M4 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Two drugs that act on the same tissue organ through independent receptors resulting
... [Show More] in effects that are opposite of each other is known as A. Physiologic Antagonism B. Irreversible Antagonism C. Competitive Antagonism D. Chemical Antagonism Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? I. Weakly acidic drugs in alkaline media will be in its ionized form, decreasing reabsorption II. Weakly basic in alkaline media will exist primarily in its unionized form, decreasing reabsorption III. Weakly acidic drugs in alkaline media will exist primarily in its nonpolar form which cannot be reabsorbed easily A. I B. II C. III D. I, II and III What is the most important organ for the absorption of orally administered drugs? A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Liver D. Kidney As shown in the graph, the drug has an increasing plasma concentration towards reaching the therapeutic range. What would most likely be the reason for this? A. Faster metabolism of the drug B. Drug clearance decreases overtime C. Faster distribution of the drug to the target sites D. Giving of Maintenance Doses Identify the parameters A and B in the figure used in determining the therapeutic range? A. A-Minimum Effective concentration B-Maximum Toxic Concentration B. A-Minimum Effective concentration B - Minimum Toxic Concentration C. A-Minimum Toxic concentration B-Minimum Effective Concentration D. A-Maximum Toxic concentration B- Maximum Effective Concentration In what half-life did a trough level reach the therapeutic range? A. 2 B. 5 C. 3.5 D. 6 Drugs with very HIGH volume of distribution are those that have. A. Higher concentrations in the extravascular compartments B. Higher concentrations in the vascular compartment than in the extravascular tissue C. Lower concentration that will be absorbed after oral administration D. Higher concentrations that will be absorbed after oral administration In neonates where there is a relative decrease in serum proteins, which of the following will be true if a highly protein bound drug is administered to these group of patients? A. Decreased protein binding, resulting in a greater free fraction of the drug B. Increased protein binding, resulting in a reduced free fraction of the drug C. Increased protein binding, resulting in a greater free fraction of the drug D. Decreased protein binding, resulting in a reduced free fraction of the drug Which of the following factors can prolong duration of a drug? I. Decreased protein binding II. Greater tubular reabsorption II. Reduced polarity A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III What is the fate of drug after metabolism? A. more lipid-soluble B. more non-polar C. more polar D. A and B Which of the following instances will pharmacokinetic variation in Drug Metabolizing Enzymes (DME) is significantly considered? I. Inactive drug is converted to active metabolites II. parent drug is a prodrug III. the drug has a very wide margin of safety A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II and III Which is true about a drug with low therapeutic index? A. More effective B. Less effective C. More safe D. Less safe Which of the following are the reasons for formulating prodrugs? I. Improve bioavailability of the drug II. Develop cheaper therapeutic alternatives III. Promotes site-specific delivery of the drug A. I B. II C. II and III D. I, II and III What is the order of reaction in which the concentration of a drug is decreasing at a rate that is proportional to the concentration of the drug remaining? A. Zero B. First C. Third D. Second Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding 1st order kinetics? I. The drug is distributed to only a compartment outside the vascular system II. Half-life is the same regardless of plasma concentration III. Rate of elimination is proportional to the rate of administration only at steady state A. II and III B. II C.I D. I, II and III What percent of drug is removed per hour if the elimination rate constant is 0.25/hr? A. 0.75% B. 0.25% C. 0.25 D. 0.42 Which of the following will enhance the excretion of an alkaline poison in the urine? A. Probenecid B. Urinary acidifier C. Urinary alkalinizer D. Inulin The measurement of renal clearance of inulin is used to assess A. active tubular secretion (Zero order) B. glomerular filtration rate (First order) C. renal perfusion D. renal secretion Which of the following is NOT true about the effect of significant organ dysfunction on pharmacokinetic variables? A. renal insufficiency increases clearance of renally- excreted drugs B. cardiac impairment decreases cardiac output resulting to reduction of volume of distribution C. Liver dysfunction may result to inability of transforming the drug to its active metabolite D. hepatic impairment prolongs half-life of drugs that are highly dependent on the liver for elimination The following are TRUE regarding patients with renal impairment, EXCEPT: A. They have reduced requirement for drugs that are directly excreted by the kidneys. B. The elimination of renally cleared drugs is intervals. C. Adjustments can be done by prolonging dose intervals. D. The serum creatinine levels are higher than the reference value. The amount of drug excreted into milk depends on a number of kinetic factor. Which of the following is/are the ideal characteristic/s of a drug when given to a breastfeeding woman? I. High lipid solubility II. High molecular weight III. Long half-life A. I B.II C. II and III D. I, II and III Which of the following drugs will cross cell membranes easily? A. unionized and polar B. ionized and polar C. lipid-soluble and unionized D. water-soluble and non-polar Isoniazid undergoes what type of conjugation reaction. A. Glycine conjugation B. Acetylation (HIPS) C. Glucuronidation D. Methylation Which of the following refers to the process in which one enantiomer of a compound is converted to another enantiomer? A. Racemization B. Degradation C. Polymerization D. Precipitation Which of the following preparations produce local effects? I. Anti-asthma drugs administered inhalational II. Eye drops III. Topical skin creams Transdermal patch A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV When IV bolus dose is administered, peak concentration is obtained A. after the metabolism B. Immediately after the dose is given C. after few hours D. after the distribution phase Which of the following equations is used to compute for the patient's creatinine clearance? A. Michaelis-menten equation B. Cockroft and Gault equation C. Harris-Benedict equation D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation Newborns and infants have decreased expression of metabolic enzymes. This implies A. Increase in clearance and Increase in elimination half-life B. Increase in clearance and Decrease in elimination half-life C. Decrease in clearance and Increase in elimination half-life D. Decrease in clearance and Decrease in elimination half-life Which of the following would be the implication if the drug has an increased clearance in a patient? A. A lower dose is needed to achieve the target concentration. B. A higher dose is needed to achieve the target concentration. C. A faster administration rate is needed to achieve the target concentration. D. A slower administration rate is needed to achieve the target concentration. Constriction or the arterioles is due to the stimulation of what receptor? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta-1 D. beta-2 Phenylephrine acts selectively on what type of receptor? A. Alpha-1 B. Alpha-2 C. Beta-1 D. Beta-2 Which of the following receptors is/are responsible for the adrenergic peripheral responses? I. Alpha receptor II. Beta-receptor II. Muscarinic receptors A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III Which of the following beta-2 agonist are short-acting agents? I. Albuterol II. Salmeterol III. Terbutaline IV. Formoterol A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, III and IV This G-Protein Coupled Receptor is known for stimulating Phospholipase C which results to production of inositol Triphosphate and Diacylglycerol. A. Gs B. Gi C. Gq D. Both a and c E. None A drug which gives a result of decrease intrinsic activity of receptors. A. Antagonist B. Agonist C. Inverse Agonist D. Both a and c E. None A partial agonist drug becomes a/an ______ in the presence of a/an ______ A. Full Agonist, Antagonist B. Antagonist, Full Agonist C. Full Agonist, Inverse Agonist D. Antagonist, Inverse Agonist E. None Which of the following receptors is primarily acted by neuromuscular blockers? A. alpha receptors B. beta receptors C. Muscarinic receptors D. Nicotinic receptors The primary receptor subtypes stimulated by Histamine are___ I. Histamine I II. Histamine II III. NMDA receptor A. I and III B. I, II and III C. II and III D. I and II Amphetamine is a/an A. Adrenergic agonist B. Cholinergic antagonist C. Cholinergic agonist D. Adrenergic antagonist Which of the following is an alpha-1 blocker? A. Propranolol B. Atropine C. Prazocin D. ipratropium What is the main reason ẞ blocker drugs are used cautiously on diabetic patients? A. B blocker causes the excretion of Insulin B. B blocker antagonize Insulin by blocking Insulin receptors C. B blocker masks the symptoms of hypoglycemia D. All of the choices E. None of the choices Which of the following beta blockers has/have been useful in stable congestive heart failure management? A. Bisoprolol B. Metoprolol C. Carvedilol D. AOTA E. NOTA Which of the following pairing is CORRECT? A. Ranitidine: H1 blocker B. Diphenhydramine: H2 blocker C. Prasozin: a2 blocker D. Atenolol: B blocker Which of the following are 1st Generation H1 blockers? A. Cetirizine and Diphenhydramine (2, 1) B. Desloratadine and Hydroxyzine (true nonsedating,1) C. Cyclizine and Promethazine D. Chlorpheniramine and Fexofenadine (1, 2) Identify the Ganglion blockers from the drugs listed below. I. Homatropine II. Hexamethonium III. Trimethaphan IV. Tropicamide V. Cyclopentolate VI. Mecamylamine A. II, III B. I. IV. V C. II, IV, V D. II, III, VI Which of the following statements is true regarding transport mechanisms? A. Passive transport is subject to saturation (not) B. Active transport is a carrier mediated transport system along the concentration gradient (against cg) C. Convective transport requires the drug to be in micelle form (pinocytosis) D. Facilitated diffusion does not require energy in providing transportation against the concentration gradient (along) E. None Cholinergic effects include the following except A. decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) B. bronchoconstriction C. miosis (small pupil) D. decreased glandular secretion E. None Which of the following are true? I. Cholinergic agonist increases peristalsis. II. Cholinergic agonist decreases peristalsis. III. Adrenergic agonist increases peristalsis. IV. Adrenergic agonist decreases peristalsis. A. II and IV B. II and III C. I and III D. I and IV Which of the following is an example of a Cholinergic Antagonist? A. Atropine B. Methacholine C. Dobutamine D. Dopamine The following are effects of Atropine except A. Dryness of the mouth B. Dilation of pupils C. Decrease in heart rate D. Inhibition of sweating Most of the drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease are designed to produce ____ effects? A. Serotonergic B. Sympathetic C. Cholinergic D. Dopaminergic Cholinesterase inhibitors can be therapeutically used I. As miotic agents in glaucoma treatment II. To increase skeletal muscle tone in myasthenia gravis treatment III. To decrease gastrointestinal and urinary bladder smooth muscle tone A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I & II E. II & III Which of the following is the rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines? A. Vesicular uptake of dopamine B. Conversion of Norepinephrine to Epinephrine C. Exocytotic release of Norepinephrine [Show Less]