Which of the following instruments is used for cutting bone?
A rasp
B osteotome
C planer
D fixator - correct answer B
Only an osteotome is
... [Show More] designed to actually cut bone. Rasps and planers are designed to shave or file the surface of the bone to desired smoothness. Forceps are for grasping.
Which of these presenting symptoms might result in a BNP being ordered?
A pyuria
B hematemesis
C shortness of breath
D epistaxis - correct answer C
BNP refers to brain natriuretic peptide, a substance whose elevated plasma levels are indicative of congestive heart failure (CHF), of which shortness of breath is a common presenting symptom.
The heart's typical response to ischemia is:
A sudden cardiac arrest
B accumulation of fluid around the heart
C distended neck veins
D chest pain - correct answer D
Although long-term ischemia can lead to infarction and cardiac arrest, the typical response to ischemia is chest pain, or angina pectoris.
Organisms that cause infections, such as viruses and bacteria, are:
A toxins
B pathogens
C venoms
D parasites - correct answer B
From the root patho, meaning disease
The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time, is:
A anger
B bargaining
C acceptance
D denial - correct answer B
A grieving patient will typically go through all phases of the process from denial to acceptance in dealing with grief.
Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for citizens and some healthcare personnel who administer voluntary emergency care are known as:
A First Responder laws
B Patient Privacy laws
C Helping Hands legislation
D Good Samaritan laws - correct answer D
This is a fundamental medico-legal principle. The Good Samaritan laws protect not only patients from zealous bystanders but also protect certain medical personnel in situations where they provide off-duty medical intervention in an emergency setting.
When the body's immune system detects an antigen, the response is to:
A decrease the blood glucose
B increase the blood glucose
C release epinephrine
D produce antibodies - correct answer D
The body perceives any foreign substance to be an antigen, and it is the function of the immune system to attempt the production of antibodies in the presence of that antigen such that the body will be prepared and "stock-piled" in the event of future invasions by this same substance.
A tort is a:
A criminal wrong
B civil wrong
C misdemeanor
D willful, premeditated act - correct answer B
The distracters to this question all imply criminal behavior for which prosecution would be pursued by legal authorities. A tort is a negligent or intentional civil wrong causing injury to someone, for which the injured party can sue the wrongdoer for damages. This is significant to medical practice because it is through the tort system that most medical malpractice claims are pursued.
Which of the following is used to describe the incision utilized in a routine cesarean section?
A low-transverse
B transabdominal
C subcostal
D periumbilical - correct answer A
The typical incision for routine C-section, also called a Pfannenstiel incision, is a transverse incision made low to the abdomen just above the pubic area (a.k.a. the "bikini cut").
In ultrasonography, which term would be used to describe material that produces sound waves of higher amplitude than the surrounding structures?
A hyperresonant
B hyporesonant
C hyperechoic
D hypoechoic - correct answer C
Sonographic echoes from a given anatomical structure are said to be "hyperechoic" when the sound waves return or bounce back at higher amplitude, or density, than the surrounding structures.
Which of the following would be prescribed for an asthma patient?
A proton pump inhibitor
B beta agonist
C calcium channel blocker
D ACE inhibitor - correct answer B
Beta agonists relax smooth muscle in the airways. Proton pump inhibitors are prescribed for ulcers and GERD to inhibit the production of gastric acid; calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors are both prescribed for high blood pressure.
A stereotaxic frame is used in:
A Arthroscopy
B Neurosurgery
C Cardiovascular surgery
D Obstetrics - correct answer B
A stereotaxic frame is drilled and affixed to the skull to facilitate radiologic mapping of brain regions for the purpose of diagnosis as well as management of abnormal movements through the introduction of electrodes (also referred to as "stereotactic" frame).
Debridement consists of:
A bringing raw wound edges into alignment
B occlusion of open and bleeding vessels
C removal of infected and devitalized tissue
D reopening of an improperly healed wound - correct answer C
Debridement of tissue involves cleaning an area, typically a wound or incision, of dead and dying tissue. The term is often used in conjunction with the word "irrigation," as in "irrigation and debridement" (also known as I&D, but not to be confused with "incision and drainage").
When the heart suddenly doubles or triples the number of systolic beats per minute, the condition is known as:
A paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
B mitral stenosis
C heart block
D sinus bradycardia - correct answer A
Rapid heartbeat, particularly of sudden onset, is described as tachycardia.
Which word would describe the "vehicle" by which an infectious agent is transferred from an infected to a susceptible host?
A endemic
B vector
C pathogen
D pandemic - correct answer B
The organism that hosts the pathogen and then transmits it to a susceptible host is known as the vector. Mosquitoes, for example, are the vectors for many blood-borne diseases.
The gland that controls functional maturation of lymphocytes is the:
A pituitary
B thymus
C adrenal
D thyroid - correct answer B
Lymphocytes that originate from stem cells in the bone marrow pass through the thymus gland where they mature and develop into activated T-lymphocytes, able to respond to antigens elsewhere in the body.
The term "basketing" is most commonly used in reference to treatment of which clinical finding?
A ureteral calculi
B atherosclerosis
C cholecystitis
D rotator cuff tear - correct answer A
Stone basketing is an interventional procedure performed to extract stones, or calculi, from the ureters. This is often done in conjunction with ureteroscopy and ureteral balloon dilatation.
The hard palate is composed of the _________ and __________ bones.
A maxillae; palatine
B vomer; palatine
C sphenoid; ethmoid
D maxillae; mandible - correct answer A
The maxillae, or upper jawbone, and the palatine bone together form the upper palate.
Which of the following is not an important role of the liver?
A phagocytosis
B glycogen storage
C excretion of urea
D production of blood proteins - correct answer C
All of these except excretion of urea, which is the role of the kidneys, are vital functions of the liver.
Place the following in their correct order from outside to inside: 1. lungs 2. pleural cavity 3. visceral pleura 4. parietal pleura
A 4, 2, 3, 1
B 3, 2, 4, 1
C 4, 3, 2, 1
D 1, 2, 3, 4 - correct answer A
Similar to the structures encasing the heart, the lungs are protected by a visceral pleura which is adhered to the external surface of the lungs. The next layer is the parietal pleura, and the pleural cavity is the space that exists between these two layers.
The urinary drug Ditropan would be prescribed to treat:
A pain and burning on urination
B pyuria
C hematuria
D urgency and frequency - correct answer D
While the other conditions may also be present in a patient with frequency and urgency, Ditropan [oxybutynin chloride] is an anticholinergic/antispasmodic prescribed to relieve the symptoms associated with urinary urgency and frequency, particularly in patients with bladder-control problems.
The "L" in the abbreviation LEEP stands for:
A laser
B loop
C lysis
D local - correct answer B
LEEP, or loop electrosurgical excision procedure, is used to treat precancerous lesions of the cervix, whereby radio waves are conducted through a wire loop to excise cervical tissue.
The technique for administering drugs that follow the body's biorhythms is called:
A biotherapy
B aurotherapy
C chronotherapy
D balneotherapy - correct answer C
Chronotherapy [chronos - time] has been proven very effective, particularly in the treatment of asthma, arthritis and cancer, where coordination of drug administration to the body's natural biorhythms has proven more effective than traditional administration. The other therapies [bio - treatment with antibodies, auro - treatment by injection of gold salts, & balneo - treatment with baths] do not deal with body rhythms.
A woman who is para 2-1-0-3 has been pregnant at least:
A one time
B two times
C three times
D four times - correct answer B
A value in the first three indicators of a TPAL designation will indicate the minimum number a times a patient has been pregnant, given the possibility of a twins/multiples pregnancy. When gravida information is unknown, it can be assumed that a para 2-1-0-3 female has been pregnant at least twice (since a twin full-term delivery and a single premature delivery are a reasonable possibility).
The term half-life refers to the:
A contraindications of a drug.
B duration of efficacy for a drug before it expires and must be discarded.
C duration of efficacy for a drug within the blood stream before it must be readministered.
D decreased susceptibility to the effects of a drug in a patient who has developed a tolerance for it. - correct answer C
A drug's half-life is the time required for the level of that drug in serum to decrease from 100% to 50%; thus, it is relates to how long the drug remains effective in the blood stream. A drug with a shorter half life needs to be administered more often or manufactured in an extended- or time-released form.
CIN, or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, is expressed in grades from 1 to:
A 2
B 3
C 6
D 10 - correct answer B
Used to delineate preinvasive cancerous lesions of the cervix, the designation measures the degree of dysplasia from 1 (early) to 3 (carcinoma in situ).
Which of the following sentences contains the correct transcription of a compound modifier?
A The work was back breaking.
B She was a lovely looking female.
C The child was well-developed and well-nourished.
D The new nurse was quick thinking in a crisis. - correct answer D
An adverb coupled with a participle only takes a hyphen when it precedes the noun it is modifying. In this sentence, the word quick functions merely as an adverb that interrupts and modifyies the verb phrase was thinking. Noun/participle modifiers (back-breaking) require a hyphen whether preceding or following their nouns. Compound modifiers containing an adjective ending in -ly (lovely-looking) always require a hyphen. Again, adverb/participle modifiers (well-developed, well-nourished) only take a hyphen when they precede the noun they modify, not when they follow it.
The great saphenous vein runs from:
A shoulder to elbow
B hip to dorsal foot
C knee to dorsal foot
D neck to shoulder - correct answer B
The great saphenous vein, the longest in the body, begins at the medial end of the dorsal venous arch of the foot. It empties into the femoral vein in the groin. The cephalic veins run shoulder to elbow, the small saphenous veins from posterior knee to dorsal foot, and the subclavian from neck to shoulder.
Which of the following is an example of an active (ATP-requiring) mode of transporting substances across the plasma membrane of a cell?
A osmosis
B diffusion
C filtration
D phagocytosis - correct answer D
Osmosis, diffusion, and filtration are all passive processes, whereby substances are moved across the plasma membrane via their own kinetic energy, their compatibility with the permeable characteristics of the plasma wall, or the natural movement from areas of high concentration to low concentration. Only phagocytosis, which requires the pseudopods of the cell to expend energy engulfing the particles and bringing them into the cell, is considered an active transport process.
A short-acting barbiturate given intravenously for the induction of general anesthesia is:
A Marcaine
B nitrous oxide
C Brevital
D Versed - correct answer C
All of the drugs listed are anesthetics. Marcaine is an agent used for local, nerve block or spinal anesthesia. Nitrous oxide, Brevital and Versed are all used for the induction of general anesthesia, but only Brevital and Versed are given IV, and of these, only Brevital is a barbiturate.
It is acceptable to use a hyphen between the limits of a range if:
A The phrase "from...to" is used.
B Both values are negative.
C Neither value is accompanied by a symbol.
D Both values contain decimals and/or commas. - correct answer C
See page 347 of the AAMT Book of Style, 2nd edition, for the five conditions that must be met in order to use a hyphen between the limits of a range.
Wernicke's area of the cerebrum is also known as the:
A auditory association area.
B somatosensory association area.
C gnostic area.
D visual association area. - correct answer A
There are six association areas of the cerebrum that consist of association tracts. The auditory association area, or Wernicke's area, determines if a sound is speech, music or noise. It also interprets the meaning of speech by translating words into thoughts.
Iodine is necessary for the:
A formation of hydrochloride in the stomach.
B synthesis of hemoglobin.
C synthesis of thyroid hormones.
D potential conduction of nerve and muscle action. - correct answer C
Iodine is required by the thyroid gland to synthesize thyroid homones, which regulate metabolic rate.
Which of the following ligaments are not found in the pelvis?
A broad
B round
C cardinal
D cruciate - correct answer D
All of the ligaments except the cruciate ligaments are found in the pelvic area. The cruciate liagaments, damage to which has ended many a football player's career, are found in the knee.
The greater and lesser wings are associated with which structure of the skull?
A occipital bone
B sphenoid bone
C ethmoid bone
D parietal bone - correct answer B
This bat-shaped structure lies at the middle part of the base of the skull and is called the keystone of the cranial floor because it articulates with all other cranial bones, holding them together.
Hyperventilation, as in oxygen deficiency, pulmonary disease or CVA, can result in:
A respiratory acidosis
B respiratory alkalosis
C metabolic acidosis
D metabolic alkalosis - correct answer B
In respiratory alkalosis pCO2 of arterial blood is decreased (below 35 mmHg). Hyperventilation causes the pH to increase. The kidneys will attempt to compensate, but often having the patient breathe into a paper bag and then rebreathe the exhaled mixture of CO2 and oxygen from the bag.
The suffix -azine identifies a group of generic drugs used to treat:
A psychosis
B gouty arthritis
C inflammation
D viral infection - correct answer A
The ending -azine is common to generic phenothiazine antipsychotic drugs, such as chlorpromazine [Thorazine], prochlorperazine [Compazine], and trifluoperazine [Stelazine]. In the case of these three, even the brand retained the identifying suffix.
The scalene muscles are located in the:
A forehead
B hand
C neck
D abdomen - correct answer C
The scalene muscles originate on the transverse processes of the third through sixth cervical vertebrae and insert at the first and second ribs. These muscles facilitate flexion/rotation of the neck and assist in inspiration.
Anemia that is due to deficiency of vitamin B12 absorption is called:
A aplastic
B pernicious
C hemolytic
D erythroblastosis fetalis - correct answer B
Pernicious anemia is an inherited autoimmune disorder characterized by a lack of secretion of intrinsic factor in the gastric mucosa. The result is a failure to absorb vitamin B12.
Excessive development of hair or abnormal distribution of hair is known as:
A trichomegaly
B alopecia
C hyperfollicularism
D hirsutism - correct answer D
Hirsutism is the condition referred to here and is often familial. In women, it can be associated with increased androgens in the blood or other more serious conditions, such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia or tumors of ovarian or adrenal tissue.
Which of the following might result in an elevated urine specific gravity?
A proteinuria
B diabetes mellitus
C diabetes insipidus
D hemoglobinuria - correct answer B
Specific gravity is increased in conditions that result in an increased concentration of dissolved materials in the urine. Normally, plasma glucose is reabsorbed in the renal tubules. In the case of diabetes mellitus, however, the renal threshold for glucose is surpassed at about 180 mg/dL, and the spill over into the urine will result in an increased specific gravity.
The Kurtzke disability score is used to evaluate patients with:
A muscular dystrophy
B cerebral hemorrhage
C multiple sclerosis
D Legg-Perthes disease - correct answer C
The Kurtzke disability score is a two-part scoring system used to evaluate patients with multiple sclerosis. Part one evaluates functional systems (pyramidal, cerebellar, brain stem, sensory, bowel and bladder, visual, mental, and other). Part two is a disability status scale from 0 to 10.
Which of the following is a phase of gastric secretion that refers to the reflexes initiated by the sensory receptors of sight, smell, taste or thought?
A cephalic
B gastric
C intestinal
D emptying - correct answer A
Even before food enters the stomach, the sight, smell, taste or thought of food initiates this reflex. The cerebral cortex and feeding center in the hypothalamus send impulses to the medulla, which transmits a parasympathetic impulse to the parietal, chief and mucous cells of the gastric glands, producing secretions in the stomach.
The middle meninx of the spinal meninges is called the:
A dura mater
B epidural space
C arachnoid
D pia mater - correct answer C
There are only three spinal meninges, of which the arachnoid is the middle meninx [singular form of meninges]. It is called this because of its spider's web arrangement of delicate collagen and elastic fibers.
Glomerulonephritis is also known as:
A Brinton disease
B Bristowe syndrome
C Brown syndrome
D Bright disease - correct answer D
Named after Richard Bright, an English internist [1789-1858], the term is used to describe nonsuppurative nephritis characterized by albuminuria and edema, also known as glomerulonephritis.
Which of the following is a protein associated with iron transport?
A ceruloplasmin
B transferrin
C ferritin
D Alpha1 antitrypsin - correct answer B
While ferritin is associated with iron and can be an indicator of chronic iron deficiency, it is not responsible for transport of iron. Ferritin is stored in chemical combination with iron, but transferrin is actually responsible for transporting iron in the blood stream.
A _________ scan is used to determine the ejection fraction of the ventricles of the heart.
A CT
B PET
C HIDA
D MUGA - correct answer D
A MUGA [multiple-gated acquisition] scan involves computer analysis of radionuclide emissions from the heart. Comparison of ventricular volumes at the end of diastole and systole enables calculation of ejection fraction.
Which of the following refers to normal vision?
A emmetropia
B presbyopia
C hyperopia
D myopia - correct answer A
An emmetropic eye is an eye that can sufficiently refract light rays from an object 6 m away to focus a clear image on the retina. All the others are disorders or abnormalities of vision.
The inner layer of an arterial wall, or intima, is also known as the:
A endothelium
B adventitia
C tunica interna
D internal elastic lamina - correct answer C
The arterial wall has three coats, or tunics. The inner coat [intima] is also called the tunica interna. The tunica media and tunica externa [adventitia] compose the middle and outer layers.
The suffix -ipine is common to which of the following groups of generic drugs?
A ACE inhibitors
B beta blockers
C corticosteroids
D calcium channel blockers - correct answer D
Nifedipine and amlodipine are examples of two common calcium channel blockers with this identifiable suffix.
Which of the following cellular components is not an organelle?
A endoplasmic reticulum
B cytosol
C nucleus
D mitochondria - correct answer B
Cytosol is the semifluid portion of the cytoplasm in which organelles and inclusions are suspended. All the rest [endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus & mitochondria] are organelles, or little organs, each with a highly specialized function within the cell.
Which test requires the use of a tuning fork?
A Romberg
B Dix-Hallpike
C Rinne
D Valsalva - correct answer C
The Rinne and Weber tests utilize a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and neurosensory sources of hearing loss. The Romberg test is used to evaluate equilibrium, Dix-Hallpike test to evaluate the source of vertigo, and the Valsalva maneuver to test the mobility of the tympanic membrane.
Volkmann and Haversian canals are found in the:
A bone
B brain
C liver
D kidneys - correct answer A
Volkmann canals are also called the perforating canals because they exist to allow blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves to penetrate compact bone. The Haversian canals provide space for these vessels and nerves to run longitudinally through the central portion of the bone where they diverge through canaliculi and communicate with bone osteocytes for exchange of nutrients/oxygen and waste materials in the bone.
Which of the following is not a bone in the hand?
A lunate
B triquetrum
C pisiform
D talus - correct answer D
The talus is one of the seven tarsal bones found in the ankle. All three of the others [lunate, triquetrium & pisiform] are found in the proximal row of carpal bones in the hand.
A ________ sign is elicited in acute appendicitis.
A Babinski
B Brudzinksi
C McBurney
D Murphy - correct answer C
This sign, represented by tenderness at the site two-thirds of the distance between the umbilicus and the anterior-superior iliac spine [McBurney point], is elicited in most cases of acute appendicitis.
The abbreviation YAG refers to a/an:
A laser
B clamp
C bone saw
D microscope - correct answer A
The abbreviation YAG [yttrium aluminum garnet] is seen in association with many modern surgical lasers, most commonly linked with holmium [Ho:LAG], neodymium [Nd:YAG], and erbium [Er:YAG]. It is also seen in combination with a manufacturer or product name, as in Lasertek YAG, Lumonics YAG and Carl Zeiss YAG.
Which of the following bandages is used to exsanguinate a limb?
A Kling
B Esmarch
C Kerlix
D Telfa - correct answer B
This sterile rubber bandage is applied around a part from distal to proximal in order to expel blood from it. The limb is often elevated as this pressure dressing is applied.
The mineral required with iron for the synthesis of hemoglobin is:
A sulfur
B iodine
C copper
D chromium - correct answer C
In addition to its role in synthesizing hemoglobin, copper is a component of coenzymes in the electron transport chain and an enzyme necessary for melanin pigment formation.
The position in which the patient lies supine with the thighs abducted and the feet supported in stirrups is called the:
A Trendelenburg position
B lithotomy position
C Sims position
D lateral decubitus position - correct answer B
The lithotomy position, common to gynecological exams and surgical procedures, involves the patient lying in the supine position with feet elevated and supported in stirrups.
Yeasts and molds are a subdivision of a larger group of pathogens called:
A Fungi
B Viruses
C Flagellates
D Bacteria - correct answer A
Fungi are a kingdom of heterotrophic organisms that include mushrooms, yeasts, and molds
Which type of blood cell proliferates in the presence of a parasitic infection or allergic response?
A basophils
B neutrophils
C eosinophils
D monocytes - correct answer C
Eosinophils will leave the capillaries and enter tissue fluid where they are believed to release enzymes, such as histaminase, that combat the effects of histamine and other mediators of inflammation in allergic reactions. They also phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against certain parasitic worms.
Which of the following bones does not articulate with any other bone in the axial skeleton?
A hyoid
B palatine
C lacrimal
D vomer - correct answer A
The hyoid bone is suspended from the styloid processes of the temporal bones by ligaments and muscles. It is located in the neck between the mandible and larynx and provides support to the tongue. All the other bones articulate directly with other bones of the face or skull.
_____________ refers to generalized edema of the entire body.
A ascites
B dependent edema
C angioneurotic edema
D anasarca - correct answer D
Anasarca represents an effusion of serum into the subcutaneous cellular substance, often resulting in massive generalized edema.
Necrosis of tissue resulting in the conversion of damaged tissue into a soft, cheesy substance is called:
A decomposition
B necrotization
C caseation
D fermentation - correct answer C
Caseating tissue is seen in some granulomas of lung tissue, where the inflammatory cells (granuloma) are dry and crumbling, like a soft cheese.
Coccidioidomycosis is a _________ disease.
A viral [Show Less]