting. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes may result from the sudden water gain? A) Hypernatremia B) Water movement from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment C) Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (SIADH) D) Isotonic fluid excess in the extracellular fluid compartment 3) Manifestations of metabolic acidosis include which of the following: Select all that apply A) Lightheadedness, and numbness in fingers and toes. B) Abdominal pain C) Weakness D) Stupor 4) The physician ordered 250mL of packed red blood cells to infuse over 4 hours with a drop factor of 10gtt/mL. Calculate the correct IV flow rate in milliliters per hour. Round off to the nearest whole number. A) 42 B) 63 C) 83 D) 120 5) Severe diarrhea is associated with which primary acid-base disturbance? Select one. A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 6) The physician ordered Aminophyline 250mg in 500mL of D5W. It is to infuse at 30mg/hour per infusion pump. How many hours will the IV pump run? Round to the nearest hour. A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14 7) When would you infuse plain sterile water (additive free, electrolyte free and dextrose free) intravenously? A) Rarely and with extreme caution, as it rapidly enters red blood cells causing them to rupture. B) When the patient is severely dehydrated C) When the patient is in an excess of an electrolyte ie. Hypercalcemia D) When the patient is in a deficit of an electrolyte ie. Hypocalcemia 8) The nurse is assessing a patient for the presence of a Chvostek’s sign. What electrolyte imbalance does a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate? A) Hypermagnesemia B) Hypercalcemia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hyperkalemia 9) Which of the following scenarios place the client at a high risk for developing hypoparathyroidism and require close supervision for assessing for development of muscle cramps, carpopedal spasm, convulsions, and paresthesia of the hands and feet? Select all that apply. A) A neck cancer client returning from OR after having a radical neck dissection B) A hyperthyroid client experiencing a “thyroid storm” requiring urgent thyroidectomy. C) A client with seizure experiencing some anoxic deficits and memory loss. D) A client with a history of human papillomavirus (HPV) in the uvula. 10) You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube was placed upon admission and has been on low intermittent suction ever since. You notice the patient’s potassium is very low. What would you be concerned that the patient may be at risk for? A) Hypercalcemia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Respiratory acidosis 11) Patient X is found to be in metabolic acidosis. Which combination of lab values would indicate your findings? A) PH = 7.48 and HC03 = 20 B) PH = 7.52 and PC02 = 27 C) PH = 7.28 and PC02 = 22 D) PH = 7.19 and HC03 = 18 12) Your patient is showing signs of ketoacidosis, when you check their lab values you notice their PH is 7.29, their PC02 is 33 and their HC03 is 16. You know that these lab values indicate that the patient is in which of the following metabolic conditions? A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 13) Manifestations of respiratory acidosis include which of the following? Select one or more. A) Lightheadedness, and numbness in fingers and toes. B) Cardia arrythmias C) Flushed skin D) Weakness and headache 14) Low plasma PH and low bicarbonate ion (HC03-) indicate the following primary acid-base disturbance? Select one. A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 15) A client develops interstitial edema as a result of decreased: Select one. A) Vascular volume B) Hydrostatic pressure C) Capillary permeability D) Colloidal osmotic pressure 16) Select the statement that is true about the definition for a drug preparation. Select one. A) An elixir is a drug dissolved in a hydroalcoholic sweetened base. B) A suspension is a drug contained in a clear liquid preparation. C) An ointment is a liquid alcoholic solution of a drug. D) A solution is an alcoholic solution of a volume solution. 17) When cells are in a hypertonic solution, the fluid movement causes cells to: A) Swell B) Shrink C) Remain the same D) None of the above 18) Hyperventilation is associated with which primary acid-base disturbance? Select one. A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 19) The nurse has to administer hydrocortison sodium succinate 450mg IV daily for 7 days. The medication is available as hydrocortison sodium succinate 250mg/ml. How many milliliters of medication would the nurse draw up in the syringe? Round to the nearest tenth. A) 1.6 B) 1.8 C) 2 D) 2.2 20) A client is undergoing an assessment to measure the extent of their edema. The nurse will explain to the client that this involves: Select one. A) Keeping a diary of food intake B) Grip strength measurements C) The application of elastic support stockings D) Measuring the client’s weight daily 21) An elderly client is admitted with elevated magnesium level related to a history of renal insufficiency and excess use of antacids and laxatives containing magnesium. On admission assessment, the nurse notes which clinical manifestations that correlate to hypermagnesemia? Select all that apply. A) Hyporeflexia B) Blood pressure 180/90 C) Tetanic muscle contraction D) Muscle weakness causing shallow breathing E) Paresthesia of the lips 22) A client has been admitted for deterioration of her renal function due to chronic renal failure. Her admission K+ level is 7.8 mmol/L (high). The nurse would expect to see which of the following abnormalities on her telemetry (ECG) strip? Select one. A) Tachycardia (fast rate) with frequent early ventricular beats (PVC’s) B) Shortening of the QRS complex C) T-Wave becomes prominent d) Atrial flutter with a 2:1 conduction ratio 23) a 77-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department by her daughter because of a sudden and unprecedented onset of confusion. The client admits to ingesting large amounts of baking soda this morning to treat some “indigestion”. How will the woman’s body attempt to resolve this disruption is acid-base balance? A) Increase the depth in respiration B) Increasing the renal H+ excretion C) Increased renal HC03- reabsorption D) Hypoventilation 24) You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Your patient has specific gravities ordered every 4hours. What does this test detect? A) Nutritional deficit B) Hyperkalemia C) Hypercalcemia D) Fluid volume status 25) The physician ordered 2500 ml of NS to infuse at 150ml/hour with a drop factor of 15gtt/ml. How long will this IV run? A) 14 hours B) 15 hours and 30 minutes C) 16 hours and 36 minutes D) 17 hours Unit 4 Quiz 1) An infant from parents of Mediterranean decent has been diagnosed with a severe form of beta- thalassemia anemia. The nurse caring for this infant knows that the infant will likely receive which of the following medical treatments? select one. A) Warfarin, a blood thinner to decrease clot formation B) Iron sulfate supplements C) Transfusion Therapy 1 D) Stem cell therapy 2 2) The nurse is caring for a pediatric patient with hemophilia who receives antihemophilic factor several times a year. What should this patient be regularly screened for? Select all that apply. A) Hepatitis B) Cardiomyopathy C) HIV D) Anemia E) Infection 3) Prior to beginning anticoagulant therapy, the nurse will question the female patient about what? A) Last menstrual period B) Weight C) Urinary tract infection D) Peptic ulcers 4) Conditions that predispose to sickling of the hemoglobin in persons with sickle cell anemia include: select one. A) Increased iron content of blood B) Increased intravascular volume C) Decreased oxygen saturation D) Impaired ed blood cell maturation 5) A young adult is preparing to begin treatment for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL), a disease that has disseminated widely. What is the most likely treatment regime for this client? A) Bone marrow or stem cell transplant B) Antiviral medication C) Radiation and chemotherapy D) Surgery and whole blood transfusion 6) The client s to receive allopurinol 0.25g po every day. Each scored tab contains 100mg. how many tablets would the client receive? A) 1.5 B) 3 C) 2.5 D) 2 7) A 50-year-old patient with pernicious anemia asks why she can’t just take a vitamin B12 pill instead of getting an injection. What is the nurse’s best response to her question? select one. A) “pernicious anemia is caused by the body’s inability to absorb vitamin B12” B) “Oral ingestion of vitamin B12 irritates the GI tract and bleeding could occur” C) “Pernicious anemia alters mucous membrane lining of the bowel and impairs absorption.” D) “With severe deficiencies like yours, oral vitamin B12 does not work fast enough.” 8) The client is to receive olanzapine 10mg po twice a day. Each tablet contains 2.5mg. How many tablets would the client receive for each dose? A) 4 B) 4.5 C) 3.5 D) 3 9) The client is to receive metoprolol titrate 0.05g po every day. Each scored tablet contains 50mg. How many tablets would the client receive? A) 2 B) ½ C) 1 ½ D) 1 10) A 12-month-old infant is displaying pale skin, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. The parents bring the child to the clinic. Which statement by the parents points the health care worker to suspect iron deficiency anemia? A) “He doesn’t like to eat any vegetables” B) “He has one to two bowel movements a day” C) “We give him regular cow’s milk with all his meals and snacks” D) “His grandma feeds him cookies every time she comes to visit.” 11) A client presents to the emergency clinic not feeling well. Which of the following complaints leads the health care provider to suspect the client may have acute leukemia? Select one. A) Muscle aches and pains in large muscle groups, especially while lying in bed B) Severe headache with associated photophobia C) Frequent nausea and vomiting for the past week D) Bleeding from the gums, not related to brushing the teeth 12) The nurse is caring for a patient following repeat coronary artery bypass grafting who has excessive bleeding. What systemic hemostatic drug will the nurse expect to administer? Select one. A) Human fibrin sealant B) Thrombin recombinant C) Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) D) Microfibrillar collagen 13) A 72-year-old woman with complaints of increasing fatigue has completed a series of fecal occult blood tests that indicate the presence of blood in her stool. Which of the following health problems is likely to accompany this client’s gastrointestinal bleed? A) Megaloblastic anemia B) Aplastic anemia C) Hemolytic anemia D) Iron deficiency anemia 14) The 86-year-old patient admitted with thrombophlebitis, is being sent home on enoxaparin (Lovenox). The nurse evaluates that he understands why enoxaparin is being used if he states it will do what? Select one. A) Stimulate production of certain clotting factors B) Prevent the blood from clotting C) Dissolve the clot D) Inhibit the formation of additional clots 15) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia and administers what drug? A) Epoetin alfa B) Ferrous sulfate C) Hydroxyurea D) Folic Acid 16) The nurse admits a 26-year-old patient with sickle cell anemia. What drug does the nurse anticipate administering? A) Methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta B) Hydroxyurea C) Vitamin B12 D) Leucovorin 17) The client is to receive cimetidine 0.8g po three times a day. Each tablet contains 0.4g. How many tablets would the client receive for each dose? A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 18) T-cell lymphocytes leave the bone marrow and travel to the thymus. If successful, they differentiate into which of the following cells? Select all that apply. A) CD4+helper T cells B) CD8+ cytotoxic T cells 19) The nurse is caring for a child who needs anticoagulation therapy. What drug is approved for pediatric use? A) Heparin B) Riveroxaban C) Low-molecular weight heparins D) Dabigatran 20) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pernicious anemia and anticipates this patient will require supplemental what? A) Vitamin B12 B) Iron C) Erthropoietin D) Oxygen 21) A client was started on a protocol for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis shortly after admission and has been receiving 5000 units of heparin twice daily for the last week. An immune response to this treatment may increase the client’s chance of developing which health problem? Select one. A) Thrombocytopenia B) Antiphospholipid syndrome C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) von Williebrand disease 22) A young man has been diagnosed with hemophilia and the nurse is planning his discharge teaching and includes what teaching point? Select one. A) Using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) for mild pain B) Understanding the condition is an X-linked recessive disorder C) Preventing trauma to the body D) Receiving IV factor VIII at home 23) Which of the following clients likely faces the highest risk of an acquired hypocoagulation disorder and vitamin K deficiency? A client who: A) Has dehydration and hypokalemia resulting from clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea B) Is immunocompromised as a result of radiation therapy for the treatment of lung cancer C) Has a diagnosis of liver failure secondary to alcohol abuse D) Has chronic renal failure as a result of type 1 diabetes mellitus 24) The client is to receive erythromycin 0.666g po every 6 hours. Each tablet contains 333mg. How many tablets would the client receive? A) 1 ½ B) 1 C) 1/2 D) 2 25) Sue is fatigued, and some blood tests are done. Her results include Hct 0.40, Hgb 8g/dL, WBC 8000 and platelets 175,000. The nurse should interpret Sue’s blood work as indicative of? A) Low WBC count/ granulocytopenia B) Low hemoglobin/ anemia C) High hematocrit/ polycythemia D) High platelets/ thrombocytosis Preview 4 out of 33 pages [Show Less]
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NURS 316 Unit Quiz 5, 6 7 Questions And Answers,100% CORRECT
NURS 316 Unit Quiz 5, 6 7 Questions And Answers Unit 5 1) A clinic nurse is caring for a 66-pound child who has acute otitis media. The physician h as orde... [Show More] red ceftibuten (Cedax) 9mg/kg per day PO for 10 days. The drug comes in an oral suspension of 90mg/5mL. How many mL will the nurse administer? A) 20 mL B) 10 mL C) 5 mL D) 15 mL 2) A patient is brought to the emergency department after being bitten by a rattlesnake. The nurse asks the patient to describe the snake that bit him. Why would the nurse ask this question? A) Antivenin only responds to a specific group of spiders of snakes. B) Antivenin can only respond to cells that have not been attacked by the venom. C) Antivenin is very non-specific about a class of snakes or spiders. D) Antivenin is very specific to antigens to which it can respond 3) Which of the following outpatients are at a greater risk for developing treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis? Select all that apply. A) A homosexual male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years. B) An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with 3-4 different men a week. C) A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money. D) A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors. 4) Which of the following individuals is experiencing a health problem that is the result of a parasite? Select one. A) A hospital client who has developed post-operative pneumonia. B) A woman who developed Hepatitis A, from eating at an unhygienic restaurant. C) A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation. D) A college student who contracted chlamydia trachomatis during an unprotected sexual encounter. 5) 6) The nurse administers aldesleukin to a patient diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma. When assessing the patient a few days later, what abnormal findings would the nurse attribute to the medication? Select all that apply. A) Increased lymphocyte count B) Irregular pulse rate C) Increase platelet count D) Increased blood pressure E) Increased Red Blood Cell count 7) The nurse explains that the drugs metronidazole (Flagyl) or tinidazole (Tindamax), can be administered to treat what protozoan? Select all that apply. A) Trichomoniasis B) Cryptosporidium Parvum C) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia D) Amebiasis E) Giardiasis 8) A child’s thymus gland is fully formed and proportionately larger than an adult. Which of the following processes that contributes to immunity takes place in the thymus gland? Select one. A) Production of natural killer (NK) cells. B) Differentiation of B cells. C) Filtration of antigens from the blood. D) Proliferation of T cells. 9) The client is to receive ranitidine hydrochloride 150 mg bid via nasogastric tube. The medication is available as ranitidine hydrochloride 15 mg per milliliter. How many milliliters does the nurse need to administer? A) 15 B) 20 C) 5 D) 10 10) A patient is told that he or she will have to undergo extensive dental surgery. The dentist prescribes a course of antibiotic therapy before beginning the procedures and continuing for 5 days after the procedure. What is this an example of? A) Chemotherapy B) Synergism C) Prophylaxis D) Curative treatment 11) A nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor has direct effects on the HIV virus activities within the cell. What drug is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor? Select one. A) Efarvirenz (Sustive) B) Econazole nitrate (Spectazole) C) Olanzapine (Zyprexia) D) Oxaliplatin (Eloxatin) 12) The nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with Hepatitis B. the family comes to visit and a family member asks the nurse if it's safe to visit. What is the nurse’s best response? Select one. A) “The patient should be isolated and have limited visitation” B) “You seem fearful. Why do you think you are at risk?” C) “There is no risk unless you come in contact with blood or body fluids” D) “Don’t worry, you will not contract the disease from the patient.” 13) The client is to receive thioridazine 150 mg PO twice a day. The medication is available as thioridazine 30 mg/ml. How many teaspoons should the nurse instruct the client to take for each dose? Select one. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 14) Which of the following statements from a group of young adults demonstrates the need for further teaching related to HIV and prevention of spread? Select one. A) “Having oral sex is one way I can prevent passing on HIV to my partner.” B) “Good perineal care following sex will not have an effect on the transmission of HIV.” C) “A woman can still get pregnant if she is HIV positive.” D) “My HIV medications do not prevent me from passing the virus on to my partners.” 15) The client is to recieve methyldopa 300 milligrams BID via nasogastric tube. The medication is available as methyldopa 250 milligrams per 5 mLs. How many milliliters does the nurse need to administer? Select one. A) 7.5 B) 6.5 C) 7 D) 6 16) A college student has been called into the student health office because she tested positive for HIV on the enzyme Musa pre-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The student asks, “What is this Western blot assay going to tell you?” The best response by the health care provider is: A) “The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens.” B) “We always want 2 positive test results before we give you medicine.” C) “This assay will actually look at all the individual cells in your blood and count how many HIV cells you have, so we can treat you with the proper medication.” D) “If you are afraid of another blood test, we can do a rapid oral test to see if we get the same results.” 17) A patient, aged 72, is brought to the clinic by her daughter. The daughter asks how often her mother should receive the influenza vaccine. What would be the nurse's best response? Select one. A) “Your mother should receive the vaccine once, with two booster injections” B) “Your mother needs the influenza vaccine yearly.” C) “Your mother needs the influenza vaccine every 10 years.” D) “Your mother only needs the influenza vaccine once in her lifetime.” 18) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a broad-spectrum anti-infective agent. The nurse would assess the patient for what common adverse effect of broad-spectrum anti-infective agents. Select one. A) Decrease in inflammation B) Destruction of normal flora C) Destruction of pathogens D) Decrease in infection 19) What infestation would the nurse suspect when the patient manifests with intestinal obstruction caused by the adult worms clogging the lumen of the intestine? Select one. A) Cestode B) Platyhelminth C) Trichinosis D Nematode 20) While discussing the effector function of activated members of the complement system, the faculty member will include which of the following concepts? Select all that apply. A) Chemotaxis B) mobilization of immunoglobulins C) phagocytosis D) pathogen lysis E) opsonization 21) In the usual course (stages) after a pathogen has entered the host body, the stage when the host initially develops the appearance of signs/symptoms like a mild fever and body aches is: Select one. A) Acute B) Convalescence C) Incubation D) Prodromal 22) Which of the following are accurate characteristics of prions? Select all that apply. A) Prions lack reproductive functions so are not very harmful to humans. B) Disease usually progresses slowly. C) Prions tend to aggregate into amyloid-like plaques in the brain. D) The primary manifestation includes ataxia and dementia. E) Prions are protease sensitive. 23) Which of the following clients is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection? Select one. A) a breast cancer client who has a WBC count of 8000 B) a hyperthyroid client who has received treatment with radioactive iodine C) a teenager who attends a crowded high school D) an AIDS client with a decreased CD4+ TH1 count 24) The client must receive phenytoin oral solution 100 milligrams PO 3 times a day. The medication is available as phenytoin oral solution 125 milligrams per 5 mLs. How many milliliters of medication would the client receive? Select one A) 4 B) 3 C) 3.5 D) 4.5 25) The client is to receive theophylline elixer 120 mg PO twice a day. The medication is available as theophylline elixer 80 mg per 15 mLs. How many milliliters of the medication would the client receive? Select one. A) 20 B) 27.5 C) 25 D) 22.5 Unit 6 1) While studying the antihypertensive drugs the, nursing students learn about the pressure in the cardiovascular system is determined by three elements. What are they? Select all that apply. A) Heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Preload D) Total peripheral resistance E) Pulse pressure 2) The nurse is providing patient teaching to a patient who has been prescribed Digoxin. The patient tells the nurse that she occasionally uses herbals and other alternative therapies. What herb would the nurse warn the patient to avoid taking with the digoxin. Select one. A) black cohosh B) ginseng C) Saw palmetto D) Valerian 3) What assessment finding would indicate the patient’s left-sided heart failure is worsening? A) Increased pulse rate B) Increased crackles in lung fields C) Increased jugular venous pressure D) Liver enlargement 4) 5) A patient is being discharged on Cholestyramine (Questran). Patient teaching should include what about this medication? Select one. A) Should be administered with other medications B) Should be administered on an empty stomach C) Should be administered 1 hour before or 4 to 6 hours after other medications D) Should be administered one hour after other medications 6) The nurse is taking a health history on a 38 year old man who is taking Atorvastatin (Lipitor) for high cholesterol. What will the nurse question specifically related to the safe use of this drug? Select one. A) Alcohol B) Caffine C) Herbal therapy D) Nicotine 7) For which of the following types of shock might intravenous antibiotic therapy be indicated? Select one. A) Hypovolemic shock B) Distributive shock C) Obstructive shock D) Cardiogenic shock 8) Which of the following individuals is suffering the effects of acute coronary syndrome (ACS)? A) A client who sometimes experiences chest pain when climbing stairs B) A client who occasionally experiences persistent and severe chest pain when at rest C) A client who has recently been diagnosed with vasospastic angina D) A client whose most recent ECG indicates that silent myocardial ischemia has occurred 9) A health care provider was asked by a client, “Why do my hands turn blue when I drive my car in the winter without gloves?” Which of the following is the best response? Select one. A) “Your arteries in your hands as fingers are going to spasm, which decreases blood flow and circulating oxygen.” B) “Nothing to worry about. We all develop this as we age.” C) “We better order a CT scan. It might be due to a blood clot in your radial artery.” D) “This sounds like an inflammation of the lining of your veins you need to take some NAIDS.” 10) A client awaiting a heart transplant is experiencing decompensation of her left ventricle that will not respond to medications. The physician suggests placing the client on a ventricular assist device (VAD). The client asks what this equipment will do. The health care providers respond. Select one. "This device will decrease the workload of the myocardium while maintaining cardiac output and systemic arterial pressure." 11) Which of the following assessment be suggestive of cardiac tamponade select one A) A normal ECG combined with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath B) Increasing PaCO2 and decreasing Pa02 C) A 20mm Hg drop in systolic blood pressure during respiration D) Audible crackles on the chest auscultation and presence of frothy sputum 12) The nurse would anticipate that which of the following clients we considered a great candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)? Select one. A) A 56-year-old with a history of MI experiencing new onset chest pain and ST elevation B) A 24 year old auto accident client diagnosed with pericardial effusion and cardiac effusion and cardiac tamponade C) A 87 year old client admitted with uncontrolled dilated cardiomyopathy D) A 78 year old client admitted with increasing fatigue related to aortic stenosis 13) The nurse is preparing to teach the patient about diet therapy when beginning by sequestrant medication to lower lipid levels. What important teaching point will the nurse include in this teaching plan? Select one. A) Increasing carbohydrate intake B) Increasing fiber intake C) Reducing fluid intake D) Reducing protein intake 14) Which of the following statements about vascular compliance is accurate? Select one. A) Arteries have thick muscular walls that constrict tightly, thereby ejecting blood without storing it for use later. B) A continuous flow through the capillaries occurs primarily during systole. C) Veins can act as a reservoir for storing large quantities of blood. D) Arteries are much more distensible than veins. 15) The emergency department nurse is asked to prepare a nitroprusside (Nitropress) infusion for a patient being brought to the hospital in an ambulance. The nurse knows this drug is only used in what circumstances? a) Hypertensive emergencies b) Hypertension in a patient having a myocardial infarction c) Hypertension complicated by symptoms of a stroke d) Hypertension associated with diabetic ketoacidosis 16) The nurse provides teaching about Digoxin to the 62 year old patient. The nurse evaluates patient understanding and determinates further teaching is needed when the patient says she will do what? Select one. A) Take the medication with a meal B) Weigh herself daily at the same time C) Take the medication daily in the morning D) Take her pulse before taking her down 17) What class of antiarrhythmic agent would the nurse be most likely to administer to a lactating new mother? Select one. A) Class Ib B) Class II C) Class III D) Class IV 18) A client with a diagnosis heart failure has returned from a visit with his primary care provider with a prescription for the change in his daily medication regimen. Which of the following drugs is likely to improve the client cardiac function by increasing the force and strength of ventricular contractions? Select one. A) An ACE inhibitor B) A cardiac glycoside C) A diuretic D) An adrenergic blocker 19) Upon admission assessment, the nurse hears a murmur located at the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. The client asks, “What does that mean?” The nurse will base her answer on which of the following physiological principles? A) “You have a heart valve that is diseased.” B) “Your heart has enlarged, so naturally your valves had to enlarge as well.” C) “You have been exposed to infection that went into your bloodstream.” D) “Your heart has been pumping your blood so hard, that pressure has damaged the valves.” 20) A patient who has been taking cyclosporine to prevent rejection of a kidney transplant has had diltiazem ordered. Why would the nurse question this order? A) Serious diltiazem toxicity could occur. B) The combination may result in elevated or even toxic cyclosporine levels. C) The combination could lead to kidney rejection. D) A kidney recipient would not effectively excrete the diltiazem. 21) If the parasympathetic neurotransmitter releases acetylcholine, the nurse should anticipate observing the following changes in the ECG pattern? Select one. A. Heart rate 150 beats/minute, labeled as supraventricular tachycardia B. Slowing of heart rate to below 60 beats/minute C. Complete cardiac standstill D. Disorganized ventricular fibrillation 22) What would the nurse teach the patient about potency of Nitroglycerin? Select all apply. A) Older tablets may require you use 2 tabs at a time B) “The tablet should fizzle or burn when placed under the tongue.” C) “Protect the drug from heat and light.” D) “Always replace when past the expiration date.” E) “Nitroglycerin doesn't lose its potency easily.” 23) The nurse is preparing a patient for discharge who will receive a prescription for a beta-hydroxy-beta- methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) inhibitor What statement by the patient demonstrates that they have a clear understanding of the teahing provided by the nurse? Select one. A) "I will not need to follow that low-fat diet anymore because this drug will take care of my lipids." B) "I should plan to take this drug before bedtime, because my body makes lipids mostly at night." C) "After I start taking this drug, I will not have to worry about the exercise routine the doctor prescribed." D) "I should take this drug first thing in the morning and make sure I drink a full glass of water." 24) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been noncompliant with treatment for hypertension. The nurse explains that untreated hypertension increases the risk of what? Select all that apply. A) Renal disease B) Cholecystitis C) Migraine headache D) Heart failure E) Cerebral infarction 25) A client is receiving home care for the treatment of a wound on the inside of her lower leg that is 3 centimeters in diameter with a yellow wound bed and clear exudate. Assessment of the client’s legs reveals edema and a darkened pigmentation over the ankles and shins of both legs what is the clients most likely diagnosis A) Chronic venous insufficiency B) Peripheral arterial disease C) Varicose veins D) Deep vein thrombosis Unit 7 1) Dry itchy plaques on her elbows and knees have prompted a 23-year-old woman to seek care. The clinician has subsequently diagnosed the client with psoriasis, a disorder that results from. Select one. A) Increased epidermal cell turnover B) Human papilloma virus (HPV) C) An Igf mediated immune reaction D) Hormonal influences on sebaceous gland activity 2) 3) The nurse administers polymyxin B to a patient with a gram-negative bacterial infection. What symptoms would cause the nurse to suspect drug fever, hold the medication and call the health care provider immediately? Select all that apply. A) Ataxia B) Reduced urine output C) Dizziness D) Fever E) Increased activity 4) The physician ordered furosemide 100mg in 250 mL of D5W. It is to infuse at 25 mg/hour per infusion pump. How many hours will the IV run? Round to the nearest hour. Select one. A) 6 B) 8 C) 4 D) 10 5) A child weighs 30 pounds. How many kilograms does this child weigh? Round to the nearest hundredth. A) 13.93 B) 13.84 C) 13.73 D) 13.64 6) An 85-year-old man who is a resident in an extended care facility has athlete’s foot. After applying an antifungal cream what is the nurses next action? A) Apply clean dry socks B) Wipe away excess medication from the affected area C) Elevate the feet for 30 minutes D) Wrap a sterile cling dressing around both feet 7) A client is exhibiting manifestations of superficial dermatophytosis of the skin with skin scaling and nail disintegration. Based on these findings the nurse can anticipate that the client will be with prescribed what? Select all that apply. A) An antifungal like ketoconazole B) Topical corticosteroid C) An antihistamine like Benadryl D) An antibiotic like tetracycline 8) A 44-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department with severe electrical burns resulting from a workplace accident. The most immediate threat to this client’s survival at this time is? Select one. A) Acute pain B) Decrease protein synthesis and impaired healing C) Infection D) Hemodynamic instability 9) The nurse administers erythromycin, a drug that is known to irritate the mucosa in the stomach lining. When the patient reports abdominal discomfort after taking this medication, the nurse would classify this discomfort as what type of adverse effect? Select one. A) Allergic reaction B) Hypersensitivity reaction C) Secondary action D) Primary action 10) The nurse explains that the drugs metronidazole (Flagyl) or Tinidazole (Tindamax) can be administered to treat what protozoan infections? Select all that apply. A) Giardiasis B) Cryptosporidium parvum C) Trichomoniasis D) Amebiasis E) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia 11) The patient, a physician returning from a trip to the tropics, is prescribed chloroqine and asks how it works. What is the nurses best response? Select one. Changes the metabolic pathways necessary for the reproduction of the plasmodium. 12) A child has been admitted to the burn unit after pulling a pan of hot water off the stove. Given the fact that there is primarily second- and third-degree burns, the health care worker should prioritize care to focus on which of the following? Select all that apply. a. Focus on replacing fluids that have been lost from the vascular, interstitial, and cellular compartments. b. Assess for indications that the child's airway has been compromised by assessing breath sounds and voice quality. c. Maintain sterile field when doing dressing changes and debridement. d. Withhold foods/nutrition since the GI tract may have slowed down in response to stress. e. Minimize pain medication administration to not compromise the child's respiratory effort. 13) The nurse collects the past medical history of a patient new to the clinic. The patient states he or she has an allergy to penicillin. What would the nurse question next? Select all that apply. A) How many doses were administered before the reaction occurred? B) What signs and symptoms were displayed with the reaction? C) How was the medication administered? D) What treatment was required to control the allergic reaction? E) Had the medication ever been prescribed before the time when the reaction occurred? 14) A 5-year-old girl has been presented for care by her father due to her recent development of macules on her trunk, extremities, and mucous membranes. The child is mildly febrile but her primary symptom is extreme pruritus. What disorder of the skin should the clinician who is assessing the child first suspect? A) Impetigo B) Rosacea C) Lichen planus D) Varicella 15) A child weighs 40 kg, and the recommended dosages of clindamycin palmitate hydrochloride oral suspension is 8 to 25mg/kg/day in four divided doses. What is the maximum dosage for this child in 24 hours? Select one. A) 320 B) 640 C) 500 D) 1000 16) Which of the following actions could result in pressure sore formation? A) Applying powder to the buttocks area when diaphoresis has become a problem B) Turning a client from side to side every 2 hours C) Pulling a stroke patient up in bed D) Allowing a client to sit up in a chair at mealtimes 17) Papulosquamous dermatoses, such as psoriasis, are a group of skin disorders characterized by? Select one. A) Granular scabbing B) Raised red boarders C) Scaling papules D) Nodular ulcerations 18) The physician ordered 100 units of regular insulin in 250mL of NS. It is to infuse at 8 units/hour per infusion pump. What is the correct IV rate in milliliters per hour? Round to the nearest whole number. A) 16 B) 18 C) 22 D) 20 19) The nurse admits a patient suspected of having a fungal infection. What action will the nurse need to take before a systemic antifungal can be prescribed? Select all that apply. A) Assess history of lymphatic disease B) Initiate IV therapy C) Assess history of liver and kidney disease D) Obtain a culture of the fungus E) Request the patient sign a consent form 20) The clinic nurse provides teaching for a patient prescribed pyrimethamine (Daraprim) to prevent malaria and instructs on the need to notify the prescriber immediately if what signs and symptoms occur. Select one. A) Diarrhea, fatigue, weight loss, and anemia B) Irritation, rash, or inflammation C) Headache, nausea, or constipation D) Anorexia, nausea, or vomiting 21) Overuse of anti-infective agents is known to contribute to the onset of superinfections in the body. What is a causative agent of a superinfection? Select one. a. Escherichia coli b. Probenecid c. Protozoans d. Pseudomonas 22) The physician ordered metaraminol 50mg in 250 mL of D5W. It is to infuse at 50mcg/minute per infusion pump. What is the correct IV rate in milliliters per hour? Round to the nearest whole number. A) 20 B) 15 C) 25 D) 10 23) Which of the following changes are normal in the elderly population? Select all that apply. A) the dermis and epidermis thin as one age B) An increase in the amount of subcutaneous tissue C) a thickening of blood vessels D) Increased amount of padding on the buttocks E) skin may become dry, rough and scaly 24) A client has just received the diagnosis of malignant melanoma. He asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should respond relaying which of the following information? Select all that apply. A) This cancer rarely metastasizes B) Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer C) Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B). D) This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area. 25) The nurse needs to consider teratogenic effects of medications when caring for what population of patients? A) Older adults B) Young adult women C) Patients with a history of cancer D) Children [Show Less]
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