NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (Latest-2022, Version-2) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing
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NR507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing
Chamberlain NR 507 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology
Question 1
Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
Hemolytic anemia
Pernicious anemia
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Myasthenia gravis
Question 2
How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s.
Question 3
What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
Encephalocele
Meningocele
Spina bifida occulta
Myelomeningocele
Question 4
Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long?
6 to 8 weeks
8 to 12 months
Until the iron level is normal
The rest of one’s life
Question 5
Cytokines are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator?
Leukotriene
Histamine
Prostaglandin
Bradykinin
Question 6
The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a BMI of:
18.5 to 24.9
25 to 29.9
30 to 39.9
40 to 50.9
IncorrectQuestion 7
When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?
Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.
Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.
The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble to water-soluble form.
The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.
Question 8
Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia?
Increasing rate and depth of breathing
Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction
Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen
Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin
Question 9
An infant has a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole, as well as a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect
Question 10
Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Human papillomavirus
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Question 11
When renin is released, it is capable of which action?
Inactivation of autoregulation
Direct activation of angiotensin II
Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Formation of angiotensin I
Question 12
What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
Greater quantities of histamine
More histamine receptors
Greater quantities of IgE
A deficiency in epinephrine
Question 13
What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera?
Decreased erythrocyte count
Destruction of erythrocytes
Increased blood viscosity
Neurologic involvement
Question 14
Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood?
Superior vena cava
Aorta
Inferior vena cava
Pulmonary veins
Question 15
Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize:
Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens
Question 16
What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)?
20%
25%
33%
50%
Question 17
Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
Blood vessels
Epithelial cells
Connective tissue
Glandular tissue
Question 18
Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypercalcemia
Question 19
The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
Infectivity
Toxigenicity
Pathogenicity
Virulence
Question 20
An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect
Question 21
Which cancer originates from connective tissue?
Osteogenic sarcoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Multiple myeloma
Adenocarcinoma
Question 22
Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure?
Iron
Erythropoietin
Cobalamin (vitamin B12)
Folate
Question 23
Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting?
Monocytes
Platelets
Macrophages
Erythrocytes
Question 24
What is the term for a herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull?
Encephalocele
Meningocele
Arachnoidocele
Cephacephalocele
Question 25
A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
Hemolytic shock
Anaphylaxis
Necrotizing vasculitis
Systemic erythematosus
Question 26
Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers?
Slow contraction speed
Fast conduction velocities
Profuse capillary supply
Oxidative metabolism
Question 27
What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?
Idiopathic
Incomplete
Pathologic
Greenstick
Question 28
What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?
Limbic system
Parietal lobe
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Question 29
The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is:
Posterior
Inferior
Anterior
Superior
Question 30
Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?
Paroxysmal
Tardive
Hyperkinesia
Cardive
Question 31
Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep?
Non-REM
Light
REM
Delta wave
Question 32
Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?
Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness
IncorrectQuestion 33
Where is oxytocin synthesized?
Hypothalamus
Paraventricular nuclei
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
IncorrectQuestion 34
What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma
Toxoplasmosis
Cytomegalovirus
Question 35
Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?
Hemorrhagic
Thrombotic
Embolic
Lacunar
Question 36
How many days does it take for the entire epithelial population of the small intestines to be replaced?
30 to 45
15 to 25
7 to 15
4 to 7
Question 37
What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
Agnosia
Aphasia
Akinesia
Dysphasia
Question 38
Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of:
Decreased production of aqueous humor
Increased production of vitreous humor
Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor
Excessive destruction of vitreous humor
Question 39
What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood?
Chondrosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Ewing Sarcoma
Osteosarcoma
Question 40
What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
Diet high in saturated fats
Increased production of cholesterol by the liver
Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces
Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
Question 41
Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
Sodium intake
Physical inactivity
Psychosocial stress
Obesity
Question 42
Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone?
Thyroxine
Aldosterone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Insulin
Question 43
When does the male body begin to produce sperm?
Before birth
Shortly after birth
At puberty
When erection is possible
Question 44
Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 45
Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?
Phosphorus
Calcium
Alkaline phosphatase
Total protein
Question 46
What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
Reduced excretion of purines
Overproduction of uric acid
Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels
Overproduction of proteoglycans
Question 47
Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Haemophilus
Question 48
Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition?
NSAIDs
Estrogen
SSRIs
Progesterone
Question 49
What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation?
Down syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
Question 50
Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?
Potassium
Calcium
Sodium
Phosphorus
Question 51
Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones?
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Estrogen
Question 52
The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone?
Thyroxine
Insulin
Cortisol.
Antidiuretic hormone
Question 53
Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor?
Norepinephrine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid
Serotonin
Dopamine
Question 54
In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:
Disruption in the hypothalamus
Disruption of the pituitary
Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
Physiologic hormonal delays
Question 55
Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?
Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally
Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles
Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps
Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue
Question 56
What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty?
It becomes thinner.
It becomes thicker.
It assumes a neutral pH.
It undergoes atrophy.
Question 57
What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
Breast enlargement
Growth of pubic hair
Menstruation
Vaginal discharge
Question 58
Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact?
Dislocation
Subluxation
Malunion
Nonunion
Question 59
What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
Small channels called canaliculi
Osteocytes within the lacunae
Tiny spaces within the lacunae
Haversian system
Question 60
What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
Sharpey fibers
Collagen fibers
Glycoproteins
Elastin fibers
Question 61
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of:
Positive feedback
Negative feedback
Neural regulation
Physiologic regulation
Question 62
Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
Premenstrual syndrome
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Primary dysmenorrhea
Question 63
The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (wolffian system) in utero?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Growth hormone
Testosterone
Question 64
Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by:
Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces
Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells
Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas
Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production
Question 65
Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Thyroxine (T4)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Triiodothyronine (T3)
Question 66
An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
C
B12
B6
D
Question 67
What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?
Enhancement of the motility of sperm
Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule
Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria
Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse
Question 68
Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?
Thyroxine
Oxytocin
Growth hormone
Insulin
Question 69
Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
Heads of the femur
Distal femurs
Heads of the humerus
Distal tibias
Question 70
An individual’s genetic makeup is referred to as his or her:
Phenotype
Genotype
Heterozygous locus
Homozygous locus
Question 71
What term is used to identify the calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout?
Stones
Spurs
Tophi
Nodes
Question 72
Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
Parietal
Chief
G
H
Question 73
A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
3
6
9
12
Question 74
A major characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus is that there is:
Partial insulin secretion
An autoimmune cause factor
Insulin resistance
Obesity as a common risk factor
Question 75
Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?
Optic (CN I)
Abducens (CN VI)
Oculomotor (CN III)
Trochlear (CN IV) [Show Less]