The purpose of a Professional Code of Ethics Includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the Exception?
A. to achieve high levels of practice
B.
... [Show More] to achieve high levels of integrity
C. to achieve high levels of decision making
D. to achieve high levels of ethical consciousness - ANSWER-B. Achieve high levels of integrity
Which of the following examples of the Core Values in the dental hygiene Code of Ethics deals with the practitioner?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Societal Trust
D. Non-Maleficence - ANSWER-D. Non-Maleficence
Which of the following Core Values states that patients have a right to privacy and freedom of choice?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Societal Trust
D. Confidentiality
E. Non-Maleficence - ANSWER-A. Autonomy
Providing dental screenings would be an example of which Core Value?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Societal Trust
E. Community Service - ANSWER-C. Beneficence (promoting well being of individuals and the public)
Which of the following is the best way to avoid a dental lawsuit?
A. Proper Diagnosis
B. Proper Documentation
C. Moderation of Treatment
D. Verification of treatment plan by dentist - ANSWER-B. Proper Documentation (as well as charting and communication)
Placing a sealant on a Child's tooth without getting parental consent is an example of:
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Negligence
D. Defamation - ANSWER-B. Battery
Which of the following is OSHA NOT responsible for?
A. Employer
B. Employee
C. Clinics and Facilities
D. Material safety and data sheets - ANSWER-A. Employer (OSHA= for employees) does not include the employer
COBRA (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) gives individuals the right to keep group health insurance benefits for:
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
E. 36 months - ANSWER-C. 18 months
All of the following are true about informed consent EXCEPT one. Which is the exception?
A. prognosis
B. Cost of procedure
C. Alternatives to procedure
D. Benefits/risks of procedure
E. Presented in understandable language - ANSWER-B. Cost of procedure
The statute of limitations for a dental lawsuit is?
A. 6 months
B. 12 Months
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
E. No definitive time - ANSWER-E. No definitive time
Each of the following is true for Steam Sterilization except one. Which is the exception?
A. Corrodes non-stainless (carbon) steel
B. Is acceptable for some plastics, cotton rolls, gauze
C. Spore test is Bacillus Atrophaeus
D. Dulls instrument - ANSWER-C. Spore test is B. Atrophaeus. The STEAM spore test is Geobaccillus sterothermophilus (B. atrophaeus is for dry heat)
Each is an example of regulated biohazards waste EXCEPT one. Which is the exception?
A. Extracted 3rd molar
B. Porcelain fused to meal crown that needs to be re-cemented
C. Used anesthetic needle
D. Gauze saturated in blood - ANSWER-B. Porcelain fused to metal crown that needs to be re-cemented
Air polishing can be completed for each of the following procedures EXCEPT:
A. Remove stain
B. Detoxify roots
C. Prepare tooth for sealant
D. Clean composite restorations - ANSWER-D. Clean composite restorations. should not be used because it may pit the restorative material
Each of the following is a cause of endogenous staining EXCEPT:
A. plural necrosis
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Tetracycline ingestion during tooth development
D. Internal resorption - ANSWER-B. Chlorhexidine (cause for exogenous stain)
Which method of fluoride delivery provides the maximum protection against dental caries with the least potential causing dental fluorosis?
A. Dietary supplements
B. Food sources
C. Professional fluoride applications
D. Controlled water fluoridation - ANSWER-D. Controlled water fluoridation
Acute Fluoride toxicity:
A. is the amount of fluoride ingested likely to cause death of not intercepted by antidotal therapy
B. Is the safely tolerated dose
C. begins with flu-like symptoms within 30 minutes of ingestion that can last up to 24 hours
D. Causes dental fluorosis - ANSWER-C. Begins with flu-like symptoms within 30 min of ingestion that can last up to 24 hours
Which physiotherapy aid is the BEST choice for a patient with exposed root surfaces (recession)?
A. Wedge Stimulator
B. Tufted floss
C. Floss Holder
D. Oral irrigator - ANSWER-A. Wedge stimulator
Which area specific Gracey curet debrides the mesial, facial and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth?
A. 7/8
B. 11/12
C. 13/14
D. 15/16 - ANSWER-B. 11/12
(15/16 is best for just mesial surfaces of posterior teeth)
Which disinfectant leaves a film or residue on surfaces?
A. Phenols
B. Iodophors
C. Quaternary compounds
D. Chlorine- based compounds - ANSWER-A. Phenols
which of the following characteristics does NOT pertain to Chlorhexidine Gluconate?
A. Bacteriocidal
B. Suppresses Streptococcus mutans
C. Possesses low substantivity
D. Its action is inactivated by sodium laurel sulfate - ANSWER-C. possesses low substantivity (Chlorhexidine possesses high substantivity)
A material that is highly ductile
A. will easily break when stretched
B. Can undergo a change of form without breaking
C. Will generate an electrical current in an acidic environment
D. Can recover its original shape after having undergone a force - ANSWER-B. Can undergo change of form without breaking
Silver amalgam alloys contain copper to:
A. Minimize galvanism
B. Reduce rate of corrosion
C. Reduce thermal conductivity
D. Improve compressive strength - ANSWER-B. Reduce rate of corrosion
The liner most commonly used to stimulate the development of secondary dentin in the event of pulp exposure is
A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc oxide/eugenol
C. Zinc phosphate cement
D. Resin- modified glass ionomer - ANSWER-A. Calcium hydroxide
to slow the set of gypsum and gain more working time in pouring a model, a person would:
A. Mix with hot water
B. Add borax to the mix
C. Mix with really cold water
D. Add potassium sulfate to the mix - ANSWER-B. Add borax. (Borax is a chemical retardant in the setting of gypsum materials)
The best dental wax to modify an impression tray is:
A. Sticky wax
B. Utility wax
C. Boxing wax
D. Baseplate wax - ANSWER-B. Utility wax (soft, easily molded and is highly useful in modifying an impression tray)
The primary benefit of using noble metals in restorative alloys is:
A. They are less expensive
B. They are highly allergenic
C. They are extremely cosmetic
D. They resist tarnish and corrosion - ANSWER-D. They resist tarnish and corrosion (will last longer)
Contraindications to implant placement include:
A. Inadequate bone
B. Uncontrolled periodontal disease
C. History of bisphosphonate therapy
D. All of the above - ANSWER-D. All of the above (biophosphonate therapy diminishes a bone's blood supply making it susceptible to necrosis following implant surgery)
A leading cause of dentinal hypersensitivity is due to the incorporation of what ingredient in toothpaste?
A. Baking soda
B. Pyrophosphates
C. Potassium nitrate
D. Hydrogen peroxide - ANSWER-B. Pyrophosphates
According to G.V. Black's classification of restorations, an anterior proximal filling would be:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV - ANSWER-C. Class III
One of the benefits of using glass ionomer cement, is that?
A. It releases fluoride
B. It is mixed with poly acrylic acid
C. It has a high chemical affinity for enamel
D. It undergoes an exothermic reaction when mixed - ANSWER-A. It releases fluoride
The instrument of choice for detecting an overhanging margin is a:
A. Probe
B. Scaler
C. Curette
D. Explorer - ANSWER-D. Explorer
A materials resistance to flow is measured by its:
A. Ductility
B. Viscosity
C. Elasticity
D. Malleability - ANSWER-B. Viscosity. High viscosity= slow flow
The strength of a composite restoration is highest when:
A. its made only of nano fill particles
B. Its made only of microfill particles
C. Its made only of particles that are easy to polish
D. Its made of a blend of both large and small particles - ANSWER-D. Its made of a blend of both large and small particles
The dental cement most known for generating heat when mixed is:
A. Resin
B. Glass ionomer
C. Zinc Phosphate
D. Polycarboxylate - ANSWER-C. Zinc Phosphate
The active ingredient in "gum-care" toothpastes is:
A. triclosan
B. sodium citrate
C. pyrophosphate
D. Carbamide peroxide - ANSWER-A. Triclosan- antimicrobial agent
Three of the seven bones which compromise the orbit include:
A. Ethmoid, frontal, parietal
B. Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Parietal
C. Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Zygoma
D. Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Temporal - ANSWER-C. Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Zygoma
Four cranial nerves providing innervation to the tongue include:
A. V, VI, IX and X
B. V, VI, VII and IX
C. V, VII, IX, XII
D. V, VI, VII and VIII - ANSWER-C. V, VII, IX, XII (trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal and Hypoglossal)
The muscles of mastication most responsible for protrusion of the jaw are:
A. Masseters
B. Temporalis
C. Medial Pterygoids
D. Lateral Pterygoids - ANSWER-D. Lateral pterygoids (shift side to side or protrude)
The articular fossa is provided by what bone?
A. Parietal
B. Occipital
C. Sphenoid
D. Temporal - ANSWER-D. Temporal
Wharton's duct empties the:
A. Glands of Von Ebner
B. Parotid salivary glands
C. Sublingual salivary glands
D. Submandibular salivary glands - ANSWER-D. Submandibular salivary glands
The Keratinized papillae of the tongue are:
A. Foliate
B. Filiform
C. Fungiform
D. Circumvallate - ANSWER-B. Filiform (most numerous of dorsal surface) used to protect the tongue- not for taste
Three developmental processes must fuse to create the upper lip. They are:
A. Median nasal, lateral nasal, globular
B. Globular and the left and right maxillary processes
C. Left and right maxillary processes and the 1st branchial arch
D. Lateral nasal, globular and the left an [Show Less]