HESI DENTAL HYGIENE/ NBDHE DENTAL HYGIENIST Exam Bundle ... - $24.45 Add To Cart
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abstain - ANSWER-to voluntary refrain from something acute - ANSWER-sudden, intense adhere - ANSWER-To hold fast or stick together adverse - ANSWE... [Show More] R-Undesired, possibly harmful aegis - ANSWER-control, protection ambivalent - ANSWER-uncertain, having contradictory feelings assent - ANSWER-To give consent; to agree audiable - ANSWER-able to be heard bilateral - ANSWER-present on two sides cardiac - ANSWER-of or relating to the heart cavity - ANSWER-An opening or an empty area cease - ANSWER-come to an end or bring to an end chronology - ANSWER-order of events as they occurred; timeline compensatory - ANSWER-offsetting or making up for something concave - ANSWER-Rounded inward concise - ANSWER-brief and to the point Consistency - ANSWER-degree of viscosity; how thick or thin a fluid is in relation to how it flows constrict - ANSWER-To draw together or become smaller contingent - ANSWER-dependent contradiction - ANSWER-a reason something is not advisable or should not be done convulsive - ANSWER-having or causing convulsions, i.e., violent shaking of the body cursory - ANSWER-quick, perfunctory, not thorough defecate - ANSWER-Expel feces deficit - ANSWER-A deficiency or lack of something depress - ANSWER-Press downward depth - ANSWER-Downward measurement from a surface deteriorating - ANSWER-worsening device - ANSWER-Tool or piece of equipment diagnosis - ANSWER-Identification of an injury or disease dilate - ANSWER-To enlarge or expand dilute - ANSWER-To make a liquid less concentrated discrete - ANSWER-Distinct, separate distal - ANSWER-Distant; away from the center (such as of the body) distended - ANSWER-Enlarged or expanded from pressure dysfunction - ANSWER-Impaired or abnormal functioning empathy - ANSWER-ability to share what others are feeling; understanding the feelings of another Equilibrium - ANSWER-balance Etiology - ANSWER-the origin or cause of a disease or condition exacerbate - ANSWER-to make worse or more severe extension - ANSWER-lengthening; unbending a joint external - ANSWER-Located outside the body fatigue - ANSWER-Extreme tiredness, exhaustion flexion - ANSWER-bending a joint flushed - ANSWER-Reddened or ruddy appearance gastrointestinal - ANSWER-Of or relating to the stomach and the intestines hematologic - ANSWER-Of or relating to blood hydration - ANSWER-Maintenance of body fluid balance hygiene - ANSWER-Measures contributing to cleanliness and good health impaired - ANSWER-Diminished or lacking some usual quality or level impending - ANSWER-occurring in the near future, about to happen impervious - ANSWER-impenetrable, not allowing anything to pass through imply - ANSWER-to suggest without explicitly stating incidence - ANSWER-occurrence infection - ANSWER-Contamination or invasion of body tissue by pathogenic organisms infer - ANSWER-to conclude or deduce initiate - ANSWER-To begin or put into practice intact - ANSWER-In place, unharmed internal - ANSWER-Located within the body invasive - ANSWER-Inserting or entering into a body part kinetic - ANSWER-of or related to movement labile - ANSWER-Changing rapidly and often laceration - ANSWER-a cut, tear latent - ANSWER-Present but not active or visible lateral - ANSWER-on the side lethargic - ANSWER-Difficult to arouse manifestation - ANSWER-an indication or sign of a condition Musculoskeletal - ANSWER-Of or relating to muscle and skeleton neurologic - ANSWER-of or relating to the nervous system Neurovascular - ANSWER-Of or relating to the nervous system and blood vessels nutrient - ANSWER-substance or ingredient that provides nourishment occluded - ANSWER-closed or obstructed ongoing - ANSWER-continuous oral - ANSWER-Given through or affecting the mouth otic - ANSWER-of the ear parameter - ANSWER-A characteristic or constant factor, limit patent - ANSWER-open pathogenic - ANSWER-causing or able to cause disease pathology - ANSWER-Processes, causes, and effects of a disease; abnormality posterior - ANSWER-Located behind; in the back potent - ANSWER-producing a strong effect potential - ANSWER-capable of occurring or likely to occur precaution - ANSWER-preventive measure precipitous - ANSWER-rapid, uncontrolled predispose - ANSWER-to make more susceptible or more likely to occur preexisting - ANSWER-already present primary - ANSWER-First or most significant priority - ANSWER-of great importance prognosis - ANSWER-the anticipated or expected course or outcome rationale - ANSWER-the underlying reason recur - ANSWER-to occur again renal - ANSWER-of or relating to the kidneys Respiration - ANSWER-Inhalation and exhalation of air. restrict - ANSWER-to limit retain - ANSWER-to hold or keep serene - ANSWER-calm, tranquil status - ANSWER-condition sublingual - ANSWER-under the tongue supplement - ANSWER-To take in addition to or to complete suppress - ANSWER-to stop or subdue symmetric - ANSWER-Being equal or the same in size, shape, and relative position symptom - ANSWER-An indication of a problem syndrome - ANSWER-Group of symptoms that, when occurring together, reflect a specific disease or disorder therapeutic - ANSWER-Of or relating to the treatment of a disease or a disorder toxic - ANSWER-causing harm, poisonous transdermal - ANSWER-Crossing through the skin transmission - ANSWER-Transfer, such as of a disease, from one person to another trauma - ANSWER-injury, wound triage - ANSWER-Process used to determine the priority of treatment for patients according to the severity of a patient's condition and likelihood of benefit from the treatment ubiquitous - ANSWER-being or seeing to be everywhere at once urinate - ANSWER-excrete or expel urine vascular - ANSWER-Of or relating to blood vessels verbal - ANSWER-spoken, using words virulent - ANSWER-extremely harmful and severe virus - ANSWER-Microscopic infectious agent capable of replicating only in living cells, usually causing infectious disease vital - ANSWER-essential volume - ANSWER-Amount of space occupied by a fluid [Show Less]
Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found? - ANSWER-Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified b... [Show More] y systemic factors A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - ANSWER-Ankyloglossia When is tooth eruption complete? - ANSWER-Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing jaw When does mixed dentition begin? - ANSWER-Eruption of first permanent tooth How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - ANSWER-20 The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - ANSWER-The first statement is true and the second is false Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - ANSWER-reduced permeability Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar? - ANSWER-Distolingual Which is true regarding the height of contour? - ANSWER-Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? - ANSWER-14 primary; 10 permanent Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - ANSWER-line angle Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incised edge or angle? - ANSWER-IV Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - ANSWER-Oblique Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - ANSWER-Mandibular Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? - ANSWER-VII Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - ANSWER-mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - ANSWER-Sublingual Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - ANSWER-Synovial Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion? - ANSWER-autonomic; sympathetic Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? - ANSWER-First statement is true second statement is false Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - ANSWER-Aciduric Anaerobe bacteria - ANSWER-grow only in the absence of oxygen Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - ANSWER-capsule Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - ANSWER-Psychrophils Endotoxin is a virulence property of - ANSWER-gram-negative bacteria When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - ANSWER-enter host cells before they can multiply Which is treated with nystatin? - ANSWER-Candidiasis Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine? - ANSWER-Anti-HBs Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves? - ANSWER-I Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis? - ANSWER-Streptococcus Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Ethambutol B. Isoniazid C. Nizoral D. Rifampin - ANSWER-C. Nizoral Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - ANSWER-Repaired congenital heart disease It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic predication? - ANSWER-Renal dialysis shunt A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - ANSWER-take medication four times a day Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO REFILLS" - ANSWER-schedule II controlled substance Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? - ANSWER-Cobalamin (vitamin B-12) Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure) Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - ANSWER-Kale! ;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - ANSWER-Albuterol short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack Lipitor is a/an - ANSWER-statin (lowers cholesterol levels) Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium. - ANSWER-Both the statement and reason are correct but not related. Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb calcium. Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - ANSWER-Steak, brown rice, and corn Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli, strawberries, and cantaloupe Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates? - ANSWER-Iron Nitrogen is found in protein, but not carbohydrates. Iron is not an element found in either nutrient. Carbon and oxygen are found in carbohydrates and proteins. Some vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of - ANSWER-intestinal bacteria Which vitamin is associated with the deficiency beriberi? - ANSWER-Thiamin Which is primarily responsible for pharmacologic metabolism? - ANSWER-Liver Which procedure establishes the most definitive diagnosis for oral cancer? - ANSWER-Scalpel biopsy A 17 yr old presents for a third molar evaluation. The panoramic radiograph reveals the apical thirst of roots #1 & #2 have fused together. Which best defines this anomaly? - ANSWER-Concrescence Concrescence is the fusion of 2 individually developed teeth with cementum only. Gemination occurs when a single tooth bud forms tow joined teeth. A patient's intramural examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures 2mm diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. Which best defines the lesion? - ANSWER-Hemangioma Intraoral lesions may occur with each of the following condition EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Basal cell carcinoma Basal cell carcinoma is a skin tumor often found the face or lips, not the oral cavity. Which infectious disease is NOT caused by the coxsackievirus? - ANSWER-Verruca vulgaris Verruca vulgaris is an oral wart caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV) In which region does an early symptom of measles appear? - ANSWER-Buccal mucosa A pregnant woman reports a freely moveable, deep red tissue mass, which extends from the labial gingival between maxillary right premolars. The surface of the lesion is ulcerated and bleeds easily. A histologic analysis indicates the lesion is composed of connective tissue, capillaries, and inflammatory cells. Which best defines the lesion? - ANSWER-Pyogenic granuloma A patient's buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. This finding is a clinical manifestation of - ANSWER-lichen plants The parents of a 7 yr old are concerned by the development a soft, blue, vesicle-like swelling on the gingiva where tooth #8 is expected to erupt. No significant radiographic findings exist other than the partial eruption of tooth #8. Which course of action is recommended? - ANSWER-No treatment is required; the cyst will dissipate naturally. Which best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris? - ANSWER-Autoimmune response The most common tumor of the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on the floor of the mouth. - ANSWER-The first statement is false, the second is true. During pregnancy, when do most embryonic cleft malformations occur? - ANSWER-First trimester Where is chronic atrophic candidiasis most likely found? - ANSWER-Palate Which description best explains the phenomenon of referred pain? - ANSWER-Convergence of sensory nerve impulses Which results will ensue if a kilovolt peak (kVp) below 65 is used when exposing radiographs? - ANSWER-Exposure to radiation is increased Each of the following compounds is used to fluoridate domestic water systems EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Acidulated phosphate B. Hydrofluorosilicic acid C. Sodium fluoride D. Sodium silicofluoride - ANSWER-Acidulated phosphate Acidulated phosphate is an in-office, professional topical fluoride. Most dental sealants places are self cured because this process allows for a longer working time for the operator. - ANSWER-NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct. Each of the following patients would benefit from prescription fluoride supplements EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-33 yr old female in her second trimester of pregnancy who drinks unfluoridated water. In addition to bleeding, which other characteristic best describes a mild case of gingivitis? - ANSWER-Areas of pseudopocketing Each of the following are true concerning professionally applied topical fluoride in a tray EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Ask patient to rinse thoroughly following the application to prevent ingestion. Which most effectively identifies plaque biofilm on tooth surfaces? - ANSWER-Disclosing agent Mobility is a risk factor for periodontal disease progression. Mobility is measures using bidigital evaluation when teeth are not occluded. - ANSWER-Both statements are true After taking a periodical of tooth #24 using the paralleling technique, the dental hygienist notices the image appears elongated. How would the dental hygienist correct this error? - ANSWER-Increase negative vertical angulation A patient in her seventh mont ho pregnancy begins to feel nauseous during the dental prophylaxis. Suddenly, the patient begins to sweat and starts grasping for air. What is the patient experiencing? - ANSWER-Supine hypotensive syndrome Supine hypotensive syndrome is an abrupt fall in blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus when the patient is in a supine position. It manifests as bradycardia, sweating, nausea, weakness, and air hunger. Which vaccination does OSHA require employers to offer all personnel at risk of exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials? - ANSWER-Hepatitis B The Hepatitis B airs (HBV) is transmitted through ingestion of foods or water contaminated by an infected person. The Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted through blood, blood products, or body fluids. - ANSWER-Both statements are false. It's swapped. The Hepatitis A virus is transmitted through ingestion of foods or water contaminated by an infected person. The HBV virus is transmitted through blood. Which pathogen is transmitted via inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei? - ANSWER-Mycobacterium tuberculosis Each of the following medical emergencies indicates administration of oxygen EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Hyperventilation Which sounds results from a bronchospasm that occurs during an asthmatic attack? - ANSWER-Wheezing Which oral physiotherapy is indicated for a patient with type I embrasures? - ANSWER-Dental floss The exaggerated inflammatory response of gingival tissues to local irritants that can occur during pregnancy is commonly known as pregnancy gingivitis. This exaggerated response of gingival tissues is sue to an increase in the systemic level of the hormone testosterone. - ANSWER-The first statement is true and the second is false Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient recognize a problem and indicate a tentative inclination toward action? - ANSWER-Self-interest Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient institute a new behavior? - ANSWER-Action Where on the learning-ladder continuum is the patient motivated to act on the information provided? - ANSWER-Involvement Dental needles are available in three lengths: long, short, and ultrashort. The lower the cause number of the needle, the smaller the diameter of the lumen - ANSWER-The first statement is true and the second is false Which is the most common desensitizing agent found in over-the-counter dentifrices? - ANSWER-Potassium nitrate Pain threshold is the point at which an uncomfortable stimulus is perceived as painful. Pain tolerance is the maximum amount of pain a person can tolerate. - ANSWER-Both statements are true. Which preservative ingredient is in local anesthesics? - ANSWER-Sodium bisulfite Which strategy should be implemented for a patient who presents with a sustain blood pressure reading of 160/100 mm Hg with no previous history of hypertension? - ANSWER-Postpone treatment and refer patient to physician of record. Which oral hygiene index included all teething the assessment and is used for plaque visualization and oral hygiene motivation? - ANSWER-O'Leary's Plaque Control Record Which is classified as an acquired disability? - ANSWER-Multiple sclerosis (MS) Which is a developmental disability? - ANSWER-Chromosomal abnormality Which should be obtained when physical restraint is recommended for patient safety during a dental procedure? - ANSWER-Informed consent Informed consent give permission from a patient, or legal guardian, after the potential risks of treatment have been explained. Implied consent occurs when a patient without a formal agreement, consents to treatment through actions. Informed refusal occurs when a patient declines treatment after a tx plan is presented. Implied approval is not a legal term used in dentistry. Which person may give consent when presenting a treatment plan for an incompetent adult? - ANSWER-Legal guardian For elective dental procedures, in which trimester should a pregnant patient be treated? - ANSWER-Second When developing oral hygiene instruction for an elderly patient, at what age should the education material be directed? - ANSWER-Functional Functional age is based on performance capacities of the patient; educational strategies are always based on a patient's functional ability. During a case presentation, which patient visual impairment requires the clinician to be positioned to the patients side? - ANSWER-Macular degeneration Which best describes the principal cause of the periodontitis? - ANSWER-Host response to bacterial plaque biofilm Which bony structure is initially destroyed by periodontitis? - ANSWER-Cortical plate of interdental septum The initial examination of a 45 yr old female reveals localized advanced periodontitis. Which is the initial treatment? - ANSWER-Nonsurgical periodontal therapy Which periodontal disease does NOT benefit from systemic antibiotic treatment? - ANSWER-Localized advanced chronic Which sequence of debridement is recommended for moderate periodontitis (Case type III)? - ANSWER-Quadrant scaling and root planing in four treatment appointments At which interval of maintenance treatment, in months, does the long-term success of nonsurgical periodontal therapy rely? - ANSWER-3 months An assessment of the patient's dentition reveals the presence of a large amalgam overhang. Radiographic evidence confirms that nearly two-thirds of the inter-proximal embrasure space is obstructed by amalgam. Which procedure is indicated? - ANSWER-Replacement of restoration Which is true regarding sutures? - ANSWER-Sutures are always knotted buccal surfaces Periodontal dressings are used to stop gingival bleeding after periodontal surgery. Surgical wounds heal more quickly when protected by a periodontal dressing. - ANSWER-Both statements are false Which are side effects of locally administered antibiotics? - ANSWER-Nonexistent Which periodontal probing depth is recorded when the 3mm mark is just barely covered? - ANSWER-4mm The patient's periodontal evaluation reveals a localized 6mm probe reading accompanied by 3mm of recession and 1mm of mesiolingual mobility. Which figure in mm represents the clinical attachment loss? - ANSWER-9 mm CAL From which approach is the missal furcation of tooth #3 examined? - ANSWER-Palatal Which assesses fremitus? - ANSWER-Clinician's index finger Each oral finding is within normal limits EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Ranula In which position is the hard and soft palate most visible? - ANSWER-Supine; head tilted back and mouth wide open Which is the most common site for intraoral cancer? - ANSWER-Lateral border of tongue Which extra-oral projection is used to evaluate skeletal relationships prior to orthodontic treatment? - ANSWER-Lateral cephalometric Which classification does the ASA assign a patient with controlled angina pectoris? - ANSWER-III The vast majority of disabled individuals earn a middle-class income. The cost of dental treatment is manageable for most patients with disabilities. - ANSWER-Both statements are false Each of the following are signs of moderate apprehension EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Dizziness Which defines right and wrong conduct? - ANSWER-Ethics Which ethical competency is conflicted when individual autonomy is challenged? - ANSWER-Core values Which is NOT a part of a patient's informed refusal of treatment? - ANSWER-Dismissal from practice Each of the following is a component of informed consent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Financial arrangements A plaintiff cannot use the testimony of a specialist to establish the standard of care for a general dentist because the courts require all dentists to properly diagnose disease. - ANSWER-Bothe the statement and the reasons are correct but NOT related. Under the legal theory of respondent superior, which party is liable for damages to a patient resulting from breach of confidence? - ANSWER-Dentist Which is NOT cause fro patient dismissal from a dental practice? - ANSWER-Lack of proof of alien work permit Each of the following should be included in a dismissal letter EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Financial details and method of payment Each of the following is a concept dental professionals should embrace EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - ANSWER-Compliance with self-referral The dental hygienist speaks privately with the dentist regarding over-prescribing radiographs for a patient. Which ethnical responsibility dos this acknowledge? - ANSWER-Autonomy Which communication technique is most beneficial when addressing an ethical concern with the dentist? - ANSWER-Provide sound scientific evidence The dental hygienist attempts to view the dentist's directive to expose radiographs every six months. Which is evident? - ANSWER-Empathy Dental professionals who volunteer their time and services for nonprofit are exempt from liability. Dental professional who treat family members at no charge are giving a gift that is not subject to malpractice action or damage award. - ANSWER-Both statements are false How long should a minor's records be kept? - ANSWER-Until a child reaches age of majority Which is the best reason to maintain a separate incident file for documenting irrational or belligerent patient behavior? - ANSWER-Dentist-client-attorney privilege The dentist cannot be held liable for acts by employees because the patient must prove the dentist knew the employee was incompetent. - ANSWER-The statement is not correct but the reason is correct The dentist can be held liable for acts or omission by employees. In cases of negligent hiring and retention, the patient must prove the dentist knew or should have known the employee was incompetent. Which is NOT a purpose for accurate chart documentation? - ANSWER-Genetic mapping Two-tone disclosing solution is used to assess the patient's overall home-care routine. Violet-blue pigment stains the lingual surfaces of the MD premolars, which are tilted lingually towards the prominent MD tori. All other tooth surfaces are clean and unstained. Which brushing modification will likely produce an improvement? - ANSWER-Augment current routine with a child-size toothbrush and area-specific instruction Which instruction is NOT recommended fo maintenance of a pariah denture with clasps? - ANSWER-Soak partial denture overnight in a dilute sodium hypochlorite solution Which toothbrushing method is most effective for cleaning around fixed orthodontic appliances? - ANSWER-Charter The Charter method effectively cleans around fixed orthodontic appliances because the toothbrush bristles are positions in an occlusal, rather than sulcular direction. [Show Less]
The purpose of a Professional Code of Ethics Includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the Exception? A. to achieve high levels of practice B. t... [Show More] o achieve high levels of integrity C. to achieve high levels of decision making D. to achieve high levels of ethical consciousness - ANSWER-B. Achieve high levels of integrity Which of the following examples of the Core Values in the dental hygiene Code of Ethics deals with the practitioner? A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Societal Trust D. Non-Maleficence - ANSWER-D. Non-Maleficence Which of the following Core Values states that patients have a right to privacy and freedom of choice? A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Societal Trust D. Confidentiality E. Non-Maleficence - ANSWER-A. Autonomy Providing dental screenings would be an example of which Core Value? A. Justice B. Autonomy C. Beneficence D. Societal Trust E. Community Service - ANSWER-C. Beneficence (promoting well being of individuals and the public) Which of the following is the best way to avoid a dental lawsuit? A. Proper Diagnosis B. Proper Documentation C. Moderation of Treatment D. Verification of treatment plan by dentist - ANSWER-B. Proper Documentation (as well as charting and communication) Placing a sealant on a Child's tooth without getting parental consent is an example of: A. Assault B. Battery C. Negligence D. Defamation - ANSWER-B. Battery Which of the following is OSHA NOT responsible for? A. Employer B. Employee C. Clinics and Facilities D. Material safety and data sheets - ANSWER-A. Employer (OSHA= for employees) does not include the employer COBRA (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) gives individuals the right to keep group health insurance benefits for: A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 24 months E. 36 months - ANSWER-C. 18 months All of the following are true about informed consent EXCEPT one. Which is the exception? A. prognosis B. Cost of procedure C. Alternatives to procedure D. Benefits/risks of procedure E. Presented in understandable language - ANSWER-B. Cost of procedure The statute of limitations for a dental lawsuit is? A. 6 months B. 12 Months C. 3 years D. 5 years E. No definitive time - ANSWER-E. No definitive time Each of the following is true for Steam Sterilization except one. Which is the exception? A. Corrodes non-stainless (carbon) steel B. Is acceptable for some plastics, cotton rolls, gauze C. Spore test is Bacillus Atrophaeus D. Dulls instrument - ANSWER-C. Spore test is B. Atrophaeus. The STEAM spore test is Geobaccillus sterothermophilus (B. atrophaeus is for dry heat) Each is an example of regulated biohazards waste EXCEPT one. Which is the exception? A. Extracted 3rd molar B. Porcelain fused to meal crown that needs to be re-cemented C. Used anesthetic needle D. Gauze saturated in blood - ANSWER-B. Porcelain fused to metal crown that needs to be re-cemented Air polishing can be completed for each of the following procedures EXCEPT: A. Remove stain B. Detoxify roots C. Prepare tooth for sealant D. Clean composite restorations - ANSWER-D. Clean composite restorations. should not be used because it may pit the restorative material Each of the following is a cause of endogenous staining EXCEPT: A. plural necrosis B. Chlorhexidine C. Tetracycline ingestion during tooth development D. Internal resorption - ANSWER-B. Chlorhexidine (cause for exogenous stain) Which method of fluoride delivery provides the maximum protection against dental caries with the least potential causing dental fluorosis? A. Dietary supplements B. Food sources C. Professional fluoride applications D. Controlled water fluoridation - ANSWER-D. Controlled water fluoridation Acute Fluoride toxicity: A. is the amount of fluoride ingested likely to cause death of not intercepted by antidotal therapy B. Is the safely tolerated dose C. begins with flu-like symptoms within 30 minutes of ingestion that can last up to 24 hours D. Causes dental fluorosis - ANSWER-C. Begins with flu-like symptoms within 30 min of ingestion that can last up to 24 hours Which physiotherapy aid is the BEST choice for a patient with exposed root surfaces (recession)? A. Wedge Stimulator B. Tufted floss C. Floss Holder D. Oral irrigator - ANSWER-A. Wedge stimulator Which area specific Gracey curet debrides the mesial, facial and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth? A. 7/8 B. 11/12 C. 13/14 D. 15/16 - ANSWER-B. 11/12 (15/16 is best for just mesial surfaces of posterior teeth) Which disinfectant leaves a film or residue on surfaces? A. Phenols B. Iodophors C. Quaternary compounds D. Chlorine- based compounds - ANSWER-A. Phenols which of the following characteristics does NOT pertain to Chlorhexidine Gluconate? A. Bacteriocidal B. Suppresses Streptococcus mutans C. Possesses low substantivity D. Its action is inactivated by sodium laurel sulfate - ANSWER-C. possesses low substantivity (Chlorhexidine possesses high substantivity) A material that is highly ductile A. will easily break when stretched B. Can undergo a change of form without breaking C. Will generate an electrical current in an acidic environment D. Can recover its original shape after having undergone a force - ANSWER-B. Can undergo change of form without breaking Silver amalgam alloys contain copper to: A. Minimize galvanism B. Reduce rate of corrosion C. Reduce thermal conductivity D. Improve compressive strength - ANSWER-B. Reduce rate of corrosion The liner most commonly used to stimulate the development of secondary dentin in the event of pulp exposure is A. Calcium hydroxide B. Zinc oxide/eugenol C. Zinc phosphate cement D. Resin- modified glass ionomer - ANSWER-A. Calcium hydroxide to slow the set of gypsum and gain more working time in pouring a model, a person would: A. Mix with hot water B. Add borax to the mix C. Mix with really cold water D. Add potassium sulfate to the mix - ANSWER-B. Add borax. (Borax is a chemical retardant in the setting of gypsum materials) The best dental wax to modify an impression tray is: A. Sticky wax B. Utility wax C. Boxing wax D. Baseplate wax - ANSWER-B. Utility wax (soft, easily molded and is highly useful in modifying an impression tray) The primary benefit of using noble metals in restorative alloys is: A. They are less expensive B. They are highly allergenic C. They are extremely cosmetic D. They resist tarnish and corrosion - ANSWER-D. They resist tarnish and corrosion (will last longer) Contraindications to implant placement include: A. Inadequate bone B. Uncontrolled periodontal disease C. History of bisphosphonate therapy D. All of the above - ANSWER-D. All of the above (biophosphonate therapy diminishes a bone's blood supply making it susceptible to necrosis following implant surgery) A leading cause of dentinal hypersensitivity is due to the incorporation of what ingredient in toothpaste? A. Baking soda B. Pyrophosphates C. Potassium nitrate D. Hydrogen peroxide - ANSWER-B. Pyrophosphates According to G.V. Black's classification of restorations, an anterior proximal filling would be: A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV - ANSWER-C. Class III One of the benefits of using glass ionomer cement, is that? A. It releases fluoride B. It is mixed with poly acrylic acid C. It has a high chemical affinity for enamel D. It undergoes an exothermic reaction when mixed - ANSWER-A. It releases fluoride The instrument of choice for detecting an overhanging margin is a: A. Probe B. Scaler C. Curette D. Explorer - ANSWER-D. Explorer A materials resistance to flow is measured by its: A. Ductility B. Viscosity C. Elasticity D. Malleability - ANSWER-B. Viscosity. High viscosity= slow flow The strength of a composite restoration is highest when: A. its made only of nano fill particles B. Its made only of microfill particles C. Its made only of particles that are easy to polish D. Its made of a blend of both large and small particles - ANSWER-D. Its made of a blend of both large and small particles The dental cement most known for generating heat when mixed is: A. Resin B. Glass ionomer C. Zinc Phosphate D. Polycarboxylate - ANSWER-C. Zinc Phosphate The active ingredient in "gum-care" toothpastes is: A. triclosan B. sodium citrate C. pyrophosphate D. Carbamide peroxide - ANSWER-A. Triclosan- antimicrobial agent Three of the seven bones which compromise the orbit include: A. Ethmoid, frontal, parietal B. Ethmoid, Lacrimal, Parietal C. Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Zygoma D. Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Temporal - ANSWER-C. Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Zygoma Four cranial nerves providing innervation to the tongue include: A. V, VI, IX and X B. V, VI, VII and IX C. V, VII, IX, XII D. V, VI, VII and VIII - ANSWER-C. V, VII, IX, XII (trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal and Hypoglossal) The muscles of mastication most responsible for protrusion of the jaw are: A. Masseters B. Temporalis C. Medial Pterygoids D. Lateral Pterygoids - ANSWER-D. Lateral pterygoids (shift side to side or protrude) The articular fossa is provided by what bone? A. Parietal B. Occipital C. Sphenoid D. Temporal - ANSWER-D. Temporal Wharton's duct empties the: A. Glands of Von Ebner B. Parotid salivary glands C. Sublingual salivary glands D. Submandibular salivary glands - ANSWER-D. Submandibular salivary glands The Keratinized papillae of the tongue are: A. Foliate B. Filiform C. Fungiform D. Circumvallate - ANSWER-B. Filiform (most numerous of dorsal surface) used to protect the tongue- not for taste Three developmental processes must fuse to create the upper lip. They are: A. Median nasal, lateral nasal, globular B. Globular and the left and right maxillary processes C. Left and right maxillary processes and the 1st branchial arch D. Lateral nasal, globular and the left an [Show Less]
The x-ray was discovered by a. Heinrich Geissler b. Wilhelm Roentgen c. Johann Hittorf d. William Crookes - ANSWER-Wilhelm Roentgen Which discovery ... [Show More] was the precursor to the discovery of x-rays? A. Beta particles B. Alpha particles C. Cathode rays D. Radioactive materials - ANSWER-Cathode rays Which term describes two or more atoms that are joined by a chemical bond? a. ion b. ion pair c. molecule d. proton - ANSWER-Molecule Which is not a type of particulate radiation? A. Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Protons D. Nucleons - ANSWER-Nucleons Which is the location where x-rays are produced? A. Positive cathode B. Positive anode C. Negative cathode D. Negative anode - ANSWER-Positive anode Which describes scatter radiation? A. Radiation that exits the tubehead B. Radiation that is more penetrating than primary radiation C. Radiation that has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter D. none of the above - ANSWER-Radiation that has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter In dental imaging, the quality of the x ray beam is controlled by? a. kilovoltage b. miliamperage c. exposure time d. source-to-receptor distance - ANSWER-Kilovoltage Increasing milliamperage results in an increase in: A. Temperature of filament B. Mean energy of beam C. Number of x-rays produced D. Both A & C - ANSWER-Temperature of filament and number of x-rays produced The overall blackness or darkness of an image is termed a. contrast b. density c. overexposure d. polychromatic - ANSWER-Density If the target receptor distance is doubled, the resultant beam will be a. four times as intense b. twice as intense c. half as intense d. one fourth as intense - ANSWER-One fourth as intense The latent period in radiation biology is the time between a. initial injury and repair b. subsequent doses of radiation c. cell rest and cell mitosis d. exposure to x-radiation and clinical symptoms - ANSWER-Exposure to x radiation and clinical symptoms Which factor(s) contributes to radiation injury? A. Total dose B. Dose rate C. Cell sensitivity D. Age E. All of the above - ANSWER-All of the above The traditional unit for measuring x-ray exposure in air is termed a. gray b. coulombs per kilogram c. rem d. rad e. roentgen - ANSWER-Roentgen Which is considered radioresistant? A. Immature reproductive cells B. Young bone cells C. Mature bone cells D. Epithelial cells E. None of the above - ANSWER-Mature bone cells Which position indicating device is most effective in reducing patient exposure? A. Conical B. Rectangular C. Circular D. all are equally effective in reducing patient exposure - ANSWER-Rectangular Which statement describes the function of a filter in a dental x-ray tube head? A. It reduces the size and shape of the beam B. It removes low energy x rays C. It removes the dose of radiation to the thyroid gland D. It decreases the mean energy of the beam - ANSWER-It removes low energy x rays The dental radiographer can regulate the x ray beam (kVp, mA, time) through the use of the a. control panel b. extension arm c. console d. position-indicating device (PID) - ANSWER-Control panel One advantage of a film with an emulsion coating on both sides (double-emulsion film) is that a. the film requires less radiation exposure to make an image b. the image produced is less distorted c. the film has less sensitivity to radiation d. processing solutions are absorbed more easily - ANSWER-The film requires less radiation exposure to make an image The intensifying screen that emits green light and must be used with green sensitive film is termed a. calcium tungstate b. rare earth c. phosphor d. rare tungstate - ANSWER-Rare earth A dental image that demonstrates many shades of gray is said to have a. high contrast b. low contrast c. high density d. low density - ANSWER-Low contrast The hydroquinone in the developer brings out the _____ tones, whereas the Elon in the developer bring out the _____ tones on a dental radiograph. a. black; white b. white; black c. gray; gray d. white; gray e. black; gray - ANSWER-Black; gray A universal safelight filter such as the GBX-2 by the Carestream Health is recommended for a. intraoral films only b. extraoral screen films only c. extraoral nonscreen films only d. intraoral and extraoral films - ANSWER-Intraoral and extraoral films Which describes the relationship between the receptor and the long axis of the tooth in the paralleling technique? A. The receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other B. The receptor and the tooth are at right angles to each other C. The receptor and the tooth are perpendicular to each other D. The receptor and the tooth are intersecting each other - ANSWER-The receptor and the tooth are parallel to each other Too much vertical angulation results in images that are a. elongated b. foreshortened c. overlapped d. none of the above - ANSWER-Foreshortened The zone in which structures are clearly demonstrated on a pano image is termed the a. rotation center b. ghost image c. focal trough d. midsagittal plane - ANSWER-Focal trough Changing a treatment plan without informing the patient violate which of the following? A. Veracity B. Fidelity C. Beneficence D. Societal trust E. Non-maleficence - ANSWER-Fidelity Above all do no harm represents which ethical principle/core value? a. justice b. fidelity c. autonomy d. beneficence e. non-maleficence - ANSWER-Non-maleficence Confidentiality is both an ethical principle/core value as well as an aspect of civil unintentional tort. A. Both parts are true B. Both parts are false C. First part is true, the second is false D. First part is false, the second is true - ANSWER--The first part of the statement is true, the second is false. -Violation of confidentiality is considered INTENTIONAL civil tort therefore the 2nd part is false What is the correct order of learning? a. self interest, unawareness, awareness, involvement, action, habit b. unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action, habit c. awareness, self-interest, unawareness, involvement, habit, action d. action, unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, habit - ANSWER-Unawareness, awareness, self-interest, involvement, action and habit Fairness and equality represent which ethical principle/core value? a. justice b. fidelity c. veracity d. beneficence - ANSWER-Justice All are considered essential elements of informed consent except which? A. Referral B. Diagnosis C. Treatment D. Consequences - ANSWER-Referral Informed consent is considered an implied contract because it is a written agreement. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - ANSWER--First is false, second is true -Written informed consent is considered an explicit vs. implied contract or agreement State regulations that include infection control requirements are designed to protect who? a. the patient b. the practitioner c. both the patient and the practitioner d. neither the patient or the practitioner - ANSWER-The patient Not meeting the standard of care would violate which ethical principle/core value? a. autonomy b. societal trust c. confidentiality d. non-maleficence - ANSWER-Societal Trust Regulatory entities who impact the practice of DH include all but which of the following: A. State licensing boards B. Local laws and codes C. Professional associations D. State public health and safety codes E. Occupational Safety and Health Administration - ANSWER-Professional associations Active listening involves which of the following? A. Silence B. Open ended questions C. Closed ended questions D. None of the above - ANSWER-Silence Examples of negligence include all but which of the following: A. Not meeting the standard of care B. Incorrect medical or dental history taking C. Placing sealants on a minor without consent D. Failure to diagnose, refer or treat perio disease E. All of the above are considered forms of negligence - ANSWER-Placing sealants on a minor without consent All of the following are involved in enforcing infection control in dentistry except: A. CDC B. OSHA C. State licensing boards with infection control regulations D. All of the above - ANSWER-CDC Posting a negative comment on social media regarding a patient is considered slander as well as a violation of autonomy. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - ANSWER--First is false, second is true -A written, negative comment regarding a patient is considered libel vs. slander which is "verbal" and shows a tremendous lack of respect which relates to autonomy Maintaining a professional accountability includes which of the following? A. Maintain ethical standards in practice B. Encourage professional colleagues to follow the same ethical standards C. Reports colleagues unethical behavior to appropriate peer review entities D. Remain current regarding state rules and regulations governing dental and DH practice E. All of the above - ANSWER-All of the above Breach of contract violates which ethical principle/core value? a. fidelity b. autonomy c. beneficence d. confidentiality e. non-maleficence - ANSWER-Fidelity The Occupational Health and Safety Administration requires all except: A. Training upon employment B. Providing protective equipment to patients C. Annual, interactive training for chemical safety D. Protective equipment be available for all employees E. Annual, interactive training for blood borne pathogens - ANSWER-Providing protective equipment to patients The CARE principle is a concept that includes which of the following? A. Respect B. Empathy C. Compassion D. Attentiveness E. None of the above - ANSWER-Empathy as well as comfort, acceptance and responsiveness The Code of Ethics for the profession of dental hygiene have been established by which of the following entities? A. ADA B. State regulatory/licensing boards C. Commission on Dental Accreditation D. ADHA E. Various textbooks and researchers within the profession - ANSWER-ADHA Which of the following best describes the Standard of Care? A. Well defined by courts B. Defined by profession C. Represents the ethical principle of beneficence D. Part of the code of ethics for DH - ANSWER-Defined by profession A patient presenting with an HIV positive status is refused treatment by a dental practice. This is a violation of... a. autonomy b. beneficence c. non-maleficence d. justice e. societal trust - ANSWER-Justice A practice that accepts the insurance portion of a co-pay plan as "payment in full" without notifying the insurance company is in violation of which ethical principles? a. beneficence b. non-maleficence c. fidelity d. justice e. veracity - ANSWER-Veracity Confidentiality relates to the confidentiality of the patient information and relationship and demonstrates the profession's values of which ethical principle? a. autonomy b. beneficence c. non-maleficence d. justice e. societal trust - ANSWER-Autonomy A patient makes an appt. for their 6 month recall and an exam is performed as well as a prophylaxis. This represents what type of contract? A. Express B. Explicit C. Implied D. Implicit E. C&D - ANSWER--C&D- implied and implicit are the same -action based Which of the following are considered 'law' and enforceable for violations of? A. Guidelines B. Regulations C. Policy D. All of the above E. None of the above - ANSWER-Regulations You just treated a patient who is HIV+. How should you handle the instruments and cassette after use? A. follow routine instrument processing steps B. sterilize the instruments with a chemical sterilant first, rinse them, place them back in the cassette, and then follow routine instrument processing steps. C. Immediately heat sterilize the instruments and then follow routine instrument processing steps D. put the cassette through the routine processing steps twice - ANSWER-Follow routine instrument processing steps What is the primary difference between regulated and nonregulated waste? a. the amount of time the item is in direct patient contact b. the designation of an item as disposable c. the procedure for which the item was used d. the amount of liquid blood or other potentially infectious body fluid present - ANSWER-The amount of liquid blood or other potentially infectious body fluid present Which of the following is OSHA primarily concerned with protecting? A. Employee B. Employer C. Client D. Community - ANSWER-Employee Individuals with stable angina pectoris, COPD and/or mild CHF are in which ASA category? a. ASA I b. ASA II c. ASA III d. ASA IV - ANSWER-ASA III What phase of the dental hygiene process of care immediately follows diagnosis? a. assessment b. evaluation c. implementation d. planning - ANSWER-Planning What is the GV Black Classification of dental caries and restorations located on the gingival buccal third of #18? a. Class II b. Class III c. Class IV d. Class V - ANSWER-Class V Floss holders should be recommended for clients with which one of the following: A. Excellent home care B. Manual dexterity problems C. Dentinal hypersensitivity D. Inadequate exposure to Fluoride - ANSWER-Manual dexterity problems Which of the following professional Fluoride agents is known for both its efficacy in caries prevention and control of dentinal hypersensitivity because of its high concentration of Fl? A. Acidulated phosphate fluoride gel B. Stannous fluoride C. Sodium fluoride varnish D. Neutral sodium fluoride foam - ANSWER-Sodium fluoride varnish Which toothbrushing method should be recommended for a client with plaque biofilm control problems around the cervical areas of the teeth? a. Stillman's method b. Charter method c. Bass Method d. Leonard method - ANSWER-Bass Method Access to subgingival calculus deposits on the proximal surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth is difficult because of papillary enlargement of the gingival tissue. Which of the following statements provides the BEST advice for thorough subgingival calculus removal? a. Use a curet with a small, thin working end, and approach the deposit from both facial and lingual aspects b. try to remove the deposit with an explorer using an assessment stroke c. use a calculus removal stroke subgingivally with an anterior sickle scaler d. use the ultrasonic with a universal insert applying heavy lateral pressure - ANSWER-Use a curet with a small, thin working end, and approach the deposit from both F&L aspects A clinician decides to use a hand instrument to remove a tenacious, moderate calculus deposit on the facial of #31. The calculus deposit is located supra on the crown. Which of the following instruments would you choose? A. Universal curet with short lower shank length B. Standard Gracey 13/14 C. Rigid gracy curet D. Posterior sickle - ANSWER-Posterior sickle A right handed clinician is working on the buccal of #2. The clinician is using a Gracey 13/14 curet and retracting the client's cheek with a mirror. The clinician's neck is bent excessively as she works. What correction should they make for more ergonomic positioning? a. Ask the client to turn her head slightly away from the clinician b. Turn the mirror head so that the reflecting surface can be used to view the distal surface c. ask the client to turn toward the clinician and lower her chin down toward her chest (chin-down position) d. raise the clients chair up to bring the working area level with the clinicians eye level - ANSWER-Turn the mirror head so the reflecting surface can be used to view the distal surface Inactive ingredients help maintain the toothpaste's consistency to make it more palatable to the consumer. Active ingredients contribute to the therapeutic properties of dentifrice. A. Both are true B. Both are false C. First is true, second is false D. First is false, second is true - ANSWER-Both are true What is the 1st clinical sign of demineralization? a. a dark spot in the pits and fissures b. white spot lesion c. when sealant is not retained d. biofilm on the tooth surface - ANSWER-A white spot lesion Piezo tips have a ____ movement whereas magnetostrictive inserts have a _____ movement. a. oblique; lateral b. lateral; oblique c. elliptical; linear d. linear; elliptical - ANSWER-Linear;elliptical [Show Less]
A. A band B. I band C. H Zone D. Sarcomere D. Sarcomere - ANSWER-Which is the functional unit of striated muscle? A. Primary intention B. Regene... [Show More] ration C. Repair D. Secondary intention B. Regeneration - ANSWER-Slightly damaged tissue completely returns to its normal structure and function in which healing process? A. Basophils B. Lymphocytes C. Monocytes D. Neutrophils D. Neutrophils - ANSWER-In a normal differential blood count, which is the most numerous white blood cell? A. The maxillary first molars only B. the maxillary second molars only C. the maxillary third molars only D. both maxillary first and second molars B. the maxillary second molars only - ANSWER-The two buccal roots are normally about the same length in: A. aneurysm of the heart wall B. coronary thrombosis C. fibrous pericarditis D. valvular prolapse B. coronary thrombosis - ANSWER-The most common autopsy finding in instances of sudden death as a result of myocardial infarction is: A. block binding of bacteria to pellicle B. enhance binding of bacteria to tooth surfaces C. interact with calcium and phosphate in hydroxyapatite D. result from lysis of bacterial cell walls B. enhance binding of bacteria to tooth surfaces - ANSWER-Which is not a characteristic of salivary glycoproteins? A. it involves the nodes of Ranvier B. it is associated with unmyelinated axons C. it is energy saving D. it is faster B. It is associated with unmyelinated axons - ANSWER-Each of the following statements is correct regarding saltatory conduction except one. What is the exception? A. debride infectious debris B. provide effective environment for host immune response C. select agent to which infecting organism is susceptible D. select agent with broadest spectrum of activity D. Select agent with broadest spectrum if activity - ANSWER-Each of the following is a rule for antibiotic selection when managing an oral infection except one. Which is the exception? A. metabolic rate and heart production B. oxygen consumption, breathing, and cardiac output C. production of thyroid stimulating hormone by the pituitary gland D. protein synthesis and enzyme production by cells C. production of thyroid stimulating hormone by the pituitary gland - ANSWER-Thyroxine increases each of the following except one. Which is the exception? A. assists in the formation of trilaminar germ disc B. located on the endoderm C. located on the mesoderm D. precursor of the bilaminar germ disk D. precursor of the bilaminar germ disk - ANSWER-Which is correct concerning the primitive groove? A. Abrasion B. Attrition C. Bruxism D. Erosion B. Attrition - ANSWER-Which is a pathologic wearing away of tooth structure through some abnormal mechanical process? A. adherence to pellicle B. formation of bacterial coaggregations C. multiplication in an aerobic environment D. survival in an acid environment D. adherence to pellicle - ANSWER-Which characteristic of bacteria influences relative numbers in early plaque? A. 0.005 B. 0.009 C. 0.018 D. 0.036 B. 0.009 - ANSWER-How many milligrams of epinephrine is contained in a dental cartridge of prilocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine? A. Agranulocytosis B. Lupus erythematosus C. orthostatic hypotension D. severe depression C. orthostatic hypotension - ANSWER-Guanethidine is especially prone to produce which adverse effect? A. DNA B. Protein C. Ribosomal RNA D. Transfer RNA C. Ribosomal RNA - ANSWER-Which is produced in the nucleolus? A. Mandibular central incisors B. mandibular first molars C. maxillary central incisors D. maxillary first molars A. mandibular central incisors - ANSWER-Which primary teeth are the first to erupt? A. external carotid artery B. internal carotid artery C. external jugular vein D. internal jugular vein D. internal jugular vein - ANSWER-Deep cervical lymph nodes are distributed along which vessel? A. 5mL B. 30 mL C. 500 mL D. 1,000 mL B. 30 mL - ANSWER-One fluid ounce is equal to: A. Gate control B. pattern C. perception D. specificity A. Gate control - ANSWER-Pain sensation might be blocked from going to the central nervous system by other stimuli. This is best explained by which theory of pain? A. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans B. Campylobacter rectus C. Provotella intermedia D. Tannerella forsythia B. Campylobacter rectus - ANSWER-Which microorganism found in periodontal pockets is motile? A. anomalies of crown formation B. appropriate use of space maintainers C. mesiodistal width of the primary incisors D. primary arch length D. primary arch length - ANSWER-Which factor determines the position of the first permanent molar? A. hemangioma B. hematoma C. Nevus A. Hemangioma - ANSWER-A 30-year-old male patient has a slightly raised purple mass on his cheek measuring 25 mm in diameter for as long as he can remember. This lesion is most likely a: A. very low-density B. low density C. Medium density D. high density D. High density - ANSWER-Which lipoprotein contains the greatest amount of protein? A. Chrondoclast B. Chrondocyte C. Osteoblast D. Osteocyte B. Chondrocyte - ANSWER-Which is the cell that is found in a lacuna of cartilage? C. posterior teeth have contact areas that are generally centered faciolingually - ANSWER-Which generalization is correct about proximal contact areas? A. a decrease in capillary permeability B. an increase in capillary permeability C. inhibition of bradykinin synthesis D. its action on the white blood cells B. increase in capillary permeability - ANSWER-The anti-inflammatory action of aspirin is in part due to: A. Hep A B. Influenza A [Show Less]
During swallowing, the hyoid bone moves downward. During swallowing, the larynx elevates. - ANSWER-The first statement is false, the second statement is tr... [Show More] ue Which nervous system produces the fight-or-flight reaction? - ANSWER-Sympathetic What is mobilized in and out of the blood during bone remodeling? - ANSWER-Calcium Which of the following cranial nerves pass through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid bone? - ANSWER-Trigeminal mandibular The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the ______. - ANSWER-foramen rotundum Which cranial nerve is the longest and extends to the trunk of the body - ANSWER-Vagus List the following components of a muscle fiber in order of the LARGEST component to the SMALLEST component. - ANSWER-Muscle Muscle fascicle Myofiber Myofibril Myofilaments List the following digestive system structures in order of their function during digestion of a meal. - ANSWER-Pharynx Esophagus Stomach Small intestine Large intestine Which three of the following are lymphatic organs? - ANSWER-Tonsils Spleen Thymus What parallels the venous blood vessels and returns filtered fluids to the bloodstream? - ANSWER-The lymphatic system What type of cell-to-cell attachments are found in enamel-forming ameloblasts? - ANSWER-Desmosomes What is the homogenous, translucent gel enclosed in a cell by the cell membrane? - ANSWER-Cytoplasm Which type of epithelia lines the oral cavity? - ANSWER-Stratified squamous Which two conditions are examples of vector-borne infections? - ANSWER-Lyme disease West Nile virus What are the smallest and simplest infectious agents? - ANSWER-Viruses An infection that affects an immunocompromised person is considered - ANSWER-Opportunistic What microorganism is resistant to high temperatures and disinfectants? - ANSWER-Endospore What is a common side effect of radiation and or chemotherapy that causes painful inflammation and ulceration of mucous membranes? - ANSWER-Mucositis Which disease of the bone marrow exhibits abnormally low levels of white blood cells (WBCs)? - ANSWER-Leukopenia Fever, swollen parotid gland - ANSWER-Mumps Red, lacy rash - ANSWER-Fifth's Disease Small, round nodule on the lip or tongue - ANSWER-Syphilis If an antibody is produced by an individual and passed on to another, such as a mother to her child, what type of immunity is this? - ANSWER-Naturally passive Yogurt is not recommended for lactose intolerant patients. Lactose intolerance may be due to a congenital absence of lactase. - ANSWER-. The first statement is false, the second statement is true Carbohydrates are an energy source for the growth and repair of periodontal tissues. A firm texture of complex carbohydrates may increase circulation in gingival tissue. - ANSWER-Both statements are true What is the recommended daily allowance for digestible carbohydrates? - ANSWER-130 g/day What sweetener is found in plants and can interfere with the metabolism of s. Mutans? - ANSWER-Xylitol Which complex carbohydrate is made up of the plant form of glucose? - ANSWER-Starch A healthy blood glucose level range is __________ mg/100mL blood. - ANSWER-100-175 What is the recommended fiber intake each day for an adult? - ANSWER-20-30 grams Which two of the following food sources is an example of a disaccharide sugar structure? - ANSWER-Apple Carrots Which tooth may have a lingual groove extending from the crown to the root? - ANSWER-Maxillary lateral incisors Which two of the following are branches that diverge from the maxillary artery? - ANSWER-Incisive artery Posterior auricular Which two of the following are functions of the stomach? - ANSWER-Storage of ingested food until it is emptied into the small intestine Secretion of HC1 and enzymes that initiate digestion Which tooth has a furcation that is in the apical third to 1/2 of the tooth? - ANSWER-Maxillary first premolar Which tooth has a mesial root concavity that is not as prominent? - ANSWER-Mandibular second molar Which cranial bone is the single bone located in the most posterior portion of the skull? - ANSWER-Occipital Which TWO are folds of tissue in the inferior to ventral surfaces of the tongue? - ANSWER-Sublingual fold Lingual frenum Cusp of Carbelli - ANSWER-Maxillary first molar Two cusps that are approximately the same length - ANSWER-Maxillary second premolar Long central developmental groove - ANSWER-Maxillary first premolar "H" or "y" groove patterns int he occlusa surface - ANSWER-Mandibular second premolar Greater mesiodistal than Facio lingual width - ANSWER-Mandibular first molar The side of the tongue - ANSWER-Lateral surface irregular mass of tonsillar tissue on the posterior dorsal surface - ANSWER-Lingual tonsil elevated structures of specialized mucosa - ANSWER-Lingual papillae pitlike depression in the center of sulcus terminalis - ANSWER-Foramen cecum V-shaped groove on the posterior dorsal surface of the tongue - ANSWER-Sulcus terminalis Which teeth have the greatest depth of curvature of the CEJ on the mesial surface? - ANSWER-Maxillary centrals At what pH is a root demineralized? - ANSWER-4.5-5.5 Tobacco is considered what type of stain? - ANSWER-Exogenous Which of the following conditions would respond to therapeutic diagnosis? - ANSWER-Angular cheilitis A dense, nonmineralized complex mass of bacteria that forms a gel like matrix: - ANSWER-Biofilm Which nerve innervates the tooth pulp on the mandible? - ANSWER-Inferior Alveolar (IA) Which of the following cranial nerves is not a sensory nerve? - ANSWER-Trochlear In what order does the blood flow from the heart to the lungs? Put the following in the correct order. - ANSWER-Superior and Inferior Vena Cava Right Atrium Tricuspid Valve Right Ventricle Pulmonary Artery Lungs What is the study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized and excreted by the body? - ANSWER-Pharmacokinetics The _______ stage of development is when the first signs of an arrangement of cells occur. - ANSWER-Cap Which of the following is not a type of tissue found in the body? - ANSWER-Endoplasmic All of the following are part of the gingival fiber group except: - ANSWER-Interradicular Which of the following is not considered a form of calcium? - ANSWER-Peas Periodontal disease can be more severe in patients that smoke when they are deficient in this vitamin: - ANSWER-Vitamin C What happens when the globular process fails to fuse with the maxillary process during the first trimester of pregnancy? - ANSWER-Cleft Lip Which two organs are endocrine glands? - ANSWER-Ovaries Thyroid All of the following are monosaccharides except: - ANSWER-Maltose What is the drug-nutrient interaction of amoxicillin? - ANSWER-It may alter intestinal flora, resulting in malabsorption of nutrients What is a function of the small intestine? - ANSWER-Absorb nutrients and minerals from food Which gland is located at the junction of the larynx and the trachea and can be palpated? - ANSWER-Thyroid What is the name of the papillae that are lined along the anterior side of the sulcus terminals on the body of the tongue? - ANSWER-Circumvallate The retention of saliva in a minor salivary gland results in a: - ANSWER-Mucocele When normal shedding of epithelium of the filiform lingual papilla does not occur, It produces thick layers of dead cells and keratin builds on the tongue surface: - ANSWER-Black hairy tongue Which branch of the trigeminal nerve provides nerve supply to the maxillary posterior lingual periodontium? - ANSWER-Greater palatine nerve Abnormal variations on the lingual aspect of the mandibular arch: - ANSWER-Tori The facial portion of the alveolus of the canine - ANSWER-Canine eminence The small elevated tissue opposite of the maxillary second molar: - ANSWER-Parotid papilla What cardiovascular agents cause vasodilation of the blood vessels? - ANSWER-Calcium channel blockers Which medication is known to cause gingival hyperplasia? - ANSWER-Dilantin Which drug used in the dental office should be avoided during treatment of a pregnant patient? - ANSWER-NSAIDs What sedative medications provide a wide therapeutic index and are safer than barbiturates? - ANSWER-Benzodiazepines Which of the following are advantages of nitrous-oxide use in the dental office? - ANSWER-Nonflammable May be used on children Rapid onset and recovery Which of the following is TRUE about local anesthetic agents? - ANSWER-They should have a rapid onset. Which of the following is NOT an anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDs)? - ANSWER-Diazepam What is the pharmaceutical dose that produces 50% of the maximum response in 50% of subjects? - ANSWER-Effective dose Which two of the following are typical effects or reactions while using Adrenergic medications? - ANSWER-Vasoconstriction Bronchodilation What two medications are contraindicated for children due to the risk of developing Reye's syndrome? - ANSWER-Aspirin Baye Which two anomalies involve the desquamation of filiform lingual papillae? - ANSWER-Geographic tongue Fissured tongue Dental fluorosis causing damage to tooth development occurs approximately at what ages? - ANSWER-6 months - 5 years Which of the following is an exophytic area of enamel on the root surface? - ANSWER-Enamel pearl Supernumerary teeth usually exhibit microdontia. They are most commonly found in the maxilla - ANSWER-The first statement is false, the second statement is true What type of seizure exhibits symptoms of jerking motions and no loss of consciousness? - ANSWER-Petit mal Which cardiovascular disease is associated with periodontal disease, placing an emphasis on improving oral health in an attempt to reduce the risk of disease? - ANSWER-Coronary artery atherosclerosis What bone disease is most common in children and involves abnormal proliferation of fibrous connective tissues? - ANSWER-Fibrous dysplasia Which of the following is NOT a sign of leukemia? - ANSWER-Pallor of the gingiva What two symptoms are associated with liver disorders? - ANSWER-Xerostomia Jaundice A highly infectious condition that leaves pustules and itchy yellow scabs around the mouth and face is called _______ - ANSWER-Impetigo A healthy adult's pulse rate should be between ______ beats per minute. - ANSWER-60-100 Which two of the following are reasons that require antibiotic premedication? - ANSWER-Systemic lupus erythematosus Joint replacement less than 2 years ago Which two of the following endogenous intrinsic stains exhibit white lesions? - ANSWER-Amoxicillin Fluorosis Which two of the following are signs of chronic gingival inflammation? - ANSWER-Tough, fibrous gingiva Blunted interdental papilla During a periodontal screening and reporting (PSR), the deepest measurement in one quadrant extends only onto the first clear band of the periodontal probe, with calculus present and bleeding upon probing. What would the proper PSR score be for this quadrant? - ANSWER-2 Which classification of tooth mobility exists when the tooth is depressible? - ANSWER-Class III Which plaque score indicates gross soft debris within gingival pockets and/or margins? - ANSWER-3 What is the level of marginal gingiva apical to the cementoenamel junction that can be measured with a periodontal probe? - ANSWER-. Recession Which bacteria is the main etiological cause for the initiation of coronal lesions? - ANSWER-Streptococcus mutans When an x-ray photon intermingles with water and oxygen molecules in body tissue, the result is ____________. - ANSWER-Photoelectric effect What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation that a dental professional should receive per year? - ANSWER-5.0 rem What is the lethal dose of radiation that would cause death in 50% of the population within 30 days? - ANSWER-LD 50/30 Regulations and federal law restrict the size of PID and tubehead devices. Which of the following options is NOT accurate? - ANSWER-PID lengths must be no less than 6" _____________ would result in a better contrast of grey shades in the final radiograph. - ANSWER-Increasing kVp What radiology technique places the x-ray beam perpendicular to the imaginar [Show Less]
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