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BIO 231 / BIO231 All Tests and Final Exam Test Bank
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BIO 231 / BIO231 EXAM – MODULE 1 - MODULE 10 COMPLETE TEST BANK
BIO 231 / BIO231 EXAM – MODULE 1 - MODULE 10 COMPLETE TEST BANK Module 1 Exam Score for this quiz: 97.5 out of 100 Submitted Jan 10 at 10:16pm Th... [Show More] is attempt took 83 minutes. True/False: Nutritional deprivation can cause tissue to atrophy. True False True/False: Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia. True False It’s metaplasia. True/False: Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is a type of dysplasia. True False True/False: Lack of nerve stimulation can cause cells to atrophy. True False Match the following: 1. Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease a. Validity 2. How likely the same result will occur if repeated b. Reliability 3. How a tool measures what it is intended to measure c. Sensitivity 4. People without the disease who are negative on a given test d. Specificityct Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease How likely the same result will occur if repeated How a tool measures what it is intended to measure People without the disease who are negative on a given test Multiple Choice Which is NOT true of the cytoskeleton? It controls shape and movement Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Peroxisomes and proteasomes are not part of the cytoskeleton. Which of the following are true of the cell? Select all that apply. Proteins carry out the functions of the cell membrane Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell The rough ER is the site for lipid synthesis Microfilaments are thin, threadlike cytoplasmic structures Multiple Choice Which of the following are false of the cell? Proteins carry out the functions of the cell membrane. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. The rough ER is the site for lipid synthesis. Microfilaments are thin, threadlike cytoplasmic structures. Which of the following do NOT move across the cell membrane via diffusion? Select all that apply. Oxygen GlucoseY Water Carbon dioxide The study of disease progression The study of disease populations The study of disease causes The study of disease resolution Multiple Choice A patient has a fever and rash. What are these examples of? Signs Symptoms Both A & B Multiple Choice Which of the following is true of a test’s sensitivity? It is how likely the same result will occur if repeated If negative, it can safely be assumed that the person does not have a disease It is considered a true-negative result It can only be calculated from people without the disease Multiple Choice Chemical agents (poison, alcohol) are examples of which of the following? Risk factors Clinical manifestations Pathogenesis Etiologic factors Define tertiary prevention and give an example: Your Answer: Arises after a diagnosis and is where clinical intervents are needed to decrease complications. Priscription medicine is an example of ths, if you have a heart attack and they put you on medication that will help reduce the likely hood of another event. Overall it reduces complications of diseases. Tertiary prevention occurs after a disease has been diagnosed and clinical intervention is needed to reduce complications or deterioration. One example is the use of certain medications one must take after a heart attack to help reduce the risk of a future event or death. Question 15 10 / 10 pts Explain apoptosis and why it is necessary: Your Answer: Apoptosis is the process of removing cells during their development. It eliminates pre-cancerous cells and/or virus infected cells. It is necessary for apoptosis to happen because it maintains the balance of the cells in us and is very important to our immune system. Apoptosis is programmed cell death. This process eliminates cells that are worn out, have been produced in excess, have developed improperly, or have genetic damage. Apoptosis is also responsible for several normal physiologic processes, like replacing cell in the intestinal villi and removing aging red blood cells. Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. Your Answer: Necrosis is cell death in our organs or tissues that is still apart of us (living person). Nercrosis interferes with our cell replacement and tissue reguvination. Necrosis Coagulative necrosis is from the blood supply being cutoff from a organ like the heart or kidney. Necrosis refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person. It often interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration. Coagulative necrosis results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly the heart and kidney. Liquefactive necrosis occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed. It is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses. Caseous necrosis occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis. Gangrenous necrosis most often affects the lower extremities or bowel and is secondary to vascular occlusion. The term gangrene is applied when a considerable mass of tissue undergoes necrosis. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Match the type of cell injury to the cause. Some answer may be used more than once. 1. Viruses a. Physical agents 2. Alcohol b. Radiation injury 3. Reactive oxygen species c. Chemical injury 4. Electrical burn d. Biologic agents 5. Thermal burn e. Nutritional imbalances 6. Iron deficiency anemia f. Free radical injury 7. Mercury toxicity g. Hypoxic cell injury 8. Low oxygen to tissues 9. Parasites 10. Fractures Viruses Alcohol Reactive oxygen species Electrical burn Thermal burn Iron deficiency anemia Mercury toxicity Low oxygen to tissues Parasites Fractures List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each. Your Answer: Connective Tissue - is found in adipose tissue, cartlidge, bone, and blood. Muscle Tissue - This tissue help the our skeletal system, pumps our blood through the heart and contract our blood vessels. Nervous Tissue - is found in our brain, spinal corce and nerves. Epitheliel Tissue - Cover the body surface and forms lining for most of our cavitieis. It major function is proctection, secretion, absorbtion and filtration. Our skin is made up of epithelia tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue. Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane. It is avascular, meaning without blood vessels. It receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests. Connective or supportive tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body. It connects and binds or supports the various tissues. Its cells produce the extracellular matrix that support and hold tissues together. Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells). The four types of connective tissue proper are loose (areolar), adipose, reticular, and dense connective tissue. The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs. Muscle tissue can accomplish this by contraction. The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments. Thin filaments are called actin, and the thick filaments are myosin. The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. Nervous tissue is distributed throughout the body for communication. It provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment. The two types of cells are neuron and glial cells. Neurons function is communication. Glial (meaning glue) cells support the neurons. What is the most studied active transport system in the human body? Your Answer: Sodium Potassium -ATPhase pump. Sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump What is the term to describe when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient? Your Answer: Active Transport Active transport Give one function of a membrane potential: Your Answer: Membrane potential in our nerve and muscle cells are needed to recreate/generate nerve impulses and muscular contractions; the nuerons have to be ablt to send and receive messages. In certain cells the membrane potential can cause hormone secretion. Generate nerve impulse, muscle contractions, or cause hormone secretion What is the term that describes a transport protein to help lipid soluble or large molecules pass through the membrane, that otherwise would not be able to get through? Your Answer: Facilitated Diffusion facilitated diffusion Module 2 Exam- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Results for Amanda Smith Score for this quiz: 89.5 out of 100 Submitted Jan 13 at 10:45pm This attempt took 82 minutes. True/False: Blood tests for tumor markers can make a diagnosis of cancer. Why or why not? Your Answer: True False, only tissue can diagnose. Tumor markers are helpful to assess response to therapy or reoccurrence. What is the most important procedure in diagnosing the correct cancer and histology? Your Answer: Tissue Biopsy tissue biopsy Explain the TNM system: Your Answer: The TNM system that describes the spread of cancer and the amount. This system classifies cancer into stages using three components TUMOR, NODES, METEASTASIS. T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor. N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes. M is the extent of the metastatic involvement. 1. List two signs or symptoms a patient may present with that might indicate a cancer diagnosis: 2. What are two side effects commonly experienced by cancer patients? Your Answer: 1. A sore that has not been healing. Lump in the breast or anywhere on the body. Blood in stool. 2. Weight Loss, Anemia, Weakness 1. Bleeding; sore that doesn’t heal; fluid in the pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal spaces; chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, abdominal discomfort or swelling. Other possible answers can include a mass or lump, pain (need to be specific), fatigue, fevers, weight loss 2. Weight loss, wasting of body fat and muscle tissue, weakness, anorexia, and anemia, fatigue, sleep disturbances 1. What are the three possible goals of cancer treatment? 2. How does radiation kill cancer cells? Your Answer: 1. Curative, Control, or Palliative 2. Radiation uses high power waves that damage the cancer cells; free radicals are created and that is what ultimately damages the structure of the cells. Radiation can also interrupt the cells cycle and/or kill cells. 1. Curative, control, palliative 2. Radiation therapy uses high-energy particles or waves to destroy or damage cancer cells. This leads to the creation of free radicals, which damage cell structures. Radiation can interrupt the cell cycle process, kill cells, or damage DNA in the cells. Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True False False, cell differentiation Cell differentiation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True False This type of cell remains incompletely differentiated throughout life: Your Answer: Stem Cell stem cell These are cells of the same lineage that have not yet differentiated to the extent that they have lost their ability to divide: Your Answer: Progentior or the Parent Cell progenitor or parent cells What is angiogenesis? Why do tumors need it? Your Answer: It is the growth of new blood vessells within the tumor. The blood vessles feed off the tumors which cause the tumor to get bigger and cancer cells can also get into the tissue and move it throughout our body. development of new blood vessels within the tumor. They need it to continue to grow. Question 11 3 / 3 pts What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? Your Answer: Proto Oncogenes protooncogenes What is a tumor suppressor gene? Give one example. Your Answer: Tumor Suppressor Gene slow down our cells divison and repairns DNA mistakes. BRCA gene linked to breast cancer. Tumor suppressor genes are associated with gene underactivity. These genes slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die. BRCA1 or 2, TP53 Determine if the tumor is benign or malignant based on the nomenclature: 1. Papilloma 2. Lipoma 3. Leiomyosarcoma 4. Hemangioma 5. Adenocarcinoma 6. Neuroblastoma 7. Adenoma 8. Melanoma 9. Lymphoma 10. Glioma Papilloma Lipoma Leiomyosarcoma malignant Hemangioma Adenocarcinoma Neuroblastoma Adenoma Melanoma Lymphoma malignant Glioma A 62-year-old man with a 30-pack year smoking history is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer with metastasis to the bone. (1) Explain the process of how cancer spreads metastatically. (2) What symptoms might he have presented with? (3) Which screening test would he have benefited from? Your Answer: Metatasis is when the cancer cells spread in other parts of the body not where the cancer was originally. The patient could be having pain, headaches/dizziness, shortness of breath. Screening test would be the TNM system. (1) Metastasis- a cancer cell must break loose from the primary tumor, invade the surrounding extracellular matrix, gain access to a blood vessel, survive its passage in the bloodstream, emerge at a favorable location, invade the surrounding tissue, begin to grow, and establish a blood supply. (2) Chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, bone pain. (3) Yearly low-dose chest CT. Benign tumors have which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply. Undifferentiated cells Grows by expansion Gains access to blood and lymph channels Growth may stop or regress What are the genetic events that can lead to cancer? Select all that apply. Gene amplification Pleomorphism Point mutation Seeding Chromosomal translocation Question 17 4 / 4 pts List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module. Your Answer: Genetics/Heredity, Obesity, Enviromental, Radiation, Sun Exposure Heredity, hormonal factors, obesity, immunologic mechanisms, environmental agents such as chemicals, radiation, and cancer-causing viruses. List three characteristics of cancer cells and briefly explain what it means: Your Answer: Genetic Instability - When the body is under normal conditions our cells are protected from our genetic errors. Antigen Expression- the cancer cells have a lot of antigens that are different from the normal tissues. Unlimited Life Span - cancer cells divide into infinate number of times. Answer: Any of the following Anaplasia is the loss of cell differentiation in cancerous tissue. Genetic instability means they have a high frequency of mutations. Growth factor independence means cancer cells can proliferate even in the absence of growth factors. Cell density-dependent inhibition means cancer cell don’t stop growing when they come into contact with each other. Cell cohesiveness and adhesion means they don’t stick together. Anchorage dependence means cancer cells aren’t anchored to neighboring cells or the underlying matrix to live and grow. Cell-to-cell communication in cancer cells is poor, which interferes with intercellular connections and responsiveness to membrane-derived signals. Life span is unlimited – cancer cells are immortal. Antigen expression -cancer cells contain several cell surface molecules or antigens that are immunologically identified as foreign. Cancer cells can produce enzymes, hormones, and other substances that the tissues of origin either does not produce or produces in much smaller amounts. Cancer cells can show cytoskeletal changes or abnormalities. This includes abnormal intermediate filament types or changes in actin filaments and microtubules that help with invasion and metastasis. Which of the following are risk factors for developing cancer? Select all that apply. HBV Alcohol High intake of smoked meats Deodorant All of the following statements about carcinogenesis are true except: Chemical carcinogenesis is usually a multistep phenomenon Initiators cause irreversible damage to DNA Correct Answer Promoters of carcinogenesis exert their effect before initiation Promoters of carcinogenesis induce cell proliferation List one example of screening for each method: observation, palpation, and lab test/procedure: Your Answer: Observation - Skin, mouth, external genitals Palpation - Lymph Nodes, Breast Lab/Test - Mammogram Observation: skin, mouth, external genitalia Palpation: breast, thyroid, rectum and anus, prostate, lymph nodes Laboratory tests and procedures: Pap smear, colonoscopy, mammography Quiz Score: 89 Module 3 Exam- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Short answer Explain how the skin’s physical barrier makes it inhospitable to microorganisms. Your Answer: The way our skin is made up makes it a strong physcial barrier. The cells are compacted and close together with multiple layers. Keratin covers our skin and produces an acidic atomosphere that is inhospitable to microorganisms. Skin also contains proteins and lysozomes that damages the organisms. It has closely packed cells in multiple layers that are continuously being shed. Keratin covers the skin, which creates a salty, acidic environment inhospitable to microbes. It also contains antimicrobial proteins and lysozymes that inhibit microorganisms and help to destroy them. Multiple choice: Which cell is the first responder to phagocytose a foreign invader? Correct Answer Monocyte Basophil Eosinophil Dendritic cell Multiple Choice: What are the primary cells involved in the adaptive immune response? Antibodies Antigens Neutrophils Lymphocytes Question 4 3 / 3 pts T lymphocytes produce what type of immunity? Your Answer: Cell Mediated Immunity Cell-mediated Multiple Choice: Which immunoglobulin is responsible in inflammation and allergic responses and combating parasitic infections? IgM IgE IgA IgD IgG Question 6 2 / 2 pts Multiple Choice: Which cell produces antibodies? T lymphocyte B lymphocyte Immunoglobulins Helper T cells Multiple Choice: Which feature is NOT of innate immunity? Immediate response Response is similar with each exposure Diversity is limited to groups of microbes Microbe recognition is specific A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment might be used to relieve her symptoms? Your Answer: When there is an allergic reaction the anitigen is caused by an allergen. Atopic reaction is what is normally caused with allergy to pollen. Allergic Rhinities is what is causing the sneezing, nasal congention etc. The reaction is normally localized and/or systemic which are Type I reactions. Genetic IgE medicated reactions is what occurs when exposed to anitgens like food and/or pollen. Symptoms can be controlled by an anihistamine like Benadryl or by second generation anihistomines like Zyrtec. Flonase can help iwth the nasal congestion and drainage as well. (1) Mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or late-phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. True/False: Following a heart attack, the area of heart muscle that has undergone necrosis because of lack of blood supply will heal by scar tissue replacement. True False are low molecular weight molecules that can elicit production of antibodies when combined with a larger protein? Your Answer: B Lymphocytes ? haptens True/False: During inflammation, blood vessels constrict to minimize tissue damage. True False Question 12 3 / 3 pts True/False: T cells mature in the thymus and are active in cellular immunity. True False Question 13 True/False: B lymphocytes normally produce antibodies against host tissues. True Correct Answer False Question 14 3.5 / 3.5 pts Antibodies are also known as ? Your Answer: Immunoglobulins immunoglobulins Question 15 Multiple Choice: Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions can be treated with the administration of epinephrine? Correct Answer Type I Type II Type III Type IV Question 16 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which is NOT a type of type II hypersensitivity reaction? Rh incompatibility Vascular rejection of organ grafts Graves’ disease Blood transfusion reactions Atopy Multiple Choice: A finding of diagnostic significance is the well-known association of HLA-B27 antigen with which of the following disorders? Rheumatoid arthritis Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Ankylosing spondylitis HLA-B27 antigen is found in almost 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis Graves’ disease Short answer: What are autoantibodies? Your Answer: It is when the immune system, of someone with an autoimmune disorder, has lost the ability to identify its own self and then produces autoantibodies. Answer: In many autoimmune diseases, the immune system loses its ability to recognize self and produces what is called autoantibodies, which act against host tissues. Short answer A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man’s CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/µL and his viral load is 250,000 copies/mL. (1) Why did the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and symptomatology, and why? Your Answer: The man is at the Primary Infection phase for his viral load is over the normal range of 800-1,000 copies/mL. He is have shortness of breath and cough which could be symptoms from the HIV. During the primary infection phase there is a huge increase in viral load copies/mL and a decrease in in the CD4+ Tcell count. (1) Opportunistic infections are those common organisms that do not produce infection without impaired immune function. (2) The last phase, or AIDS illness, occurs when the CD4+ cell count falls to less than 200 cells/µL or exhibits an AIDS-defining illness. The risk of opportunistic infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell count falls below 200 cells/µL. Question 20 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following will promote wound healing? Malnutrition Increased blood flow Infection Foreign bodies Question 21 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following cells is a permanent cell? Epidermal cell Hepatocyte Intestinal mucosal cell Neuron Renal tubular cell Question 22 1.5 / 3.5 pts Fill in the blank As the CD4 T cell count decreases, the body becomes susceptible to . Your Answer: Severe Infections from what would be harmless to a person that is healthy. [Show Less]
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BIO 231 / BIO231 FINAL EXAM
BIO 231 / BIO231 FINAL EXAM True/False: Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful circumstances. True False True/Fals... [Show More] e: Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. True False Multiple Choice Which is NOT true of the cytoskeleton? It controls shape and movement Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Peroxisomes and proteasomes are not part of the cytoskeleton. Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply. Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within The main structural component is made of proteins Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis. Your Answer: Dry gangrene is when the tissue becomes dyhydrated and shrinks back and becomes dark brown/black in color and the spread of dry gangrene is slow. In wet gangrene the affected area is cold, swollen, and does not have a pulse, the skin is moist, black and disteneded. Small blisters blebs on the skins surface where liquefaction occurs and bad order that is caused by bacteria and the spread of tissue damage is fast. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. True/False: Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True False False, cell differentiation True/False: Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. True False False, cell proliferation This type of cell remains incompletely differentiated throughout life: Your Answer: Stem Cell stem cell Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell? Muscle Bone Epithelial Epithelial cells like the skin are constantly being replaced. Neural 1. is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites. 2. The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as . Your Answer: 1. Chemotherapy 2. Wasting 1. chemotherapy 2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome Short answer Explain how the skin’s physical barrier makes it inhospitable to microorganisms. Your Answer: Our skin is designed to be a physical barrier. It is comprised of closed packed cells in multiple layers that are being shed constantly. Keratin is what covers the skin and this makes a salty acidic enviroment that makes it inhospitable to microorganisms. It also contains antimicrobial proteins and lysozyomes that inhibt microbes that helps destroy them. It has closely packed cells in multiple layers that are continuously being shed. Keratin covers the skin, which creates a salty, acidic environment inhospitable to microbes. It also contains antimicrobial proteins and lysozymes that inhibit microorganisms and help to destroy them. True/False: The T cells that display the host’s MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed positive selection. True False Multiple Choice: Which cell in the blood provides primary hemostasis? Platelets Endothelial cells Histamine Macrophages A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment might be used to relieve her symptoms? Your Answer: Atopy, in most cases it is a genetic predisposition to the IgE-mediatied reaction that occure upon exposure. High level of IgE. Treament sims to remove the offeding agents and control symptoms. Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteriods used. Second generation antihistmines like zyrtec and claritin are better tolerated. (1) Mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or late-phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. Multiple Choice: The patient is found to be a severely malnourished alcoholic. The most likely cause of his anemia is: Folate deficiency Pernicious anemia Iron deficiency anemia Anemia of chronic inflammation Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? Vitamin B12 is bound to intrinsic factor Peripheral neuropathy can be a result of deficiency Dietary deficiencies are common MCV is elevated Multiple Choice: Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except? Obesity Diabetes mellitus High cholesterol diet Autosomal dominant disorder of LDL receptor Multiple Choice: Risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except: HDL > 60 Smoking Hypertension Family history of heart disease Patient is found to have the above: 1. What risk factors mostly led to this disease state? 2. What is this person at risk for developing? 3. What lifestyle modifications would you suggest for them? Your Answer: 1. Smoking, obesity, and viseral fat, hypertention, diabetes mellitus. 2. Coronary Artery Disease, Angina, Myocardial Infarction, Stroke 3. Stop smoking, lose weight, low fat - low cholestroal diet Answer: Picture is of an atherosclerotic plaque 1. Hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, obesity and visceral fat, hypertension, diabetes mellitus. Increasing age, family history of premature CHD, and male sex. May also include C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum lipoprotein(a). 2. Coronary artery disease, angina, myocardial infarction, aneurysm, stroke (ischemia, thrombosis, emboli). 3. Stop smoking, lose weight/exercise, healthy diet (low-fat, low-cholesterol), adhere to medication for blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and/or diabetes. is the flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs. Your Answer: Ventilation Ventilation Multiple Choice: Someone with COPD would exhibit each of the following characteristics except: Polycythemia Increased pulmonary artery pressure Increased D-dimer levels Decreased FVC & FEV Short answer: A 10-year-old boy who is having an acute asthma attack is brought to the ER. He is observed to be sitting up and struggling to breathe. His breathing is accompanied by use of accessory muscles, a weak cough, and audible wheezing sounds. His pulse is rapid and weak, and both heart and breath sounds are distant on auscultation. His parents relate that his asthma began to worsen after he developed a “cold,” and now he doesn’t get relief from his albuterol inhaler. Explain the changes in physiologic function underlying his signs and symptoms. Your Answer: Recruitment f inflammatory cells from the bloodstream into the brochial wall where they attack the invading organisms and secrete inflammatory chimicals that are toxic to the organisms cause airway inflamation. Swelling of the bronchial wall mucus secretion constriction of the airway, brochial hyper- responsiveness to stimulis causes airway obstruction narrowing. Recruitment of inflammatory cells from the bloodstream into the bronchial wall, where they directly attack the invading organisms and secrete inflammatory chemicals that are toxic to the organisms causes airway inflammation. Swelling of the bronchial wall, mucus secretion, constriction of the airway; bronchial hyper-responsiveness to stimuli causes airway obstruction or narrowing. They may discuss on a cellular level as well: Upon a trigger, the cascade of neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, and mast cells cause epithelial injury. This causes airway inflammation, which further increases hyperresponsiveness and decreased airflow. Mast cells release histamine and leukotrienes. These cause major bronchoconstriction, inflammation, and mucus secretion. Mast cells can trigger multiple cytokine release, which causes more airway inflammation. The contraction of the airways and subsequent swelling leads to further airway obstruction. T/F – Make true if False Astrocytes help to form the blood-brain barrier which prevents toxins from the blood from entering the brain. Your Answer: True Answer: True T/F – Make true if False Someone in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease requires assistance for their activities of daily living. Your Answer: False Someone in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease still function independently with activities of daily living. Answer: False, in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease, individuals are still independent with their ADLs. Long Answer Essay A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by their spouse at 8 pm. The spouse reports that they were cleaning up after dinner at approximately 6:30 pm, and she noticed that her husband’s speech was very unclear. When she asked him what was going on, he said that he didn’t know and that the entire right side of his face felt numb. She reports that he is very active, but he has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment. Your Answer: Ischemic stroke which is casued by atheroscleortic plagues that foem in the major vessels supplying the brain. The emboli origniate in the heart where they dislodge and ravel to the brain. Neruologic impairments is a sign as well as slurred speech, numbness in face, blured vision. CT Scan or MRI are used to determine the type of stroke that is occurent. Vascular imaginag is done to determine the source of atrerial involment. Trement is salvafing as much of the brain tissue as possible by prevents a sedcond stroke. tPA can be administed to break up the clot that is causing the stroke. There is also catheter based methods that mechanically breakdown the clot . Answer: This patient is more than likely experiencing an ischemic stroke. A CT scan and MRI would be needed to determine if a clot was blocking blood flow to the brain tissue and to rule out a hemorrhagic stroke. If a clot is found, this patient should receive tPA drugs as they are within the 3-4.5 hour treatment window. Multiple Choice: Complications of gallstones include each of the following EXCEPT: Cirrhosis Biliary obstruction Pancreatitis Cholecystitis Multiple choice Each of the following factors are associated with increased incidence of peptic ulcer EXCEPT: Dietary history Corticosteroid use pylori infection Aspirin therapy Cigarette smoking Short answer Which GI hormone has strong growth hormone-releasing activity and stimulates food intake and digestive function? Your Answer: CCK is the GI hormone that is released during food digestion and stimulates the gallbladder contraction. Answer: Ghrelin True/False: Antibiotics should be used to treat all types of diarrhea. True False Which of the following is characteristic of acute transplant rejection? Occurs months to years after transplant Involves increased T lymphocytes It does not respond well to immunosuppressive therapy A patient is said to be in stage 4 kidney disease. What would you expect their GFR to be? A. 25 mL/min/1.73m2 B. 42 mL/min/1.73m2 C. 70 mL/min/1.73m2 D. 14 mL/min/1.73m2 A. B. C. D. Short Answer: Explain how the kidney can maintain a constant GFR despite variations in the arterial blood pressure of the rest of the body. Your Answer: The renal autoregulatory system causes the efferent arteiole to constric that leads to an increased resistance of outflow from the glomeruli witha an increase in glomerular pressure and the GFR. So when the affeerent arteriole constricts there is a decrease in renal blood flow, glomerular pressure and GFR. Answer: The renal autoregulatory system causes the efferent arteriole to constrict leading to an increased resistance to outflow from the glomeruli with a subsequent increase in glomerular pressure and the GFR. When the afferent arteriole constricts there is a reduction in renal blood flow, glomerular pressure, and the GFR. A patient is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. The following are the results of their blood work: pH = 6.9, PCO2 = 52 mm, and HCO3- = 30 mEq/L. Based upon these results, what type of acid-base disorder are they experiencing? Is compensation occurring? Describe a treatment intervention for this disorder. Normal values are as follows: pH = 7.35-7.45, PCO2 = 35-45 mm, HCO3- = 22-26 mEq/L. Your Answer: The patient is in Respiratory Acidosis. This is caused by limited gas exchange which increases the amount of Co2 in the blood. The repiratory syst in not compensating as the PCO2 compensation falls just within the normal limits. The goal for tremament is improving ventilation which in severe cases can result in mechanical ventilation. Answer: The patient is in respiratory acidosis. The renal system is attempting to compensate as HCO3- concentration is elevated above normal limits. The goal of treatment for respiratory acidosis is improving ventilation. Supplemental O2 can be administered; in severe cases mechanical ventilation may be indicated. Multiple Choice: Signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease include each of the following EXCEPT: Hyperpigmentation Weight loss Muscle weakness Hyperglycemia Question 35 2.5 / 2.5 pts An endocrine hormone is released into circulation to act on a target organ. True False Hormones work through receptors, and the speed of this action varies. True False A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Lab findings show a low serum T4 and elevated TSH. 1. What diagnosis would her history and lab findings indicate? 2. What type of treatment should be given? Your Answer: 1. Hasimotos - goiter High TSH production causes the thyroid gald to hypertrophy that results in a goiter. Synthetic T4 throid hormone throxine is useed to treat hypothyroidism. The serum TSH levels are normalized the correct dosage of throxine is found and maintained. Answer: (1) Hypothyroidism; (2) synthetic T4 thyroid hormone, thyroxine Hypothyroidism is caused by each of the following EXCEPT: Autoimmune causes Surgery, radiation therapy, or both Iodine deficiency Thyroid adenoma Hereditary or developmental abnormalities Multiple Choice: Which of the following would a patient likely report if you suspect they have OA? Stiffness in the morning that lasts longer than 30 minutes Pain that is alleviated with activity A “grinding feel” with movement Pain in their MCP joint Multiple Choice: Cancellous bone receives its blood supply by what means? Arteries branching from the medullary cavity Arteries branching inward from the periosteal arteries Diffusion through the endosteal surface of the bone and the canaliculi If someone loses their balance when walking on uneven terrain, explain how tendons and ligaments work to protect the joint and structures within it. Your Answer: The tendons and ligaments of the joints serve as our proprioception. When these structures stretch or torsional strain the procioceptive nerve fibers will cause a reflexive response to adjust the tension on the muscles to maintain balance and not fall over. The support of the joint is protecting the capsule and other joint structures. The tendons and ligaments of joints serve in proprioception (the awareness of ones’ position in space or movement of the body). When these structures undergo stretch or torsional strain, these proprioceptive nerve fibers will cause a reflexive response to adjust the tension on the muscles (to maintain balance and not fall over) that support the joint protecting the capsule and other joint structures. A 72-year-old male is said to be in phase 3 of gout. He is obese and has a history of alcohol abuse. Develop a treatment plan including specific pharmacologic intervention and a non-pharmacologic recommendation to manage his disease. Your Answer: Phase 3 is inter-critical gout. To control the acute phase is to make sure that the patient maintains normal level of uric acid to preven attacks and progresson of the diseases...medication allopurinla can reduce the uric acid levels. The goal of treatment is uricosuric drugs that work to decrease tublar reabsorptaion of urate and increases excretion throught the urine. Lifesytle changes are recomended decrease alcohol consuptions, avoid foods rich in purines like fish, shellfish, bacon and liver. Phase 3 of gout is called inter-critical gout. The patient is asymptomatic, and no joint abnormalities are present. The goal of treatment in this phase is to maintain normal uric acid levels and prevent progression of the disease. Allopurinol is a prescription drug that is used to reduce uric acid levels. This patient should be encouraged to lose weight and decrease his alcohol consumption. He should also avoid purine rich foods such as fish, bacon, and liver. (*Note – the student has to provide 1 pharmacologic intervention and 1 non-pharmacologic recommendation.) [Show Less]
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