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M1 - M6 FINAL COACHING EXAMS BUNDLE
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M1 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
M1 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Which of the following represents the index of the protective power of colloids? A. N... [Show More] uggets B. Lumina C. Poise D. Zsigmondy What is formed when an atom or cation acts as the center about which anions or molecules arrange themselves? A. Covalent compounds B. Ionic compounds C. Complexes D. Ionic-covalent compounds What does enthalpy refer to in thermodynamics? A. Latent heat B. Heat content C. Degree of total molecular D. Heat of fusion The following are characteristics of active transport, EXCEPT: A. Higher to lower concentration gradient B. Follow saturation kinetics C. Carrier mediated D. Expenditure of energy Calcium sulfate dihydrate is also names as A. Fluorspar B. Limestone C. Talc D. Selenite What is quartz? A. Silicon dioxide B. Magnesium oxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Aluminum oxide Which is the LIGHTEST of all metals A. Platinum B. Lithium C. Nickel D. Magnesium Which paired elements belong to Group VII-A A. F, Br B. No, Co C. F, Na D. Na,F Which group is referred to as "alkali metals"? A. Group 1-A B. Group II-A C. Group IV-A D. Group III-A Which are properties of ammoniated mercury? I. Volatilizes at red heat II. Occurs as white amorphous powder III. Soluble in water and alcohol IV. Decomposes without fusion A. I, III, IV B. I, II, IV C. I, II, III, IV D. I, III, IV Which of the following binary compounds is called arsine? A. CH3 B. AsH3 C. PH3 D. NH3 Which of the following represents the chemical formula of calomel? A. HgCl B. HgO C. HgCl₂ D. SnCl₄ Elements that can exists in two or more crystalline forms are said to be: A. Amphoteric B. Polymorphic C. Amorphous D. Allotropic Cream of tartar is known chemically as A. Potassium bitartrate B. Sodium potassium tartrate C. Zinc oxide D. Potassium nitrate The following elements form basic hydrides, EXCEPT: A. Calcium B. Sulfur C. Strontium D. Magnesium Which of the elements is the MOST electronegative A. I B. Br C. Cl D. F Amalgams is an alloy of which of the following elements? A. Mercury B. Iron C. Copper D. Zinc The following compose group V cations, EXCEPT: A. Manganese B. Lithium C. Potassium D. Sodium Which of the following elements are referred to as the triad of Group VIII? I. Co II. Mn III. Ni IV. Fe A. I, III, IV B. I, II, III C. I, II, IV D. II, III, IV Which of the following elements are referred to as volatile metals? I Cadmium II. Mercury III. Beryllium IV. Zinc A. I, III, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, II, IV D. I, II, III Determine the valence of chromium in potassium chromate with the chemical formula: K2CrO4 A. 6 B. 5 C. 8 D. 7 Which of the following elements are amphoteric? I. Beryllium II. Zinc III. Aluminum IV. Calcium A. I, III B. II, III C. III, IV D. I, II What is liberated when potassium permanganate is reacted with hydrochloric acid? A. Manganous oxide B. Hypochlorous acid C. Chlorine D. Hydrogen When acids are in solution, which of the following is released? A. Positrons B. Neutrons C. Protons D. Electrons E. Electrons When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen and oxygen molecules, which of the following phrases BEST describes this occurrence? A. Substitution reaction B. Chemical change C. Physical change D. Evaporation Which law describes the relationship between pressure, volume, and temperature of gases as depicted in the equation PV=nRT? A. Law of Definite Proportions B. Ideal gas law C. Gay Lussac's law D. Boyle's law In sulfonate conjugation which of the following groups is transformed during functionalization phase of biotransformation of xenobiotics? A. Sulfide B. Sulfonate C. Sulfhydryl D. Sulfate Which of the following is NOT a condition that can occur during metabolic acidosis A. Diabetic acidosis B. Renal failure C. Diarrhea D. Hypertension Replacement therapy is needed when there is: I. Heavy loss of water II. Prolonged fever III. Fracture IV. Diarrhea A. I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. II, III, IV D. I, III, IV Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric properties making it suitable to prevent systemic alkalosis? A. Aluminum hydroxide B. Calcium hydroxide C. Magnesium sulfate D. Barium sulfate Which statements BEST describe the properties of elements in the Periodic Table, from the upper right corner, going down and then to the left? I. Elements increase in metallic character II. Elements become more electronegative III. Elements become more basic IV. Elements become less electronegative A. I, III, IV B. I, II, III C. II, III, IV D. I, II, IV Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams and fine wax candles A. Spermaceti B. Carrageenan C. Fucoidan D. Prostaglandins Which ion gives a Turnbull's blue precipitate upon addition with potassium ferricyanide A. Stannic B. Ferric C. Stannous D. Ferrous Which among the following characteristics differentiates Calcium containing antacid forms from Aluminum containing antacids? A. Calcium is odorless B. Calcium does not cause alkalosis C. Calcium does not have amphoteric properties and does not cause systemic alkalosis D. Calcium does not have amphoteric properties Which of the following elements is NOT found as component of extracellular fluids in humans? A Calcium ion B. Sodium ions C. lodide D. Chloride Which salt is found in the bicarbonate buffer system of the extracellular fluid of the human body? A Magnesium bicarbonate B. Potassium bicarbonate C Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium chloride Surfactants are characterized by the presence of which of the following? A. Water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in the same molecule B. Positive and negative charges C. Water solubilizing groups only D. Fat solubilizing groups only (BEQ) Which of the following refers to a substance that absorbs moisture but does not dissolve in it? A. Hygroscopic B. Dehydrating substance C. Efflorescent D. Deliquescent Which of the following describes potential energy A. Boiling water B. Water inside a big dam C. Water flowing over a dam D. Burning gasoline Which among the following is used as solar ray protective or sun block A Barium sulfate emetic B. Titanium dioxide C. Sodium nitrite D. Antimony chloride Which among the following is the allotropic form of phosphorus made by heating phosphorus at 200 degrees Celsius under a pressure of 1.2 GPa? A. Black phosphorus B. White phosphorus C. Red phosphorus D. Yellow phosphorus Which of the following type of radiation has the greatest penetrating power? A Beta radiation B. Gamma radiation C. Sun rays D. Alpha radiation Which of the following pharmaceutical products requires that the method of preparation must be reflected in the label? A Sterile water for injection USP B Bacteriostatic water for Injection USP C. Purified water USP D. Milk of magnesia A drug receptor may be all of the following, EXCEPT? A. Isolable enzyme B. Functional component of a cell membrane C. Nucleic acid D. Chelate Compounds that results from a combination of electron donor and a metal forming a ring structure A. Chelate B. Prodrug C. Lactam rin Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the following analytical methods? A. Nuclear magnetic resonance B. Mass spectrophotometry C. Optical rotation D. pK determination Which of the following statements describes cis- and trans isomerism? I. Occurs only in organic compounds II. Occurs in both organic and inorganic compounds III. Trans-alkenes have lower solubility in Inert solvents than their cis counterparts IV. Cis- and Trans-isomers often have different physical properties. A. I, III, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, II, IV D. I, II, III Which of the following characterizes facilitated diffusion? A. Energy requiring B. Involves shifting of solvent C. Carrier-specific D. The movement against a concentration gradient Which are the pharmaceutical applications of partition coefficient (K)? I. Predicts where drug will concentrate in the body II. Predicts adverse drug interactions in the body III. Predicts solubility of a drug in water and fatty tissues in the body IV. Predicts how well a chemical ingredient will mix with creams in consumer products A. II, III, IV B. I, II, IV C. I, II, II D. I, III, IV Which of the following is the major organ for drug metabolism? A. Liver B. Small intestines C. Kidney D. Lungs Which of the following therapeutic advantages CANNOT be obtained by the use of prodrugs? Increase___ A. Water solubility B. Oral absorption C. Duration of action D. Potency Which of the following are benzodiazepine derivatives used as anxiolytics? I. Imidazopyridine II. Chlordiazepoxide III. Alprazolam IV. Diazepam A. I, II, III, IV B. I, II, IV C. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV Which antibiotic is obtained from Streptomyces noursei? A. Amphotericin B B. Griseofulvin C. Clindamycin D. Nystatin Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulations, how is it chemically classified? A. Wax B. Ketone C. Silicone D. Alcohol Hydroxybenzoic acid is more commonly known as: A. Citric acid B. Oxalic acid C. Salicylic acid D. Lactic acid Sensitivity of gram-negative bacilli to amoxicillin is attributed to its: A. Carboxyl group B. Nitro group C. Hydroxyl group D. Amino group Which of the following is a first-generation urinary tract anti-infective A. Nalidixic acid B. Griseofulvin C. Salicylic acid D. Norfloxacin [Show Less]
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M2 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
M2 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Select the site of pyruvate formation during glycolysis A. Liver B. Muscles C. Heart ... [Show More] D. Lungs Choose the organelle, found close to the endoplasmic reticulum, which receives and acts on proteins and membrane lipids to further modify them and then passes these on to other parts of the cell through budding vesicles A. Golgi apparatus B. Lysosomes C. Ribosomes D. Mitochondria Select the organelles that have digestive vesicles and contain enzymes that degrade proteins and nucleic acids A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Golgi apparatus D. Lysosomes Classify the amino acids according to their side-chain functional groups: Glutamate, aspartic acid A. Sulfur-containing side chain B. Aromatic side chain C. Carboxylic acids D. Basic side chain Identify the chemical bond that joins amino acids together in a protein molecule A. Peptide B. H-bonds C. lonic bonds D. Dipole-dipole Identify the characteristic functional groups of amino acids A. Amino acid and carboxylic acid groups B. Amino and hydroxyl groups C. Hydroxyl and carboxylic acid groups D. Methyl and carboxylic acid groups Identify the simplest amino acid among the 20 common amino acids A. Serine B. Alanine C. Glycine D. Lysine Identify the nucleotide which is responsible for reading the complementary DNA message A. rRNA B. tRNA C. hnRNA D. mRNA Find the examples of transport and storage proteins A. Ribonuclease, hexokinase B. Actin, myosin C. Hemoglobin, myoglobin, serum albumin D. Keratin, actin Identify the stage in protein synthesis when the anticodon of tRNA recognizes the codon on Mrna A. Termination B. Transcription C. Translation D. Elongation Identify the site of the initial stage of protein synthesis A. Cytoplasm B. Golgi apparatus C. Ribosomes D. Nucleus Analyze and select the underlying principle in the ninhydrin test for proteins A. Based on the reaction of cupric ions of the reagent with the N of the peptide bonds forming a purple or violet-colored complex B. Based on the nitration of proteins, which leads to the formation of a yellow precipitate that turns into orange on treatment with an alkali C. Based on the reaction between the phenolic group of a protein with mercuric sulfate in the presence of sodium nitrite and sulfuric acid resulting in the formation of a red-colored solution D. Based on the reaction between the reagent and the amino group of the free amino acid of the test sample, which leads to the oxidation of the compound and its deamination and resulting in the formation of a deep blue colored solution Select the enzyme that hydrolyzes bacterial cell wall A. Carbonic anhydrase B. Lysozyme C. Lactate dehydrogenase D. Kinase Analyze the mechanism or catalytic strategy employed by restriction endonucleases A. Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP B. Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with other physiological processes C. Attainment of a high degree of specificity D. Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH Analyze which enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle catalyzes the condensation of oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA A. Citrate synthase B. Pyruvate carboxylase C. Aconitase D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase Classify fumarase A. Hydrolase B. Ligase C. Transferase D. Lyase Analyze the mechanism or catalytic strategy employed by carbonic anhydrase A. Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP B. Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with other physiological processes C. Attainment of a high degree of specificity D. Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH Analyze which enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle catalyzes the carboxylation of pyruvate to give oxaloacetate A. Citrate synthase B. Pyruvate carboxylase C. Fumarase D. Pyruvate Identify the zymogen that is activated by the enzyme trypsin A. Fibrinogen B. Pepsinogen C. Trypsinogen D. Procarboxypeptidase Classify nucleoside monophosphate kinase A. Ligase B. Hydrolase C. Lyase D. Transferase Identify the carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that finds clinical application in the treatment of glaucoma by reducing intraocular pressure A. Celecoxib B. Sulfanilamide C. Acetazolamide D. Pirenoxine Find the complementary base pairs in DNA molecules A. Adenine-Thymine, Cytosine-Guanine B. Adenine-Thymine, Cytosine-Uracil C. Uracil-Thymine, Cytosine-Guanine D. Uracil-Thymine, Adenine Guanine Select the complementary sequence for the DNA segment: GATCAA A. CTGCUU B. CUAGUU C. CTAGTT D. TTAGTT Determine the pathological condition that is caused by the absence of adenosine deaminase, an enzyme in the purine degradation pathway A. Severe combined immunodeficiency B. Neural tube defects C. Gouts D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome Identify the step in DNA synthesis when DNA polymerase plays a role A. termination B. Primer binding C. Replication fork formation D. Elongation Select the sequence of the mRNA segment synthesized from this DNA template strand: CACCGCCCGTCG A. GUGGCGGGCAGC B. GUGGGGGCCAGC C. GUCGCGGGCAGC D. GUGCCGGGCAGC Determine the pathological condition that is caused by a deficiency in folate derivatives during early pregnancy because of the important role of these derivatives in the synthesis of DNA A. Lesch- Nyhan syndrome B. Severe combined immunodeficiency C. Gout D. Neural tube defects Pick the odd one out A. Telomeres B. Okazaki fragments C. Leading strand D. Lagging strand Select the category to which D-glucose and Dmannose belong A. Enantiomers B. Epimers C. Aldose-ketose D. Diastereomers Select the carbohydrate that is administered as an intra-articular injection in cases of osteoarthritis A. Keratin sulfate B. Hyaluronic acid C. Heparin D. Beta-D-hexosaminidase-A Classify the carbohydrates starch, cellulose, and inulin A. Heteroglycans B. Homoglycans C. Trisaccharides D. Disaccharides Find the statement that is NOT correct about glycolysis A. The first part of glycolysis works on the six-carbon molecule, preparing it for oxidation B. The third part operates on one of the glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate molecules, oxidizing it to yield energy C. One glucose molecule generates two molecules of pyruvate and two units of ATP D. The second part of glycolysis splits the sixcarbon molecule into three two-carbon fragments Identify the type of chemical reaction in the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3bisphosphoglycerate A. Phosphoryl shift B. Aldol cleavage C. Isomerization D. Reduction-oxidation Identify the type of chemical reaction in the conversion of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone phosphate A. Aldol cleavage B. Phosphoryl shift C. Isomerization D. Reduction-oxidation Identify the end product of glycolysis A. Phosphoenolpyruvate B. Pyruvate C. Fructose-6-phosphate D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Select the carbohydrate used as an acidulant, especially in infant feeding formulas A. High-fructose sweeteners B. Xylose C. Lactic acid D. Mannitol Identify the carbohydrate that is used as a selfbinding diluent and disintegrating agent A. Xylose B. High-fructose sweeteners C. Powdered cellulose D. Lactic acid It measures the degree of unsaturation of the oil. Those which are partially resinify on exposure to air have high values. A. Ester value B. Acetyl value C. lodine value D. Acid value E. Saponification value Refers to the number of mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acid combined by acylation of the sample. A. Acetyl value B. Peroxide value C. Ester value D. Hydroxyl value E. lodine value Select the class to which prostaglandins belong A. Sphingolipid B. Fatty acid C. Glyceryl ester D. Terpene Select the major storage form of fatty acids A. Ester of a long chain alcohol B. Ester of a monohydric alcohol C. Triglyceride D. Ester of a polyhydric alcohol Identify the essential fatty acids for humans A. Linolenic acid and linoleic acid B. Linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid C. Oleic acid, linolenic acid D. Stearic acid, linoleic acid Identify the fatty acid referred to as "omega-3" A. Alpha-linoleic acid B. Beta-linolenic acid C. Oleic acid D. Alpha-linolenic acid This is used for the symptomatic treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia A. Safflower oil B. Sunflower oil C. Saw Palmetto oil D. Persic oil Starflower oil A. Helianthus anuus B. Carthamus tinctorius C. Borago officinalis D. Serenoa repens The only liquid wax A. Sus scrofa B. Gaddus morrhua C. Physeter macrocephalus D. Simmondsia chinensis Contains a toxic principle that causes male sterility A. Palm kernel oil B. Germ oil C. Rapeseed oil D. Cottonseed oil Drying oil A. Linum ussitassimum B. Gossypium hirsutum C. Sesamum indicum D. Olea europaea Solvents for IM injections, EXCEPT: A. Corn oil B. Cottonseed oil C. Peanut oil D. Soybean oil Used to test Olive oil for Tea tree oil or Camellia oil contamination A. Halphen B. Baudouin C. Millon D. Serger Source of lecithin and stigmasterol A. Peanut oil B. Soybean oil C. Sesame oil D. Corn oil Identify the carrier molecule that transports fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane A. Carnitine B. Chilomicron C. Aldimine D. GLUT Find the statement that is correct about lipids A. Thromboxanes prevent clotting B. Prostaglandins stimulate gastric acid secretion C. Eicosanoids act as messengers inside cells and between neighboring cells D. Linoleoyl-CoA is derived from arachidonyl-CoA Select the statement that BEST describes fatty acid metabolism A. Fatty acid metabolism is NOT tied to carbohydrate metabolism B. Fatty acids and their CoA esters are able to freely cross the inner mitochondrial membrane C. The release of fatty acids and their subsequent Beta-oxidation is a primary source of metabolic energy for the cell D. Fatty acid catabolism is NOT under hormonal control Analyze the mechanism involved in the regulation of DNA replication and synthesis of mRNA A. Compartmentalization B. Enzyme activation C. Hormonal control D. Concentration Select the coenzyme that is required by aminotransferases A. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide B. Pyridoxal phosphate C. Flavin adenine dinucleotide D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate Identify the precursors of gluconeogenesis A. Glycerol, lactic acid, pyruvic acid B. Glycerol, lactate, pyruvate, glucogenic amino acids C. Pyruvic acid, lactic acid, acetic acid D. Sucrose, lactic acid, pyruvate acid Analyze the mechanism involved in the regulation of phosphorylation and glycosylation A. Enzyme activation B. Hormonal control C. Concentration D. Compartmentalization Enzyme L A. Arginase B. Argininosuccinase C. Argininosuccinic synthetase or Lyase D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase Ornithine transcarbamoylase [Show Less]
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M3 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
M3 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) MCDL A. 1450 B. 1550 C. 1600 D. 1650 A medication order for a 10-month old infant wei... [Show More] ghing 8 kg calls for 800 μg Furosemide papertabs. The available preparation of the drug in the pharmacy is 40 mg. The average weight of the tablet is 80 mg. How many papertabs can the pharmacist prepare from one tablet? A. 50 pptabs B. 75 pptabs C. 100 pptabs D. 125 pptabs Concentration expression most commonly used for suspensions A. %w/v B. %v/v C. %w/w D. ppm E. mg% mg% is equivalent to A. gram/liter B. gram/dl C. mg/dl D. meq/100 ml A physician places a patient on a daily dose of 48 units of U-80 insulin. How many mL should the patient inject daily? A. 0.4 mL B. 0.6 mL C. 4 mL D. 2.6 mL 250 mcg/mL is equivalent to A. 0.0025 mg/mL B. 0.025 mg/mL C. 0.25 mg/mL D. 2.5 mg/mL Compute for the required volume of water to make 2.35g of atropine sulphate (E=0.13) isotonic. Use White Vincent method. A. 33.94 mL B. 36.42 mL C. 4.33 mL D. 30.16 mL Cetuximab has a loading dose of 400 mg/m2 administered as an intravenous infusion over a 120minute period. Using an IV set that delivers 15 drops/mL, calculate the dose for a patient with a BSA of 1.5m2 A. 600 mg B. 640 mg C. 4 grams D. 40mg What mass of sodium chloride should be added in 100 ml of 5.0% (w/v) dextrose monohydrate (E=0.16) isotonic solution? A. 250 mg B. 2.20 g C. 0.9 g D. 100 mg Drug A is usually given in ranges between 5-10 mg/kg of body weight. What would be the dose range for a person weighing 125 lbs? A. 0.28 g -0.57 g B. 284 g - 568 g C. 0.31 g - 0.63g D. 312.5g - 625 g Epinephrine is available as an injection containing 100 mcg/mL. The patient requires an IM injection of 0.5mg. How many mL of injection is needed to supply this required dose? A. 0.005 mL B. 20 mL C.5 mL D. 2 mL Doctor's order: Amikacin 5mg/lb IM q12h Available: Amikacin 0.9g/2mL How many mL is administered to a 72.7 kg patient in a day? A. 1.2 mL B. 0.8 mL C. 2.8 mL D. 3.6 mL If 500 mL of a 1:200 (v/v) solution were diluted to 800 mL, what would be the ratio strength (v/v)? A. 1:800 B. 1:300 C. 1:320 D. 1:250 E. 1:500 If topical cream contains 1.8% (w/w) of hydrocortisone, how many milligrams of hydrocortisone should be used in preparing 15g of the cream? A. 27 mg B. 270 mg C. 833 mg D. 0.833 mg A patient received 100mL of an infusion at 10 drops/minute with an administration set that delivered 60 drops/mL. Calculate the duration of the infusion in hours. A. 12 hours B. 10 hours C. 8 hours D. 5 hours Which of the following are TRUE regarding specific gravity: I. Water is used as a standard for the specific gravities of liquids and solids, II. Urine specific gravity is a measure of solute in the urine. III. Substances that have a specific gravity greater than 1 are heavier than water, A. I and II B. I and III C. I, II, III D. II and III Calculate the specific gravity of the mixture: 800 ml glycerin, s.g. 1.25, 900 ml water, 2000 ml alcohol, s.g. 0.81 A. 0.705 B. 0.687 C. 0.951 D. 0.864 What is the %v/v of a solution of 800g liquid (spec. gravity = 0.8) in water to make 4000mL? A. 20% B. 40% C. 25% D. 80% The normal potassium (MW-39) levels in the blood ranges from 13.65 to 19.5 mg% Express the range in milliequivalents/liter. A. 3.5 to 5 mEq/L B. 35 to 50 mEq/L C. 0.35 to 0.50 mEq/L D. 3.5 to 4.5 mEq/L How many mg potassium (MW-39) are there in 4L of a solution that is 3mEq/L? A. 117 mg B. 468 mg C. 307 mg D. 29.25 mg How many mEq of Na+ are present in 250cc NSS? (Na-23, Cl=35) A. 23 mEq B. 15 mEq C. 53 mEq D. 38 mEq Which of the following is incorrect pairing? A. 0.009% NSS: hypotonic solution B. 9.0% NSS: isotonic solution C. 0.9% NSS: isotonic solution D. 0.09% NSS: hypotonic solution How many grams of 1% hydrocortisone cream must be mixed with 0.5% hydrocortisone cream if one wishes to prepare 80 g of a 0.6% w/w preparation? A. 12 g B. 16 g C. 20 g D. 24 g E. 36 g How many fluid ounces of flavored syrup are contained in a 5-L container? A. 148 B. 169 C. 196 D. 247 E. 256 A prescription requires the preparation of a 60 ml solution of 1:10,000 from a stock solution of 1:750. How much of solution will be used in compounding this prescription? A. 4.6 mL B. 780 mL C. 0.08 mL D. 166 mL How many colchicine tablets, each containing 500 micrograms, maybe prepared from 45 grams of colchicine? A. 9 B. 900 C. 9,000 D. 90,000 An ointment formulation requires 80 g of emulsifier blend with tween 40 and span 20. If the HLB requirement is 12.3, how many grams of each emulsifier should be used? (HLB Tween 40 = 15.6 Span 20= 8.6) A. 46.5 g Span 20, 23.3 g Tween 40 B. 23.3 g Span 20, 46.5 g Tween 40 C. 42.3 g Span 20, 37.7 Tween 40 D. 37.7 g Span 20, 42.3g Tween 40 A patient was prescribed with Cefuroxime oral suspension (125 mg/mL) to be taken in doses of 2 tsp. three times a day for 4 days, and 1 tbsp. twice a day for 2 days. How many mL of the suspension should be dispensed to cover the entire regimen? A. 180 B. 18 C. 1.8 D. 200 E. 20 A nutritional product contains 10 grams of carbohydrates, 15 grams of proteins and 5 grams of fat in each 100-mL serving. What is the caloric content of one serving? A. 40 kcal B. 220 kcal C. 100 kcal D. 145 kcal How much lidocaine is required to prepare 1:1000, 30mL of lidocaine solution? A. 10 mg B. 0.03 mg C. 30 mg D.3g Net profit is calculated by A. adding liabilities and gross profit B. subtracting expenses from gross profit C. subtracting inventory cost from the total expenses D. subtracting inventory cost from gross profit What would be the selling price of a compounded product if the following base costs were computed: 1. Labor (15 minutes) Php 28.95 2. Supplies - Php 27.90 3-Electricity - Php 1.50 and 4- Depreciation cost of equipment to be used - Php 84.20. Mark-up is at 60% A. Php 142.55 B. Php 57.02 C. Php 85.53 D. Php 228.08 If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active drug, how many inhalation doses can be delivered, if each inhalation dose contains 90 micrograms? A. 1,800 doses B. 22 doses C. 180 doses D. 222 doses If there is an order for a particular Dangerous Drug (DD) with a preparation of 10 mg/2 mL ampule, how many mL would be needed if the dose is 0.05 mg/Kg/dose? The patient is 110 lbs. A. 1 mL B. 0.05 mL C. 0.25 mL D. 0.5 mL The purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee are the following: A. Advisory and educational B. Advisory and planning C. Educational and planning D. Dispensing and Inventory Who among the following can write a prescription? A. Pharmacist B. Nurse C. Dentist D. Radiologic technologist The most appropriate/ advantageous drug delivery system in the hospital A. Floor stock B. Individual prescription order system C. Unit dose drug delivery system D. Combined delivery system E. NOTA Which of the following parameters should be considered when storing medications? I. Air velocity II. Particle count III. Temperature IV. Relative humidity A. I and II B. III and IV C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV Based on USP, what is the beyond-use date (BUD) for water containing oral preparations at controlled cold temperatures? A. no longer than 7 days B. no longer than 14 days C. no longer than 24 days D. no longer than 30 days PhilPSP stands for: A. Philippine Professional Standards for Pharmacists B. Philippine Pharmacy Standards of Practice C. Philippine Practice Standards for Pharmacists D. Philippine Pharmaceutical Science Program E. Philippine Practice Standards for Professionals Which of the following opioids do/es NOT require S2 license? A. Methadone B. Morphine C. Tramadol D. Both A & B Stenosis means: A. Inflammation of the sternum B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione? I. It affects the production of melatonin. II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy. III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening. A. III B. I and II C. II D. I, II and III Which of the following drugs cannot be advertised to the general public? A. Ponstan 500 mg B. Sinecod 50 mg C. Cataflam 25 mg D. Imodium 2 mg E. Flanax 275 mg Which of the following refer to drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error? A. Non-formulary drugs B. High-alert medications C. Look-alike, Sound-alike drugs D. High value medication Neurobion contains I. Vit. B1 II. Vit. B3 III. Vit. B6 IV. Vit. B12 A. I, III, IV B. I, II, III C. II, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV DTP series of injections is intended for administration to A. Infants B. Children 6 years and older C. Adults D. NOTA Medication that may be left at the patient's bedside A. NGT B. Insulin C. Digitalis D. NTG Drug found in the Emergency Kit used for heart failure: A. Captopril B. Isosorbide mononitrate C. Isosorbide dinitrate D. Candesartan E. Digoxin Which of the following is/are advisable route of administration/s for potassium supplements? I. Powder for suspension II. IV bolus III. IV infusion IV. Extended-release tablet, po A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. I, IV D. III, IV Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Heparin and Warfarin? I. Heparin is administered parenterally while Warfarin is given orally. II. Dosage strength of both heparin and warfarin are expressed in "Units" III. They are both anticoagulants. IV. They have the same antidote in cases of overdose. A. I and III B. I and IV C. I, II and III D. II and III What is the usual expiration dating that should be placed on a parenteral admixture prepared in a hospital pharmacy? A. 1 hour B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours Unit used for the internal diameter of catheters: A. French B. Gauge C. NOTA D. A and B Which of the following beta-blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity? I. Pindolol II. Esmolol III. Metoprolol A. I B. II C. I and II D. I, II and III [Show Less]
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M4 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
M4 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Two drugs that act on the same tissue organ through independent receptors resulting i... [Show More] n effects that are opposite of each other is known as A. Physiologic Antagonism B. Irreversible Antagonism C. Competitive Antagonism D. Chemical Antagonism Which of the following statements is/are TRUE? I. Weakly acidic drugs in alkaline media will be in its ionized form, decreasing reabsorption II. Weakly basic in alkaline media will exist primarily in its unionized form, decreasing reabsorption III. Weakly acidic drugs in alkaline media will exist primarily in its nonpolar form which cannot be reabsorbed easily A. I B. II C. III D. I, II and III What is the most important organ for the absorption of orally administered drugs? A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Liver D. Kidney As shown in the graph, the drug has an increasing plasma concentration towards reaching the therapeutic range. What would most likely be the reason for this? A. Faster metabolism of the drug B. Drug clearance decreases overtime C. Faster distribution of the drug to the target sites D. Giving of Maintenance Doses Identify the parameters A and B in the figure used in determining the therapeutic range? A. A-Minimum Effective concentration B-Maximum Toxic Concentration B. A-Minimum Effective concentration B - Minimum Toxic Concentration C. A-Minimum Toxic concentration B-Minimum Effective Concentration D. A-Maximum Toxic concentration B- Maximum Effective Concentration In what half-life did a trough level reach the therapeutic range? A. 2 B. 5 C. 3.5 D. 6 Drugs with very HIGH volume of distribution are those that have. A. Higher concentrations in the extravascular compartments B. Higher concentrations in the vascular compartment than in the extravascular tissue C. Lower concentration that will be absorbed after oral administration D. Higher concentrations that will be absorbed after oral administration In neonates where there is a relative decrease in serum proteins, which of the following will be true if a highly protein bound drug is administered to these group of patients? A. Decreased protein binding, resulting in a greater free fraction of the drug B. Increased protein binding, resulting in a reduced free fraction of the drug C. Increased protein binding, resulting in a greater free fraction of the drug D. Decreased protein binding, resulting in a reduced free fraction of the drug Which of the following factors can prolong duration of a drug? I. Decreased protein binding II. Greater tubular reabsorption II. Reduced polarity A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III What is the fate of drug after metabolism? A. more lipid-soluble B. more non-polar C. more polar D. A and B Which of the following instances will pharmacokinetic variation in Drug Metabolizing Enzymes (DME) is significantly considered? I. Inactive drug is converted to active metabolites II. parent drug is a prodrug III. the drug has a very wide margin of safety A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II and III Which is true about a drug with low therapeutic index? A. More effective B. Less effective C. More safe D. Less safe Which of the following are the reasons for formulating prodrugs? I. Improve bioavailability of the drug II. Develop cheaper therapeutic alternatives III. Promotes site-specific delivery of the drug A. I B. II C. II and III D. I, II and III What is the order of reaction in which the concentration of a drug is decreasing at a rate that is proportional to the concentration of the drug remaining? A. Zero B. First C. Third D. Second Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding 1st order kinetics? I. The drug is distributed to only a compartment outside the vascular system II. Half-life is the same regardless of plasma concentration III. Rate of elimination is proportional to the rate of administration only at steady state A. II and III B. II C.I D. I, II and III What percent of drug is removed per hour if the elimination rate constant is 0.25/hr? A. 0.75% B. 0.25% C. 0.25 D. 0.42 Which of the following will enhance the excretion of an alkaline poison in the urine? A. Probenecid B. Urinary acidifier C. Urinary alkalinizer D. Inulin The measurement of renal clearance of inulin is used to assess A. active tubular secretion (Zero order) B. glomerular filtration rate (First order) C. renal perfusion D. renal secretion Which of the following is NOT true about the effect of significant organ dysfunction on pharmacokinetic variables? A. renal insufficiency increases clearance of renally- excreted drugs B. cardiac impairment decreases cardiac output resulting to reduction of volume of distribution C. Liver dysfunction may result to inability of transforming the drug to its active metabolite D. hepatic impairment prolongs half-life of drugs that are highly dependent on the liver for elimination The following are TRUE regarding patients with renal impairment, EXCEPT: A. They have reduced requirement for drugs that are directly excreted by the kidneys. B. The elimination of renally cleared drugs is intervals. C. Adjustments can be done by prolonging dose intervals. D. The serum creatinine levels are higher than the reference value. The amount of drug excreted into milk depends on a number of kinetic factor. Which of the following is/are the ideal characteristic/s of a drug when given to a breastfeeding woman? I. High lipid solubility II. High molecular weight III. Long half-life A. I B.II C. II and III D. I, II and III Which of the following drugs will cross cell membranes easily? A. unionized and polar B. ionized and polar C. lipid-soluble and unionized D. water-soluble and non-polar Isoniazid undergoes what type of conjugation reaction. A. Glycine conjugation B. Acetylation (HIPS) C. Glucuronidation D. Methylation Which of the following refers to the process in which one enantiomer of a compound is converted to another enantiomer? A. Racemization B. Degradation C. Polymerization D. Precipitation Which of the following preparations produce local effects? I. Anti-asthma drugs administered inhalational II. Eye drops III. Topical skin creams Transdermal patch A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV When IV bolus dose is administered, peak concentration is obtained A. after the metabolism B. Immediately after the dose is given C. after few hours D. after the distribution phase Which of the following equations is used to compute for the patient's creatinine clearance? A. Michaelis-menten equation B. Cockroft and Gault equation C. Harris-Benedict equation D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation Newborns and infants have decreased expression of metabolic enzymes. This implies A. Increase in clearance and Increase in elimination half-life B. Increase in clearance and Decrease in elimination half-life C. Decrease in clearance and Increase in elimination half-life D. Decrease in clearance and Decrease in elimination half-life Which of the following would be the implication if the drug has an increased clearance in a patient? A. A lower dose is needed to achieve the target concentration. B. A higher dose is needed to achieve the target concentration. C. A faster administration rate is needed to achieve the target concentration. D. A slower administration rate is needed to achieve the target concentration. Constriction or the arterioles is due to the stimulation of what receptor? A. alpha-1 B. alpha-2 C. beta-1 D. beta-2 Phenylephrine acts selectively on what type of receptor? A. Alpha-1 B. Alpha-2 C. Beta-1 D. Beta-2 Which of the following receptors is/are responsible for the adrenergic peripheral responses? I. Alpha receptor II. Beta-receptor II. Muscarinic receptors A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III Which of the following beta-2 agonist are short-acting agents? I. Albuterol II. Salmeterol III. Terbutaline IV. Formoterol A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, III and IV This G-Protein Coupled Receptor is known for stimulating Phospholipase C which results to production of inositol Triphosphate and Diacylglycerol. A. Gs B. Gi C. Gq D. Both a and c E. None A drug which gives a result of decrease intrinsic activity of receptors. A. Antagonist B. Agonist C. Inverse Agonist D. Both a and c E. None A partial agonist drug becomes a/an ______ in the presence of a/an ______ A. Full Agonist, Antagonist B. Antagonist, Full Agonist C. Full Agonist, Inverse Agonist D. Antagonist, Inverse Agonist E. None Which of the following receptors is primarily acted by neuromuscular blockers? A. alpha receptors B. beta receptors C. Muscarinic receptors D. Nicotinic receptors The primary receptor subtypes stimulated by Histamine are___ I. Histamine I II. Histamine II III. NMDA receptor A. I and III B. I, II and III C. II and III D. I and II Amphetamine is a/an A. Adrenergic agonist B. Cholinergic antagonist C. Cholinergic agonist D. Adrenergic antagonist Which of the following is an alpha-1 blocker? A. Propranolol B. Atropine C. Prazocin D. ipratropium What is the main reason ẞ blocker drugs are used cautiously on diabetic patients? A. B blocker causes the excretion of Insulin B. B blocker antagonize Insulin by blocking Insulin receptors C. B blocker masks the symptoms of hypoglycemia D. All of the choices E. None of the choices Which of the following beta blockers has/have been useful in stable congestive heart failure management? A. Bisoprolol B. Metoprolol C. Carvedilol D. AOTA E. NOTA Which of the following pairing is CORRECT? A. Ranitidine: H1 blocker B. Diphenhydramine: H2 blocker C. Prasozin: a2 blocker D. Atenolol: B blocker Which of the following are 1st Generation H1 blockers? A. Cetirizine and Diphenhydramine (2, 1) B. Desloratadine and Hydroxyzine (true nonsedating,1) C. Cyclizine and Promethazine D. Chlorpheniramine and Fexofenadine (1, 2) Identify the Ganglion blockers from the drugs listed below. I. Homatropine II. Hexamethonium III. Trimethaphan IV. Tropicamide V. Cyclopentolate VI. Mecamylamine A. II, III B. I. IV. V C. II, IV, V D. II, III, VI Which of the following statements is true regarding transport mechanisms? A. Passive transport is subject to saturation (not) B. Active transport is a carrier mediated transport system along the concentration gradient (against cg) C. Convective transport requires the drug to be in micelle form (pinocytosis) D. Facilitated diffusion does not require energy in providing transportation against the concentration gradient (along) E. None Cholinergic effects include the following except A. decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) B. bronchoconstriction C. miosis (small pupil) D. decreased glandular secretion E. None Which of the following are true? I. Cholinergic agonist increases peristalsis. II. Cholinergic agonist decreases peristalsis. III. Adrenergic agonist increases peristalsis. IV. Adrenergic agonist decreases peristalsis. A. II and IV B. II and III C. I and III D. I and IV Which of the following is an example of a Cholinergic Antagonist? A. Atropine B. Methacholine C. Dobutamine D. Dopamine The following are effects of Atropine except A. Dryness of the mouth B. Dilation of pupils C. Decrease in heart rate D. Inhibition of sweating Most of the drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease are designed to produce ____ effects? A. Serotonergic B. Sympathetic C. Cholinergic D. Dopaminergic Cholinesterase inhibitors can be therapeutically used I. As miotic agents in glaucoma treatment II. To increase skeletal muscle tone in myasthenia gravis treatment III. To decrease gastrointestinal and urinary bladder smooth muscle tone A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I & II E. II & III Which of the following is the rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines? A. Vesicular uptake of dopamine B. Conversion of Norepinephrine to Epinephrine C. Exocytotic release of Norepinephrine [Show Less]
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M5 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
M5 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Identify cosmetics which are regulated as drugs. A. Hair colors, toothpastes B. Skin ... [Show More] moisturizers, perfumes, nail polishes C. Shampoos, lipsticks D. Mouthwashes, antiperspirants, diaper ointments, lip balms Identify the use of Potassium Diformate in veterinary medicine. A. Antiparasitic B. Strong antimicrobial C. Anti-acidic agent D. Sedative Which statements BEST describe the local effects of drugs? I. Local effects are felt in the general area of administration. II. A drug can have both local and systemic effects on the body regardless of the method and route of administration. III. The main route for local effect is topical. IV. Drugs intended for local effect must enter the bloodstream. A. II, III B. II, III, IV C. I, II, III D. I, III Which drugs have a systemic effect? I. Povidone-iodine topical solution II. Fentanyl Patch III. Nicotine Patch IV. Salmeterol Inhalation A. III, IV B. I, III, II, III, IV C. I, II D. II, III, IV How is a powder composed of particles that all pass through a No. 80 sieve classified? A. Coarse powder B. Fine powder C. Very fine powder D. Very coarse powder Analyze which method of preparing powders may be employed both to comminute and mix the ingredients; for comminution purposes, a porcelain or Wedgewood mortar with a rough inner surface is preferred; and for chemicals that may stain the porcelain or Wedgewood surface, a glass mortar is preferred. A. Mechanical mixing B. Sifting C. Trituration D. Tumbling Identify the method of preparing powders that consists of enclosing the powder in a large container, which rotates and mixes the powder ingredients. A. Sifting B. Tumbling C. Trituration D. Mechanical mixing The following are the advantages of granules over powders, EXCEPT A. Better flow property B. Not easily wetted by liquids C. More stable to humidity D. less tendency to cake or harden Analyze and select the basic product formulation for a tablet. A. Active ingredient, diluent, lubricant B. Active ingredient, solvent, emulsifier, lubricant C. Active ingredient, solubilizing agent, binder, disintegrant, filler D. Active ingredient, diluent or filler, binder, disintegrant, lubricant Classify tablets that are prepared by compressing granular materials that have the capacity to release gas when in contact with water A. Buccal tablets B. Effervescent tablets C. Enteric-coated tablets D. Multiple-compressed tablets Opacifying agent used in the preparation of hard gelatin capsules A. Zinc oxide B. Titanium dioxide C. Sulfur dioxide D. Silicon dioxide Evaluate which statements are correct regarding hard and soft gelatin capsules. I. Aside from gelatin, two-piece capsules may also be prepared from HPMC and starches. (Vegetable capsules) II. If stored in an environment of high humidity, hard gelatin capsules may become distorted and lose their rigid shape. III. Soft gelatin capsules are made of gelatin to which glycerin or sorbitol has been added. IV. Soft gelatin capsules are used to encapsulate and hermetically seal non-aqueous liquids. A. I, III B. II, IV C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III, IV Analyze which drug delivery system achieves slow release of drug over an extended period of time. A. Site-specific release B. Delayed release C. Receptor release D. Sustained release Select the delivery system, which does NOT produce or maintain uniform drug blood levels within the therapeutic range but is more effective for patient compliance than conventional dosage forms. A. Site-specific release B. Receptor release C. Sustained release D. Delayed release Evaluate which statement is correct regarding rectal administration of drugs. A. The primary advantage of using rectal route is that it completely avoids the first-pass effect. B. The downside of rectal administration includes the stigma of violating the patient's dignity. C. Adult rectal suppositories weigh about 5 g when cocoa butter is employed as the base. D. Rectal suppositories for use by infants and children are about twice the weight and size of the adult suppositories. Determine which is NOT a good characteristic of a suppository base. A. Compatible with a variety of drugs B. Remains stable in rectal fluids C. Stable on storage D. Nontoxic and nonirritating to the mucous membranes Find the incorrect statement about Theobroma Oil. A. It is a naturally occurring alkaloid. B. The alpha form is metastable with a melting point below 30 °C. C. The beta crystal is its stable form with a melting point approaching 35 °C. D. It requires a fusion temperature of 40-50 °C to prevent a change in crystal form and melting point. Find the incorrect statement about Oleaginous Ointment Bases/ Hydrocarbon bases. A. They include fixed oils of vegetable origin, fats from animals and semisolid HC obtained from petroleum. B. Oleaginous ointment bases are excellent emollients. C. Vegetable oils and animal fats have a lower water absorbing capacity. D. Vegetable oils raise the melting point of ointments. Which of the following are used as ointment bases? I. Lanolin II. Mineral oil/ Liquid petrolatum III. Petrolatum IV. Glycerin V. Coconut oil A. I, II B. II. V C. I, III D. III, IV Classify White Petrolatum as an ointment base. A. Hydrocarbon base B. Absorption base C. Emulsion base (o/w type) D. Emulsion base (w/o type) Classify Anhydrous Lanolin as an ointment base. A. Emulsion base (o/w type) B. Emulsion base (w/o type) C. Absorption base D. Water-soluble base Classify Olive Oil as an ointment base. A. Absorption bases B. Vegetable oil bases C. Hydrocarbon bases D. Emulsifying bases Classify Polyethylene Glycol as an ointment base. A. Hydrocarbon bases B. Emulsifying bases C. Water absorbable bases D. Absorption bases Classify pectin paste, tragacanth jelly, bentonite gel, and colloidal magnesium aluminum silicate gels as semisolid base. A. Emulsifiable base B. Emulsified base C. Hydrogel D. Organogel Classify aluminum stearate, mineral oil gel, and theobroma oil as semisolid base. A. Emulsifiable base B. Organogel C. Emulsified base D. Hydrogel Classify hydrophilic petrolatum, wool fat, and anhydrous Tween base as semisolid base. A. Organogel B. Hydrogel C. Emulsified base D. Emulsifiable base Identify the components of White Ointment. A. White wax, beeswax B. White wax, spermaceti C. White wax, jojoba oil D. White wax, white petrolatum Identify the pharmaceutical ingredient that prevents drying of preparations due to its ability to retain moisture. A. Surfactant B. Humectant C. Binder D. Levigating agent The following are advantages of transdermal drug delivery systems, EXCEPT A. NOT suitable for all drugs B. avoid the risks and inconvenience of parenteral therapy C. avoid the first-pass effect D. provides the capacity for multiday therapy with a single application, thereby improving patient compliance A transdermal drug delivery system (TDDS) may be constructed of a number of layers. Determine the role of the drug reservoir or matrix system in a TDDS. A. Stores and releases the drug at the skin site B. Removed before application to enable drug release C. Maintains contact with the skin after application D. Protects the system from environmental entry and from loss of drug from the system or moisture from the skin Select the transdermal patch placed on scrotum in treatment of male hormone deficiency A. Estradiol (Climara®) B. Testosterone (Androderm®) C. Testosterone (Testoderm®) D. Nicotine (Nicoderm®) Select the transdermal patch applied weekly to the trunk, including abdomen and buttocks (alternating sites) A. Scopolamine (Transderm Scop®) B. Fentanyl (Duragesic®) C. Clonidine (Catapres-TTS®) D. Estradiol (Climara®) Which of the following terms is used to describe the solubility of a substance if 800 mg of the solute can be dissolved in 95 mL of water A. Slightly soluble B. Soluble C. Sparingly soluble D. Practically insoluble Which kind of water is purified by distillation or by reverse osmosis; contains no added substances; and intended for use as a solvent for the preparation of parenteral solutions. A. Water for Injection B. Sterile Water for Injection C. Purified Water D. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection Which kind of water is obtained by distillation, ionexchange treatment, reverse osmosis, or any other suitable process; contains no added substance; and NOT used in preparations intended for parenteral administration A. Sterile Water for Injection B. Purified Water C. Water for Injection D. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection Evaluate and select the correct statement for oral solutions. A. Oral solutions are conveniently administered in volumes of 10 mL (1 tbsp) or 4 mL (1 tsp) B. Oral pharmaceutical solutions are usually formulated so that the patient receives the usual dose in a conveniently administered volume, such as 5 mL (1 tsp), 10 mL, or 15 mL (1 tbsp) C. Oral rehydration solutions are given to patients with severe volume depletion of 20-30% of body weight D. Prednisolone sodium phosphate is a pharmaceutical oral emulsion There are three (3) groups of diluting agents based on their physical properties: aqueous diluting agents, hydroalcoholic diluting agents, and alcoholic diluting agents. Select the pair that is correctly matched. A. Peppermint Water - Aqueous B. Simple Syrup - Alcoholic C. Orange Flower Water - Hydroalcoholic D. Compound Cardamom Tincture - Aqueous Select the statements that best describe diluting agents for injections. I. Diluting agents for injections may be aqueous or nonaqueous. II. Aqueous diluting agents include such preparations as Sterile Water for Injection, Propylene Glycol and Dextrose. III. Nonaqueous diluting agents include fatty oils of vegetable origin and fatty esters. IV. Nonaqueous diluting agents are used to dissolve or dilute water soluble substances. V. Aqueous diluting agents are used to suspend water-soluble substances when it is desired to decrease the rate of absorption and prolong the duration of action of the drug substances. A. I, III B. II, IV, V C. IV, V D. I, II Select the statements that best describe syrups as diluting agents. I. Syrups are useful as diluting agents for water-insoluble drugs. II. Syrups act both as solvents and flavoring agents. III. Glycyrrhiza Syrup is an excellent vehicle for saline substances because of its colloidal properties, sweet flavor and licorice taste. IV. Aromatic Eriodictyon Syrup is the diluting agent of choice for masking the taste of urea. A. II, IV B. II, III C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III Select the oral dosage form which is prepared to be administered in small quantities with the help of a suitable measuring device. A. Linctus B. Elixir C. Oral emulsion D. Oral drop Select the oral dosage form which is a clear, flavored oral liquid containing one or more active ingredients dissolved in a suitable base that contains a high proportion of sucrose and may also contain ethanol (95%) or a diluted ethanol. A. Elixir B. Syrup C. Linctus D. Oral solution Select the oral dosage form which is a viscous oral liquid that contains one or more active ingredients in solution, the base generally containing large amounts of sucrose or sweetening agents; it may contain 95% ethanol as a preservative or as a solvent for flavors. A. Syrup B. Linctus C. Elixir D. Oral emulsion Select the oral dosage form that contains one or more active ingredients that are dissolved in a suitable base. A. Linctus B. Oral emulsion C. Elixir D. Oral solution Select the oral dosage form which contains one or more active ingredients that are unstable in the water phase but stabilized in oil in-water dispersions; either or both phases may contain dissolved solids. A. Oral drops B. Elixir C. Syrup D. Oral emulsion PROBLEM SOLVING: Calculate the volume of alcohol to be added to preserve the prescription below. Rx Active drug 5 mL Other Drug solids 3 mL Glycerin 15 mL Sucrose 25g Ethanol 95% q.s. Purified water, q.s. 100 mL A. 6.55 mL B. 6.50 mL C. 6.35 mL D. 6.21 mL Select the category of emulsifiers or stabilizers that are used primarily as thickening agents and stabilizers for oil-in-water emulsions of certain lotions and ointments for external use. A. Protein substances B. High molecular weight alcohols C. Finely divided solids D. Wetting agents Select the category of emulsifiers or stabilizers that are adsorbed at the interface between 2 immiscible liquid phases and form what amounts to a film of particles around the dispersed globules of o/w emulsions. A. Carbohydrate materials B. Wetting agents C. Finely divided solids D. High molecular weight alcohols Classify Glyceryl Monostearate as emulsifying agent. A. Protein substances B. High-molecular weight alcohols C. Finely divided solids D. Carbohydrate materials Classify Gelatin as emulsifying agent. A. Protein substances B. Carbohydrate materials C. Finely divided solids D. High-molecular weight alcohols Identify the pharmaceutical dispersed system that is a low-viscosity liquid preparation intended for application to the skin. A. Emulsion B. Gel C. Lotion D. Suspension Find the statement that is correct about suspensions. A. Suspensions are chemically more stable than solutions B. Suspensions do not ensure uniformity of dosage C. A highly viscous suspension provides ease of pouring D. Colloid mills or homogenizers are used for dry milling purposes prior to suspension Determine which is NOT a desirable characteristic of the disperse phase of a suspension. A. Dispersed phase is chemically and physically stable B. Dispersed particles are uniformly distributed throughout the dispersion medium [Show Less]
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M6 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
M6 FINAL COACHING EXAM - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Koch's postulates include the following, EXCEPT A. The suspected microorganism should... [Show More] be present in healthy organism B. The microorganism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory C. The microorganism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy organisms D. The microorganism must be re-isolated from the organisms and be cultured again in the laboratory Which of the following statements is/are CONSISTENT regarding the findings of Pasteur's Swan neck flask experiment? I. When heat was applied and flask was allowed to stand, no bacteria was found. II. When heat was applied and the neck of the flask was removed then allowed to stand, bacteria was found. III. When heat was applies and the flask was tilted sideways then allowed to stand, bacteria was present. A. I, II, and III B. I, II C. I only D. None of the given Characteristic of a EUKARYOTIC bacteria, EXCEPT A. Nuclear membrane B. 80s ribosome C. Absence of mitochondria D. Segmented genome Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission: A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. Helminths Which of the following is/are found on the cell wall of a Klebsiella pneumoniae? I. Teichoic acid II. Porins III. Periplasmic space IV. Thick peptidoglycan layer A. I, II B. II, III C. III, IV D. I, IV Organisms that can grow at body temperature A. thermophiles B. psychrophiles C. acidophiles D. Mesophiles What is Biochemical Oxygen Demand A. Amount of oxygen in water sample B. Amount of bacteria in water sample C. Amount of drug in water sample D. Amount of undissolved matter in water sample This is a stage in the bacterial growth wherein the bacterial culture is in the period of balanced growth A. Log phase B. Lag phase C. Stationary phase D. Death phase This process of microbial decomposition of proteins produces H2S is also known as: A. Putrefaction B. Fermentation C. Denitrification D. A and B A sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time and 90% of the cells have been destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event? A. Thermal death point B. Thermal death time C. Decimal reduction time D. Decimal reduction rate India ink is used to stain what microorganism? A. Candida albicans B. Aspergillus fumigatus C. Coccidioides immitis D. Cryptococcus neoformans This organelle is used for motility: A. Pseudopods B. Pili C. Flagella D. Cilia Special stains are used to visualize structure aside from the organism itself. Which of the following stain/s is/are used to visualize spores? I. Schaeffer-Fulton II. Malachite Green III. Carbolfuschin IV. Nigrosin A. I and III B. I and II C. II and III D. IV only Plates should be incubated A. Agar up B. Agar down C. A or B D. NOTA A non-mutual relationship between species, where one species benefits at the expense of the other A. Commensalism B. Mutualism C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis The following body structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except A. Skin B. Urethra C. Blood D. Oral cavity Which of the following is a normal flora of the intestines? I.. Lactobacillus spp. II. Bacteroides III. Bifidobacterium A. I, II, III B. I C. I, II D. II, III An index that measures the number of deaths due to a specific disease or condition within a susceptible population during a specific period. A. Morbidity rate B. Prevalence rate C. Mortality rate D. AOTA The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population: A. Outbreak B. Pandemic C. Endemic D. Sporadic This period is characterized by generalized and unspecialized signs and symptoms such as body ache, feeling unwell and others. A. Decline phase B. Prodromal stage C. Illness stage D. Convalescence stage Common cold develops its signs and symptoms rapidly and lasts only for a short period of time. This is can be described as: A. Acute B. Subacute C. Chronic D. Latent An inanimate object capable of harboring and transmitting microorganisms. A. mite B. arthropod C. fomite D. vector The following are non-communicable diseases and are related to the lifestyle of the person. I. Cancer II. Diabetes mellitus Type II III. COPD IV. HIV/AIDS A. I, IV B. II, IV C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV These are sexually transmitted diseases except A. Trypanosomiasis B. Hepatitis B C. Lymphogranuloma venereum D. Chicken pox Mr. Macroleta forgot to wash his hands after going to the toilet. Later, he found himself preparing sausages for his meal. Which causative agent will most likely not be transmitted? I. Salmonella typhi II. Entamoeba histolytica III. Taenia solium IV. Toxoplasma gondi A. II B. II, IV C. IV D. NOTA The Philippine DOH warns the public against "wild" diseases. Which of the following does not belong to these diseases? A. Dengue B. Water borne diseases C. Influenza D. Leptospirosis E. None of the above Which of the following is/are ESKAPE pathogen/s? I. Acinetobacter baumannii II. Candida albicans III. Pseudomonas aeruginosa IV. Streptococcus pyogenes V. Staphylococcus epidermidis A. I, III, IV B. I and III C. V only D. I, II, III, IV E. I, III, V Bioterrorism is real. Which of the following agents are used as biological weapons? I. Variola major II. Bacillus anthracis III. Yersinia pestis IV. Rickettsia prowazeki A. I and III B. I, II and IV C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III, IV Interferons are proteins produced by tumor cells or host cells that are infected with viruses, bacteria and other unknown nucleic acids. Interferons that are obtained from lymphocytes are generally classified as A. Alpha - interferon B. Beta-interferon C. Gamma-interferon D. Delta-interferon Administration of a toxoid provides: A. naturally acquired active immunity B. naturally acquired passive immunity C. Artificially acquired active immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity Immunization for diphtheria and tetanus are given as: A. Antitoxin B. Toxoid C. Toxin D. NOTA Which of the following has an inactivated virus as its platform? A. Pfizer-BioNTech B. Sinovac Coronavac C. Oxford AstraZeneca D. Janssen Which of the following is administered as a single dose vaccine? A. Pfizer-BioNTech B. Sinovac Coronavac C. Oxford AstraZeneca D. Janssen Based on DOH recommendations, which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT? A. Pregnancy is not a contraindication to getting the COVID-19 vaccine B. Breastfeeding women can receive a COVID-19 vaccine. C. Patients with cancer and who are currently, or will be undergoing active chemotherapy may be vaccinated any time before and/or during chemotherapy sessions, if they have no other contraindications to the vaccine. D. None of the given As per DOH policy, COVID-19 booster vaccine may be given to adults A. At least two months after the second dose of a primary two-dose vaccine B. At least three months after the primary single-dose vaccine is given C. A and B D. None of the given National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster. A. Internal Management B. Health regulation C. External affairs D. Health regulation development Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health A. DOH B. WHO C. RHU D. MHU Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or legislative on health related matters A. DOH B. WHO C. RHU D. MHU Under the UNIVERSAL HEALTH CARE IMPLEMENTERS PROJECT (UHCIP), which among the following is not included in the focuses of 5 critical Universal Health Care interventions A. reduction of infant mortality rate B. lowering under-five mortality rate C. reducing maternal mortality rated. D. Climate change related diseases The following is/are not a function of a pharmacist in the public health setting EXCEPT? I. Health screenings II. Establishing surveillance and epidemiologic analysis techniques in clinics III. Birth control and family planning IV. Substance abuse prevention A. II only B. I, II and IV C. II and III D. I, II III, IV The following are examples of micro-level public health activities of a pharmacist: I. Educates the community about drug abuse prevention II. Working in health policy planning, education and administration III. Providing drug-related information IV. Provision of hypertension screening in pharmacy A. I and IV B. II and III C. I, III, IV D. I, II, III Which of the following best describes the role of a pharmacist during a calamity? I. Discuss and educate people in evacuation centers on how to maintain sanitation standards II. Inform the people on how to prevent the spread of contagious diseases such in a crowded confined area III. Manage inventory of medicines and take it to the patients IV. Distribute water and food A. II and III B. I, II and IV C. I and III D. I, II, III A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of nutrient A. Primary malnutrition B. Secondary malnutrition C. Undernutrition D. Overnutrition Objectives of the Emerging and Re-emerging infectious disease program I. Reduce public health impact of emerging and reemerging infectious diseases II. Strengthen surveillance, preparedness, and response to emerging and re-emerging infectious diseases. III. Capability building for management, prevention and control of emerging and re-emerging diseases that may pose epidemic/pandemic threat IV. Logistical support for drugs and vaccines for meningococcemia and anti-viral drugs and vaccine for Pandemic Influenza Preparedness. A. I, II, III, IV B. I, II, IV C. I, II D. II, IV Backyard gardening community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under this program: A. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy B. Nutrition Program C. National Drug Policy Program D. Herbal and Philippine Traditional Medicine An important component of gram staining that stains cell walls purple when combined with a suitable mordant A. lodine B. Crystal violet C. Acid alcohol D. Safranin Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as A. Bacilli B. Cocci C. Spiral D. Vibrios This organelle is used for motility: A. Pseudopods B. Pili C. Flagella D. Cilia Advantage of a bacterium that is attributable to bacterial capsule A. Antiphagocytic B. Protection from dry, harsh environment C. Allows exchange of DNA between different bacteria D. NOTA The following are for endospores, except: A. Highly resistant to disinfectants B. Can survive for many years, especially in soil C. Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation D. Killed by heating at 101 degrees Celsius. Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defenses against bacteria? A. Activation of the lysozyme that degrades the cell wall. B. Engulfs bacteria or bacterial structures acting as antigens. C. Facilitation of phagocytosis D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxin A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases B. IgG and IgM antibodies C. Helper - T cells D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin The lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that produced toxic and adverse effects to the host is known as: A. Tetanospasmin B. Aflatoxin C. Enterotoxin D. Endotoxin A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus A. Transduction B. Conjugation C. Transformation D. A&C [Show Less]
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