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CMT TRAINING TEST WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS VERIFIED
What are the 4 basic rules of medication administration? - correct answer 1. Unlicensed persons can administer only after completing MTTP and receiving med... [Show More] ication from the MD board of nursing. 2. Only the registered nurse (RN) may delegate medication administration to a certified medication technician (CMT) 3. All medications MUST have a healthcare professional's order and a pharmacy label to administer. 4. All over-the-counter medications MUST have a healthcare professional and pharmacy label to administer medication. 2. What are the 8 components of the medication administration cycle? - correct answer 1. Observe for change. 2. Report change/ observation. 3. Assist with HCP visits. 4. Obtain medication. 5. Store medication correctly. 6. Administer medication. 7. Ensure medication is taken. 8. Record and document. 3. What are the reasons that medications are used in relation to diseases and illness? - correct answer 1. Cure 2. Prevent 3. Relieve/ reduce symptoms 4. Manage 4. What type of things can we do to ensure personal rights, privacy, and dignity? - correct answer Address individual(s) by name, do not hang signs on wall, do not have individuals line-up to receive medications (one-person at-a-time), Involve individuals/ guardian in decision making process regarding treatment plans. True or False? The individual has the right to refuse treatment and/or services - correct answer True True or False? Self-administration medications may be used as a substitute for programming - correct answer True 10. Who consults with/ assists with the visit to the health care professional? - correct answer CMT (Certified Metication Technician) 11. Who obtains the medication from the pharmacy? - correct answer CMT (Certified Medication Technician) 12. Who is responsible for storing the medication correctly? - correct answer CMT (Certified Medication Technician) 13. Who administers medications and performs treatments? - correct answer CMT (Certified Medication Technician) 14. Who completes the documentation on medication administration forms? - correct answer CMT (Certified Medication Technician) Desired effect of medication - correct answer Medication does what it's supposed to do. Unwanted/ adverse side effect of medication - correct answer Something unexpected happened. No apparent effect of medication - correct answer Medication does not appear to be working. 4. What are important things to remember about drug interactions? - correct answer 1. The greater the number of drug taken, the greater the possibility of drug interactions. 2. Know your individual's baseline. Who is responsible for observing and reporting possible effects of medication? - correct answer CMT (Certified Medical Technician) 6. Define objective symptom - correct answer Something you can see or measure. 7. Define subjective symptom - correct answer Something you cannot see or measure. Chemical/ generic - correct answer Is the actual chemical name of the medication. Brand name - correct answer Given by the manufacturer. Name 3 important things to remember about the pharmacy - correct answer • All medications should come from the same pharmacy. • A pharmacist is a valuable member of the team. • A pharmacist is an excellent resource for information about drug interactions, and side effects. List factors which influence a person's response to medication - correct answer Age Weight Gender Health status Physical condition The most common routes of medication administration are - correct answer Oral Topical What are some forms of medication? - correct answer Tablets, drops, caplets, liquids, ointments, patches, suppositories. What is a suspension medication? - correct answer Liquid The inability of the body to eliminate medication can lead to - correct answer Toxicity Medication allergy - correct answer Unwanted response Tolerance - correct answer Medication no longer works Addiction - correct answer Dependence on medication Desired effect - correct answer Medication is working Unwanted effect - correct answer Something unexpeced happened No apparent effect - correct answer Medication not working How do you have to store Schedule II narcotic medications/ controlled substances? - correct answer Double locked (Locked box within a locked cabinet) List three ways medications are packaged - correct answer 1. Bottles 2. Tubes 3. Droplets What is the preferred method of packaging medications? - correct answer Blister pack. What must match in the three (3) way check? - correct answer HCP order Pharmacy label MAR What is the name of the form required to record the administration of medications? - correct answer Medication administration records (MAR) True or false? You can remove the medications from the blister pack and place them in a day-of-the week container. - correct answer False. True or False? It is ok to hang the keys for the lock to the medication cabinet on a hook on the wall next to the cabinet. - correct answer False List the 6 rights of medication administration: - correct answer 1. Right person 2. Right time 3. Right medication 4. Right route 5. Right dose 6. Right charting True or false? All PRN medications must have the RN's approval prior to administration. - correct answer True True or False? When an individual needs to take medications away from their home, you should put the medications in an envelope and send them with the individual. - correct answer False True or False? - correct answer A chemical support medication can be given without the approval of the standing committee. True or false? - correct answer The nurse must be contacted for permission prior to administering a chemical support medication. How often do psychiatric/ behavior modifying medications have to be reordered by the physician? - correct answer Every 90 days. [Show Less]
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AHDI CMT PREP CHALLENGE QUIZ EXAM GUIDE
Which of the following instruments is used for cutting bone? A rasp B osteotome C planer D fixator - correct answer B Only an osteotome is designe... [Show More] d to actually cut bone. Rasps and planers are designed to shave or file the surface of the bone to desired smoothness. Forceps are for grasping. Which of these presenting symptoms might result in a BNP being ordered? A pyuria B hematemesis C shortness of breath D epistaxis - correct answer C BNP refers to brain natriuretic peptide, a substance whose elevated plasma levels are indicative of congestive heart failure (CHF), of which shortness of breath is a common presenting symptom. The heart's typical response to ischemia is: A sudden cardiac arrest B accumulation of fluid around the heart C distended neck veins D chest pain - correct answer D Although long-term ischemia can lead to infarction and cardiac arrest, the typical response to ischemia is chest pain, or angina pectoris. Organisms that cause infections, such as viruses and bacteria, are: A toxins B pathogens C venoms D parasites - correct answer B From the root patho, meaning disease The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time, is: A anger B bargaining C acceptance D denial - correct answer B A grieving patient will typically go through all phases of the process from denial to acceptance in dealing with grief. Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for citizens and some healthcare personnel who administer voluntary emergency care are known as: A First Responder laws B Patient Privacy laws C Helping Hands legislation D Good Samaritan laws - correct answer D This is a fundamental medico-legal principle. The Good Samaritan laws protect not only patients from zealous bystanders but also protect certain medical personnel in situations where they provide off-duty medical intervention in an emergency setting. When the body's immune system detects an antigen, the response is to: A decrease the blood glucose B increase the blood glucose C release epinephrine D produce antibodies - correct answer D The body perceives any foreign substance to be an antigen, and it is the function of the immune system to attempt the production of antibodies in the presence of that antigen such that the body will be prepared and "stock-piled" in the event of future invasions by this same substance. A tort is a: A criminal wrong B civil wrong C misdemeanor D willful, premeditated act - correct answer B The distracters to this question all imply criminal behavior for which prosecution would be pursued by legal authorities. A tort is a negligent or intentional civil wrong causing injury to someone, for which the injured party can sue the wrongdoer for damages. This is significant to medical practice because it is through the tort system that most medical malpractice claims are pursued. Which of the following is used to describe the incision utilized in a routine cesarean section? A low-transverse B transabdominal C subcostal D periumbilical - correct answer A The typical incision for routine C-section, also called a Pfannenstiel incision, is a transverse incision made low to the abdomen just above the pubic area (a.k.a. the "bikini cut"). In ultrasonography, which term would be used to describe material that produces sound waves of higher amplitude than the surrounding structures? A hyperresonant B hyporesonant C hyperechoic D hypoechoic - correct answer C Sonographic echoes from a given anatomical structure are said to be "hyperechoic" when the sound waves return or bounce back at higher amplitude, or density, than the surrounding structures. Which of the following would be prescribed for an asthma patient? A proton pump inhibitor B beta agonist C calcium channel blocker D ACE inhibitor - correct answer B Beta agonists relax smooth muscle in the airways. Proton pump inhibitors are prescribed for ulcers and GERD to inhibit the production of gastric acid; calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors are both prescribed for high blood pressure. A stereotaxic frame is used in: A Arthroscopy B Neurosurgery C Cardiovascular surgery D Obstetrics - correct answer B A stereotaxic frame is drilled and affixed to the skull to facilitate radiologic mapping of brain regions for the purpose of diagnosis as well as management of abnormal movements through the introduction of electrodes (also referred to as "stereotactic" frame). Debridement consists of: A bringing raw wound edges into alignment B occlusion of open and bleeding vessels C removal of infected and devitalized tissue D reopening of an improperly healed wound - correct answer C Debridement of tissue involves cleaning an area, typically a wound or incision, of dead and dying tissue. The term is often used in conjunction with the word "irrigation," as in "irrigation and debridement" (also known as I&D, but not to be confused with "incision and drainage"). When the heart suddenly doubles or triples the number of systolic beats per minute, the condition is known as: A paroxysmal atrial tachycardia B mitral stenosis C heart block D sinus bradycardia - correct answer A Rapid heartbeat, particularly of sudden onset, is described as tachycardia. Which word would describe the "vehicle" by which an infectious agent is transferred from an infected to a susceptible host? A endemic B vector C pathogen D pandemic - correct answer B The organism that hosts the pathogen and then transmits it to a susceptible host is known as the vector. Mosquitoes, for example, are the vectors for many blood-borne diseases. The gland that controls functional maturation of lymphocytes is the: A pituitary B thymus C adrenal D thyroid - correct answer B Lymphocytes that originate from stem cells in the bone marrow pass through the thymus gland where they mature and develop into activated T-lymphocytes, able to respond to antigens elsewhere in the body. The term "basketing" is most commonly used in reference to treatment of which clinical finding? A ureteral calculi B atherosclerosis C cholecystitis D rotator cuff tear - correct answer A Stone basketing is an interventional procedure performed to extract stones, or calculi, from the ureters. This is often done in conjunction with ureteroscopy and ureteral balloon dilatation. The hard palate is composed of the _________ and __________ bones. A maxillae; palatine B vomer; palatine C sphenoid; ethmoid D maxillae; mandible - correct answer A The maxillae, or upper jawbone, and the palatine bone together form the upper palate. Which of the following is not an important role of the liver? A phagocytosis B glycogen storage C excretion of urea D production of blood proteins - correct answer C All of these except excretion of urea, which is the role of the kidneys, are vital functions of the liver. Place the following in their correct order from outside to inside: 1. lungs 2. pleural cavity 3. visceral pleura 4. parietal pleura A 4, 2, 3, 1 B 3, 2, 4, 1 C 4, 3, 2, 1 D 1, 2, 3, 4 - correct answer A Similar to the structures encasing the heart, the lungs are protected by a visceral pleura which is adhered to the external surface of the lungs. The next layer is the parietal pleura, and the pleural cavity is the space that exists between these two layers. The urinary drug Ditropan would be prescribed to treat: A pain and burning on urination B pyuria C hematuria D urgency and frequency - correct answer D While the other conditions may also be present in a patient with frequency and urgency, Ditropan [oxybutynin chloride] is an anticholinergic/antispasmodic prescribed to relieve the symptoms associated with urinary urgency and frequency, particularly in patients with bladder-control problems. The "L" in the abbreviation LEEP stands for: A laser B loop C lysis D local - correct answer B LEEP, or loop electrosurgical excision procedure, is used to treat precancerous lesions of the cervix, whereby radio waves are conducted through a wire loop to excise cervical tissue. The technique for administering drugs that follow the body's biorhythms is called: A biotherapy B aurotherapy C chronotherapy D balneotherapy - correct answer C Chronotherapy [chronos - time] has been proven very effective, particularly in the treatment of asthma, arthritis and cancer, where coordination of drug administration to the body's natural biorhythms has proven more effective than traditional administration. The other therapies [bio - treatment with antibodies, auro - treatment by injection of gold salts, & balneo - treatment with baths] do not deal with body rhythms. A woman who is para 2-1-0-3 has been pregnant at least: A one time B two times C three times D four times - correct answer B A value in the first three indicators of a TPAL designation will indicate the minimum number a times a patient has been pregnant, given the possibility of a twins/multiples pregnancy. When gravida information is unknown, it can be assumed that a para 2-1-0-3 female has been pregnant at least twice (since a twin full-term delivery and a single premature delivery are a reasonable possibility). The term half-life refers to the: A contraindications of a drug. B duration of efficacy for a drug before it expires and must be discarded. C duration of efficacy for a drug within the blood stream before it must be readministered. D decreased susceptibility to the effects of a drug in a patient who has developed a tolerance for it. - correct answer C A drug's half-life is the time required for the level of that drug in serum to decrease from 100% to 50%; thus, it is relates to how long the drug remains effective in the blood stream. A drug with a shorter half life needs to be administered more often or manufactured in an extended- or time-released form. CIN, or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, is expressed in grades from 1 to: A 2 B 3 C 6 D 10 - correct answer B Used to delineate preinvasive cancerous lesions of the cervix, the designation measures the degree of dysplasia from 1 (early) to 3 (carcinoma in situ). Which of the following sentences contains the correct transcription of a compound modifier? A The work was back breaking. B She was a lovely looking female. C The child was well-developed and well-nourished. D The new nurse was quick thinking in a crisis. - correct answer D An adverb coupled with a participle only takes a hyphen when it precedes the noun it is modifying. In this sentence, the word quick functions merely as an adverb that interrupts and modifyies the verb phrase was thinking. Noun/participle modifiers (back-breaking) require a hyphen whether preceding or following their nouns. Compound modifiers containing an adjective ending in -ly (lovely-looking) always require a hyphen. Again, adverb/participle modifiers (well-developed, well-nourished) only take a hyphen when they precede the noun they modify, not when they follow it. The great saphenous vein runs from: A shoulder to elbow B hip to dorsal foot C knee to dorsal foot D neck to shoulder - correct answer B The great saphenous vein, the longest in the body, begins at the medial end of the dorsal venous arch of the foot. It empties into the femoral vein in the groin. The cephalic veins run shoulder to elbow, the small saphenous veins from posterior knee to dorsal foot, and the subclavian from neck to shoulder. Which of the following is an example of an active (ATP-requiring) mode of transporting substances across the plasma membrane of a cell? A osmosis B diffusion C filtration D phagocytosis - correct answer D Osmosis, diffusion, and filtration are all passive processes, whereby substances are moved across the plasma membrane via their own kinetic energy, their compatibility with the permeable characteristics of the plasma wall, or the natural movement from areas of high concentration to low concentration. Only phagocytosis, which requires the pseudopods of the cell to expend energy engulfing the particles and bringing them into the cell, is considered an active transport process. A short-acting barbiturate given intravenously for the induction of general anesthesia is: A Marcaine B nitrous oxide C Brevital D Versed - correct answer C All of the drugs listed are anesthetics. Marcaine is an agent used for local, nerve block or spinal anesthesia. Nitrous oxide, Brevital and Versed are all used for the induction of general anesthesia, but only Brevital and Versed are given IV, and of these, only Brevital is a barbiturate. It is acceptable to use a hyphen between the limits of a range if: A The phrase "from...to" is used. B Both values are negative. C Neither value is accompanied by a symbol. D Both values contain decimals and/or commas. - correct answer C See page 347 of the AAMT Book of Style, 2nd edition, for the five conditions that must be met in order to use a hyphen between the limits of a range. Wernicke's area of the cerebrum is also known as the: A auditory association area. B somatosensory association area. C gnostic area. D visual association area. - correct answer A There are six association areas of the cerebrum that consist of association tracts. The auditory association area, or Wernicke's area, determines if a sound is speech, music or noise. It also interprets the meaning of speech by translating words into thoughts. Iodine is necessary for the: A formation of hydrochloride in the stomach. B synthesis of hemoglobin. C synthesis of thyroid hormones. D potential conduction of nerve and muscle action. - correct answer C Iodine is required by the thyroid gland to synthesize thyroid homones, which regulate metabolic rate. Which of the following ligaments are not found in the pelvis? A broad B round C cardinal D cruciate - correct answer D All of the ligaments except the cruciate ligaments are found in the pelvic area. The cruciate liagaments, damage to which has ended many a football player's career, are found in the knee. The greater and lesser wings are associated with which structure of the skull? A occipital bone B sphenoid bone C ethmoid bone D parietal bone - correct answer B This bat-shaped structure lies at the middle part of the base of the skull and is called the keystone of the cranial floor because it articulates with all other cranial bones, holding them together. Hyperventilation, as in oxygen deficiency, pulmonary disease or CVA, can result in: A respiratory acidosis B respiratory alkalosis C metabolic acidosis D metabolic alkalosis - correct answer B In respiratory alkalosis pCO2 of arterial blood is decreased (below 35 mmHg). Hyperventilation causes the pH to increase. The kidneys will attempt to compensate, but often having the patient breathe into a paper bag and then rebreathe the exhaled mixture of CO2 and oxygen from the bag. The suffix -azine identifies a group of generic drugs used to treat: A psychosis B gouty arthritis C inflammation D viral infection - correct answer A The ending -azine is common to generic phenothiazine antipsychotic drugs, such as chlorpromazine [Thorazine], prochlorperazine [Compazine], and trifluoperazine [Stelazine]. In the case of these three, even the brand retained the identifying suffix. The scalene muscles are located in the: A forehead B hand C neck D abdomen - correct answer C The scalene muscles originate on the transverse processes of the third through sixth cervical vertebrae and insert at the first and second ribs. These muscles facilitate flexion/rotation of the neck and assist in inspiration. Anemia that is due to deficiency of vitamin B12 absorption is called: A aplastic B pernicious C hemolytic D erythroblastosis fetalis - correct answer B Pernicious anemia is an inherited autoimmune disorder characterized by a lack of secretion of intrinsic factor in the gastric mucosa. The result is a failure to absorb vitamin B12. Excessive development of hair or abnormal distribution of hair is known as: A trichomegaly B alopecia C hyperfollicularism D hirsutism - correct answer D Hirsutism is the condition referred to here and is often familial. In women, it can be associated with increased androgens in the blood or other more serious conditions, such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia or tumors of ovarian or adrenal tissue. Which of the following might result in an elevated urine specific gravity? A proteinuria B diabetes mellitus C diabetes insipidus D hemoglobinuria - correct answer B Specific gravity is increased in conditions that result in an increased concentration of dissolved materials in the urine. Normally, plasma glucose is reabsorbed in the renal tubules. In the case of diabetes mellitus, however, the renal threshold for glucose is surpassed at about 180 mg/dL, and the spill over into the urine will result in an increased specific gravity. The Kurtzke disability score is used to evaluate patients with: A muscular dystrophy B cerebral hemorrhage C multiple sclerosis D Legg-Perthes disease - correct answer C The Kurtzke disability score is a two-part scoring system used to evaluate patients with multiple sclerosis. Part one evaluates functional systems (pyramidal, cerebellar, brain stem, sensory, bowel and bladder, visual, mental, and other). Part two is a disability status scale from 0 to 10. Which of the following is a phase of gastric secretion that refers to the reflexes initiated by the sensory receptors of sight, smell, taste or thought? A cephalic B gastric C intestinal D emptying - correct answer A Even before food enters the stomach, the sight, smell, taste or thought of food initiates this reflex. The cerebral cortex and feeding center in the hypothalamus send impulses to the medulla, which transmits a parasympathetic impulse to the parietal, chief and mucous cells of the gastric glands, producing secretions in the stomach. The middle meninx of the spinal meninges is called the: A dura mater B epidural space C arachnoid D pia mater - correct answer C There are only three spinal meninges, of which the arachnoid is the middle meninx [singular form of meninges]. It is called this because of its spider's web arrangement of delicate collagen and elastic fibers. Glomerulonephritis is also known as: A Brinton disease B Bristowe syndrome C Brown syndrome D Bright disease - correct answer D Named after Richard Bright, an English internist [1789-1858], the term is used to describe nonsuppurative nephritis characterized by albuminuria and edema, also known as glomerulonephritis. Which of the following is a protein associated with iron transport? A ceruloplasmin B transferrin C ferritin D Alpha1 antitrypsin - correct answer B While ferritin is associated with iron and can be an indicator of chronic iron deficiency, it is not responsible for transport of iron. Ferritin is stored in chemical combination with iron, but transferrin is actually responsible for transporting iron in the blood stream. A _________ scan is used to determine the ejection fraction of the ventricles of the heart. A CT B PET C HIDA D MUGA - correct answer D A MUGA [multiple-gated acquisition] scan involves computer analysis of radionuclide emissions from the heart. Comparison of ventricular volumes at the end of diastole and systole enables calculation of ejection fraction. Which of the following refers to normal vision? A emmetropia B presbyopia C hyperopia D myopia - correct answer A An emmetropic eye is an eye that can sufficiently refract light rays from an object 6 m away to focus a clear image on the retina. All the others are disorders or abnormalities of vision. The inner layer of an arterial wall, or intima, is also known as the: A endothelium B adventitia C tunica interna D internal elastic lamina - correct answer C The arterial wall has three coats, or tunics. The inner coat [intima] is also called the tunica interna. The tunica media and tunica externa [adventitia] compose the middle and outer layers. The suffix -ipine is common to which of the following groups of generic drugs? A ACE inhibitors B beta blockers C corticosteroids D calcium channel blockers - correct answer D Nifedipine and amlodipine are examples of two common calcium channel blockers with this identifiable suffix. Which of the following cellular components is not an organelle? A endoplasmic reticulum B cytosol C nucleus D mitochondria - correct answer B Cytosol is the semifluid portion of the cytoplasm in which organelles and inclusions are suspended. All the rest [endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus & mitochondria] are organelles, or little organs, each with a highly specialized function within the cell. Which test requires the use of a tuning fork? A Romberg B Dix-Hallpike C Rinne D Valsalva - correct answer C The Rinne and Weber tests utilize a tuning fork to distinguish between conductive and neurosensory sources of hearing loss. The Romberg test is used to evaluate equilibrium, Dix-Hallpike test to evaluate the source of vertigo, and the Valsalva maneuver to test the mobility of the tympanic membrane. Volkmann and Haversian canals are found in the: A bone B brain C liver D kidneys - correct answer A Volkmann canals are also called the perforating canals because they exist to allow blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves to penetrate compact bone. The Haversian canals provide space for these vessels and nerves to run longitudinally through the central portion of the bone where they diverge through canaliculi and communicate with bone osteocytes for exchange of nutrients/oxygen and waste materials in the bone. Which of the following is not a bone in the hand? A lunate B triquetrum C pisiform D talus - correct answer D The talus is one of the seven tarsal bones found in the ankle. All three of the others [lunate, triquetrium & pisiform] are found in the proximal row of carpal bones in the hand. A ________ sign is elicited in acute appendicitis. A Babinski B Brudzinksi C McBurney D Murphy - correct answer C This sign, represented by tenderness at the site two-thirds of the distance between the umbilicus and the anterior-superior iliac spine [McBurney point], is elicited in most cases of acute appendicitis. The abbreviation YAG refers to a/an: A laser B clamp C bone saw D microscope - correct answer A The abbreviation YAG [yttrium aluminum garnet] is seen in association with many modern surgical lasers, most commonly linked with holmium [Ho:LAG], neodymium [Nd:YAG], and erbium [Er:YAG]. It is also seen in combination with a manufacturer or product name, as in Lasertek YAG, Lumonics YAG and Carl Zeiss YAG. Which of the following bandages is used to exsanguinate a limb? A Kling B Esmarch C Kerlix D Telfa - correct answer B This sterile rubber bandage is applied around a part from distal to proximal in order to expel blood from it. The limb is often elevated as this pressure dressing is applied. The mineral required with iron for the synthesis of hemoglobin is: A sulfur B iodine C copper D chromium - correct answer C In addition to its role in synthesizing hemoglobin, copper is a component of coenzymes in the electron transport chain and an enzyme necessary for melanin pigment formation. The position in which the patient lies supine with the thighs abducted and the feet supported in stirrups is called the: A Trendelenburg position B lithotomy position C Sims position D lateral decubitus position - correct answer B The lithotomy position, common to gynecological exams and surgical procedures, involves the patient lying in the supine position with feet elevated and supported in stirrups. Yeasts and molds are a subdivision of a larger group of pathogens called: A Fungi B Viruses C Flagellates D Bacteria - correct answer A Fungi are a kingdom of heterotrophic organisms that include mushrooms, yeasts, and molds Which type of blood cell proliferates in the presence of a parasitic infection or allergic response? A basophils B neutrophils C eosinophils D monocytes - correct answer C Eosinophils will leave the capillaries and enter tissue fluid where they are believed to release enzymes, such as histaminase, that combat the effects of histamine and other mediators of inflammation in allergic reactions. They also phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes and are effective against certain parasitic worms. Which of the following bones does not articulate with any other bone in the axial skeleton? A hyoid B palatine C lacrimal D vomer - correct answer A The hyoid bone is suspended from the styloid processes of the temporal bones by ligaments and muscles. It is located in the neck between the mandible and larynx and provides support to the tongue. All the other bones articulate directly with other bones of the face or skull. _____________ refers to generalized edema of the entire body. A ascites B dependent edema C angioneurotic edema D anasarca - correct answer D Anasarca represents an effusion of serum into the subcutaneous cellular substance, often resulting in massive generalized edema. Necrosis of tissue resulting in the conversion of damaged tissue into a soft, cheesy substance is called: A decomposition B necrotization C caseation D fermentation - correct answer C Caseating tissue is seen in some granulomas of lung tissue, where the inflammatory cells (granuloma) are dry and crumbling, like a soft cheese. Coccidioidomycosis is a _________ disease. A viral [Show Less]
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CMT TRAINING EXAM PREP 83 QUESTIONS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS VERIFIED
List the 6 rights of medication administration - correct answer 1) Right person 2) right medicine 3) right dosage 4) right time 5) right route 6) righ... [Show More] t documentation 3 additional safety principles - correct answer 1) wash hands 2) pay full attention to task 3) read label 3 times 3-Way Check. What must be compared? - correct answer 1) HCP order 2) Pharmacy Lable 3) MAR T/F- A CMT is licensed by the Maryland board of Nursing to administer medications in Maryland - correct answer FALSE T/F-The HCP must reorder medications at least every 30 days - correct answer FALSE T/F- If an individual is having trouble breathing, call 911 before the nurse - correct answer TRUE T/F- The CMT/UAP accompanying an individual to a HCP appointment is responsible for obtaining completed written orders and a completed medical appointment form. - correct answer TRUE T/F- Medications may be re-ordered only at the time of a HCP appointment - correct answer FALSE T/F- After receiving special training from the nurse, the CMT may administer medications intravenously - correct answer FALSE Unlicensed people can administer medications only after completing the medical technician training program and receiving certification from the Maryland Board of nursing - correct answer True Only the RNCM/DN may delegate medication administration to certified medication technician - correct answer True All medications must have a healthcare professionals (HCP) order (PMOF) and pharmacy label - correct answer True A HCP is the same as they PMOF - correct answer True 8 components of the medication administration cycle - correct answer 1) observe changes 2) report changes and or observations 3)Assist with the HCP visit 4) Obtain medications 5) store medications safely 6) administer medications correctly 7) ensure medications are taken 8) Document medications quickly and correctly reasons medications are used in relation to diseases and illnesses - correct answer ~to cure!!! ~to prevent!!! ~to reduce and relieve symptoms ~to manage How can we insure personal rights, privacy and dignity of the individuals while giving medications - correct answer ~Address individuals by name!!! ~Don't hang signs on the wall ~Don't have them line up at the door for medicine ~Offer privacy What to do if an individual refuses medication - correct answer ~Ask why they are refusing ~Encourage them to take it ~Re-offer medications and tell them how important it is ~Report refusal to Nurse and/or supervisor ~Document refusal on the MAR the term MAR means: - correct answer Medical administration record If, after giving the medications the individual shows change in their PHYSICAL or BEHAVIORAL conditions what do you do? - correct answer You should call the Nurse and the supervisor Who consults with and assists with the visit to the health care professional - correct answer CMT Who obtains the medication from the pharmacy - correct answer CMT Who is responsible for storing the medication correctly - correct answer CMT Who administers medication and preforms treatments - correct answer CMT Who completes the documentation on the medication administration form (MAR) - correct answer CMT What are important things to remember about drug interactions - correct answer ~each medication you add increases the chance of a bad interaction with other medicine ~know your individual's baseline (moods) Who is responsible for observing and reporting possible effects of medications - correct answer CMT Define OBJECTIVE symptom - correct answer something you CAN see or Measure Define subjective symptom - correct answer Something you CAN'T see or measure Somatic (regular) medications must be reordered by the physician how often - correct answer Yearly Psychiatric/Behavior modifying medications must be reordered how often - correct answer Every 90 days Schedule II/ Controlled substances must be reordered how often? - correct answer Every 30 days What would classify as an emergency medical condition - correct answer Loss of consciousness ,stroke symptoms, seizure activity, chest pain, eye injury and uncontrolled bleeding What would classify as a non-emergency condition - correct answer A rush, scratches, fever, diarrhea, and sore throat What would classify as other physical or behavioral changes - correct answer Weight loss or gain, change your sleep pattern, and change in menstrual cycle What would you do to encourage individual to participate in a healthcare professionals visit - correct answer encouraged them to ask questions and write down questions prior to the appointment What are some of the documents you have to take to any medical appointment - correct answer Medical appointment record, photo ID, insurance card, PMOF/doctors order, lab/test results what are some questions you would want to ask the health care professional when a new medication is ordered - correct answer -what is its purpose - if they have stakes in the company -how long until medicine works -side effects to look for -any vital signs or lab work required -what route should it be taken -any possible drug interactions What is meant by the "refill" of medication - correct answer The number of times the medication can be resupplied by the pharmacy without re-orders The chemical/generic name of the medication - correct answer The actual chemical name of the medication and is cheaper Brand name or the name given by manufacturers - correct answer The chemical name of the medications will be posted on the manufacturers label List factors which influence a person's response to medication - correct answer Age, weight, gender, physical condition The most common roots of medication administration are - correct answer Oral and topical Enteric-coated tablets must not be what? - correct answer Crushed or mixed with foods What is a suspension medication - correct answer Liquid What should you NOT do to scored tablets - correct answer DO NOT split or break them What should you not do with time release capsules - correct answer DO NOT crush or mix with foods The inability of the body to eliminate medication can lead to - correct answer Toxicity How do you have to store schedule II, controlled substances narcotic medications - correct answer In lock box unlocked medicine cabinet List three ways medications are package - correct answer Bottles tubes and drops What is the preferred method of packaging medications - correct answer Blister packs What must match in the three-way chat - correct answer The PMOF the pharmacy label and the MAR What is the name of the form required to record The administration of medications - correct answer The MAR medication administration record What information can we not find on the MAR - correct answer Side effects What should be kept separately and the medication cabinet - correct answer Oral and topical medicines Medications requiring refrigeration should be kept in a - correct answer Lockbox MAR is considered a what document - correct answer Legal document All medications must be stored in what - correct answer The original container and a lock storage area Only who can dispose of controlled substances - correct answer The delegating nurse What are sometimes maybe necessary to dispose of or not and Not administre a medication - correct answer When the medicine is expired discontinued refused or contaminated The pharmacy label must never be what - correct answer Altered or changed Can used to the medication cabinet must only be accessible to who - correct answer The CMT and nurse True or false you can remove the medications from the blister pack and plays them and the day of the week container - correct answer False What do you do if you cannot understand or cannot read the doctors order or pharmacy label - correct answer Call the nurse True or false it is OK to hang the keys for the lock to the medication cabinet on the hook on the wall next to the cabinet - correct answer False List the six rights of medication administration - correct answer 1) right person 2) right medicine 3)right dose 4) right method or route 5) right time 6)right documentation and charting What are some safety principles - correct answer The three-way check, washing hands, one cup per person, sign for what you have given, avoid distractions How many times and when should you check the label of the medication before administering the medicine - correct answer You need to check three times the first time is when it's removed from the cabinet the second time is when you do your three-way check and the third time is after is popped in the cup What direction should you pour liquid medications from the label - correct answer For them away from the label True or false when an individual needs to take medications away from their home you should put the medications in the envelope and send them with the individual - correct answer false A chemical support medication can be given without the approval of the standing committee - correct answer False True or false The nurse must be contacted for permission prior to administering a chemical support medication - correct answer True What are some of the rules about behavioral modifying medications/psychotropic medicines - correct answer -They are ordered to treat mental illnesses block unwanted side effects of other medications or modify behavior -Can't be used for the convenience of stuff -can't be ordered as a PRN Medications for behaviors can't be ordered without a behavioral plan What are some symptoms ofTardive Dyskinesia - correct answer Drooling I blinking lipsmacking leg movements face twitches and arm tremors What is Tardive Dyskinesia - correct answer Involuntary muscle movement of the face, mouth, tongue legs arms and trunk What are some factors the doctor may consider and choosing the right seizure medications - correct answer The type of seizure the compliance of the individual the fewest side effects physical factors in the cost What is a "steady state" anti-seizure medications - correct answer Keeping the amount of medication in the body constant True or falseThe The two hour medication window affects the seizure medications - correct answer False they must be given at the exact same time every day What are some side effects of seizure medications - correct answer Drowsiness, lack of coordination, nausea, sedation, increase in seizure activity How do we measure to see if an individual's medication is in the therapeutic range - correct answer Monitor their blood levels What are some reasons why an increase in seizures could occur - correct answer Medication levels are too low, illness/medical problems, drug interactions What are some of the reasons 1911 should be called if no seizure protocol is in place - correct answer If it last longer than five minutes, more than three seizures in five minutes, person does not have a history of seizures, they are pregnant, they are diabetic What is the DDA's basic rule regarding over-the-counter medications - correct answer Must have a PMOF and a pharmacy label Should over-the-counter PRN medications be stored with the routine medications - correct answer No [Show Less]
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CMT EXAM PREP 100- CORRECT ANSWERS
Identify the four (4) reasons to use medications. - correct answer 1. to prevent illness 2. to control or stop illness 3. to reduce symptoms 4. to manag... [Show More] e illness Identify the single, primary reason for the rules, regulations, policies, and guidelines for medication administration in a community-based service system. - correct answer to protect the client Define a "desired effect". - correct answer the medication is doing what it is suppose to do Define a "negative effect". - correct answer an undesirable or unwanted effect Define "no apparent effect". - correct answer an unchanged effect What is a "sign"? - correct answer changes in an individuals appearance, behavior and bodily functions that you can see, feel, hear, or see that they have vomitted/diarrhea. A sign is "objective" information used to monitor a resident? - correct answer True A "sign" can be measured? - correct answer True A "symptom" is a change that you can not see but is experienced/reported by the client. - correct answer True An individual may verbally tell you of changes occurring or may use nonverbal behavior to express these changes. - correct answer True A "symptom" can not be measured? - correct answer True A "symptom" can affect an individual's ADL. - correct answer True A symptom is "subjective" information used to monitor a resident? - correct answer True What are the principles needed to give medication safely? - correct answer 1. Medications and their use 2. Drug actions/negative reactions 3. Methods of administration 4. Trained observation skills 5. References/resource material 6. Procedures used within the facility The greater number of drugs taken at once, the greater the possibility of drug to drug interaction. - correct answer True By knowing what medications the client is taking, and by reporting your observations, the physician or nurse practitioner may make a medication change. - correct answer True Only the physician or nurse practitioner can make a medication change. - correct answer True State the effects of taking medications. - correct answer 1. physical changes 2. behavioral changes State three (3) categories of changes that must be reported. - correct answer 1. emergency medical condition 2. non-emergency medical condition 3. other physical or behavioral changes Vomit or diarrhea is a _________________ that something is wrong? - correct answer sign Holding one's head is ___________________ behavior. - correct answer non-verbal When reporting an emergency, you are to include in your report: who, what, when, where. - correct answer True List five (5) conditions that are always considered emergency medical conditions. - correct answer 1. uncontrollable bleeding 2. accidents (broken bones) 3. not breathing 4. no heartbeat 5. chest pains Discuss two (2) ways to encourage individuals to participate during a visit to a physician. - correct answer write down questions they would like to ask and encourage them to ask the physician about their medication/treatment. Identify seven (7) frequently asked questions which may be asked of a healthcare professional when a new medication is prescribed. - correct answer 1. history of medication/allergies 2. list of current medications 3. current dietary information 4. written observations 5. healthcare insurance 6. any previous tests/consultations The history of an individual's medication can be found on the PMOF. - correct answer True The history of an individual's medication can be found on the information sheet. - correct answer True The history of an individual's medication can be found on the admissions form. - correct answer True Written observations can be found on the progress note. - correct answer True A list of current medications can be found on the PMOF. - correct answer True List the two (2) documents you must have when leaving the health care professional's office when a medication is prescribed. - correct answer 1. Physicians Medication Order Form (PMOF) 2. Prescription State how you would determine if the Physician's Medication Order Form (PMOF) and label agree. - correct answer Check for discrepancies The pharmicist will have additional information about storage requirements and special isntructions on how to take the medication. - correct answer True State three (3) types of medication packaging. - correct answer 1. Bottle Containers 2. Blister Packs/Bingo Cards 3. Unit Doses List the six (6) rights of medication administration. - correct answer 1. Right Person 2. Right Medication 3. Right Dose 4. Right Time 5. Right Method 6. Right Charting List the medication routes that the CMT are authorized to administer. - correct answer 1. Oral 2. Topical Define "acute". - correct answer a sudden onset of illness Define "chronic" - correct answer an illness that remains Define "enteric coating". - correct answer prevents medication from dissolving until it is in the intestines. Liquids must be ___________________ before given. - correct answer shaken What are two categories of medication. - correct answer 1. Controlled Drugs 2. Non-controlled Drugs What is a "controlled drug/substance"? - correct answer a drug that is legally designated by drug agencies Define tolerance. - correct answer Resistance to the effect of medication. Define addiction. - correct answer Dependence on certain medications. Define medication allergy. - correct answer An immediate and life-threatening, delayed, response to medication. What is the name of the form required for documenting medication? - correct answer Medication Administration Record (MAR) What is the MAR used for? - correct answer It documents that medications have been taken as ordered. Controlled substances must be kept under a double lock and key. - correct answer True What are the unwanted effects of medication? - correct answer 1. Allergy 2. Cumulative 3. Tolerance 4. Addiction [Show Less]
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CMT EXAM STUDY GUIDE
List the 4 reasons that medications are used - correct answer 1. to cure 2. to prevent 3. to manage 4. to relieve/reduce List the 4 basic rules - cor... [Show More] rect answer 1. Attend an MTTP class and be certified by the Maryland Nursing Board 2. Only a DN can delegate to CMT's 3. All prescription meds must have a Dr. order and a label 4. All Over the Counter Meds must have a Dr. Order and a Label List 8 components of the Medication Cycle - correct answer 1. Observe the person 2. Report Observations 3. assist in Dr. visits 4. Obtain Meds from pharmacy 5. Store meds safely 6. Administer meds correctly 7. Ensure meds are taken 8. Document correctly List 4 guidelines for ensuring an individuals rights - correct answer 1. Address the individual by name 2. Offer privacy during medication administration 3. Keep meds in a secure non public area 4. Do not hang medication records on wall List 3 effects of medication and give an example - correct answer 1. Desired- cough medicine relieves cough 2. Unwanted - cough medicine relieves cough but gives the pt diarrhea 3. No apparent- give cough medicine no effect Define an "objective sign" and give an example - correct answer something measurable or observable with the pt; the pt has high blood pressure Define a "Subjective Symptom" and give an example - correct answer Something the pt reports to us; abdominal pain List 3 examples of physical changes - correct answer 1. Weight Loss 2. Loss of appetite 3. fever List 3 examples of behavioral examples - correct answer 1. agitation 2. change in sleep pattern 3. changes in activity How frequently must non-psychotropic medications be reordered? - correct answer 90 days How frequently must psychotropic medications be reordered? - correct answer 90 days List 3 categories of changes that must be reported - correct answer 1. physical and behavioral changes 2. emergency 3. non-emergency List 4 conditions that are always considered emergency medical conditions - correct answer 1. uncontrollable bleeding 2. seizures that last longer than 5 minutes 3. seizures in water 4. one seizure after another List 3 physical conditions that are considered non emergency medical conditions - correct answer 1. fever greater than 101 degrees 2. 2 episodes of diarrhea in a 24 hr period 3. new onset of rash List 3 behavioral conditions that are considered non emergency medical conditions - correct answer 1. increase in behaviors 2. changes in sleep habits 3. scratching List 6 pieces of information that must be provided to the Dr. at the time of the appointment - correct answer 1. Insurance Card 2. Photo ID 3. Labs that the Dr. ordered 4. List of all the meds 5. Allergies 6. Diet List 6 questions to ask the Dr. when a new medication is prescribed - correct answer 1. What are the side effects 2. What is it for 3. How long before it works 4. Are there any special instructions 5. Are there any drug interactions 6. How is it to be administered What 2 documents must you receive from the Dr. when a new medication is prescribed - correct answer 1. Prescription 2. Medical appt sheet List 3 factors that affect how an individual responds to medication - correct answer 1. age 2. weight 3. health condition True or False: Enteric Coated Tablets may be crushed to ease swallowing - correct answer False Define Local action of medication - correct answer It works where it is put Define General/Systemic action of medication - correct answer It gets absorbed into the blood stream and works everywhere Define Controlled Substances - correct answer a substance deemed to have a higher risk of abuse How must controlled substances be stored - correct answer double locked; a locked box inside of a locked cabinet True or False: Vitamins or Herbal supplements may be given without a Dr. order - correct answer False List 4 possible unwanted effects of medication - correct answer 1. Medication Allergy 2. Cumulative Effect 3. Tolerance 4. Addiction True or False: Medications must be dispensed in bubble packagin unless otherwise specified in the clients IP - correct answer False True or False: The MAR is a legal document - correct answer True True or False: It is OK to erase or use whiteout on the MAR to correct errors - correct answer False True or False: The administration of Schedule II/ Controlled substances must be documented only on the MAR - correct answer False True or False: The RN may direct you to alter the pharmacy label - correct answer False True or False: All medications must be stored in a locked area - correct answer True True or False: Disposal of Schedule II/ Controlled substances may only be done by the House Manager - correct answer False List the "six rights of medication" - correct answer 1. Right Person 2. Right Medication 3. Right Dose 4. Right Method/Route 5. Right Time 6. Right Charting List 5 additional safety principles - correct answer 1. Hand Washing 2. Full attention 3. Never pre-pour meds 4. Administer meds that have been prepared by me only 5. Chart immediately after I give each dose of medicine True or False: You must wash your hands before you administer medicine to an individual - correct answer True True or False: A guideline for how long to wash your hands is to sing Happy Birthday Twice - correct answer True True or False: Check for drug allergies before administering medications to an individual - correct answer True True or False: It is OK to mix medicines with applesauce to encourage compliance - correct answer False List 3 reasons NOT to give medications - correct answer 1. If meds are expired 2. if meds are contaminated 3. If the individual exhibits behavioral and/or physical changes True or False: Only the Nurse can authorize the administration of a PRN medication - correct answer True True or False: PRN orders may be written for medications to control behaviors - correct answer False True or False: A CMT may take a telephone order from a Dr. - correct answer False True or False: A CMT may fill a Medi-Planner for a clients LOA - correct answer False [Show Less]
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CMT FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE
If one PVC interrupts a regular sinus rhythm strip use ________ method may be used to calculate heart rate. State this information under "___________": R-R... [Show More] 's regular, but interrupted by a PVC. - correct answer 1500, Rhythm 6 second strips with 2 or more _______________ beats - you may use six second method for calculating heart rate (if PVC/PJC, count in heart rate) - correct answer premature For rhythms with _________, ____________, ________________, _____________ , use six second method to calculate HR - correct answer V-TACH, pauses, arrest, escape beats 1st step in rhythm analysis is heart ___________ - correct answer rhythm If you measure a QRS .12 or greater, consider ________________ for answer - correct answer wide QRS ______ is the best lead to assess left or right bundle branch block - correct answer V1 For a strip with a PVC or V-TACH RUN, consider the pattern ___________________ - correct answer irregular Define rhythmicity - ________ __________________ - correct answer heart rhythm Define _________________- shape and size of specific complex or waveform - correct answer morphology Minimum length before interruption of a tracing is ___________ seconds - correct answer 6 The ventricles are ___________ at max systole - correct answer empty Know how to identify fine/coarse ventricular fibrillation - correct answer How do we determine the rate for ventricular fibrillation? - correct answer What role does calcium play with cardiac function? - correct answer produces muscle contractions Purkinje fibers are located along the ________________ _____________ _____ - correct answer myocardial septal wall Both ST segment and T wave represent the period of _____________________ - correct answer repolarization Idioventricular Rhythm with escape beat - correct answer 3 rd Degree Heart Block - correct answer 2nd Degree Type I - correct answer 2 nd Degree Type II - correct answer 1st Degree Heart Block - correct answer Know all heart rate parameters associated with each rhythm. - correct answer Normal Sinus Rhythm: HR range is _______ - _______ - correct answer 60-100 Torsades De Pointes - Most accurate is ______________ ____________(measure boxes between 2 LARGE ventricular complexes) Rate will be very fast and will vary between complexes throughout strip (example: 3-5 small boxes) Ventricular rate will likely be > 300. - correct answer 1500 method Sinus Pause / Arrest (Know how to calculate time of pause/arrest) - correct answer # of big boxes x .20 + # of small boxes x .04 = pause/arrest in seconds [Show Less]
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CMT EXAM-EVAL QUESTIONS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS VERIFIED
What 9 specific health history factors should be obtained prior to an initial screening of a child w/CMT? - correct answer 1) age at initial onset 2) age... [Show More] at onset of symptoms 3) pregnancy hx including mom's sense of baby being "stuck" last 6 weeks 4) delivery hx including birth presentation or multiple births 5) use of assistance during delivery 6) head posture/preference and changes in head/face 7) family hx of torticullis or other congenital/developmental conditions 8) other known/suspected med conditions 9) developmental milestones appropriate for age What are MSK conditions that mimic CMT? - correct answer Klippel-Feil syndrome clavicle fx congenital scoliosis C1-2 rotary subluxation What are neurological causes of asymmetrical posturing related to CMT? - correct answer brachial plexus injury, CNS lesions, astrocytoma, brain stem or cerebellar gliomas, agenesis of CNS structures, hearing impairments What are visual causes of asymmetrical posturing related to CMT? - correct answer ocular apraxia, strabismus, ocular muscle imbalances, nystagmus, visual field deficits What is Sandifer syndrome? - correct answer trunk arching and neck flexion to the right after eating (type of GERD where infants arch and become tonic to protect airway from refluxing gastric contents) What GI history is important with CMT? - correct answer reflux or constipation, preferential feeding from one side What is Grisel Syndrome? - correct answer subluxation of A-A joint from inflammatory/ligamentous laxity following an infectious process in head/neck, usually retropharyngeal abscesses (deep neck space infection leading to inflammatory torticollis and vertebral subluxation) Why is it important to determine age at initial onset and age at onset of symptoms with CMT? - correct answer determines prognosis What is Klippel-Feil syndrome? - correct answer Congenital fusion of any 2 of the 7 cervical vertebrae. Triad of short neck, low posterior hair line, limited range of motion. What red flags that should be examined for CMT? - correct answer - atypical positions, such as right cervical rotation with a right lateral flexion - asymmetrical cervical vertebrae on palpation - acute pain responses on cervical movement - tissue masses outside of the SCM or in other areas of the body - children with Down syndrome - C1-C2 cervical spine instability - late onset of a head tilt with known symmetry for the first few months of life - stridor, wheezing, SOB, cyanotic lips What needs to be done as part of the MSK systems review with CMT? - correct answer symmetrical shape of face/skull/spine symmetrical alignment of shoulder and hip girdles c-spine vertebrae anomalies rib cage symmetry DDH (developmental hip displasia) symmetrical PROM of neck palpation for SCM masses or restricted movement What needs to be done as part of the neuro systems review with CMT? - correct answer - abnormal or asymmetrical tone - retention of primitive reflexes - resistance to movement - cranial nerve integrity - brachial plexus injury - temperament (irritability, alertness) - achievement of age-appropriate developmental milestones inclusive of cognitive and social integration w/in family setting - visual screen comprising symmetrical eye tracking in all directions, noting visual field defects and nystagmus as potential ocular causes of asymmetrical postures What needs to be done as part of the integ systems review with CMT? - correct answer - skinfold symmetry of the hips and cervical regions - color and condition of skin w/special attention to signs of pressure and trauma that might cause asymmetrical posturing What needs to be done as part of the cardiorespiratory systems review with CMT? - correct answer - symmetrical coloration - rib cage expansion - clavicle movement to r/o conditions that might cause asymmetrical posturing - acute upper respiratory tract distress What are causes of acquired torticullis? - correct answer ocular lesions benign paroxysmal torticollis dystonic syndromes infections Arnold-Chiari malformation syringomyelia posterior fossa tumors trauma *acquired occurs later than congenital* What is craniosynostosis? - correct answer premature closure of cranial sutures What are secondary impairments of craniosynostosis? - correct answer restricted brain growth increased intracranial pressure *requires surgery and PT interventions* What premature suture closure is associated with CMT? - correct answer lamboid Best method to measure cervical rotation, lateral flexion, both PROM and AROM: - correct answer arthrodial protractor Do an integ eval of the infant's: - correct answer cervical skin and hip folds Evaluate pain/discomfort using what scale? - correct answer FLACC What tests and measures are used in a child with CMT? - correct answer FLACC muscle function scale TIMP HINT AIMS PDMS-2 Argenta's classical classification Motor Function Scale goes from ___ to ___. - correct answer 0-5 What score is this on the Motor Function Scale? <0 degrees below horizontal line - correct answer 0 What score is this on the Motor Function Scale? 0 degrees on horizontal line - correct answer 1 What score is this on the Motor Function Scale? 0-15 degrees head above horizontal line - correct answer 2 What score is this on the Motor Function Scale? 15-45 degrees head above horizontal line - correct answer 3 What score is this on the Motor Function Scale? 45-75 degrees head above horizontal line - correct answer 4 What score is this on the Motor Function Scale? >75 degrees above horizontal line - correct answer 5 Use ______ for infants <4 months old and _____ for infants >4 months old. (tests and measure) - correct answer TIMP; AIMS With left SCM CMT, cervical lateral flexion is restricted to the: - correct answer left With right SCM CMT, cervical lateral flexion is restricted to the: - correct answer right With left SCM CMT, cervical rotation is restricted to the: - correct answer right With right SCM CMT, cervical rotation is restricted to the: - correct answer left With left SCM CMT, frontal flattening occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer left With right SCM CMT, frontal flattening occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer right With left SCM CMT, occipital flattening occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer right With right SCM CMT, occipital flattening occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer left With left SCM CMT, jaw retraction occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer left With right SCM CMT, jaw retraction occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer right With left SCM CMT, pseudo facial droop occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer right With right SCM CMT, pseudo facial droop occurs on the _____ side. - correct answer left What grades of CMT severity occurs between 0-6 months? - correct answer grades 1-3 What grades of CMT severity occurs between 7-9 months? - correct answer grades 4 & 6 What grades of CMT severity occurs between 10-12 months? - correct answer grade 5 What grades of CMT severity occurs between 7-12 months? - correct answer grade 7 What grades of CMT severity occurs >12 months? - correct answer grade 8 What grade of CMT severity is this? postural preference OR muscular tightness; loses <15 degrees c-spine rotation - correct answer grade 1 (early mild) or grade 4 (late mild) or grade 5 (late moderate) What grade of CMT severity is this? muscular tightness; loses 15-30 degrees c-spine rotation - correct answer grade 2 (early moderate) What grade of CMT severity is this? muscular tightness; loses >30 degrees cervical rotation or has SCM nodule - correct answer grade 3 (early severe) What grade of CMT severity is this? muscular tightness and >15 degrees cervical rotation lost at 7-9 months OR 15-30 degrees cervical rotation lost at 10-12 months - correct answer grade 6 (late severe) What grade of CMT severity is this? SCM nodule at 7-9 months OR 10-12 months, muscular tightness and >30 degrees cervical rotation lost - correct answer grade 7 (late extreme) What grade of CMT severity is this? any asymmetry, including postural preference, any difference b/t sides in passive cervical rotation or SCM mass - correct answer grade 8 (very late) Summarize prognostic indicators. - correct answer - age of initiation of treatment - classification of severity - SCM nodule location and size - intensity of intervention - presence of comorbidities - rate of change - adherence to HEP What 5 factors indicate full or complete resolution of CMT symptoms? - correct answer 1) participation in PT intervention 2) younger age at initiation of treatment 3) decreased difference in cervical rotation PROM between sides 4) decreased difference in SCM muscle thickness between sides 5) the caregiver's ability to frequently implement an HEP of active positioning and passive stretching What amount of resolution will the following child have from CMT? <3 months old, early referral, caregivers adherent w/HEP - correct answer 100% What amount of resolution will the following child have from CMT? 3-6 months of age - correct answer 75% What amount of resolution will the following child have from CMT? 6-18 months of age - correct answer 30% What is the length of care if patient is <3 months old? - correct answer 1.5-3 months What is the length of care if patient is >3 months old? - correct answer 3-6 months What key factors affect length of care? - correct answer extent of fibrosis severity of ROM restrictions *this is the best predictor* What 7 factors are associated with a longer episode of care? - correct answer 1) older age at initiation of treatment 2) increased restriction of neck rotation PROM 3) increased severity of head tilt 4) motor asymmetry 5) increased thickness/stiffness of involved SCM or higher thickness ratio between the involved and uninvolved SCM 6) presence of an SCM mass or lesion 7) delivery history including infants with lower birth weight and breech, compared with cephalic, presentation What are some predictors that indicate a child with CMT may need surgery? - correct answer - limitations in cervical ROM >15 degrees lost - SCM mass - craniofacial asymmetry - older age of dx - presenting after 1 month after birth - head tilt still present after treatment List the signs that an infant/child with CMT is not progressing with PT intervention. - correct answer - asymmetries of head/neck/trunk not resolving after 4-6 weeks of initial intense treatment - after 6 months of treatment w/only moderate resolution - older than 12 months on initial exam, facial asymmetry, 10-15 degrees difference persists b/t sides - older than 7 months on initial exam and tight band or SCM mass present - side of torticullis changes If the side of torticullis changes, this indicates what other condition? - correct answer Klippel-Feil syndrome What are d/c criteria from PT intervention? - correct answer - full PROM w/in 5 degrees of uninvolved side - symmetrical AROM patterns throughout PROM - age-appropriate motor development including symmetrical movement patterns b/t sides during static, dynamic, and reflexive movements - no visible head tilt - parents/caregivers know what to monitor as child grows (growth spurts = ROM decrease or head tilt returns) What are follow-up recommendations? - correct answer 3-12 months post-d/c - positional preference - structural and movement symmetry of neck, face, head, trunk, hips, UEs & LEs - developmental milestones *check for those* [Show Less]
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CMT MOCK EXAM -78 QUESTIONS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS
Which of the following is correctly transcribed? a. A gaited scan revealed ostial plaque. b. A gated scan revealed ostial plaque. c. A gaited scan rev... [Show More] ealed osteal plaque. d. A gated scan revealed osteal plaque. - correct answer B Which sentence is correct? a. A drug-eluting stent was used. b. A drug-alluding stent was used. c. A drug-eluding stent was used. d. A drug-eliding stent was used. - correct answer A Choose the correctly transcribed sentence. a. A Deaver retractor was placed and the abdominal cavity was explored. b. A Beaver retractor was placed and the abdominal cavity was explored. c. A Deaver blade was used to create a corneal incision. d. A Deaver blade was used to create an abdominal incision. - correct answer A What does the abbreviation PEEP stand for? a. positive end-expiratory peak b. positive end-expiratory pressure c. pulmonary end expiratory pressure d. positive end-expiration pressure - correct answer B Pick the correct abbreviation that stands for flexion, abduction, external rotation, extension. a. FLABERE b. FAEX c. FAERE d. FABERE - correct answer D What is the correct abbreviation for chronic fatigue and immune dysfunction syndrome? a. CFIDSY b. CFIMDS c. CFIDS d. CFAIDS - correct answer C Which BUN value is within the normal range? a. 122 b. 12 c. 2 d. 200 - correct answer B What is the significance of a PTH level of 20 pg/mL? a. It is mildly elevated. b. It is decreased. c. It is normal. d. It is extremely elevated. - correct answer C What is measured when tidal volume is assessed? a. volume of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs during eupnea b. volume of air that remains in the lungs at all times c. volume of the air that the lungs can hold d. maximum amount of air a patient can exhale after taking a deep breath - correct answer A The BNP level, used during evaluation of patients for CHF, measures what? a. nitrogen in the blood b. a polypeptide secreted by the cardiac ventricles c. the presence or absence of neurofibrillary tangles d. average red blood cell production during a specified time frame - correct answer B What proportions does an A/G ratio measure? a. albumin and globulin in blood b. hemoglobin A and glucose in blood c. albumin and globulin in urine d. hemoglobin A and glucose in urine - correct answer A What condition might be present in a patient with an elevated alkaline phosphatase? a. microcytic anemia b. diabetes mellitus c. biliary obstruction d. glioblastoma - correct answer C A patient with serum calcium of 12 and a phosphate level of 1.8 would likely have which diagnosis? a. primary hyperparathyroidism b. myocardial infarction c. HIV d. renal failure - correct answer A What laboratory result suggests the presence of acute viral hepatitis? a. increased urine sodium b. decreased blood glucose c. elevated AST d. elevated urine chloride - correct answer C What condition is suggested by a homocysteine level of 50 mcmol/L? a. increased risk of clot formation b. increased risk of prostatic carcinoma c. increased risk of thyrotoxic crisis d. increased risk for ovarian carcinoma - correct answer A Which describes the procedure used in a retrograde pyelography? a. Contrast injected into the bladder is observed as it passes through the urethra. b. Contrast is injected into the renal calyces. c. Contrast is injected into the ureters from an endoscope placed in the bladder. d. Contrast injected into the urethra is used to visualize the bladder. - correct answer C What diagnostic test is typically performed with the patient in a sitting position? a. bone densitometry b. cholangiography c. intravenous pyelogram d. electronystagmography - correct answer D What kind of diagnostic test is performed when an opaque dye is injected into the salivary glands? a. dacryocystography b. sialography c. lymphangiography d. barium swallow - correct answer B What substance is used in performing a barium swallow? a. barium sulfate b. barium peroxide c. barium carbonate d. barium oxide - correct answer A Which imaging study uses an iodine-based contrast material? a. intravenous pyelogram b. brain MRI c. MRA d. virtual colonoscopy - correct answer A MRA uses gadolinium not iodine What condition is suggested by an abnormal Wood lamp examination? a. tuberculosis b. anemia c. fungal infection d. leukemia - correct answer C Which condition suggested by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate? a. pernicious anemia b. temporal arteritis c. influenza d. diabetes mellitus - correct answer B On an electromyography report, which phrase is correctly expressed? a. Sensory latency 0.1 mS b. Sensory latency 0.1 mls c. Sensory latency 0.1 mSec d. Sensory latency 0.1 msec - correct answer D Which sentence correctly expresses a radiation dose level during radiotherapy? a. Starting dose was cgray. b. Starting dose was 900 Cgy. c. Starting dose was 900 cGy. d. Starting dose was 900 CGY. - correct answer C In the picture below, what anatomical feature is indicated by the arrow? Picture of kidney. Arrow pointing to tube coming out and going down. a. ureter b. common bile duct c. renal artery d. duodenum - correct answer A In the picture below, what anatomical feature is the arrow pointing to? Picture of ear/inner ear. Pointing to circular items in inner ear. a. hypoglossal canals b. pterygoid canal c. semicircular canals d. incisive canal - correct answer C Picture of back muscles. Pointing to middle triangle-shaped muscles at top between shoulders and going down to lumbar spine. What muscle is the arrow above pointing to? Select one: a. sternocleidomastoid b. teres major c. trapezius d. deltoid - correct answer C Which gland is located at the back of the third ventricle of the brain that produces the hormone melatonin? a. pineal gland b. hypothalamus c. thymus d. pituitary - correct answer A Name the bone that is in the lateral lower arm in line with the thumb. a. ulna b. radius c. tibia d. humerus - correct answer B Which veins begin near the angle of the mandible and descend through the neck? a. cephalic b. axillary c. vertebral d. external jugular - correct answer D Which organ is involved in the removal and excretion of metabolic wastes from the blood? a. spleen b. colon c. kidney d. liver - correct answer C The condition of ascites is the accumulation of fluid where? a. peritoneal cavity b. parietal pleura c. pericardium d. apex of lungs - correct answer A Which statement about the brain is true? a. Large amounts of glucose are stored in the brain. b. Blood flows to the brain mainly through the internal carotid and vertebral arteries. c. Proteins and antibiotics easily cross the blood-brain barrier. d. The brain consumes about 80% of the oxygen and glucose used in the body. - correct answer B Abadie sign, or spasm of the levator palpebrae superioris, may be a sign of what condition? a. hypothyroidism b. glaucoma c. hyperthyroidism d. senile cataract - correct answer C? What condition might be indicated by the presence of bruises and petechiae on the extremities? a. ITP b. MAC c. DLE d. ARDS - correct answer A Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) What condition is suggested by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and seizures? a. Parkinson disease b. discoid lupus c. diabetes insipidus d. eclampsia - correct answer D What is a treatment for cystocele? a. chordotomy b. cecostomy c. cystectomy d. colporrhaphy - correct answer D? Cystocele is when the bladder rests down on the vagina. Pulmonary edema could be treated in what way? a. tracheotomy and steroid administration b. nasal cannula oxygen and afterload reduction c. pneumonectomy and steroid administration d. pulmonary valve repair and preload reduction - correct answer B Which condition might be treated with an ileal conduit? a. avascular necrosis b. iatrogenic lymphedema c. early-stage colon carcinoma d. absence of the urinary bladder after surgery - correct answer D For what condition is Benicar prescribed? a. hypertension b. type 2 diabetes c. hypotension d. breast cancer - correct answer A What class of drugs might be used to treat thrombocytopenia? a. vasopressor b. alpha blocker c. cephalosporin d. corticosteroid - correct answer D Thrombocytopenia is low platelet count. Corticosteroids slow platelet destruction. Casodex might be used to treat what disease? a. metastatic prostate cancer b. epididymitis c. urinary tract infection d. prostatitis - correct answer A Casodex is an anti-androgen and treats prostate cancer On x-ray, the radiologist reports a widening at the acromioclavicular joint, suggesting the possibility of __________, and followup films are recommended. Which condition is likely to be named in the blank? a. separation b. carcinoma c. crush injury d. arthritis - correct answer A This 60-year-old woman presents with acute onset of respiratory distress 5 days following colectomy for colon carcinoma. We will order a lung V/Q scan and _____________. Which phrase is most likely to fill in the blank? a. begin chest physiotherapy b. consider starting heparin c. perform immediate bronchoscopy d. initiate antibiotic therapy - correct answer B This 70-year-old male complains of feeling he cannot empty his bladder completely. He has noted ____ urethral discharge. I have discussed with him that this is likely BPH. Which is the most likely word or phrase to fill in the above blank? a. some purulent b. profuse c. a greenish d. no - correct answer D This patient presented with symptoms of intermittent crampy abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, and ______. The differential diagnosis includes mechanical bowel obstruction. Which phrase would be likely to fill in the above blank? a. marked icterus b. light-colored stool c. epigastric tenderness d. a history of laparotomy - correct answer D Which are examples of correct classification of cervical intraepithelial neoplasias? a. CIN-I, CIN-II b. CIN1, CIN2 c. CIN-1, CIN-2 d. CIN-A, CIN-B - correct answer C In the Binet leukemia classification system, which is the correct expression to describe a case with fewer than 3 areas of enlarged lymphoid tissue? a. Binet level 1 b. Binet stage A c. Binet stage I d. Binet grade 1 - correct answer B Binet stage A, B, C Rei stage 0-IV Which is the correct expression for classifying adenocarcinoma of the prostate? a. Gleason stage VI b. Gleason level 6 c. Gleason score 6 d. Gleason grade 6 - correct answer C What does a Rancho Los Amigos score of VIII signify? a. purposeful and appropriate behavior b. confused and agitated behavior c. generalized response to stimuli d. inresponsiveness - correct answer A A patient with a MELD score of 19-24 may be a candidate for what procedure? a. heart transplant b. liver transplant c. cataract surgery d. knee replacement - correct answer B What kind of surgery would use a columellar chevron incision? a. open rhinoplasty b. cataract extraction c. adenoidectomy d. angioplasty - correct answer A Seldinger technique would be used in which procedure? a. heart catheterization b. cesarean section c. stereotactic radiosurgery d. lithotripsy - correct answer A Which procedure places the patient in a flank position and uses an incision overlying the 12th rib? a. appendectomy b. colectomy c. distal pancreatectomy d. nephrectomy - correct answer D In what kind of surgical procedure might a Bookwalter retractor be used? a. transsphenoidal resection b. total hip replacement c. laparotomy d. catheter extraction - correct answer C Which type of scissors might be used in vascular surgery? a. Stevens b. Potts c. bandage d. Mayo - correct answer B Mayo are used for cutting fascia Stevens tenotomy scissors (tendon?) Potts veins and arteries Which is a brand of electrocautery device used for hemostasis? a. ElecSys b. Bugbee c. Arctic d. DePuy - correct answer B In what type of procedure would you find an Angio-Seal used? a. total hip arthroplasty b. cardiac catheterization c. carotid artery stenting d. rhinoplasty - correct answer B For placement over the dorsum, a cartilage crusher was used to crush and flatten a small piece of septal cartilage, then the contour was checked and confirmed to be satisfactory. Which surgical procedure would contain the above language? a. rhinoplasty b. myringotomy c. cervical diskectomy d. tracheotomy - correct answer A The medial borders of the longus colli muscles were dissected free from their attachments. A needle was placed and an x-ray properly localized the space. In which surgical procedure would you find the sentences above? a. Achilles tendon repair b. anterior cervical diskectomy c. rhytidectomy d. thyroidectomy - correct answer B Needles were passed with direct palpation through the vaginal incision from the lateral thigh to the vaginal incision. Which operative report would include the above sentence? a. cystectomy b. vulvectomy c. urethral sling d. hysterectomy - correct answer C Which abbreviation refers to software used by physicians for direct entry of patient treatment information? a. CPOE b. CDR c. OCR d. PACS - correct answer A DICOM is the interoperability standard established to support distribution and access to which of these? a. imaging studies b. e-prescriptions c. home health reports d. laboratory data - correct answer A In the abbreviation ICD-10, what does the "D" refer to? a. disease b. diagnosis c. diagnostics d. division - correct answer A International Classification of Diseases Which term is used to describe a computer system that is old and outdated? a. next gen b. sunset c. legacy d. archive - correct answer C Which refers to the application of computer technology to the management of information? a. interoperability b. integration c. informatics d. implementation - correct answer D? Not B Which term describes the kind of health data created from narrative dictation? a. unstructured b. discrete c. mineable d. abstracted - correct answer A What does the "CT" refer to in SNOMED-CT? a. clinical terms b. computerized tracking c. computerized terminology d. clinical technology - correct answer A What does the phrase meaningful use refer to? a. Integration of e-prescribing technologies that eliminate drug-related data entry errors. b. Appropriate application of clinical coding standards to avoid fraud and abuse in patient billing. c. Adoption and integration of EHR systems in a manner that drives coordinated use of health information and improved care outcomes. d. Capture of core measures information that will generate useable statistical data to support the management of specific diseases. - correct answer C Which refers to the application of natural language processing using a clinical nomenclature system, such as SNOMED-CT? a. data integration b. data mining c. data abstracting d. data tagging - correct answer D?? Not B Which refers to the transcribed document after the application of NLP? a. source file b. data file c. codified narrative d. abstracted dictation - correct answer C?? Not B The "once-and-done" concept is utilized with which of the following? a. back-end speech recognition b. front-end speech recognition c. at the point of authentication of the record d. point-and-click template systems - correct answer B Which of the following factors most influences a successful SRT implementation? a. lack of efficient editing skills b. the type of technology being implemented c. inability to resolve style conflicts d. inconsistency of a dictator's speech pattern - correct answer D [Show Less]
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