HESI Anatomy and Physiology (Questions with Answers and Explanations)
1. What is a clear, watery fluid found in the anterior and posterior chambers of
... [Show More] the eye?
a. Vitreous humor
b. Ciliary body
c. Lacrimal gland
d. Aqueous humor
Answer: D
Rationale: Aqueous humor is a clear, watery fluid similar in composition to blood plasma and is
commonly found in the anterior and posterior chambers. The posterior cavity, located dorsal to
the lens, contains the (A) vitreous humor, a thick, clear, gelatinous fluid. The (B) ciliary body is
the structure of the eye that releases the aqueous humor. The lacrimal gland continually secretes
tears which moisten, lubricate, and protect the surface of the eyes.
2. What is/are correct about the aqueous humor?
a. It balances absorption and pressure in the anterior chamber
b. It is secreted by the epithelium of the ciliary bodies
c. Inability to circulate freely can cause elevated intraocular pressure that may led to vision
loss.
d. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: All three choices describes how the aqueous fluid form and circulate in the eye.
Inability of the fluid to be absorb could develop into an increased intraocular pressure (normal is
20-25 mmHg) that may lead to blindness when the pressure is transmitted to the vitreous humor,
where it damages retinal neurons.
3. Their primary role is to combat effects of histamine in allergic reactions, phagocytize
antigen- antibody complexes, and destroy certain parasitic worms.
a. Neutrophil
b. Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
Answer: C.
Rationale: Eosinophils are especially important in defense against parasitic infections. They are
also implicated in numerous inflammatory processes, especially allergic disorders. (A)
Neutrophils are capable of phagocytosis, or destruction of bacteria. (B) Lymphocytes offer
mediate immune responses, including antigen -antibody reactions. (D) Basophil liberate heparin,
histamine, and serotonin in allergic reactions that intensify overall inflammatory response.
4. When a person is seen walking in heels, the ankle is described as being in what position?
a. Plantar flexion
b. Dorsiflexion
c. Eversion
d. Abduction
Answer: B.
Rationale: Dorsiflexion decreases the angle between the dorsum of the foot and the leg. (A)
Plantar flexion is the movement which decreases the angle between the sole of the foot and the
back of the leg, like ballerinas dancing. (C) Eversion is a turning outward or inside out, such as a
turning of the foot outward at the ankle. (D) Abduction refers to a motion that pulls a structure or
part away from the midline of the body.
5. Which of the following statements best illustrates a correct anatomical position?
a. Standing erect without moving
b. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing away from the
body
c. Standing up with palms held unnaturally forward with thumbs pointing towards the body
d. Both standing and lying down without moving
Answer: B
Rationale: A correct anatomical positon is similar to the description provided in choice A, ie,
"standing at attention", however is less comfortable because the palms held unnaturally forward
with thumbs pointing away from the body.
6. A frontal section divides the body into:
a. Right and left parts
b. Anterior and posterior parts
c. Midsagittal and median section
d. Superior and inferior parts
Answer: B
Rationale: Frontal or coronal plane divide the body into front and back (also called dorsal and
ventral or posterior and anterior) sections. Choice A describes the sagittal or lateral plane. Choice
C explains that the plane may be in the centre of the body and split it into two halves (mid-
sagittal). Choice D refer to transverse planes, also known as the axial or horizontal planes, are
parallel to the ground and divide the body into top and bottom parts. The top and bottom sections
also called the superior and inferior section s or the cranial (head) and caudal (tial) sections.
Bone structure and functions
7. Which of the following is seen mostly inside the epiphyses of each long bone?
a. Yellow marrow
b. Cartilage
c. Spongy bone
d. Compact bone
Answer: C
Rationale: A typical long bone has epiphyses which are at the ends of the bone, and consist of
internal spongy bone covered by an outer layer of compact bone. Yellow marrow, which is
mainly made up of fat cells, are found inside a hollow medullary cavity of the tubular bone shaft.
8. Which of these statements describe the trochanter?
a. Small rounded projection or process
b. Raised area on or above a condyle
c. Large rounded projection and may be roughened
d. Very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process
Answer: D
Rationale: Trochanter is a very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process (examples are on the
femur). Choice A describes a tubercle. Choice B describes an epicondyle. Choice C describes a
tuberosity.
9. Which of the following statements are true about bone markings?
a. Bone markings are projections, depressions and openings found in the surface of the
bones.
b. They serve as sites of muscle, ligament and tendon attachment
c. The openings serve as passages of blood vessels and nerves
d. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Bone markings are projections, depressions, and openings found on the surface of
bones that function as sites of muscle, ligament, and tendon attachment, as joint surfaces, and as
openings for the passage of blood vessels and nerves.
10. In order to achieve normal bone growth and development, the following factors are
essential. Which is not included in the list?
a. High fat diet
b. Growth hormone
c. Sex hormones
d. Vitamins A, C, and D
Answer: A
Rationale: Having a high fat diet has nothing to do with bone growth and development. Growth
hormones stimulates division of cartilage cells in the epiphyseal disks, thereby lack or excess of
these hormones could result to dwarfism or gigantism. Sex hormones promote formation of bone
tissue.
Vitamin A is necessary for osteoblast and osteoclast activity during normal development,
Vitamin C is required for collagen synthesis, and Vitamin D is necessary for proper absorption of
calcium in the small intestine. In the absence of this vitamin, calcium is poorly absorbed, and the
inorganic salt portion of bone matrix lacks calcium, softening and thereby deforming bones.
11. A person who suffered a traumatic injury in the inguinal area is most likely to die due to
hemorrhage because of a severed
a. Femoral artery
b. Popliteal artery
c. Carotid artery
d. Brachial artery
Answer: A
Rationale: The femoral artery is a large artery in the thigh and the main arterial supply to the
lower limb. Popliteal artery (Choice B) is located in the knee and the back of the leg. Carotid
artery (Choice C) is located in the neck. Brachial artery (Choice D) is a major blood vessel of the
upper arm.
12. Which of the following is correct about the epicardium?
a. It is the pacemaker of the heart
b. It lines the heart chambers
c. It is the visceral epicardium
d. It is also known as the parietal pericardium
Answer: C
Rationale: The inner part of the pericardium that closely envelops the heart is, as stated, the
epicardium; it is also called the visceral pericardium. The pacemaker of the heart is the sinoatrial
node (A). The endocardium is the innermost layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart
(B). The parieteal pericardium is the outer layer of the pericardium which is a conical sac of
fibrous tissue that surrounds the heart and the roots of the great blood vessels (D).
13. The clinical instructor instructed the nursing student to palpate the carotid artery. Which
of the following statements describe that the nursing student has located the carotid artery
correctly?
a. Halfway between the shoulder and elbow, in the middle of the inner arm, between the
bicep and triceps muscles.
b. Upper neck between the sternomastoid and trachea roughly at the level of cricoid
cartilage.
c. The inner thigh, at the mid-inguinal point, halfway between the pubic symphysis and
anterior superior iliac spine
d. In front of the tragus of the ear and up along the temple. [Show Less]