BIO 231 / BIO231 FINAL EXAM
True/False:
Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful circumstances.
True
... [Show More] False
True/False:
Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions.
True False
Multiple Choice
Which is NOT true of the cytoskeleton?
It controls shape and movement
Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions
It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes
Peroxisomes and proteasomes are not part of the cytoskeleton.
Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply.
Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within The main structural component is made of proteins
Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells
Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation
Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis.
Your Answer:
Dry gangrene is when the tissue becomes dyhydrated and shrinks back and becomes dark brown/black in color and the spread of dry gangrene is slow. In wet gangrene the affected area is cold, swollen, and does not have a pulse, the skin is moist, black and disteneded. Small blisters blebs on the skins surface where liquefaction occurs and bad order that is caused by bacteria and the spread of tissue damage is fast.
In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid.
True/False:
Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types.
True False
False, cell differentiation
True/False:
Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division.
True False
False, cell proliferation
This type of cell remains incompletely differentiated throughout life:
Your Answer: Stem Cell stem cell
Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell?
Muscle Bone Epithelial
Epithelial cells like the skin are constantly being replaced.
Neural
1. is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other
distant sites.
2. The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as
.
Your Answer:
1. Chemotherapy
2. Wasting
1. chemotherapy
2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome
Short answer
Explain how the skin’s physical barrier makes it inhospitable to microorganisms. Your Answer:
Our skin is designed to be a physical barrier. It is comprised of closed packed cells in multiple layers that are being shed constantly. Keratin is what covers the skin and this makes a salty acidic enviroment that makes it inhospitable to microorganisms. It also contains antimicrobial proteins and lysozyomes that inhibt microbes that helps destroy them.
It has closely packed cells in multiple layers that are continuously being shed. Keratin covers the skin, which creates a salty, acidic environment inhospitable to microbes. It also contains antimicrobial proteins and lysozymes that inhibit microorganisms and help to destroy them.
True/False:
The T cells that display the host’s MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed positive selection.
True False
Multiple Choice:
Which cell in the blood provides primary hemostasis?
Platelets Endothelial cells Histamine Macrophages
A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment might be used to relieve her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Atopy, in most cases it is a genetic predisposition to the IgE-mediatied reaction that occure upon exposure. High level of IgE. Treament sims to remove the offeding agents and control symptoms. Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteriods used. Second generation antihistmines like zyrtec and claritin are better tolerated.
(1) Mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or late-phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils
and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment.
Multiple Choice:
The patient is found to be a severely malnourished alcoholic. The most likely cause of his anemia is:
Folate deficiency Pernicious anemia Iron deficiency anemia
Anemia of chronic inflammation
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
Vitamin B12 is bound to intrinsic factor
Peripheral neuropathy can be a result of deficiency Dietary deficiencies are common
MCV is elevated
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except?
Obesity
Diabetes mellitus High cholesterol diet
Autosomal dominant disorder of LDL receptor
Multiple Choice:
Risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except: HDL > 60
Smoking Hypertension
Family history of heart disease
Patient is found to have the above:
1. What risk factors mostly led to this disease state?
2. What is this person at risk for developing?
3. What lifestyle modifications would you suggest for them?
Your Answer:
1. Smoking, obesity, and viseral fat, hypertention, diabetes mellitus.
2. Coronary Artery Disease, Angina, Myocardial Infarction, Stroke
3. Stop smoking, lose weight, low fat - low cholestroal diet
Answer: Picture is of an atherosclerotic plaque
1. Hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, obesity and visceral fat, hypertension, diabetes mellitus. Increasing age, family history of premature CHD, and male sex. May also include C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum lipoprotein(a).
2. Coronary artery disease, angina, myocardial infarction, aneurysm, stroke (ischemia, thrombosis, emboli).
3. Stop smoking, lose weight/exercise, healthy diet (low-fat, low-cholesterol), adhere to medication for blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and/or diabetes.
is the flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs. Your Answer:
Ventilation
Ventilation
Multiple Choice:
Someone with COPD would exhibit each of the following characteristics except: Polycythemia
Increased pulmonary artery pressure Increased D-dimer levels
Decreased FVC & FEV
Short answer:
A 10-year-old boy who is having an acute asthma attack is brought to the ER. He is observed to be sitting up and struggling to breathe. His breathing is accompanied by use of accessory muscles, a weak cough, and audible wheezing sounds. His pulse is rapid and weak, and both heart and breath sounds are distant on auscultation. His parents relate that his asthma began to worsen after he developed a “cold,” and now he doesn’t get relief from his albuterol inhaler.
Explain the changes in physiologic function underlying his signs and symptoms. Your Answer:
Recruitment f inflammatory cells from the bloodstream into the brochial wall where they attack the invading organisms and secrete inflammatory chimicals that are toxic to the organisms cause airway inflamation. Swelling of the bronchial wall mucus secretion constriction of the airway, brochial hyper- responsiveness to stimulis causes airway obstruction narrowing.
Recruitment of inflammatory cells from the bloodstream into the bronchial wall, where they directly attack the invading organisms and secrete inflammatory chemicals that are toxic to the organisms causes airway inflammation. Swelling of the bronchial wall, mucus secretion, constriction of the airway; bronchial hyper-responsiveness to stimuli causes airway obstruction or narrowing. They may discuss on a cellular level as well:
Upon a trigger, the cascade of neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, and mast cells cause epithelial injury. This causes airway inflammation, which further increases hyperresponsiveness and decreased airflow. Mast cells release histamine and leukotrienes. These cause major bronchoconstriction, inflammation, and mucus secretion. Mast cells can trigger multiple cytokine release, which causes more airway inflammation. The contraction of the airways and subsequent swelling leads to further airway obstruction.
T/F – Make true if False
Astrocytes help to form the blood-brain barrier which prevents toxins from the blood from entering the brain.
Your Answer:
True
Answer: True
T/F – Make true if False
Someone in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease requires assistance for their activities of daily living.
Your Answer:
False
Someone in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease still function independently with activities of daily living.
Answer: False, in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease, individuals are still independent with their ADLs.
Long Answer Essay
A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by their spouse at 8 pm. The spouse reports that they were cleaning up after dinner at approximately 6:30 pm, and she noticed that her husband’s speech was very unclear. When she asked him what was going on, he said that he didn’t know and that the entire right side of his face felt numb. She reports that he is very active, but he has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment.
Your Answer:
Ischemic stroke which is casued by atheroscleortic plagues that foem in the major vessels supplying the brain. The emboli origniate in the heart where they dislodge and ravel to the brain. Neruologic impairments is a sign as well as slurred speech, numbness in face, blured vision. CT Scan or MRI are used to determine the type of stroke that is occurent. Vascular imaginag is done to determine the source of atrerial involment. Trement is salvafing as much of the brain tissue as possible by prevents a sedcond stroke. tPA can be administed to break up the clot that is causing the stroke. There is also catheter based methods that mechanically breakdown the clot .
Answer: This patient is more than likely experiencing an ischemic stroke. A CT scan and MRI would be needed to determine if a clot was blocking blood flow to the brain tissue and to rule out a hemorrhagic stroke. If a clot is found, this patient should receive tPA drugs as they are within the 3-4.5 hour treatment window.
Multiple Choice:
Complications of gallstones include each of the following EXCEPT: Cirrhosis
Biliary obstruction Pancreatitis Cholecystitis
Multiple choice
Each of the following factors are associated with increased incidence of peptic ulcer EXCEPT: Dietary history
Corticosteroid use pylori infection Aspirin therapy Cigarette smoking
Short answer
Which GI hormone has strong growth hormone-releasing activity and stimulates food intake and digestive function?
Your Answer:
CCK is the GI hormone that is released during food digestion and stimulates the gallbladder contraction.
Answer: Ghrelin
True/False:
Antibiotics should be used to treat all types of diarrhea.
True False
Which of the following is characteristic of acute transplant rejection?
Occurs months to years after transplant Involves increased T lymphocytes
It does not respond well to immunosuppressive therapy
A patient is said to be in stage 4 kidney disease. What would you expect their GFR to be?
A. 25 mL/min/1.73m2
B. 42 mL/min/1.73m2
C. 70 mL/min/1.73m2
D. 14 mL/min/1.73m2 A.
B.
C.
D.
Short Answer:
Explain how the kidney can maintain a constant GFR despite variations in the arterial blood pressure of the rest of the body.
Your Answer:
The renal autoregulatory system causes the efferent arteiole to constric that leads to an increased resistance of outflow from the glomeruli witha an increase in glomerular pressure and the GFR. So when the affeerent arteriole constricts there is a decrease in renal blood flow, glomerular pressure and GFR.
Answer: The renal autoregulatory system causes the efferent arteriole to constrict leading to an increased resistance to outflow from the glomeruli with a subsequent increase in glomerular pressure and the GFR. When the afferent arteriole constricts there is a reduction in renal blood flow, glomerular pressure, and the GFR.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. The following are the results of their blood
work: pH = 6.9, PCO2 = 52 mm, and HCO3- = 30 mEq/L. Based upon these results, what type of acid-base disorder are they experiencing? Is compensation occurring? Describe a treatment intervention for this disorder. Normal values are as follows: pH = 7.35-7.45, PCO2 = 35-45 mm, HCO3- = 22-26 mEq/L.
Your Answer:
The patient is in Respiratory Acidosis. This is caused by limited gas exchange which increases the amount of Co2 in the blood. The repiratory syst in not compensating as the PCO2 compensation falls just within the normal limits. The goal for tremament is improving ventilation which in severe cases can result in mechanical ventilation.
Answer: The patient is in respiratory acidosis. The renal system is attempting to compensate as HCO3- concentration is elevated above normal limits. The goal of treatment for respiratory acidosis is improving ventilation. Supplemental O2 can be administered; in severe cases mechanical ventilation may be indicated.
Multiple Choice:
Signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease include each of the following EXCEPT: Hyperpigmentation
Weight loss Muscle weakness
Hyperglycemia
Question 35
2.5 / 2.5 pts
An endocrine hormone is released into circulation to act on a target organ.
True False
Hormones work through receptors, and the speed of this action varies.
True False
A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Lab findings show a low serum T4 and elevated TSH.
1. What diagnosis would her history and lab findings indicate?
2. What type of treatment should be given?
Your Answer:
1. Hasimotos - goiter
High TSH production causes the thyroid gald to hypertrophy that results in a goiter. Synthetic T4 throid hormone throxine is useed to treat hypothyroidism. The serum TSH levels are normalized the correct dosage of throxine is found and maintained.
Answer: (1) Hypothyroidism; (2) synthetic T4 thyroid hormone, thyroxine
Hypothyroidism is caused by each of the following EXCEPT:
Autoimmune causes
Surgery, radiation therapy, or both Iodine deficiency
Thyroid adenoma
Hereditary or developmental abnormalities
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following would a patient likely report if you suspect they have OA?
Stiffness in the morning that lasts longer than 30 minutes Pain that is alleviated with activity
A “grinding feel” with movement Pain in their MCP joint
Multiple Choice:
Cancellous bone receives its blood supply by what means?
Arteries branching from the medullary cavity
Arteries branching inward from the periosteal arteries
Diffusion through the endosteal surface of the bone and the canaliculi
If someone loses their balance when walking on uneven terrain, explain how tendons and ligaments
work to protect the joint and structures within it. Your Answer:
The tendons and ligaments of the joints serve as our proprioception. When these structures stretch or torsional strain the procioceptive nerve fibers will cause a reflexive response to adjust the tension on the muscles to maintain balance and not fall over. The support of the joint is protecting the capsule and other joint structures.
The tendons and ligaments of joints serve in proprioception (the awareness of ones’ position in space or movement of the body). When these structures undergo stretch or torsional strain, these proprioceptive nerve fibers will cause a reflexive response to adjust the tension on the muscles (to maintain balance and not fall over) that support the joint protecting the capsule and other joint structures.
A 72-year-old male is said to be in phase 3 of gout. He is obese and has a history of alcohol abuse.
Develop a treatment plan including specific pharmacologic intervention and a non-pharmacologic recommendation to manage his disease.
Your Answer:
Phase 3 is inter-critical gout. To control the acute phase is to make sure that the patient maintains normal level of uric acid to preven attacks and progresson of the diseases...medication allopurinla can reduce the uric acid levels. The goal of treatment is uricosuric drugs that work to decrease tublar reabsorptaion of urate and increases excretion throught the urine. Lifesytle changes are recomended decrease alcohol consuptions, avoid foods rich in purines like fish, shellfish, bacon and liver.
Phase 3 of gout is called inter-critical gout. The patient is asymptomatic, and no joint abnormalities are present. The goal of treatment in this phase is to maintain normal uric acid levels and prevent progression of the disease. Allopurinol is a prescription drug that is used to reduce uric acid levels. This patient should be encouraged to lose weight and decrease his alcohol consumption. He should also avoid purine rich foods such as fish, bacon, and liver. (*Note – the student has to provide 1 pharmacologic intervention and 1 non-pharmacologic recommendation.) [Show Less]