Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome - Answer- Perihepatic infection which results in liver capsule (aka Glisson's capsule) inflammation from pelvic infections such
... [Show More] as gonorrhea & chlamydia
Rocephin - Answer- Ceftriaxone 125mg
Koilocytosis - Answer- Nuclear enlargement with atypical peri nuclear halo
Cefixime - Answer- Fixime 400mg
Fixime 400mg - Answer- Cefixime
U wave represents - Answer- repolarization of the purkinje fibers. Seen in 1) Hypokalaemia. 2) Hypercalcaemia. 3) Thyrotoxicosis. 4) Digitalis use. 5) anti arrhythmics.
Absolute Contradictions to HRT - Answer- A - acute liver disease. B - Bleeding, undiagnosed. C - Cancer of breast or uterus. D - DVT or PE
procidentia - Answer- Complete protrusion of uterus through vagina
Krukenberg tumor - Answer- Metastatic tumor (usually GIT or breast) to ovaries. "Signet-ring" cells.
CIN - Answer- cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
CIN I - Answer- low grade squamous intra-epithelial lesion (LSIL)
LSIL - Answer- Low grade squamous intra-epithelial lesion (CIN I = Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia)
HSIL - Answer- high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (CIN II OR III = Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia)
ascus - Answer- atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
AGUS - Answer- Atypical Glandular Cells of Undetermined Significance
CIS - Answer- carcinoma in situ
LEEP - Answer- loop electrosurgical excision procedure
Which cervical lesions can you repeat PAP in 6 months? - Answer- ASCUS or CIN I (LSIL) . Rest require colposcopy
Shagreen patches - Answer- Dark leathery (orange-peel) patches on lower back. Found in tuberous sclerosis. A genetic neuroproliferative disorder.
acrochordons - Answer- "skin tags"; overgrowths of normal skin that form a stalk and are polyp-like
Stein-Leventhal syndrome - Answer- PCOS
Crede's manouver - Answer- Fundal pressure to assist with delivery
Johnson's manouver - Answer- Post partum prolapsed uterus. Fist on fundus, pushing up through vagina. Hold fist in place until uterine contraction is felt.
O'Sullivan's technique - Answer- Postpartum uterine prolapse. Warm saline is poured into the vagina to create increased hydrostatic pressure to force the uterus back into the pelvic area.
Chandelier sign - Answer- Positive Cervical excitatory tenderness (CET) (I.e. PID)
Tocolysis - Answer- Anti-uterine contraction. (Greek toko = childbirth and lysis - loosening)
Chadwick's sign - Answer- Bluish purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during pregnancy as a result of increased vascular congestion. (6 weeks)
Hegar's sign - Answer- softening of the lower uterine segment or isthmus (6-8 weeks)
Goodell's sign - Answer- softening of the cervix and the vagina caused by increased vascular congestion (4-6 weeks)
Kleihauer-Betke Test - Answer- Quantifies fetal cells in maternal circulation so appropriate dose of Rhogam can be given in Rh negative mothers
Placenta accreta - Answer- Placenta invades At myometrium
Placenta Increta - Answer- Placenta invades Into myometrium
Placenta Percreta - Answer- Placenta invades Passing through myometrium
Dystocia - Answer- Abnormal progression of labour
Cleidotomy - Answer- Deliberate fracture of clavicle (to aid in shoulder dystocia delivery)
Zavanelli maneuver - Answer- Replacement of fetus into uterine cavity followed by Caesarian section
Brant maneuver - Answer- Firm traction on umbilical cord with opposite hand applying Supra public pressure to prevent uterine prolapse.
Lochia - Answer- Normal post partum vaginal discharge (rubric -> serous -> alba. Foul odor = infection)
Keinbock's Disease - Answer- Avascular necrosis of the lunate carpal bone
Mobius Syndrome - Answer- Congenital paralysis of face (Stone face) +/- limb defects due to intrauterine Misoprostol exposure (possibly BZD too)
Indications for caesarean - Answer- CAMPO PVP CAMP (CaCx/Active HSV/Maternal comps eg eclampsia or AFLP/Previous uterine Surgery/Obstruction//Placenta Previa/ Veno Previa/ Placenta Abruptio/ Congenital abn's/Abnormal heart rate <110or>160/Malpresentation/Prolapsed cord
Maternal mortalities in Pregnancy - Answer- BEACHES (Bleeding/emboli-thrombotic/amniotic embolism/Cardiac/HELLP/Ectopic Pregnancy/Sepsis/Stroke
Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia adverse signs - Answer- DROPCHILD = D - DBP>100{>110}. R - Renal comp (urine<500). O - Oligohydramnios. P - Proreinuria {3-5g}. C - CVA. H- HELLP (Haemolysis, Elevated liver enzymes and low platelets). I - IUGR. L - Left Ventricular Failure. D - DIC
CHARGE Syndrome - Answer- Congenital Abnormality = C - Coloboama, H - Heart abnormality, A - Atresia choanae. R - Retarded mentally, G - Genital abnormalities, E - Ear malformations
Mentzer's index - Answer- In microcytic hypochromic anaemia, the MCV:RBC ratio > 13 = iron deficiency and < 13 = Thalassemia
Burton line - Answer- Lead poisoning - Thin grey/blue line found on edge of gums
WAGR syndrome - Answer- Wilms' Tumour, Aniridia, Genital anomalies and Retardation (Mental)
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome - Answer- Wilms' tumour + enlargement of body organs, hemihypertrophy, renal medullary cysts and adrenal cytomegaly.
Denys-Drash Syndrome - Answer- Wilms' tumour + gonadal dysgenesis + nephroparhy —> renal failure
Wilms' tumour - Answer- Nephroblastoma
B Symptoms - Answer- Fever, night sweats and unexplained weight loss
Still's Disease - Answer- Systemic arthritis - fever >2/52 + salmon macular popular rash, LN's, HSM,
Clinical manifestations of Cystic Fibrosis - Answer- CF PANCREAS = Chronic cough, Failure to thrive, Pancreatic insufficiency (3 days fecal fat collection), Alkalosis and hypotonic dehydration, Neonatal intestinal obstruction, Clubbing, Rectal prolapse, Elevated electrolytes in sweat, Absent vas deferens and Sputum containing Staph or Pseudomonas. Jaundice can also be present.
Bonney test - Answer- Bladder stress test to evaluate urinary incontinence
Carnett's test - Answer- Test for chronic abdominal pain and hernia assessment
colpocleisis - Answer- Term to close the vagina permanently. Often used in elderly no longer requiring sex.
Gottron's papules - Answer- Violations plaques found over knuckles in patients with dermatomyositis.
McCune-Albright syndrome - Answer- Precocious puberty
Cafe-au-lait spots
Fibrous dysplasia of bone
Sotos Syndrome - Answer- Rapid childhood growth (normal adult ht) + learning experience disabilities + characteristic facial features = long narrow face, high forehead, long pointy chin and reddened cheeks.
Schwachman-Diamond syndrome - Answer- autosomal recessive pancreatic insufficiency (->chronic diarrhea) disease, FTT, short stature, cyclic neutropenia. Sim to cystic fibrosis, but normal sweat test
Gower's sign - Answer- Muscular Dystrophy - when a child goes from a seated position to a standing one, they use their arms to "climb-up' their legs to help then stand.
McIsaac's criteria - Answer- Used in pharyngitis. Hot LACE = TEMP>38 / Lymph nodes - ant cervical tender / Age 3-14 / Cough absent / Exudative tonsils.
Scores 0-1 = observe, 2-3 = culture, if +ve —> antibiotics and 4+ —> Antibiotics
Scarlet fever symptoms - Answer- 4 x S and 4 x P = 1) Sore throat. 2) Strawberry tongue. (All rest are rash related). 3) Sandpaper texture. 4) Starts in Skin folds. 5) PeriOral sparing/pallor. 6) Peels after few days. 7) Pain absent. 8) Pruritis absent
Rheumatic Fever - Jones Criteria - Major - Answer- SPACE - 1) Subcutaneous nodules. 2) Pan carditis (pericardium, myocardium and endocardium). 3) Arthritis - migratory arthritis of large joints. 4) Chorea (Sydenham's) + 5) Erythema Marginatum
Rheumatic Fever - Jones Criteria - Minor - Answer- 1) Previous Rheumatic Fever. 2) Fever. 3) P - Prolonged PR interval. 4) P - Polyarthritis. 5) Increase ESR or CRP or WCC (markets of inflammation)
Complications of Varicella - Answer- SHAPE = Secondary infection (GAS) / Hepatitis / Ataxia (Cerebellar infection) / Pneumonia / Encephalitis
VACTERL - Answer- V - Vertebral Dysgeneis. A - Anal atresia. C - Congenital Cardiac Disease (VSD). T-E - Tracheal-Esophageal Fistula. R - Renal abnormalities. L - Limb abnormalities
CATCH22 - Answer- DiGeorge Syndrone = C - Cyanotic Cardiac Abnormailites. A - Abnormal Facies. T - Thymus insufficiency (reduced immunity). C - Cleft palate and Cognitive impairments . H - Hypoparathyroid and HypoCalcaemia. 22 - Defect on chromosome 22 q11
Trisomy 21 - Answer- Down's syndrome
Brushfield spots - Answer- salt and pepper speckling on the iris associated with Down Syndrome
Trisomy 18 - Answer- Edward's Syndrome - Hypertonia
Rockerbottom feet, clenched fists, overlapping digits, VSF, ToF - Answer- Trisomy 18
Trisomy 13 - Answer- Patau syndrome
Fragile X Syndrome - Answer- Prominent jaw, forehead. Large ears. Long, thin face. High arched palate. Mild decrease in IQ. Macro-orchism
Klinefelter syndrome - Answer- Chromosomal disorder where males have extra X chromosomes. So phenotype is male, with extra oestrogen.
Prader-Willi Syndrome - Answer- Paternal imprint lacking in chr15q11 —> Hypogonadism, insatiable appetite (obesity and T2DM), almond shaped eyes, hypotonia and short stature
Angelman Syndrome - Answer- Maternal imprint lacking on chr15q11 —> Fair, blond features. Always laughing. Seizures. Hypotonia. Underdeveloped mid facies. Tremulousness. Severe mental retardation.
Angelman Syndrome - Answer- happy puppet syndrome
Turner's Syndrome - Answer- 45X - Short, infertile females with webbed necks and greater carrying angel at elbow. Slightly decreased IQ. Streaky ovaries and primary amenorrhea. Short stature.
Noonan Syndrome - Answer- Short stature, webbed neck, triangular facies. Mild mental retardation. Males and females effected.
glossoptosis - Answer- Downward or retrograde displacement of tongue due to non fusion of the hard palate
Pierre Robin Syndrome - Answer- Syndrome of oral facial abnormalities, micrognathia (a small jaw) and glossoptosis (tongue often blocks airway). Cleft palates are common.
Depressed Newborn - Answer- One or more negative - 1) HR>100. 2) Cries when stimulated. 3) Cry is strong. 4) vigorous limb movement
How Ready Is This Child? - Answer- 1) Heart beat 0/1-100/100. 2) Respiratory rate 0/slow, irregular/good cry. 3) Irritability 0/grimace/cry. 4) Tone floppy/mild flex ion/vigorous movement. 5) Colour blue/blue+pink/pink.
Kasai procedure - Answer- Hepatoportoenterostomy. Used in biliary atresia. More successful if done under 8 weeks old
Chorizo- - Answer- Irregular, migratory contractions. Dance like
athetoid - Answer- involuntary writhing movement of limbs and body; dance like
Acro- - Answer- Highest, top most, pertaining to extremities
Acrocyanosis - Answer- Temporary cyanotic condition, usually in newborns resulting in a bluish color around the lips, hands and fingernails, feet and toenails. May last for a few hours and disappear with warming.
Cutis marmorata - Answer- a marbled or mottled appearance of the skin of a newborn when exposed to decreased temperatures; occurs because the newborn's immature vascular system is unable to adapt to temperature changes.
vernix caseosa - Answer- thick, cheesy substance made up of sebum and shed epithelial cells found coating the skin of the newborn
Vernix - Answer- Varnish
Mongolian spots - Answer- Blue-ish black macules appearing over the buttocks and/or thighs of darker skinned neonates
erythema toxicum - Answer- Erythematous vesiculo-pustular rash. Lesions appear and disappear within hours. Usually resolves by 2 weeks age.
Pustular melanosis - Answer- Seen more commonly in black infants, the rash presents at birth as small vesiculopustules over a brown macular base; these can last for several months.
Angiomatous lesions - Answer- Salmon patch. Transient macular capillary hemangiomas. Eyelids and forehead = "Angel kiss". Nuchal = "Stork bite".
Signs of dehydration - Answer- C BASE H2O = 1) C - Capillary refill (3sec). 2) B - BP. 3) A- Anterior fontanelle sunken. 4) S - Skin turgor tenting. 5) E - Eyes sunken. 6) H - Heart Rate - weak & rapid. 7) O - Oral mucosa dry or parched. 8) O - Output of urine, decreased
Coloured urine in the absence of blood - Answer- URINE LBW = 1) U - Urates. 2) R - Rifampicin. 3) I - Ibuprofen. 4) N - Nitrofurantoin. 5) E - edible colourants. 6) L - Lead. 7) B - Beetroot. 8) W - Wine
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) - Triad - Answer- 1) Acute Renal Failure. 2) Thrombocytopenia. 3) Hemolytic Anaemia
Nephritic Syndrome - Answer- PHAROH = 1) P - Proteinuria < 50mg/kg/day. 2) H - Haematuria. 3) A - Azotemia (high nitrogen levels in blood). 4) R - Red Blood Cell Casts. 5) O - Oliguria. 6) H - Hypertension
nephrotic syndrome - Answer- PALE IT (but no blood loss) = 1) P - Protein loss > 50mg/kg/day. 2) A - Albumin decrease (<20g/l). 3) L - Lipid increase. 4) E - Edema (d/t hypoalbumin state), 5) I - Increased infection, and 6) T - Thrombosis risk increased due to a hypercoaguble state (Renal loss of AntiThrombin III).
Peripheral blood smear in G6PD deficiency - Answer- Heinz bodies and 'cookie' or bite cells
Lennox-Gastaut syndrome - Answer- Childhood epilepsy (3-5 yrs). Triad of 1) Daily myoclonic seizures. 2) Brain malformation and 3) Slow EEG pattern with slow spikes.
Differential Diagnosis for childhood Seizures - Answer- BADMINTON = 1) B - Benign Febrile Convulsions. 2) A - Asphyxia (hypoxia ischemic encephalopathy). 3) D - Drug withdrawal. 4) M - Metabolic (low glucose, calcium or sodium). 5) I - Infection. 6) N - Neurocutaneous Syndrome. 7) T - Trauma (Intracranial hemorrhage). 8) O - Other/Obvious = Epilepsy 9) N - Neoplastic
Tone in Downs Syndrome - Answer- Hypotonic
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease - Answer- Inherited progressive motor and sensory nerve loss, effects 1:2500, caused by demyelination and remyelination of peripheral nerves causing damage to the nerves and an 'onion-bulb' appearance. Incurable.
Neurofibromatosis Type 1 - Answer- Von Recklinghausen Disease — (Diagnosed on 2+ of the following) — 1) 6+ Cafe-au-lait spots. 2) 2+ Neurofibromas. 3) 2+ Lisch nodules. 4) Optic glioma. 5) Freckling in axilla or groin. 6) Cortical th [Show Less]