A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus and reports difficulty following the diet and remembering to take the
... [Show More] prescribed medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote client compliance? Select all that apply.
A. Ask the dietitian to assist with meal planning
B. Contact the client's support system
C. Assess for age-related cognitive awareness
D. Encourage the use of a daily medication dispenser
E. Provide educational materials for home use
A, B, D, E
A: The nurse provides resources to strength coping abilities by asking the dietitian to assist the client with meal planning. This will improve client compliance.
B: With the client's consent, the nurse can contact members of the client's support system and encourage the client to use this support during times of illness and stress to improve compliance
C: Assessing the client for age-related cognitive awareness is important but it is not an appropriate intervention that enhances the client's compliance.
D: The nurse encourages the use of a daily medication dispenser to reduce health risks and improve medication compliance by the client.
E: The nurse provides educational materials to the client to improve health awareness and reduce health risks after discharge
A nurse in a health care clinic is evaluating the level of wellness for clients using the illness-wellness continuum tool. The nurse should identify which of the following clients as being at the center of the continuum?
A. A college student who has influenza
B. An older adult who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. A new mother who has a urinary tract infection
D. A young male client who has a long history of well-controlled rheumatoid arthritis
D
A: The client who has influenza is measured on the continuum by the level of health to illness in comparison to the norm for the client.
B: The client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus is measured on the continuum by the level of health to illness in comparison to the norm for the client.
C: The client who has a urinary tract infection is measured on the continuum by the level of health to illness in comparison to the norm for the client.
D: The client who has well-controlled rheumatoid arthritis is measure ad the center of the continuum, which is the client's normal state of health
A nurse is evaluating clients at a health fair for modifiable variables affecting health and wellness. The nurse should identify which of the following variables as modifiable? (Select all that apply).
A. Smoking on social occasions
B. BMI of 28
C. Alopecia
D. Trisomy 21
E. History of reflux
A, B, E
A: The nurse identifies smoking as a modifiable variable that a client can change. The nurse should provide the client with educational materials and information on smoking cessation.
B: The nurse identifies a BMI of 28 as a modifiable variable that a client can change. The nurse should provide the client with information on weight reduction and exercising.
C: The nurse identifies alopecia as a non-modifiable variable because alopecia is a genetic disorder.
D: The nurse identifies Trisomy 21 as a non-modifiable variable because Trisomy 21 is genetic in origin
E: The nurse identifies reflux as a modifiable variable that a client can change. The nurse should provide the client with step-by-step educational information about treatment.
A nurse is caring for a client who was just informed of a new diagnosis of breast cancer. The nurse evaluates the client's response. Which of the following statements by the client reflects a lack of understanding of an illness perspective?
A. "I have no family history of breast cancer."
B. "I need a second opinion. There is no lump."
C. "I am glad we live in the city near several large hospitals."
D. "I will schedule surgery next week, over the holidays."
B.
A: The client's lack of family history of cancer can influence the client's response to the new diagnosis, but it does not reflect a lack of understanding of an illness perspective.
B: The client's statement of denial reflects a lack of understanding of the illness perspective and can influence the client's acceptance of the diagnosis.
C: Access to health care resources can influence the client's response to the new diagnosis, but it does not reflect a lack of understanding of an illness perspective
D: Time constraints can influence a client's response to the diagnosis, but it does not reflect a lack of understanding of an illness perspective.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should notify the rapid response team for which of the following clients?
A. Client who has a pressure injury of the right heel whose blood glucose is 300 mg/dL
B. Client who reports right calf pain and shortness of breath
C. Client who has blood on a pressure dressing in the femoral area following a cardiac catheterization
D. Client who has dark red coloration of left toes and absent pedal pulse
B.
A: The nurse should notify the provider. The situation does not indicate the beginning of a rapid decline in the client's condition
B: The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for respiratory arrest due to a possible embolism. The nurse should call the rapid response team because the manifestations can indicate the beginning of a rapid decline in the client's condition.
C: This assessment does not indicate the beginning of a rapid decline in the client's condition at this time. The nurse should reassess the client and notify the provider if the bleeding increases.
D: The nurse should notify the provider. The situation does not indicate the beginning of a rapid decline in the client's condition
A nurse is caring for a client who has ingested a toxic agent. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? (Select all that apply).
A. Induce vomiting
B. Instill activated charcoal
C. Perform a gastric lavage with aspiration
D. Administer syrup of ipecac
E. Infuse IV fluids
B, C, E
A: Vomiting places the client at risk for aspiration.
B: This is an appropriate action by the nurse because activated charcoal absorbs toxic substances and the charcoal does not pass into the bloodstream.
C: This is an appropriate action by the nurse because gastric lavage with aspiration removes the toxic substance when the instill fluid is suctioned from the gastrointestinal tract.
D: Administering syrup of ipecac is not recommended because it induces vomiting, which increases the client's risk for aspiration.
E: The is an appropriate action by the nurse because intravenous fluids help dilute the toxic substances in the bloodstream and promote elimination from the body through the kidneys.
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who fell through the ice on a pond and is unresponsive and breathing slowly. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all the apply)
A. Remove wet clothing
B. Maintain normal room temperature
C. Apply warm blankets
D. Use a rapid rewarming water of 40 to 42C (104 to 108F)
E. Infuse warmed IV fluids
A, C, D, E
A: This is an appropriate action by the nurse because the body temperature can rise more quickly when heat is applied to dry skin.
B: The nurse should increase the temperature of the room to help return the client to a normal body temperature.
C: This is an appropriate action by the nurse because the client's body temperature can rise more quickly when warm blankets are applied.
D: This is an appropriate action by the nurse because the client's body temperature can rise more quickly when a rapid rewarming bath water of 40 to 42 C (104 to 108 F) is used to warm the client's body and preserve tissues
E: This is an appropriate action by the nurse because the client's body temperature can rise more quickly when warmed IV fluids are infused
A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unresponsive. The client's partner states: "He was pulling weeds in the yard and slumped to the ground." Which of the following techniques should the nurse use to open the client's airway?
A. Head-tilt, chin-lift
B. Modified jaw thrust
C. Hyperextension of the head
D. Flexion of head
A
A: The nurse should open the client's airway by the head-tilt, chin-lift because the client is unresponsive without suspicion of trauma
B: The nurse should not open the client's airway with the modified jaw thrust because this method is used for a client who is unresponsive with suspected traumatic neck injury.
C: The nurse should not open the client's airway with hyperextension of the head because hyperextension of the head can close off the airway and cause injury.
D: The nurse should not open the client's airway with flexion of the head because flexion of the head does not open the airway
A nurse is reviewing the common emergency management protocol for clients who have asystole. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take during this cardiac emergency?
A. Perform defibrillation
B. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
C. Administer IV epinephrine
D. Elevate the client's lower extremities
C
A: Defibrillation is not indicated for asystole, because this is not considered a shockable cardiac rhythm
B. Transcutaneous pacing is not indicated for the treatment of asystole.
C: Administering epinephrine during asystole is an appropriate action by the nurse because it increases heart rate, improves cardiac output, and promotes bronchodilation.
D: Elevating the client's lower extremities is indicated for the treatment of a client who is in shock, rather than asystole
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-procedure following lumbar puncture and reports a throbbing headache when sitting upright. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply).
A. Use the Glasgow Coma Scale when assessing the client
B. Assist the client to a supine position
C. Administer an opioid medication
D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
E. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises
B, C, D
A: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess a client's level of consciousness and is not necessary following a lumbar puncture.
B: The nurse should assist the client to a supine position, which can relieve a headache following a lumbar puncture
C: The nurse should administer an opioid medication for a client's report of headache pain
D: The nurse should encourage an increased fluid intake to maintain a positive fluid balance, which can relieve a headache following a lumbar puncture
E: Coughing can increase ICP, which can result in an increase in the client's headache
A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a traumatic head injury and has a intraventricular catheter (ventriculostomy) for ICP monitoring. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications related to the ventriculostomy?
A. Headahce
B. Infection
C. Aphasia
D. Hypertension
B
A: The nurse should monitor a client who has increased ICP for a headache, but a headache does not indicate a complication directly related to the ventriculostomy.
B: The nurse should monitor a client who has a ventriculostomy for infection, which is a complication. The nurse should use strict asepsis to avoid this life-threatening condition, which can result in meningitis.
C: The nurse should monitor a client who has increased ICP for aphasia related to the head injury, but this is not a complication directly related to the ventriculostomy.
D: The nurse should monitor a client with who has increased ICP for hypertension, The nurse should monitor a client who has increase ICP for aphasia related to the head injury, but this is not a complication directly related to the ventriculostomy.
A nurse is assessing a client for changes in the level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The client opens his eyes when spoken to, speaks incoherently, and moves his extremities when pain is applied. Which of the following GCS scores should the nurse document?
A. E2 + V3 + M5 = 10
B. E3 + V4 + M4 = 11
C. E4 + V5 + M6 = 15
D. E2 + V2 + M2 = 8
B
Calculated as follows:
Eye Opening (E)
-4 = eye opening occurs spontaneously
-3 = eye opening occurs secondary to sound
-2 = eye opening occurs secondary to pain
-1 = eye opening does not occur
Verbal response (V)
-5 = Conversation is coherent and oriented
-4 = Conversation is incoherent and disoriented
-3 = Words are spoken, but inappropriately
-2 = Sounds are made, but no words
-1 = Vocalization does not occur
Motor Response (M)
-6 = Commands are followed
-5 = Local reaction to pain occurs
-4 = General withdrawal from pain
-3 = Decorticate posturing (adduction of arms, flexion of elbows and wrists) is present
-2 = Decerebrate posture (abduction of arms, extension of elbows and wrists) is present
-1 = Motor response does not occur
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is scheduled for cerebral angiography with contrast media. Which of the following statements by the client should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply)
A. "I think I might be pregnant"
B. "I take warfarin"
C. "I take antihypertensive medication"
D. "I am allergic to shrimp"
E. "I ate a light breakfast this morning"
A, B, D, E
A: The nurse should report the client's statement of possible pregnancy to the provider because the contrast media can place the fetus at risk
B: The nurse should report that the client is taking warfarin to the provider due to the potential for bleeding following angiography.
C: There is no contraindication related to cerebral angiography for a client who is taking antihypertensive medication.
D: The nurse should report a client's report of n allergy to shrimp, which is a shellfish, to the provider due to a potential allergic reaction to the contrast media.
E: The nurse should report a client's intake of food to the provider since the client should remain NPO for 4 to 6 hr prior to the procedure
A nurse is providing education to a client who is to undergo an electroencephalogram (EEG) the next day. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "Do not wash your hair the morning of the procedure."
B. "Try to stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure."
C. "The procedure will take approximately 15 minutes."
D. "You will need to lie flat for 4 hours after the procedure."
B
A: The nurse should teach the client to wash her hair on the morning of the procedure to remove oils, gels, and sprays, which can affect the EEG readings.
B: The nurse should teach the client to remain awake most of the night to provide cranial stress and increase the possibility of abnormal electrical activity
C: The nurse should teach the client that the procedure will take approximately 1 hr
D: The nurse should teach the client that normal activity can resume immediately following the procedure
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing mild acute pain after spraining an ankle. Which of the following analgesics should the nurse expect to administer?
A. Ketorolac
B. Ketamine
C. Meperidine
D. Methadone
A.
A: Ketorolac is in the NSAID category and is useful for anti-inflammatory effects in managing minor pain following a spray..
B: Ketamine is an anesthetic agent that is often used as an adjuvant medication for treating neuropathic pain
C: Meperidine is not recommended for regular use due to adverse effects of this medication
D: Methadone is effective for treating severe pain
A nurse at a clinic is talking with a client who has cancer and takes extended-release opioids twice daily. The client reports an increase in localized, achy pain over the last few days. How should the nurse document this increase in pain?
A. Phantom limb pain
B. Mixed pain
C. Breakthrough pain
D. Neuropathic pain
C
A: Phantom limb pain that is perceived to be initiated from a part of the body that is no longer present
B: Mixed pain is pain that is difficult to define, for conditions such as fibromyalgia
C: Breakthrough pain is an acute exacerbation of pain beyond the level the client typically experiences
D: Neuropathic pain sensations are described as burning, shooting, or pins and needles
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) infusion device after abdominal surgery. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to use the device?
A. "I'll wait to use the device until it's absolutely necessary."
B. "I'll be careful about pushing the button so I don't get an overdose."
C. "I should tell the nurse if the pain doesn't stop after I use this device."
D. "I will ask my son to push the dose button when I am sleeping."
C
A. The client may use the device when he begins to feel pain. It will help prevent unnecessary worsening of the pain and more doses of analgesia to provide relief.
B: A feature of PCA devices is the timing control or lockout mechanism, which enforces a preset minimum interval between medication doses. This safety feature is one means of preventing an overdose because the client cannot self-administer another dose until that time interval has passed.
C: The nurse should identify that PCA is a method of delivering pain medication through an electronic infusion device that allows the client to self-administer pain medication on as as-needed basis. If the client is not achieving adequate pain control, he should let the nurse know so that she can initiate a reevaluation of the client's pain management plan.
D: The client is the only one who should operate the PCA pump. In situations where the client is not able to do so, the provider may authorize a nurse or a family member to operate the pump.
A nurse is discussing pain assessment with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. Most clients exaggerate their levels of pain
B. Pain must have an identifiable source to justify the use of opioids
C. Objective data are essential in assessing pain
D. Pain is whatever the client says it is
D
A: A misconception about pain is that clients will exaggerate their pain level
B: Clients can have pain without being able to identify the source
C: Objective data are not always present when the clients have pain
D: The nurse should identify that pain is a subjective experience, and the client is that best source of information about it
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving opioid analgesia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as adverse effects of opioid analgesics? (Select all that apply).
A. Urinary incontinence
B. Diarrhea
C. Bradypnea
D. Orthostatic hypotension
E. Nausea
C, D, E
A: Urinary retention, not urinary incontinence, is a common adverse effect of opioid analgesia
B: Constipation, not diarrhea, is a common adverse effect of opioid analgesia
C: Respiratory depression, which causes respiratory rates to drop to dangerously low levels, is a common adverse effect of opioid analgesia
D: Dizziness or lightheadedness when changing positions is a common adverse effect of opioid analgesia
E: Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of opioid analgesia
A nurse is assessing a client who reports severe headache and a stiff neck. The nurse's assessment reveals positive Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs. Which of the following should the nurse perform first?
A. Administer antibiotics
B. Implement droplet precautions
C. Initiate IV access
D. Decrease bright lights.
B
A: The nurse should administer antibiotics to stop the micro-organisms from multiplying, but this is not the priority action.
B: When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to care, the nurse determines the priority action is to initiate droplet precautions when meningitis is suspected to prevent the spread of disease to others
C: The nurse should initiate IV access to allow IV medication and fluid administration, but this is not the priority action.
D: The nurse should decrease bright lights because of the client's sensitivity to light, but this is not the priority action.
A nurse is assessing for the presence of Brudzinski's sign in a client who has suspected meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when performing this technique? (Select all that apply)
A. Place the client in supine position
B. Flex client's hip and knee
C. Place hands behind the client's neck
D. Bend client's head toward chest
E. Straighten the client's flexed leg at the knee
A, C, D
A: The nurse should place the client in supine position when assessing for Brudzinski's sign
B: The nurse should flex the client's hip and knee when assessing for Kernig's sign
C: The nurse should place her hands behind the client's neck when assessing for Brudzinski's sign, in order to flex the client's neck
D: The nurse should bend the client's head toward the chest when assessing for Brudzinski's sign
E: The nurse should straighten the client's flexed leg at the knee when assessing for Kernig's sign
A nurse is planning care for a client who has meningitis and is at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? (Select all that apply)
A. Implement seizure precautions
B. Perform neurologic checks 4 times a day
C. Administer morphine for the report of neck and generalized pain
D. Turn off room lights and television
E. Monitor for impaired extraocular movements
F. Encourage the client to cough frequently
A, D, E
A: The client is at risk for seizures due to possible increased ICP. Therefore, the nurse should implement seizure precautions to reduce the client's risk for injury.
B: The nurse should perform neurologic checks at least every 2 hours for a client who is at risk for increased ICP
C: The nurse should avoid administering opioids to a client who is at risk for increased ICP. Opioids can mask changes in the client's level of consciousness.
D: The nurse should turn off room lights and the television because they can increase neuron stimulation and cause a seizure when a client is at risk for increased ICP.
E: The nurse should monitor for impaired extraocular movements because this finding can indicate increased ICP
F: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid coughing because this action can cause increased ICP
A nurse is reviewing the use of meningococcal vaccine (MCV4) for the prevention of meningitis with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. The vaccine is indicated to reduce the risk of respiratory infection
B. The vaccine is administered in a series of 4 doses
C. The vaccine is recommended for adolescents before starting college
D. The vaccine is initially given at 2 months of age
C
A: The pneumococcal vaccine is primarily indicated to reduce the risk of respiratory infection. However, it also reduces the risk of CNS infections
B: The HiB vaccine is administered to infants in a series of 4 doses
C: The nurse should identify that the meningococcal vaccine is recommended for adolescents prior to starting college due to the increased risk for infection in communal living facilities
D: The initial dose of the HiB vaccine is recommended for infants at 2 months of age
A nurse is planning care for a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply)
A. Monitor for bradycardia
B. Provide an emesis basin at the bedside
C. Administer antipyretic medication
D. Perform a skin assessment
E. Keep the head of the bed flat
B, C, D
A: The nurse should plan to monitor for tachycardia when a client has meningitis
B: The nurse should provide an emesis basin at the bedside because the client who has meningitis can have nausea and vomiting
C: The nurse should plan to administer antipyretic medication for fever to a client who has meningitis
D: The nurse should perform a skin assessment to determine whether the client has a red macular rash associated with meningococcal meningitis.
E: The nurse should elevate the head of the client's bed 30 degrees to promote venous drainage from the head and prevent increased ICP
A nurse is assessing a client who has a seizure disorder. The client tells the nurse, "I am about to have a seizure." Which of the following actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply).
A. Provide privacy
B. Ease the client to the floor if standing
C. Move furniture away from the client
D. Loosen the client's clothing
E. Protect the client's head with padding
F. Restrain the client
A, B, C, D, E
A: The nurse should implement privacy to minimize the client's embarrassment.
B: The nurse should ease the client to the floor to prevent falling and injury.
C: The nurse should move the furniture away from the client to prevent injury
D: The nurse should loosen the client's clothing to minimize restriction of movement
E: The nurse should protect the client's head in her lap or using a pillow or blanket under the head during a seizure
F: The nurse should not restrain the client. Restraint can increase the client's risk for injury or more seizure activity
A nurse is caring for a client who just experienced a generalized seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
A. Keep the client in a side-lying position
B. Document the duration of the seizure
C. Reorient the client to the environment
D. Provide client hygiene
A
A: The greatest risk to the client is aspiration during the postictal phase. Therefore, the priority intervention is to keep the client in a side-lying position so secretions can drain from the mouth keeping the airway patent.
B: The nurse should document the duration of the seizure in the client's medical record, but there is another action that the nurse should take first.
C: The nurse should reorient the client to the environment because the client can feel confused, but there is another action that the nurse should take first.
D: The nurse should provide client hygiene if the client experienced incontinence during the seizure, but there is another action that the nurse should take first.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. Consider taking an antacid when on this medication
B. Watch for receding gums when taking the medication
C. Take the medication at the same time every day
D. Provide a urine sample to determine the therapeutic levels of the medication
C
A: The nurse does not need to instruct the client to consider taking an antacid, because phenytoin does not cause any gastrointestinal adverse effects.
B: The nurse should instruct the client that phenytoin causes overgrowth of the gums
C: The nurse should instruct the client to take phenytoin at the same time every day to enhance effectiveness
D: The nurse should instruct the client to have periodic blood tests to determine the therapeutic level of phenytoin
A nurse is reviewing trigger factors that can cause seizures with a client who has a new diagnosis of generalized seizures. Which of the following information should the nurse include in this review? (Select all that apply)
A. Avoid overwhelming fatigue
B. Remove caffeinated products from the diet
C. Limit looking at flashing lights
D. Perform aerobic exercise
E. Limit episodes of hypoventilation
F. Use of aerosol hairspray is effective
A, B, C
A: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid overwhelming fatigue, which can trigger a seizure by stimulating abnormal electrical neuron activity.
B: The nurse should instruct the client to remove caffeinated products from the diet, which can trigger a seizure by stimulating abnormal electrical neuron activity.
C: The nurse should instruct the client to refrain from looking at flashing lights, which can trigger a seizure by stimulating abnormal electrical neuron activity.
D: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid vigorous physical activity, which can help to avoid triggering a seizure
E: The nurse should instruct the client to limit excess hyperventilation, which can trigger a seizure by stimulating abnormal electrical neuron activity
F: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid using aerosol hairspray, which can trigger a seizure by stimulating abnormal electrical activity
A nurse is completing discharge teaching to a client who has seizures and received a vagal nerve stimulator to decrease seizure activity. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "It is safe to use microwaves that are 1,200 watts of less."
B. "You should avoid the use of CT scans with contrast."
C. "You should place a magnet over the implantable device when you feel an aura occurring."
D. "It is recommended that you use ultrasound diathermy for pain management."
C
A: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid using a microwave, regardless of wattage, which can affect the function of the simulator
B: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid MRIs
C: The nurse should instruct the client to hold a magnet over the implantable device when an aura occurs so as to decrease seizure activity
D: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid the use of ultrasound diathermy for pain management because of its effect on the function of the stimulator.
A nurse is caring for a client who displays manifestations of stage III Parkinson's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
A. Recommend a community support group
B. Integrate a daily exercise routine
C. Provide a walker for ambulation
D. Perform ADLs for the client
C
A: The client/family should be involved in a community support group at the onset of the disease process to enhance coping mechanisms
B: The client should perform daily exercises with the onset of the disease process to promote mobility and independence for as long as possible
C: The client should use a walker for ambulation in stage III of Parkinson's disease because movement slows down significantly and gait disturbances occur
D: The client loses the ability to perform ADLs at stage V of Parkinson's disease and is dependent on others for care at that time. During earlier stages, the client should be encouraged to remain as independent as possible.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for the nutritional needs of a client who has stage IV Parkinson's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply).
A. Provide three large balanced meals daily
B. Record diet and fluid intake daily
C. Document weight every other week
D. Offer cold fluids such as milkshakes
E. Offer nutritional supplements between meals
B, D, E
A: Plan to provide small, frequent meals during the day to maintain adequate nutrition
B: Record the client's diet and fluid intake daily to assess for dietary needs and to maintain adequate nutrition and hydration
C: Document the client's weight weekly to identify weight loss and intervene to maintain the client's weight
D: Provide cold fluids such as milkshakes. Thick and cold fluids are tolerated easier by the client.
E: Offer nutritional supplements between meals to maintain the client's weight [Show Less]