Bundle
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 1-10 Bundle (2022/2023)
7 Items
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 3 Exam (2022/2023)
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 3 Exam Module 3 Exam - Requires Respondus LockDown Browser + Webcam Due No ... [Show More] due date Points 100 Questions 27 Question 1 5 / 5 pts Short answer Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders. Your Answer: Time Limit 90 Minutes Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Attempt History Score Score for this quiz: 88.5 out of 100 Submitted Feb 13 at 3:31pm This attempt took 54 minutes. Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple choice: Which cells serve an important role innate and adaptive immunity? autoimmune disorders are challeching because, it can potentaily effect the cells and the tissue of the body systemic, organ, and blood. moreover, there are over 80 idetified many are overlapping and nonspecif. to get the correct autoimmune diagnosis must be follow PT history, physical evedience, and serological finding. Blood test are more generic therefore its bit challenging. however to conclude the correct autoimmune disorder there must be autouimmune reaction, the immunlogilocal finding cant be secondry disease , and there must not be no other findings of disease . so for all these reasons it is diffecult to diagnose autoimmune disroders There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn’t perfect either, as some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases. Question 4 3 / 3 pts B lymphocytes produce what type of immunity? Your Answer: humural immunity Question 6 2 / 2 pts Microbe recognition is specific Question 8 10 / 10 pts A 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) What symptoms might he present with? (2) Does the quantity of exposure mean he will have a more severe reaction? (3) What is the initial immediate treatment? (4) What are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always carry? Your Answer: he can present any of the grade 1-5 Grade 1 is the reaction cuteneouse mucosal tisue with erythema and urticaria with or without engioedema , to all the way to grade 5 which is cardia arrest which the healthcare provider will be focusing on resusctitatio quantity does not matter epinephiner ID for the food he is to allergic to and Epi pen Question 11 3.5 / 3.5 pts Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 15 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions can be treated with the administration of epinephrine? Question 14 3.5 / 3.5 pts Type I hypersensitivity reactions are _____ mediated reactions. Your Answer: IgE Question 17 3.5 / 3.5 pts Question 18 5 / 5 pts Short answer: What are the 2 factors that play a role in the development of autoimmune diseases? Your Answer: genetic and environmental exporsure Question 19 10 / 10 pts 1, A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her initial obstetrics visit, about 10 weeks into her pregnancy. She is in a monogamous relationship. (1) Should an HIV test be part of her initial blood work? Why? 2. An infant is born, and its initial antibody test is positive for HIV. (2) Does this mean the infant is infected? What would be the more appropriate test to detect HIV in this infant? Your Answer: 1-yes she should be tested for HIV,2- because mother and fetus is the very high and coomon that she will pass the virus to fetus, also the CDS recommonds anyone who is the age between 13-64 sould be tested for the disease. 1-no it does not mean the fetus is positive for the disease. 2-apporpiate test will be PCR test which detect the presence of the trace amount in the DNA of the infected fetus, regardless of the outcome the fetus will have the mothers antibodies,however the PCR test will give alternative startegy to ditermine if the virus is presence in the fetus's . 1. Yes. Transmission from mother to infant is the mostcommon way that children become infected. The CDC recommends all people between ages 13 and 64 be routinely screened for HIV. Earlier detection and treatment lead to better outcomes. 2. No. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test is anucleic acid test that can detect HIV DNA. It tests for the presence of the virus, rather than the antibody, which is helpful in diagnosing HIV infection in infants born to infected mothers. These infants would have their mother’s antibodies whether or not they have been infected. Question 22 1.5 / 3.5 pts Fill in the blank HIV is a ____virus that destroys the body’s immune system by taking over and destroying ____ cells. Your Answer: antiviral immune Question 21 3.5 / 3.5 pts While labile and stable cells can regenerate themselves, _______ cells are unable to undergo mitotic division. Your Answer: premenant cells like the neuron Question 24 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: The best diagnostic method to detect HIV is the HIV antibody test called what? If this is positive, what follow-up test will be done to confirm? Question 23 3.5 / 3.5 pts The term to describe the time when an infected person’s blood converts from being negative for HIV antibodies to being positive is called what? Your Answer: seroconversion Question 26 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: The process of leukocyte accumulation in the cellular phase of acute inflammation is called what? [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.45
- 0
- 251
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 1 Exam (2022/2023)
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 1 Exam Module 1 Exam - Requires Respondus LockDown Browser + Webcam D... [Show More] ue No due date Points 100 Questions 22 Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Time Limit 90 Minutes Attempt History Attempt Time Score LATEST Attempt 1 10 minutes 37.5 out of 100 * Question 4 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Endometrial hyperplasia is a normal physiologic occurrence. Question 10 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 12 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Question 14 Not yet graded / 10 pts Define primary prevention and give an example: Your Answer: Question 16 Not yet graded / 10 pts Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. Primary prevention is prevention that is making someone aware of the disease and how to prevent it. For example, DARE is a program to help enlighten the effects of drugs if you were to take them. The goal of primary prevention is to remove risk factors to prevent disease from occurring. Examples include taking folic acid while pregnant to prevent neural tube defects, vaccinating children to prevent communicable disease, eating healthy and exercising to prevent heart disease, and wearing seatbelts or helmets. Your Answer: Necrosis is the cell death of an organ or tissue that is part of a living person. coagulative necrosis is an example. It happens due to a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ, such as the heart. Question 17 10 / 10 pts Match the type of cell injury to the cause. Some answers may be used more than once. (1 point each) Necrosis refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person. It often interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration. Coagulative necrosis results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly the heart and kidney. Liquefactive necrosis occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed. It is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses. Caseous necrosis occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis. Gangrenous necrosis most often affects the lower extremities or bowel and is secondary to vascular occlusion. The term gangrene is applied when a considerable mass of tissue undergoes necrosis. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Correct!Correct! Bacteria Question 18 Not yet graded / 10 pts List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each. Your Answer: Epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous Epithelial tissue covers the entire body's outer layer as well as the inner surface. An example would be our skin. Muscle tissue's function is to move our bones and to pump blood supply through our heart. An example would be cardiac muscle tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue. Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane. It is avascular, meaning without blood vessels. It receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests. UnansweredUnanswered Question 19 Not yet graded / 2.5 pts What term means “cell eating” and engulfs and then kills microorganisms or other particulate matter? Connective or supportive tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body. It connects and binds or supports the various tissues. Its cells produce the extracellular matrix that support and hold tissues together. Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells). The four types of connective tissue proper are loose (areolar), adipose, reticular, and dense connective tissue. The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs. Muscle tissue can accomplish this by contraction. The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments. Thin filaments are called actin, and the thick filaments are myosin. The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. Nervous tissue is distributed throughout the body for communication. It provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment. The two types of cells are neuron and glial cells. Neurons function is communication. Glial (meaning glue) cells support the neurons. Question 20 Not yet graded / 2.5 pts What is the term to describe when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient? Your Answer: Active Transport Question 21 Not yet graded / 2.5 pts Give one function of a membrane potential: Your Answer: Generate nerve impulse Question 22 Not yet graded / 2.5 pts What is the diffusion of water called? Your Answer: facilitated diffusion Quiz Score: 37.5 out of 100 [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.45
- 0
- 177
NURS 231 -Pathophysiology exam -module 1 to module 10-2022/2023
NURS 231 -Pathophysiology exam -module 1 to module 10-2022/2023 Module 1 Exam Question 1 0 / 2.5 pts True/False: A bodybuilder’s mus... [Show More] cles will display hyperplasia. True Correct Answer False Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: During pregnancy, uterine enlargement is caused by hypoplasia. True False It’s hypertrophy and hyperplasia. Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Persistent dysplasia eventually results in cancer. True False Question 4 0 / 2.5 pts True/False: Endometrial hyperplasia is a normal physiologic occurrence. True Correct Answer False Question 5 10 / 10 pts Match the following: 1. Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease a. Validity 2. How likely the same result will occur if repeated b. Reliability 3. How a tool measures what it is intended to measure c. Sensitivity 4. People without the disease who are negative on a given test d. Specificity Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease How likely the same result will occur if repeated How a tool measures what it is intended to measure People without the disease who are negative on a given test Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply. It is involved in cellular respiration They are found far from the site of energy consumption They play a role in apoptosis They control free radicals Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following are true regarding cell communication? Select all that apply. Paracrine signaling depends on hormones Neurotransmitters act through synapses Enzyme linked receptors act through an on-off switch Autocrine signaling releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following are false of the cell? Proteins carry out the functions of the cell membrane. Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell. The rough ER is the site for lipid synthesis. Microfilaments are thin, threadlike cytoplasmic structures. Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which is true of the cytoskeleton? Select all that apply. It controls shape and movement Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Question 10 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice High blood pressure is an example of which of the following? Pathology Correct Answer Pathophysiology Physiology No answer text provided. Question 11 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice A patient complains of chest pain and an elevated blood pressure. What are these examples of? Signs Symptoms Both A & B Question 12 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following is NOT helpful to the clinician to make a diagnosis? Detailed history Physical exam Evidence based practice Laboratory tests Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following is the effect of an illness on one’s life? Incidence Morbidity Prevalence Mortality Question 14 10 / 10 pts Define secondary prevention and give an example: Your Answer: Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early, usually when they are asymptomatic and curable. An example is going for an annual pap smear. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early, usually while the disease is asymptomatic and curable. Some examples include annual Pap smears to detect early cervical cancer, encouraging smoking cessation, checking blood pressure and cholesterol, and colonoscopy screening. Question 15 10 / 10 pts Explain apoptosis and why it is necessary: Your Answer: Apoptosis, referred to as programmed cell death, eliminates excess cells, damaged cells, improperly formed cells and gentically damaged cells. Apoptosis is important to ensure the cell gets rid of unwanted cells and tissue that may impair or disrupt its normal functioning. Apoptosis is programmed cell death. This process eliminates cells that are worn out, have been produced in excess, have developed improperly, or have genetic damage. Apoptosis is also responsible for several normal physiologic processes, like replacing cell in the intestinal villi and removing aging red blood cells. Question 16 10 / 10 pts Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. Your Answer: Necrosis refers to the death of a tissue or organ which is part of a living person. An example of necrosis is coagulative necrosis, which is the sudden cut-off of blood flow to an organ, usually the heart or kidney. Necrosis refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person. It often interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration. Coagulative necrosis results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly the heart and kidney. Liquefactive necrosis occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed. It is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses. Caseous necrosis occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis. Gangrenous necrosis most often affects the lower extremities or bowel and is secondary to vascular occlusion. The term gangrene is applied when a considerable mass of tissue undergoes necrosis. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Question 17 9 / 10 pts Match the type of cell injury to the cause. Some answers may be used more than once. (1 point each) 1. Sunburn a. Physical agents 2. Obesity b. Radiation injury 3. Reactive oxygen species c. Chemical injury 4. Low oxygen to tissues d. Biologic agents 5. Fractures e. Nutritional imbalances 6. OTC drugs f. Free radical injury 7. Hypothermia g. Hypoxic cell injury 8. Radiation treatment 9. Lead toxicity 10. Bacteria Sunburn Obesity Reactive oxygen species Low oxygen to tissues Fractures OTC drugs Hypothermia Correct Answer a. Physical agents Radiation treatment Lead toxicity Bacteria Question 18 10 / 10 pts List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each. The 4 types of tissues found in the body are 1. epithelial tissue 2. connective tissue 3. muscle tissue 4. nerve tissue Muscle tissue function to provide movement to skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract blood vessels and visceral organs. An example of a muscle tissue is skeletal muscle. Nerve tissue is found throughout the body, and is used in communication between peripheral tissues and the central nervous system. An example of a nervous tissue cell is neuron Epithelial tissue covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue. Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane. It is avascular, meaning without blood vessels. It receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests. Connective or supportive tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body. It connects and binds or supports the various tissues. Its cells produce the extracellular matrix that support and hold tissues together. Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells). The four types of connective tissue proper are loose (areolar), adipose, reticular, and dense connective tissue. The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs. Muscle tissue can accomplish this by contraction. The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments. Thin filaments are called actin, and the thick filaments are myosin. The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $18.45
- 0
- 108
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM 1 2022/2023- VERIFIED Q&A
Final Exam- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Score for this quiz: 190.5 out of 200 Submitted Apr 8 at 4:46pm This attempt took 99 minutes. Questi... [Show More] on 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful circumstances. True Correct! False Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. Correct! True False Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply. Correct! It is involved in cellular respiration They are found far from the site of energy consumption Correct! They play a role in apoptosis They control free radicals Question 4 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply. Correct! Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within The main structural component is made of proteins Correct! Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells Correct! Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation Question 5 10 / 10 pts Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis. Your Answer: Dry gangrene occurs when blood supply is slowly reduced to an area. The area is dehydrated and becomes dark or black in color. Commonly seen in patients with diabetes. It is not very painful, but tissues eventually die. Wet gangrene is casued with a sudden reduction in blood flow. The area is cold and swollen, with no pulse. This can occur from trauma. Bacteria is involved and is very painful. It has the appearance of pus, becasue it looks wet. There is also a foul smell. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True Correct! False False, cell differentiation Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. True Correct! False False, cell proliferation Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts What are two important properties that stem cells possess? Your Answer: Stem cells possess potency and self-renewal. Potency and self-renewal Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts These are cells of the same lineage that have not yet differentiated to the extent that they have lost their ability to divide: Your Answer: progenitor or parent cells progenitor or parent cells Question 10 10 / 10 pts 1. ______ is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites. 2. The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as _______. Your Answer: 1. chemotherapy 2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome 1. chemotherapy 2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome Question 11 5 / 5 pts Short answer Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders. Your Answer: There are about 80 autoimmune disorders identified, with many overlapping presentations. Blood tests can be more generic and results are imprecise. Markers can be elevated in the presecence of other diseases. There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn’t perfect either, as some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases. Question 12 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: The T cells that display the host’s MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed negative selection. True Correct! False Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which lab value will typically be increased in a viral infection? Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Correct! Lymphocytes Question 14 10 / 10 pts A 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) What symptoms might he present with? (2) Does the quantity of exposure mean he will have a more severe reaction? (3) What is the initial immediate treatment? (4) What are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always carry? Your Answer: 1) Shortness of breath, skin redness/hives, GI discomfort such as cramping, nausau. 2) Does NOT play a role 3) epinephrine 4) idenitification of the allergy and EpiPen (1) Any of the following reactions are accepted. Grade I: erythema and urticaria, with or without angioedema. Grade II: hypotension, tachycardia, dyspnea, and GI manifestations, like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping from mucosal edema. Grade III: bronchospasm, cardiac dysrhythmias, and cardiac collapse. Grade IV: cardiac arrest (2) No (3) Epinephrine (4) identification about allergy, EpiPen Question 15 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: A 23-year-old African-American man with a history of severe lifelong anemia requiring many transfusions has nonhealing leg ulcers and recurrent periods of abdominal and chest pain. These signs and symptoms are most likely to be associated with which one of the following laboratory abnormalities? Correct Answer Sickle cells on peripheral blood smear Loss of intrinsic factor You Answered Decreased erythropoietin Decreased ferritin Question 16 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? Dietary deficiencies are not common Peripheral neuropathy can be a result of deficiency Vitamin B12 is bound to intrinsic factor Correct! MCV is decreased Question 17 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except? Obesity Diabetes mellitus High cholesterol diet Correct! Autosomal dominant disorder of LDL receptor Question 18 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except: Correct! HDL > 60 Smoking Hypertension Family history of heart disease Question 19 10 / 10 pts Patient is found to have the above: 1. What risk factors mostly led to this disease state? 2. What is this person at risk for developing? 3. What lifestyle modifications would you suggest for them? Your Answer: 1) Smoking, poor diet, hyperlipidemia, obesity, diabetes, increased age 2) Coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction 3) Stop smoking, healthy diet, lose weight/exercise, take medications Answer: Picture is of an atherosclerotic plaque 1. Hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, obesity and visceral fat, hypertension, diabetes mellitus. Increasing age, family history of premature CHD, and male sex. May also include C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum lipoprotein(a). 2. Coronary artery disease, angina, myocardial infarction, aneurysm, stroke (ischemia, thrombosis, emboli). 3. Stop smoking, lose weight/exercise, healthy diet (low-fat, low-cholesterol), adhere to medication for blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and/or diabetes. Question 20 5 / 5 pts _____ is the transfer of gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries. Your Answer: diffusion Diffusion Question 21 5 / 5 pts Multiple Choice: Each of the following can lead to atelectasis except: Pleural effusion Tumor mass Correct! Thrombus Mucous plug Question 22 8 / 10 pts Short answer: A 10-year-old boy who is having an acute asthma attack is brought to the ER. He is observed to be sitting up and struggling to breathe. His breathing is accompanied by use of accessory muscles, a weak cough, and audible wheezing sounds. His pulse is rapid and weak, and both heart and breath sounds are distant on auscultation. His parents relate that his asthma began to worsen after he developed a “cold,” and now he doesn’t get relief from his albuterol inhaler. Explain the changes in physiologic function underlying his signs and symptoms. Your Answer: In asthma patients, airways begin to narrow. A trigger, such as a cold virus, can start a cascade of inflammatory cells to cause epithelial injury, resulting in airway inflammation. With severe airway inflammation, patient is experiencing remodeling, which is development of specific structural changes in the airway wall. Recruitment of inflammatory cells from the bloodstream into the bronchial wall, where they directly attack the invading organisms and secrete inflammatory chemicals that are toxic to the organisms causes airway inflammation. Swelling of the bronchial wall, mucus secretion, constriction of the airway; bronchial hyper-responsiveness to stimuli causes airway obstruction or narrowing. They may discuss on a cellular level as well: Upon a trigger, the cascade of neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, and mast cells cause epithelial injury. This causes airway inflammation, which further increases hyperresponsiveness and decreased airflow. Mast cells release histamine and leukotrienes. These cause major bronchoconstriction, inflammation, and mucus secretion. Mast cells can trigger multiple cytokine release, which causes more airway inflammation. The contraction of the airways and subsequent swelling leads to further airway obstruction. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $17.45
- 0
- 126
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 4 Exam
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 4 Exam Module 4 Exam - Requires Respondus LockDown Browser + Webcam ... [Show More] Question 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following increases the chance of clotting? Select all that apply. Thrombocytopenia Correct! Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply. Correct! Correct! Correct! Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following is NOT a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply. Question 4 0 / 2.5 pts Which of the following are TRUE of hemophilia A? Select all that apply. Correct! u Answered rrect Answe Question 5 2.5 / 2.5 pts Well-known causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) include each of the following conditions except: Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following does NOT affect the heart’s ability to increase its output? Correct! Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following is true of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the kidneys Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which of the following terms refers to the pressure the heart must generate to move blood into the aorta? Correct! Question 9 0 / 2.5 pts Question 10 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice What are the two most common causes of macrocytic anemia? Correct! Question 11 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following is FALSE regarding sickle cell disease? Correct! Question 12 0 / 2.5 pts Question 13 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT true of thalassemias? Question 14 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except? Correct! Question 15 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 16 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Risk factors for atherosclerosis include each of the following except: Correct! Cigarette smoking Question 17 0 / 10 pts 1. The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2) include each of the following except: a. Diastolic pressure b. Heart rate c. Left ventricular contractility d. Systolic pressure Fill in the Blank: 2. is the most important factor in myocardial oxygen demand. As this increases, myocardial oxygen consumption or demand also increases. Multiple Choice: 3. What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock? a. Heart failure b. Cardiomyopathy c. Myocardial infarction d. Hypertension Multiple Choice: 4. Which does NOT occur during cardiogenic shock? a. Decreased cardiac output b. Hypotension c. Hypoperfusion d. Decreased systemic vascular resistance Your Answer: Question 18 10 / 10 pts Explain the differences in the pathophysiology, symptoms, and whether nitroglycerin and/or rest will relieve symptoms in stable angina, unstable angina, and myocardial infarction. Your Answer: artherscloes disease cornary vessel become norrow and the blood supply to the diminish, with extertion vessel cant vasodilate, therefore PT feels pain in the chest and short breath , that is what stable angina is. stable angina the heart is at rest but cant keep up the demand extertion. stable angina typically >70% stenosis cornary artries, it can be relieve with rest or nitroglyclcerin unstable agina is with increase occlusion cornary vessel demand with heart at rest may become to great.when the PT experience angina without extertion that is unstable angina. unstable angiona means one more cornary arties are nearly or totaly occluded res is unsufficeint but nitrogycycerin can releive myocardial infraction is cause by when plaque repture cornary thrombosis can cause complete occlosusion.if the collrate flow is not the tissue supplied vessel become ischemd with oxygen and portion of the heart muscle can die that is the couse of MI. the symptoms of the heart attack are pain in the jow lefts side pain that can raidiate to the left hand nusea/vomating , shortness ofbreath crushin pain in the chest, women can feel fatigue, weekness, also GI complain, it canot be relieve with nitrglyclerin With atherosclerotic disease, the coronary vessel lumens are narrowed and blood supply to the heart is diminished. With exertion, the vessels cannot adequately vasodilate. This can manifest as chest pain or tightness and/or shortness of breath. Stable angina- The heart is stable at rest but cannot keep up with the demand of exertion. Stable angina typically has a >70% stenosis of the coronary arteries. It is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin (vasodilator). Unstable angina- With increasing occlusion of the coronary vessel(s), the demands of the resting heart may become too great. When the patient experiences angina without exertion, or when the level of exertion necessary to cause anginal symptoms decreases, this is called unstable angina. It can be relieved by nitroglycerin, but not rest. Unstable angina means one or more coronary vessels is nearly totally occluded. Myocardial infarction- If a plaque ruptures, coronary thrombosis can cause complete occlusion. If collateral flow is inadequate, the tissue supplied becomes ischemic. Without oxygen, a portion of the muscle can die. MI can present as chest pain unrelieved by rest, sometimes radiating down the left ram or into the jaw or neck, dyspnea, nausea/vomiting, sweating, and/or other signs of distress. Other symptoms include a crushing pain or like “something is sitting on my chest.” Women may present with weakness, fatigue, shortness of breath, or GI complaints. Symptoms are not relieved by nitroglycerin. Question 19 5 / 10 pts Question 20 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 21 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 22 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 23 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: With atherosclerotic disease, the coronary vessel lumens are narrowed and blood supply to the heart is diminished. With exertion, the vessels cannot adequately vasodilate. This can manifest as chest pain or tightness and/or shortness of breath. What is this referred to as? Correct! Question 24 2.5 / 2.5 pts Correct! Question 25 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which arrhythmias are dangerous because of severely reduced diastolic time and cardiac output? Select all that apply. Correct! Correct! Question 26 2.5 / 2.5 pts Fill in the blank: Approximately 55% of blood volume consists of Your Answer: plasma . Question 27 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes due to ventricular arrhythmias? Question 28 7.5 / 10 pts A 45-year-old man has a blood pressure at a screening program of 142/90. His father has a history of hypertension and heart attack. His grandfather died of a stroke. He is 20 lbs overweight, likes eating salty foods, and enjoys drinking beer. He states he is too tired and busy to exercise. 1. According to JNC 8 guidelines, what category does this patient’s blood pressure fall into? 2. What is hypertension a risk factor for? 3. What lifestyle modifications would you suggest for them? 4. Name one medication therapy for hypertension and its mechanism of action. Your Answer: his family has historty stroke,he is over weight, male, and 45 years with stage 2 high BP with bad diet and lack of activity, I think he is living in a very dengerous life, therefore i would advise him as folllow 1- stop eating food with high in salt 2- change your diet and eat better food increase fruit, veggies, low fat, food 3 add physical activity daily to your life 4- lose weight 5- colsult with health care and get medication to control you BP, for example lisobrol 6- I will tell him that he is in high risk for sroke ,and MI, kidney disease Quiz Score: 70 out of 100 [Show Less]
- Exam
- $16.45
- 0
- 81
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 2 Exam 2022/2023
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 2 Exam module 2 Exam Question 1 3 / 3 pts True/False: Blood tests for... [Show More] tumor markers can make a diagnosis of cancer. Why or why not? Your Answer: it is false because,levels are elevated under the bening condition, however the most levels are not elevated in early stages of malignant False, only tissue can diagnose. Tumor markers are helpful to assess response to therapy or reoccurrence. Question 2 3 / 3 pts What is the most important procedure in diagnosing the correct cancer and histology? Your Answer: tissue biopsy tissue biopsy Question 3 2 / 4 pts 1. List two signs or symptoms a patient may present with that might indicate a cancer diagnosis: 2. What are two systemic manifestations of cancer exhibited by cancer patients? Your Answer: pain and bleeding weight loss and hair loss, 1. Bleeding; sore that doesn’t heal; fluid in the pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal spaces; chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, abdominal discomfort or swelling. Other possible answers can include a mass or lump, pain (need to be specific), fatigue, fevers, weight loss 2. Weight loss, wasting of body fat and muscle tissue, weakness, anorexia, and anemia, fatigue, sleep disturbances Question 4 10 / 10 pts Explain the TNM system: Your Answer: TNM system is divided 3 stages to dignose cancer, T- is the shape and location of the primary tumor N- is envolment of the lymp nodes M- is the extend of matastatic envelment T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor. N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes. M is the extent of the metastatic involvement. Question 5 9 / 10 pts 1. When would surgery be appropriate in the treatment of cancer? 2. Most chemotherapeutic drugs cause pancytopenia due to bone marrow suppression. What are the 3 possible adverse outcomes of this? Your Answer: surgery is the is the first treatment of solid tumor when it has well deferentiated margin, it can be remove completely, or oncology emergancy and prophalcit surgery for high risk PT neutropenia , risk of infection anamia ,fatigue thromyopenia risk of bleeding 1. Surgery is often the first treatment for solid tumors. If the tumor is small with well-defined margins, it can be removed completely. It is also used for oncologic emergencies and prophylactic surgery in high risk patients. 2. Neutropenia- risk for infections Anemia- causing fatigue Thrombocytopenia- risk for bleeding Correct! Correct! Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts What are two important properties that stem cells possess? Your Answer: self renewal potncy Potency and self-renewal Question 9 0 / 2.5 pts These are cells of the same lineage that have not yet differentiated to the extent that they have lost their ability to divide: Your Answer: angiogenesis progenitor or parent cells Question 10 3 / 4 pts Define polyp. Are they benign or malignant? Your Answer: they project from the mecousas of in the intestine, they are fingerlike and project, they are bening A polyp is a growth that projects from a mucosal surface, such as the intestine. A polyp can be benign or malignant Question 11 3 / 3 pts What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? Your Answer: protoocongenes protooncogenes Question 12 3 / 3 pts What is a tumor suppressor gene? Give one example. Your Answer: tumer supress gene slows the cell division, repair DNA mistakes, also play role by inhibiting the proleferation of the cell example is brca1 and 2 , tp 53 Tumor suppressor genes are associated with gene underactivity. These genes slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die. BRCA1 or 2, TP53 Question 13 7 / 10 pts A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant tumor. Your Answer: bening has well differentaited ,grows by expansion, progress slow, does not metastasis, does not cause problem , unles its compressing blood vessels or the brain malignant invades surrounding tissue and oragan, grows rapidly, spread, can matastasis can cause cancer, c and invade other organs and tissue and its very dengerous Leiomyoma is a benign tumor. (Leiomyosarcoma is malignant) Student can add any of the following: Benign tumors are well-differentiated cells, resemble the cells of tissues of origin, and have a slow, progressive rate of growth. They grow by expansion and remain localized to their site of origin, not capable of metastasizing. They develop a rim of connective tissue around the tumor called a fibrous capsule, which aids in surgical removal. Benign tumors are less of a threat unless they interfere with vital functions Malignant neoplasms invade and destroy tissue. They grow rapidly, spread to other parts of the body, and lack well- defined margins. They can compress blood vessels and outgrow their blood supply, causing ischemia and tissue injury. Surgery can be more difficult if it has spread. Question 14 10 / 10 pts A 62-year-old man with a 30-pack year smoking history is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer with metastasis to the bone. (1) Explain the process of how cancer spreads metastatically. (2) What symptoms might he have presented with? (3) Which screening test would he have benefited from? Your Answer: first matastasisng cancer cell must break lose, and invade the surounding extra cellualr matrix to get acecess blod vessels,to gorw, then it must survive through the blood stream until it comes up a favorable location to deveopl the blood supply and invade the surounding tissue 2- coughing, shortness breath bone pain 3- yearly shows los dose chest CT (1) Metastasis- a cancer cell must break loose from the primary tumor, invade the surrounding extracellular matrix, gain access to a blood vessel, survive its passage in the bloodstream, emerge at a favorable location, invade the surrounding tissue, begin to grow, and establish a blood supply. (2) Chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, bone pain. (3) Yearly low-dose chest CT. Correct! Correct! Correct! Correct! Correct! List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module. Your Answer: obisity radation cancer causing agents envirnmental agent heredity hormonal Heredity, hormonal factors, obesity, immunologic mechanisms, environmental agents such as chemicals, radiation, and cancer-causing viruses. Question 18 10 / 10 pts 1. is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites. 2. The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as . Your Answer: chemotherapy cancer anorexia cachexia syndrome 1. chemotherapy 2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome Correct! Correct! Correct! Question 20 3.5 / 3.5 pts Correct! Question 21 3 / 3 pts List one example of screening for each method: observation, palpation, and lab test/procedure: Your Answer: abservation, skin mouth palpation, thyroid, rectum lab test, pap smear, mommogarphy Observation: skin, mouth, external genitalia Palpation: breast, thyroid, rectum and anus, prostate, lymph nodes Laboratory tests and procedures: Pap smear, colonoscopy, mammography Quiz Score: 90.5 out of 100 [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.45
- 0
- 108
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 6 Exam 2022/2023
Portage Learning NURS 231 Pathophysiology Module 6 Exam Module 6 Exam - Requires Respondus LockDown Browser + Webcam Due No du... [Show More] e date Points 100 Questions 27 Time Limit 90 Minutes Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Attempt History Generalized tonic/clonic seizure Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: You are seeing a patient with Parkinson’s disease in your office. You notice they are repetitively rubbing their right thumb and forefinger. This is an example of what physical manifestation of the disease? Question 5 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Insomnia is characterized by each of the following except: Question 11 2.5 / 2.5 pts Question 13 2 / 2 pts Fill in the blank: _________ control the bodily response to sensory input internally and externally. Your Answer: interneurons Question 14 0 / 2 pts Question 15 0 / 2 pts Fill in the blank: _______ is sleep disordered breathing caused by airway obstruction. Your Answer: airway obstructive disorer OBS Question 16 0 / 2 pts Fill in the blanks: _______ is the precursor for ______ that crosses the blood brain barrier making it the drug of choice for treatment of Parkinson’s disease. Your Answer: dopamergic cholinergenic Question 17 2 / 2 pts Fill in the blank: Specialized ependymal cells that project into the ventricles and produce CSF are called the ______. Your Answer: Question 19 5 / 5 pts Question 18 5 / 5 pts T/F – Make true if False Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS. Your Answer: False shcawnn cell produce mylin in the PNS Question 20 5 / 5 pts T/F – Make true if False Brain activity is decreased during REM sleep. Your Answer: false brain activity increase Question 22 5 / 5 pts Question 21 5 / 5 pts T/F – Make true if False Someone in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease requires assistance for their activities of daily living. Your Answer: false someone in the early stages of alZaheimers disease does not need assitance in thier daily activities . However severe or last stage alZheimers requires assistance activity of daily living Question 23 4.5 / 5 pts Question 24 1 / 5 pts Short Answer Essay Compare and Contrast breathing patterns between NREM and REM sleep (include a discussion on the specific stages of NREM sleep.) Your Answer: Question 25 5 / 5 pts rem sleep is count 20-25% of total sleep, it has rapir eye movemment muscal tone and dreamin are decreased during this phase of sleep.also incominf sensory are blocked, brain cant process it. however the sensory tracts stimulate prevepusly formed can be reply in one's minds. incontrast nrem sleepthe vital sings such as heart beat, blood pressure, repiratory, are high.study show spending edaquate time in rem sleep is necessarry for normal psychologically, and phsylogically during period wakefulness. Deprivation of REM sleep is associated with axiety problems decrease, concertration,and behavior changes. Nrem sleep has 4 stages ; stage1 alpha waves are pressent where some is fallinf sleep caneasily be waking up by noise, also can feel jolliting movement stage 2 theta waves present persent feels aslo sleep spindle stage 3 and 4 delta waves, stage 3 is very short time maybe 4 min, then we transition to stage 4 stage 1&2 is were dreams happend 3&4 nightmeres Answer: In stages 1 and 2 NREM sleep as well as in REM sleep, breathing is irregular, and brief periods of apnea are often observed (approximately 5-15 seconds.) During stages 3 and 4 of deep sleep, breathing becomes regular. Short Answer Essay A patient reports to the emergency department where you are working at 10 pm. They report that earlier in the day beginning at approximately 9 am they began to experience tingling in their right arm. They decided to ignore it thinking it was probably a result of all the gardening they did the day before. As the day went on, the tingling sensation got worse, and they started to have difficulty speaking. The patient’s spouse reported that they were slurring their words. Past medical history includes a diagnosis of diabetes and hypercholesteremia. By the time they are evaluated, their symptoms start to subside. The tingling disappears and their speech returns to normal. What do you suspect this patient has experienced? What evidence is there to support that diagnosis? Your Answer: accoring to thier PMH Patien was expereincing TIA , 02 depreviation since the symptoms subsided within 24hrs, that is hallmark sign of TIA, which is warning sign that is not to be ignorned,becuase the underlying pathology such as Athersclerosis, the patien is a high risk for having a storke in the near feature so the medical team should be educating the PT how to prevent that, and start living a healthier lifestyle. Answer: This patient has experienced a TIA. They have experienced symptoms consistent with oxygen deprivation to the brain, however their symptoms subsided within 24 hours of their onset. Question 26 10 / 10 pts Long Answer Essay A 72-year-old female is brought to the emergency department via ambulance at 9 am. Her husband reports that they were eating breakfast and she started to complain of a severe headache and blurred vision. She then lost consciousness, and he immediately called 911. She has a history of hypertension, and she is not compliant with her medication because she does not like the way it makes her feel. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment. Your Answer: I would suspecting PT is having Hemorrhagic storke, she needs a CT and MRI to ditermined. If she is indeed having a Hemmorrhagic storke. then if the tes is comfirmed that she is having Hemmorrhagig sroke. she can be giving medication to stop the bleeding or surgery. if she is on blood thiner meds. she can be giving drugs that can be counteract to her meds. if not, she will be giving medication that will lower the pressure in her intracranial pressure, and blood pressure medicin, and drugs to contorl the risk of seizure. if the bleeding is severe. she may need a sergury. (open skull) to remove the enuersym AVM Answer: This patient is more than likely experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke given the sudden onset of her symptoms and the PMH of uncontrolled hypertension. A CT scan would be needed to determine if a hemorrhage has occurred. Once this is determined the goal of treatment is to stop bleeding and decrease intracranial pressure. This can be done through medication that would decrease blood pressure and intracranial pressure. A craniotomy can be done should medication not work, or the bleeding is severe. Other surgical methods may be utilized if the bleed is a result of an aneurysm or AVM. Question 27 7 / 10 pts Long Answer Essay You are seeing a patient in your office with a primary complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness. Their spouse reports that they snore loudly and often wake up gasping for air. What type of sleep disorder do you suspect they are experiencing (be specific)? What type of diagnostic work up needs to be done? Name one treatment option to address this patient’s symptoms. Your Answer: Quiz Score: 86.5 out of 100 [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.45
- 0
- 80
Purchase the bundle to get the full access instantly
- 3 Million+ Study Documents
- 100% Money Back Guarantee
- Immediate Download Access
Add To Cart
Reviews 0
Bundle Details
$50.45
- Trusted by 800,000+ Students
- 24/7 Money Back Guarantee
- Download is directly available
112
0
Seller Details
Beginner
Reviews received
