Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 508 Midterm Exam 2 – Questions, Answers & Explanations (Graded A)
1. A primary care NP prescribes levothyroxine for
... [Show More] a patient to treat thyroid deficiency. When teaching this patient about the medication, the NP should:
Answer: Tell the patient that changing brands of the medication should be avoided.
Explanation: Patients should be told not to change brands of the medication; there is potential variability in the bioequivalence between manufacturers. The medication should be taken at approximately the same time each day before breakfast or on an empty stomach. Patients should be instructed to contact the provider if signs of thyrotoxicosis are present. Thyroid replacement medications are usually given for life.
2. An African-American patient is taking captopril (Capoten) 25 mg twice daily. When performing a physical examination, the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) learns that the patient continues to have blood pressure readings of 135/90 mm Hg. The NP should:
Answer: Add a thiazide diuretic to this patient's regimen
Explanation: Some African-American patients do not appear to respond as well as whites in terms of blood pressure reduction. The addition of a low-dose thiazide diuretic often allows for efficacy in blood pressure lowering that is comparable with that seen in white patients. Increasing the captopril dose is not indicated. Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) and is not indicated in this case.
3. A primary care NP sees a patient who is about to take a cruise and reports having had motion sickness with nausea on a previous cruise. The NP prescribes the scopolamine transdermal patch and should instruct the patient to apply the patch:
Answer: Every 3 days.
Explanation: The transdermal system allows steady-state plasma levels of scopolamine to be reached rapidly and maintained for 3 days. The onset of action is approximately 4 hours. The patch should be changed every 3 days and left on at all times, not as needed
4. A 12-year-old patient who is obese develops type 2 diabetes mellitus. The primary care NP should order
Answer: Metformin (Glucophage).
Explanation: Metformin is the only drug listed that is recommended for children
5. A patient who has had four to five liquid stools per day for 4 days is seen by the primary care NP. The patient asks about medications to stop the diarrhea. The NP tells the patient that antidiarrheal medications are:
Answer: not curative and may prolong the illness
Explanation: Treatment of patients with acute diarrhea with antidiarrheals can prolong infection and should be avoided if possible. Antidiarrheals are best used in patients with mild to moderate diarrhea and are used for comfort and not cure. They should not be used for patients with bloody diarrhea or high fever because they can worsen the disease. Prolonged diarrhea can indicate a more serious cause, and antidiarrheals should not be used in those cases.
6. In every state, prescriptive authority for NPs includes the ability to write prescriptions
Answer: for specified classifications of medications.
Explanation: All states now have some degree of prescriptive authority granted to NPs, but not all states allow authority to prescribe controlled substances. Many states still require some degree of physician involvement with certain types of drugs.
7. A 55-year-old woman has a history of myocardial infarction (MI). A lipid profile reveals LDL of 130 mg/dL, HDL of 35 mg/dL, and triglycerides 150 mg/dL. The woman is sedentary with a body mass index of 26. The woman asks the primary care NP about using a statin medication. The NP should:
Answer: begin therapy with atorvastatin 10 mg per day
Explanation: This woman would be using a statin medication for secondary prevention because she already has a history of MI, so a statin should be prescribed. Dietary and lifestyle changes should be a part of therapy, but not the only therapy. She is relatively young, and quality-of-life issues are not a concern. There is no clinical evidence to support use of statins as primary prevention in women.
8. A patient develops hypertension. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) plans to begin diuretic therapy for this patient. The NP notes clear breath sounds, no organomegaly, and no peripheral edema. The patient's serum electrolytes are normal. The NP should prescribe:
Answer: hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
Explanation: Thiazide diuretics are first-line drugs for treating hypertension. The other three drugs are not thiazide diuretics
9. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) is using critical thinking skills when
Answer: analyzing current research and synthesizing new approaches to patient care.
Explanation: Practitioners use critical thinking skills by reviewing and analyzing current knowledge and synthesizing approaches to apply to unique patient situations. Using standardized protocols, adhering to scientific principles, and following practices of seasoned mentors may be useful, but these do not encompass the concept of critical thinking, which requires the practitioner to use what is known in new situations.
10. A patient comes to the clinic and asks the primary care NP about using a newly developed formulation of the drug the patient has been taking for a year. When deciding whether or not to prescribe this formulation, the NP should:
Answer: tell the patient that when post-marketing data is available, it will be considered.
Explanation: About 6 to 12 months of post-marketing experience can yield information about drug efficacy and side effects, so patients should be cautioned to wait for these data. Drug company promotional materials have biased information. Most new drugs are more expensive, and costs alone should not determine drug choice. Extended-release forms are often more expensive.
11. A patient takes a cardiac medication that has a very narrow therapeutic range. The primary care NP learns that the particular brand the patient is taking is no longer covered by the patient's medical plan. The NP knows that the bioavailability of the drug varies from brand to brand. The NP should:
Answer: contact the insurance provider to explain why this particular formulation is necessary.
Explanation: In this case, the NP should advocate for the desired drug because changing the drug can have life-threatening consequences. If this fails, other options may have to be explored.
12. In this case, the NP should advocate for the desired drug because changing the drug can have life-threatening consequences. If this fails, other options may have to be explored.
Answer: bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)
Explanation: Bismuth reduces symptoms through antidiarrheal and antibacterial properties and can decrease nausea and vomiting. Opioid antidiarrheals should be given after the cause of infectious diarrhea is treated; these can actually prolong symptoms because they slow transit of the causative organisms through the gut. Attapulgite can be used because it binds bacteria and toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, but bismuth is a better choice in this case because it helps to treat nausea. The patient is drinking Gatorade and is getting electrolyte replacement.
13. To increase the likelihood of successful pharmacotherapy, when teaching a patient about using a medication, the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) should:
Answer: encourage the patient to participate in the choice of the medication.
Explanation: It is important that the patient "owns the problem" and has a part in the solution. Providing education about the medication, stressing the importance of following medication instructions, and distributing package inserts may be useful, but it is essential that patients take an active role in their care.
14. A patient in the clinic develops sudden shortness of breath and tachycardia. The primary care NP notes thready pulses, poor peripheral perfusion, and a decreased level of consciousness. The NP activates the emergency medical system and should anticipate that this patient will receive:
Answer: unfractionated heparin (UFH) and warfarin
OR
Alteplase
Explanation: This patient has unstable pulmonary embolism (PE) and should receive thrombolytic therapy. Intravenous alteplase is the preferred agent. UFH and warfarin are recommended for stable PE. LMWH is beneficial in submassive PE and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) but is controversial for treatment of massive PE.
15. A primary care nurse practitioner (NP) prescribes a drug to an 80-year-old African-American woman. When selecting a drug and determining the correct dose, the NP should understand that the knowledge of how age, race, and gender may affect drug excretion is based on an understanding of:
Answer: pharmacokinetics
Explanation: Pharmacokinetics is the study of the action of drugs in the body and may be thought of as what the body does to the drug. Factors such as age, race, and gender may change the way the body acts to metabolize and excrete a drug. Bioavailability refers to the amount of drug available at the site of action. Pharmacodynamics is the study of the effects of drugs on the body. Anatomy and physiology is a basic understanding of how the body functions.
16. An 80-year-old female patient with a history of angina has increased TSH and decreased T4. The primary care NP should prescribe _____ mcg of _____.
Answer: 25; levothyroxine
Explanation: Elderly individuals may experience exacerbation of cardiovascular disease and angina with thyroid hormone replacement. It is advisable to start low at 25 mcg and work up as tolerated. Liothyronine is a synthetic T3.
17. A patient who has a history of chronic constipation uses a bulk laxative to prevent episodes of acute constipation. The patient reports having an increased frequency of episodes. The primary care NP should recommend:
Answer: adding docusate sodium (Colace).
Explanation: Patients treated for long-term constipation should begin with a bulk laxative. If that is not effective, the addition of a second laxative may be necessary. Using two laxatives from the same category is not recommended. A stool softener, such as docusate sodium, is appropriate. Bisacodyl is not a second-line treatment. Lactulose and polyethylene glycol are from the same category.
18. A patient comes to the clinic to discuss weight loss. The primary care NP notes a BMI of 32 and performs a health risk assessment that reveals no obesity-related risk factors. The NP should recommend:
Answer: changes in diet and exercise along with short-term phentermine.
Explanation: This patient is grade 2 overweight (obese), so a short-term course of phentermine is useful, especially as there are no cardiovascular risk factors. Orlistat is a second-line drug. Surgical intervention is indicated when other therapies fail. Changes in diet and physical activity alone do not bring immediate results, and patients often get discouraged.
19. A primary care NP sees a 3-year-old patient who has been vomiting for several days. The child has had fewer episodes of vomiting the past day and is now able to take sips of fluids without vomiting. The child has dry oral mucous membranes, 2-second capillary refill, and pale but warm skin. The child's blood pressure is 88/46 mm Hg, the heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and the temperature is 37.2° C. The NP should:
Answer: begin oral rehydration therapy
Explanation: The use of antiemetics in children is discouraged for cases of uncomplicated vomiting. The child has compensated, mild dehydration and is now able to tolerate fluids, so oral rehydration is indicated.
20. A primary care NP sees a 5-year-old child who is morbidly obese. The child has an elevated hemoglobin A1c and increased lipid levels. Both of the child's parents are overweight but not obese, and they tell the NP that they see nothing wrong with their child. They both state that it is difficult to refuse their child's requests for soda or ice cream. The NP should:
Answer: initiate a dialogue with the parents about the implications of the child's laboratory values.
Explanation: In this case, the child is at risk if the parents do not intervene. The NP should help the parents to see the potential adverse effects so that they can understand the need for treatment. The other answers are examples of the NP creating solutions. Unless the parents see the problem, they are not likely to engage in the treatment regimen.
21. The primary care NP refers a patient to a cardiologist who diagnoses long QT syndrome. The cardiologist has prescribed propranolol (Inderal). The patient exercises regularly and is not obese. The patient asks the NP what else can be done to minimize risk of sudden cardiac arrest. The NP should counsel the patient to:
Answer: drink extra fluids when exercising.
Explanation: Patients with long QT syndrome should avoid situations in which they might overheat or get dehydrated. This patient should be encouraged to drink plenty of fluids while exercising and should avoid activities such as yoga and hot baths. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are used for high-risk patients. Procainamide can cause long QT syndrome.
22. A 55-year-old patient with no prior history of hypertension has a blood pressure greater than 140/90 on three separate occasions. The patient does not smoke, has a body mass index of 24, and exercises regularly. The patient has no known risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The primary care NP should:
Answer: perform a careful cardiovascular physical assessment.
Explanation: If the patient is younger than 20 or older than 50 years old at the onset of elevated blood pressure, the NP should look for causes of secondary hypertension. The physical examination should include a careful cardiovascular assessment. This patient will need pharmacologic treatment, but not until the underlying cause of hypertension is determined.
23. The primary care NP sees a patient who has a history of hypertension and alcoholism. The patient is not taking any medications. The NP auscultates crackles in both lungs and palpates the liver 2 cm below the costal margin. Laboratory tests show an elevated creatinine level. The NP will refer this patient to a cardiologist and should prescribe:
Answer: furosemide (Lasix).
Explanation: In the treatment of heart failure, loop diuretics relieve the congestive symptoms of pulmonary and congestive edema. Loop diuretics are also useful to treat states of volume excess in cirrhosis and renal insufficiency. Because this patient has a history of alcoholism and has an enlarged liver on examination, furosemide is a good first choice to relieve this patient's congestive symptoms. Spironolactone and chlorthalidone are not loop diuretics. Albuterol might be used for symptomatic treatment only.
24. An 80-year-old patient has begun taking propranolol (Inderal) and reports feeling tired all of the time. The primary care NP should:
Answer: contact the patient's cardiologist to discuss decreasing the dose of propranolol.
Explanation: Elderly patients have described sedation and sleep disturbances with β-blockers. Elderly patients often need lower doses of these drugs. Patients should not be advised to discontinue the medication abruptly.
25. A patient reports having occasional acute constipation with large, hard stools and pain and asks the primary care NP about medication to treat this condition. The NP learns that the patient drinks 1500 mL of water daily; eats fruits, vegetables, and bran; and exercises regularly. The NP should recommend:
Answer: a saline laxative as needed.
Explanation: Mild short-term constipation may be treated with a saline laxative or a bulk laxative as needed. Daily laxatives are not recommended. Glycerin suppositories can cause irritation of the rectum with long-term use.
26. A 40-year-old patient is in the clinic for a routine physical examination. The patient has a body mass index (BMI) of 26. The patient is active and walks a dog daily. A lipid profile reveals low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 100 mg/dL, high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 30 mg/dL, and triglycerides of 250 mg/dL. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) should:
Answer: order a fasting plasma glucose level.
Explanation: Testing for type 2 diabetes should be considered in all adults with a BMI greater than 25 who have risk factors such as HDL less than 35 mg/dL or triglycerides greater than 250 mg/dL. A fasting plasma glucose level greater than 126 mg/dL indicates diabetes. Metformin is not indicated unless testing is positive. Lifestyle changes may be part of the treatment plan. Serum insulin level is not indicated.
27. An 80-year-old patient asks a primary care NP about OTC antacids for occasional heartburn. The NP notes that the patient has a normal complete blood count and normal electrolytes and a slight elevation in creatinine levels. The NP should recommend:
Answer: calcium carbonate (Tums).
Explanation: Elderly patients with renal failure should not take antacids containing magnesium because of the risk of hypermagnesemia. Sodium-containing antacids may cause fluid retention in elderly patients. Aluminum hydroxide is not as effective as calcium carbonate.
28. A primary care NP sees a 60-year-old woman for a physical examination. The woman tells the NP she is taking tamoxifen for treatment of breast cancer. To monitor her response to this medication, the NP should order:
Answer: liver enzymes and a complete blood count (CBC).
Explanation: Patients taking antiestrogens, such as tamoxifen, should have periodic monitoring of liver enzymes and a CBC. A chest radiograph is not indicated. Bilirubin, creatinine, and bone mineral density testing are part of routine testing for patients taking aromatase inhibitors.
30. The primary care NP sees a patient who has heart failure following an MI 6 months before this visit. The patient has been taking an ACE inhibitor, nitroglycerin, furosemide, and hydrochlorothiazide. The NP auscultates crackles in both lungs and notes pitting edema of both feet. The NP should prescribe:
Answer: spironolactone (Aldactone).
Explanation: Spironolactone has been shown to be of particular benefit in the treatment of severe congestive heart failure when added to an ACE inhibitor and a loop diuretic.
31. A primary care NP prescribes a COCP for a woman who has never taken oral contraceptives before. The woman is in a monogamous relationship, and she and her partner have been using condoms and wish to stop using them. Her last period was 1 week ago. The NP should:
Answer: tell the patient to begin the first pill today and to continue using condoms for 7 days.
Explanation: To start COCPs using the quick start method, the woman takes the first pill on the day of her office visit and uses a barrier method such as condoms for the first 7 days. The patient should be reasonably sure she is not pregnant; she can take a pregnancy test in 2 to 3 weeks if pregnancy is suspected later. If she is pregnant, taking the COCPs would not negatively affect early pregnancy.
32. A woman is in her first trimester of pregnancy. She tells the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) that she continues to have severe morning sickness on a daily basis. The NP notes a weight loss of 1 pound from her previous visit 2 weeks prior. The NP should consult an obstetrician and prescribe:
Answer: ondansetron (Zofran).
Explanation: No antiemetic drugs should be used for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy unless approved by an obstetrician. Ondansetron has been shown to be safe and effective (off-label) for hyperemesis gravidum.
33. A thin 52-year-old woman who has recently had a hysterectomy tells the primary care NP she is having frequent hot flashes and vaginal dryness. A recent bone density study shows early osteopenia. The woman's mother had CHD. She has no family history of breast cancer. The NP should prescribe:
Answer: estrogen-only HT now.
Explanation: HT relieves symptoms of menopause and prevents osteoporosis. When started soon after menopause, HT can reduce CHD risk. Breast cancer risk may be decreased if HT is begun 5 years after onset of menopause. This woman has a higher risk of CHD and osteoporosis, so initiating therapy now is a good option. Because she has had a hysterectomy, estrogen-only therapy is indicated.
34. Persistent atrial fibrillation (AF) is diagnosed in a patient who has valvular disease, and the cardiologist has prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The patient is scheduled for electrical cardioversion in 3 weeks. The patient asks the primary care nurse practitioner (NP) why the procedure is necessary. The NP should tell the patient:
Answer: this medication prevents clots but does not alter rhythm.
Explanation: Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days and episodes fail to terminate on their own, but episodes can be terminated by electrical cardioversion after therapeutic warfarin therapy for 3 weeks. Warfarin does not alter AF. β-Blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are sometimes given to alter the rate. Verapamil is not an alternative to cardioversion for patients with persistent AF.
35. A patient reports having episodes of dizziness, nausea, and lightheadedness and describes a sensation of the room spinning when these occur. The primary care NP will refer the patient to a specialist who, after diagnostic testing, is likely to prescribe:
Answer: meclizine.
Explanation: Patients with vertigo may experience whirling or a feeling of the room spinning around. In true vertigo, the patient can identify the direction in which the room is spinning. Anticholinergics are the most effective agents in cases of motion sickness or vertigo. Meclizine has a specific indication to treat vertigo.
36. The primary care NP is seeing a patient for a hospital follow-up after the patient has had a first myocardial infarction. The patient has a list of the prescribed medications and tells the NP that "no one explained anything about them." The NP's initial response should be to:
Answer: determine what the patient understands about coronary artery disease.
Explanation: When a patient is first diagnosed with a medical problem, education must start with explaining the pathophysiology in terms the patient will understand. When patients understand what has happened to them, they can move on to consider what to do about it. The other responses are part of an education plan but are not the initial response.
37. A patient who has hypothyroidism has been taking levothyroxine 50 mcg daily for 2 weeks. The patient reports continued fatigue. The primary care NP should:
Answer: check the TSH level in 1 week.
Explanation: Full therapeutic effectiveness may not be achieved for 3 to 6 weeks. Measuring the TSH level is indicated to evaluate drug effectiveness. The dose should not be increased without first evaluating the patient's TSH level.
38. A patient has been taking levothyroxine 100 mcg daily for several months. The patient comes to the clinic with complaints of insomnia and irritability. The primary care NP notes a heart rate of 92 beats per minute. The NP should:
Answer: order TSH and T4 levels and decrease the dose to 75 mcg/day.
Explanation: When signs of thyrotoxicosis occur, the drug should be decreased or temporarily discontinued for 5 to 7 days. Liothyronine is not indicated. Propylthiouracil is not indicated.
39. A woman with a family history of breast cancer had her last menstrual period 12 months ago and is experiencing hot flashes. She has not had a hysterectomy. The primary care NP should recommend:
Answer: limiting alcohol and caffeine intake.
Explanation: Hot flashes can be triggered by environmental conditions such as stress, excitement, anxiety, and alcohol and caffeine consumption. Black cohosh carries the same risks as estrogen. Estrogen-only therapy is not recommended for women with an intact uterus. Progesterone therapy is not recommended.
40. A patient who has migraine headaches has begun taking timolol and 2 months after beginning this therapy reports no change in frequency of migraines. The patient's current dose is 30 mg once daily. The primary care NP should:
Answer: tell the patient to continue taking the timolol and return in 1 month.
Explanation: When giving timolol for migraine prophylaxis, the provider should inform the patient that it may take several weeks for therapy to be effective. The dose should be titrated and maintained for a minimum of 3 months before the treatment is deemed a failure. It may be necessary to change to propranolol if the therapy is not effective in 1 month. The maximum dose of timolol for migraine prophylaxis is 30 mg. Drug effectiveness is determined by patient response, not serum drug levels.
41. A patient who takes a thiazide diuretic will begin taking an ACE inhibitor. The primary care NP should counsel the patient to:
Answer: take care when getting out of bed or a chair after the first dose of the ACE inhibitor.
Explanation: ACE inhibitors have a first-dose effect that may cause a precipitous symptomatic fall in blood pressure, particularly in patients receiving diuretics. The patient should be counseled about rising quickly from sitting or lying down. Wheezing and shortness of breath are unlikely. An increased dose of diuretic and a reduction in fluid intake are not indicated and may add to hypotension.
42. A parent brings a child who has moderate-persistent asthma to the clinic and tells the primary care NP that none of the child's medications are working. The parent says, "Everybody tells me something different. I don't know what to do." The NP suspects that the parent is not administering the medications appropriately. The NP should initially:
Answer: perform a careful history of the child's symptoms and the medications that are given.
Explanation: Clinical providers must refine listening and questioning skills and focus on the patient and the environment. It is important to begin with a thorough history and to elicit the patient's understanding of a disease or a medication to identify potential problems. Providing written action plans, reviewing past providers' prescriptions, and explaining medications are useful only after the NP determines what the problem is.
42. A patient has been diagnosed with IBS and tells the primary care NP that symptoms of diarrhea and cramping are worsening. The patient asks about possible drug therapy to treat the symptoms. The NP should prescribe:
Answer: dicyclomine (Bentyl).
Explanation: Dicyclomine has indirect and direct effects on the smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Both actions help to relieve smooth muscle spasm. Mesalamine is used to treat ulcerative colitis. Simethicone acts locally to treat symptoms of trapped air and gas. Metoclopramide is used to increase motility.
43. A patient who is taking an ACE inhibitor sees the primary care NP for a follow-up visit. The patient reports having a persistent cough. The NP should:
Answer: consider changing the medication to an ARB.
Explanation: A persistent cough may occur with ACE inhibitors and may warrant discontinuation of the drug. An ARB would be the next drug of choice because it does not have this side effect. The cough is not related to bronchospasm. Angioedema is not related to ACE inhibitor-induced cough. Patients do not develop tolerance to this side effect.
44. The primary care NP is reviewing evidence-based recommendations about the off-label use of a particular drug. Which recommendation should influence the NP's decision about prescribing the medication?
Answer: Data from randomized, experimental studies
Explanation: Randomized, experimental studies yield the best data about use of medications. Patient reports carry the least weight because bias can occur and other factors can influence outcomes. Pharmaceutical company reports are biased.
45. A 50-year-old woman who is postmenopausal is taking an aromatase inhibitor as part of a breast cancer treatment regimen. She calls her primary care NP to report that she has had hot flashes and increased vaginal discharge but no bleeding. The NP should:
Answer: schedule her for a gynecologic examination.
Explanation: Any abnormal vaginal discharge should be reported immediately and should be evaluated with a gynecologic examination to rule out carcinoma. She is not showing signs of ovulation, so contraception is not necessary. She should not stop taking the medication unless the gynecologic examination is positive. These are common side effects but are not always normal.
46. Which of the following has influenced an emphasis on primary care education in medical schools?
Answer: Changes in Medicare reimbursement methods recommended in 1992
Explanation: The Physician Payment Review Commission in 1992 directly increased financial reimbursement to clinicians who provide primary care. Coupled with a shortage of primary care providers, this incentive led medical schools to place greater emphasis on preparing primary care physicians. Competition from nonphysicians increased coincidentally as professionals from other disciplines stepped up to meet the needs. Nonphysicians have had increasing success at providing primary care and have been shown to be safe and effective.
47. A patient who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus has not responded to changes in diet or exercise. The patient is mildly obese and has a fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL. The patient has normal renal function tests. The primary care NP plans to prescribe a combination product. Which of the following is indicated for this patient?
Answer: Metformin/glyburide (Glucovance)
Explanation: Obese patients with normal renal function and elevated fasting plasma glucose may be started on a combination of metformin and a second-generation sulfonylurea.
48. A patient who has stable angina is taking nitroglycerin and a β-blocker. The patient tells the primary care NP that the cardiologist is considering adding a calcium channel blocker. The NP should anticipate that the cardiologist will prescribe:
Answer: verapamil HCl (Calan).
Explanation: Nitrates and β-blockers are first-line therapy for stable angina. Calcium channel blockers should be reserved for patients who cannot take these agents or patients whose symptoms are not controlled with these agents. Verapamil is one of the calcium channel blockers that should be used. The other calcium channel blockers are not recommended for this purpose.
49. An adolescent girl has chosen Depo-Provera as a contraceptive method and tells the primary care NP that she likes the fact that she won't have to deal with pills or periods. The primary care NP should tell her that she:
Answer: may have irregular bleeding, especially in the first month or so.
Explanation: Because of strong progestational effects on the endometrium, irregular bleeding or spotting is common in the early months of use. Because of concerns about the effect of depot medroxyprogesterone acetate on bone density, it is recommended that woman change to another birth control method after 2 years, not 1 year. Calcium and vitamin D supplements have not been shown to prevent bone density loss. It is not necessary to take oral contraceptive pills when taking antibiotics.
50. A patient comes to the clinic reporting dizziness and fatigue associated with nausea and vomiting. The primary care NP suspects anemia and orders a complete blood count. The patient's hemoglobin is elevated. The NP correctly concludes that the patient is not anemic. The NP has made an error in:
Answer: hypothesis triggering and information processing.
Explanation: Faulty hypothesis triggering occurs when the clinician fails to consider appropriate initial hypotheses. The patient had nausea and vomiting, which can cause dehydration, leading to orthostatic hypotension and dizziness. The NP made an assumption that the dizziness was caused by anemia and ordered a complete blood count. Faulty information gathering occurs when clinicians fail to order appropriate tests. An error in context formulation occurs when clinicians and patients have different goals. Errors in knowledge base would occur if the practitioner did not perform a complete history and physical, missing important information. An error in cost-versus-benefit analysis could occur if the clinician ordered expensive tests that were not necessary for diagnosis and treatment.
51. A patient who takes digoxin reports taking psyllium (Metamucil) three or four times each month for constipation. The primary care NP should counsel this patient to:
Answer: take the digoxin 2 hours before taking the psyllium.
Explanation: Laxatives can affect the absorption of drugs in the intestine by decreasing transit time. Digoxin is a drug that is affected by decreased transit time. Patients should be counseled to take the drugs 2 hours apart.
52. A patient bursts into tears when the primary care NP diagnoses diabetes. The NP should:
Answer: ask the patient about past experiences with anyone who has this diagnosis.
Explanation: To help patients participate in their disease management, the NP must have an understanding of the patient's concerns and fears. The first step when the patient is obviously upset is to determine what the patient knows and fears about the disease.
53. A primary care NP orders thyroid function tests. The patient's TSH is 1.2 microunits/mL, and T4 is 1.7 ng/mL. The NP should:
Answer: tell the patient that the results most likely indicate hypothyroidism.
Explanation: Primary hypothyroidism is the most common form of hypothyroidism. Use of certain drugs, such as lithium, and diseases such as Hashimoto's thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism but are less likely. The patient does not have signs of hyperthyroidism.
54. A patient who is obese is preparing to have surgery. To help prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE), the primary care NP should prescribe:
Answer: enoxaparin (Lovenox) 30 mg twice daily.
Explanation: The American College of Clinical Pharmacy recommends against the use of aspirin alone for prophylaxis of VTE. Patients undergoing surgery who are at moderate to high risk for VTE should receive unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin, such as enoxaparin. Aspirin may be part of the prophylaxis regimen. Clopidogrel and warfarin are not recommended.
55. CRNAs in most states:
Answer: order and administer controlled substances but do not have full prescriptive authority.
Explanation: Only five states grant independent prescriptive authority to CRNAs. CRNAs do not require prescriptive authority because they dispense a drug immediately to a patient and do not prescribe. Without prescriptive authority, they do not need a DEA number.
56. A patient who has GERD with erosive esophagitis has been taking a PPI for 4 weeks and reports a decrease in symptoms. The patient asks the primary care NP if the medication may be discontinued. The NP should tell the patient that:
Answer: the dose may be decreased for long-term therapy.
Explanation: Once PPIs have proven clinically effective for treatment of patients with esophagitis, therapy should be continued long-term and titrated down to the lowest effective dose based on symptom control. PPI therapy is considered safer than surgery and should be tried first before surgery is performed. GERD is a lifelong syndrome and is not curable.
57. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus takes metformin (Glucophage) 1000 mg twice daily and glyburide (Micronase) 12 mg daily. At an annual physical examination, the BMI is 29 and hemoglobin A1c is 7.3%. The NP should:
Answer: begin insulin therapy.
Explanation: The target hemoglobin A1c goal for adults is less than 7%. Insulin therapy is indicated if maximum doses of two oral antidiabetic drugs are not effective. This patient is taking the maximum recommended doses of metformin and glyburide. Colesevelam does not decrease hemoglobin A1c. Adding a third oral antidiabetic agent is not recommended. A weight loss program may be a part of this patient's treatment, but insulin is necessary to maintain glycemic control.
58. The primary care NP prescribes an inhaled corticosteroid for a patient who has asthma. The third-party payer for this patient denies coverage for the brand that comes in the specific strength the NP prescribes. The NP should:
Answer: order the closest formulary-approved approximation of the drug and monitor effectiveness.
Explanation: The second step of medical decision making takes into account benefits versus costs along with an understanding that it is impossible to do everything because of limited resources. The NP should prescribe what is covered and evaluate its effectiveness; if it does not work, the third-party payer may be approached about the need for the other medication. Providing samples is not always possible, and this practice is being discouraged, so it is not a viable solution. Asking patients to pay out of pocket ultimately may be necessary but carries risks that the patient will not obtain the medication. Writing a letter of medical necessity may be indicated if the available drugs are not effective but is not the initial step.
59. A 30-year-old white woman has a BMI of 26 and weighs 150 lb. At an annual physical examination, the patient's fasting plasma glucose is 130 mg/dL. The patient walks 1 mile three or four times weekly. She has had two children who weighed 7 lb and 8 lb at birth. Her personal and family histories are noncontributory. The primary care NP should:
Answer: set a weight loss goal of 10 to 15 lb.
Explanation: To prevent or delay onset of diabetes, patients with impaired glucose should be advised to lose 5% to 10% of body weight. Metformin should be considered in patients with high risk of developing diabetes. This woman does not have risk factors. Other tests are not indicated.
60. A primary care NP is preparing to prescribe a drug and notes that the drug has nonlinear kinetics. The NP should:
Answer: monitor frequently for desired and adverse effects.
Explanation: Drugs with nonlinear kinetics are not eliminated based on dose or concentration of the drug, and these drugs have a narrow therapeutic window and must be monitored closely for desired effects and toxicity [Show Less]