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AAMC MCAT Practice Exam 2 fully solved 2023
C/P: What expression gives the amount of light energy (in J per photon) that is converted to other forms between the fluorescence excitation and emission e... [Show More] vents? "intensity of fluorescence emission at 440 nm excitation at 360 nm) was monitored for 20 minutes" A) (6.62 × 10-34) × (3.0 × 108) B) (6.62 × 10-34) × (3.0 × 108) × (360 × 10-9) C) (6.62 × 10-34) × (3.0 × 108) × [1 / (360 × 10-9) - 1 / (440 × 10-9)] D) (6.62 × 10-34) × (3.0 × 108) / (440 × 10-9) - correct answer C) (6.62 × 10-34) × (3.0 × 108) × [1 / (360 × 10-9) - 1 / (440 × 10-9)] The answer to this question is C because the equation of interest is E = hf = hc/λ, where h = 6.62 × 10 −34 J ∙ s and c = 3 × 10 8 m/s. Excitation occurs at λe = 360 nm, but fluorescence is observed at λf = 440 nm. This implies that an energy of E = (6.62 × 10 −34) × (3 × 10 8) × [1 / (360 × 10 −9) − 1 / (440 × 10 −9)] J per photon is converted to other forms between the excitation and fluorescence events. C/P: Compared to the concentration of the proteasome, the concentration of the substrate is larger by what factor? "purified rabbit proteasome (2 nM) was incubated in the presence of porphyrin...the reaction was initiated by addition of the peptide (100 uM)" A) 5 × 101 B) 5 × 102 C) 5 × 103 D) 5 × 104 - correct answer D) 5 × 104 The answer to this question is D. The proteasome was present at a concentration of 2 × 10-9 M, while the substrate was present at 100 × 10-6 M. The ratio of these two numbers is 5 × 104. sp2 hybridized - correct answer possess exactly one doubly bonded atom C/P: The concentration of enzyme for each experiment was 5.0 μM. What is kcat for the reaction at pH 4.5 with NO chloride added when Compound 3 is the substrate? Rate of reaction = 125 nM/s A) 2.5 × 10-2 s-1 B) 1.3 × 102 s-1 C) 5.3 × 103 s-1 D) 7.0 × 105 s-1 - correct answer A) 2.5 × 10-2 s-1 The answer to this question is A. The fact that the rate of product formation did not vary over time for the first 5 minutes implies that the enzyme was saturated with substrate. Under these conditions, kcat = Vmax/[E] = (125 nM/s)/5.0 μM = 2.5 × 10-2 s-1. kcat, Vmax, [E] - correct answer kcat = Vmax/[E] C/P: Absorption of ultraviolet light by organic molecules always results in what process? A) Bond breaking B) Excitation of bound electrons C) Vibration of atoms in polar bonds D) Ejection of bound electrons - correct answer B) Excitation of bound electrons The answer to this question is B. The absorption of ultraviolet light by organic molecules always results in electronic excitation. Bond breaking can subsequently result, as can ionization or bond vibration, but none of these processes are guaranteed to result from the absorption of ultraviolet light. C/P: Four organic compounds: 2-butanone, n-pentane, propanoic acid, and n-butanol, present as a mixture, are separated by column chromatography using silica gel with benzene as the eluent. What is the expected order of elution of these four organic compounds from first to last? A) n-Pentane → 2-butanone → n-butanol → propanoic acid B) n-Pentane → n-butanol → 2-butanone → propanoic acid C) Propanoic acid → n-butanol → 2-butanone → n-pentane D) Propanoic acid → 2-butanone → n-butanol → n-pentane - correct answer A) n-Pentane → 2-butanone → n-butanol → propanoic acid The answer to this question is A. The four compounds have comparable molecular weights, so the order of elution will depend on the polarity of the molecule. Since silica gel serves as the stationary phase for the experiment, increasing the polarity of the eluting molecule will increase its affinity for the stationary phase and increase the elution time (decreased Rf). C/P: The half-life of a radioactive material is: A) half the time it takes for all of the radioactive nuclei to decay into radioactive nuclei. B) half the time it takes for all of the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei. C) the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into radioactive nuclei. D) the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei. - correct answer D) the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei. The answer to this question is D because the half-life of a radioactive material is defined as the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei, which may or may not also be radioactive. C/P: A person is sitting in a chair. Why must the person either lean forward or slide their feet under the chair in order to stand up? A) to increase the force required to stand up B) to use the friction with the ground C) to reduce the energy required to stand up D) to keep the body in equilibrium while rising - correct answer D) to keep the body in equilibrium while rising The answer to this question is D because as the person is attempting to stand, the only support comes from the feet on the ground. The person is in equilibrium only when the center of mass is directly above their feet. Otherwise, if the person did not lean forward or slide the feet under the chair, the person would fall backward due to the large torque created by the combination of the weight of the body (applied at the person's center of mass) and the distance along the horizontal between the center of mass and the support point. C/P: The side chain of tryptophan will give rise to the largest CD signal in the near UV region when: A) present as a free amino acid B) part of an a-helix C) part of a B-sheet D) part of a fully folded protein - correct answer D) part of a fully folded protein The answer to this question is D because tryptophan has an aromatic side chain that will give rise to a significant CD signal in the near UV region if it is found in a fully folded protein. C/P: Which amino acid will contribute to the CD signal in the far UV region, but NOT the near UV region, when part of a fully folded protein? "Asymmetry resulting from tertiary structural features causes the largest increase in CD signal intensity in the near UV region of peptides. The side chains of amino acid residues absorb in this region. The peptide bond absorbs in the far UV region (190-250 nm). The CD signals of these bonds are dramatically impacted by their proximity to secondary structural elements." [Show Less]
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AAMC Sample Test question with complete solution 2023
How many stereoisomers of Compound 1 exist? - correct answer Missed this question because I did not accurately count the stereo centers. There are 5. ... [Show More] Using the 2^n rule, 32 stereoisomers can be calculated. What happens when concentrations are greater than the ksp? - correct answer Precipitate forms The peptide bond between which two amino acid residues is cleaved by HIV protease? - correct answer Missed this question because I did not recognize the structure of proline in the diagram. Proline has a closed 5 ring structure including the Nitrogen. Which image best illustrates the electric field lines between the inside of an axon and the surrounding extracellular solution? - correct answer Axons at rest have negative membrane voltage, meaning that the intracellular side is negatively charged and the extracellular side is positively charged. Electric field lines go positive to negative, so the arrows need to point into the axon. Channel X transmits only the smallest substances dissolved in the extracellular fluid through the axon membrane. Which substance does Channel X transmit? A.Proteins B.Sodium ions C.Potassium ions D.Chloride ions - correct answer Correct! Sodium ions. You got this right because you used the periodic table which according the explanation is a good way of figuring it out. Nice. What information about an axon is required to calculate the current associated with an NCV pulse? A.Conductivity, resistivity, and length B.Potential, conductivity, and radius C.Potential, resistivity, and radius D.Potential, resistance per unit length, and length - correct answer Had literally no idea. Answer is D. This is a question about Ohm's Law I=V/R I = current. V = voltage POTENtIAL R = Resistance per unit LENGTH What is a weak acid? - correct answer This means that the compound only partially ionized to form hydrogen ions. What is a weak base? - correct answer a base that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution to form the conjugate acid of the base and hydroxide ion What is a strong base? - correct answer something that completely associates in a solution [Show Less]
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AAMC Test 3 questions with complete solution 2023 verified
For a thermodynamic mixture of isomeric products - correct answer the relative mole ratio of products is directly related to the relative stability of thes... [Show More] e products
#2. What can be inferred from the results of scheme A about the relative thermodynamic stabilities of Compounds 4a and 4b
A. Compound 4a is less stable than Compound 4b.
B. They are equally stable.
C. Nothing can be inferred about relative thermodynamic stabilities.
D. Compound 4a is more stable than Compound 4b. - correct answer Compound 4a is more stable than 4b
The image shows that 4a is produced 60% and 4b 40%.
--So 4a will be more stable among the two thermodynamic products
#3. Which of the following compounds is most likely to be a major product in step 2 if the aldol condensation is NOT followed by a dehydration reaction? - correct answer Ans in image
--coz if there is no dehydration, then the OH would be present instead of the double bond
#4. Compound X is shown below.(image)
If compound 2 is replaced with compound X, what will be the structure of the final product in steps 1 and 2? (Note: assume that the yields of steps 1 and 2 are not affected by substitution) - correct answer Ans in image
--coz this is the product of Michael addition followed by intramolecular aldol condensation (Robinson annulation)
#5. What is the total amount of charge and energy, respectively, that the capacitor will store if it is connected to the battery on the railcar? - correct answer 1.20C and 7.20J
C=Q/V
Energy stored by a capacitor = Ue = (1//2)CV^2 = (1/2)QV = (1/2)Q^2V
Given
V= 12V
C = 100 x 10^-3 F
Q = VC = (12)(100 x 10^-3) = 1.20 C
Ue = (1/2)QV = (1/2)(1.20)(12) = 7.20J
#6. Suppose that the railcar passes by a horn that is emitting a sound with a frequency f. Which of the following describes f' that the person on the railcar hears? - correct answer f' > f before passing the horn, f' < f after passing it
Due to doppler effect, the frequency that the person on the railcar hears before passing the horn is larger than the actual frequency of the sound emitted, while the person hears a frequency lower than the actual frequency after passing the horn
--Before passing the horn, the object(rail car) is coming closer to the source (horn) so f'>f
--After passing the horn, the object(railcar) is moving away from the source (horn) so f
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FL 5 AAMC MCAT question with complete solution 2023
What is the chemical structure of a component found in four of the five cofactors used by Na+-NQR? - correct answer says it is composed of flavin structu... [Show More] re is a nucleotide base structure B could be structure C also could be structure D is an amino acid down between B and C to help, look at the captioned note on the table. it says Fl represents flavin which is the redox active center in four of the five cofactors of Na+-NQR C has an ubiquinone AND HERE IS IS MENTIONED THAT UNIQUINONE IS IS A SUBSTATE What is the ratio of cation to enzyme in the spectroelectrochemical experiments described in the passage? - correct answer cation : enzyme passage says Na+NQR was diluted to a final concentration of 0.75 mM in 0.150 molar of the cation ions cation .15 M: The reaction between NADH and ubiquinone is exergonic, but the reaction, when catalyzed by Na+-NQR, does not generate much heat in vivo. What factor accounts for this difference? - correct answer Conservation of energy, it is not created nor destroyed but merely changes forms A. Is not possible, Even if it was heat generation would be larger for a catalyzed rection. C. is impossible, reactants have to be close together to react The movement of a charged particle against its concentration gradient is energetically costly. Two open flasks I and II contain different volumes of the same liquid. Suppose that the pressure is measured at a point 10 cm below the surface of the liquid in each container. How will the pressures compare? - correct answer pressure=pgh g=10 p= density (same liquid so same density) h= 10 cm both have same height so pressure will be the same-- if heights were different pressure would be different Question Which of the following substances is polar? - correct answer If there is a net dipole it is polar Question If all else is held constant, which of the following changes would NOT double the volume of a gas? - correct answer pv=nrt What is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the atom used to produce laser radiations? - correct answer 86Kr+ laser 86= mass Kr has proton number as 36 86-36=50 the cation or anion charge with any element is indicative of the charge aka electron count What is the molecular formula of the heterocyclic aromatic compound pyrrole? - correct answer passage says its a tetra pyrrole so there are 4 carbons The radiation of wavelength 605 nm CANNOT be used to produce the fluorescence radiations depicted in Figure 3 because: - correct answer Maybe if you read the passage for once in your life and not get confident then maybe you wouldn't have to take the exam for a third time Not D because look at the passage not C because of E=hc/lambda (high wavelength low energy) Approximately how many moles of Kr+ are contained in the laser tube at 0°C and 1 atm? - correct answer Have to recognize STP conditions of 0 C and 1 atm (22.4 L) Volume in PV=nrt is in L 1cm^3=1mL The CD spectroscopy signal that was used to generate the data in Figure 1 arises from the chirality of the: - correct answer look for what is chiral B is not C is not D- most beta carbons are not chiral Samples from various time points of the proteolysis of TPMTwt were subjected to SDS-PAGE under reducing conditions. Which figure best depicts the expected appearance of the gel? - correct answer - For proteolysis, the protein is expected to be broken up over time - Small fragments will travel faster in the SDS-PAGE A and B show that they are building up or oligermizing If the combined mass of the TPMT substrate and cofactor was determined before the enzymatically catalyzed reaction and then compared to the combined mass of the product and the cofactor after the reaction, the net change in molecular weight will be: - correct answer Passage says that TPMT is an enzyme (methyltransferase) can also think about the conservation of mass balance equation on products and reactants The structure of Compound 2 is shown. Compound 2 What structural feature(s) is(are) most important to the functioning of this compound as described in the passage? - correct answer - Compound 2 helped extract the receptor - Receptor is MPR (progesterone) steroid is hydrophobic so probably has to do someting with that [Show Less]
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AAMC FL3 BB fully solved 2023 rated A+
Individual M has longer limbs and muscles than Individual N. Both individuals lift the same amount of weight from the ground to their shoulders an equal nu... [Show More] mber of times. If all repetitions were completed in synchrony, which statement about the amount of work completed by the individuals is true? At the end of the workout: A.both individuals will have done the same amount of work because the force was applied for the same duration of time. B.Individual M will have done less work because the object was moved a greater distance. C.Individual N will have done less work because the object was moved a shorter distance. D.Individual M will have done more work because the muscle contracted faster to achieve synchrony with Individual N. passage: The length of a muscle fiber does not contribute to the force it generates. Length, however, is important in determining how much work the muscle can do. Assuming two muscles have the same CSA, the longer muscle would perform more work because work is the product of force times the distance shortened. - correct answer C.Individual N will have done less work because the object was moved a shorter distance. this is stated in the passage. Answer choice D is wrong because work is not dependent on speed. work= force x distance What are the relative potentials for force and power generation by a slow-twitch muscle fiber and a fast-twitch muscle fiber of the same diameter? A.The slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers possess the same potentials for force and power generation. B.The slow-twitch fiber is capable of generating more force than the fast-twitch fiber, while the potential for power generation is the same. C.The fast-twitch fiber is capable of generating more power than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for force generation is the same. D.The fast-twitch fiber is capable of generating more force than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for power generation is the same. passage: certain types of exercise can increase fiber diameter (hypertrophy). This effect is largely limited to fast-twitch fibers. When these fibers are stimulated by anaerobic exercise such as weight lifting or sprinting, the size of myofibrils is increased via enhanced synthesis of contractile proteins. As a result, the fibers exhibit greater contractile strength and, because their fibers hydrolyze ATP at a greater rate, increased power. Fast-twitch fiber metabolism is largely limited to glycolytic pathways. Slow-twitch fibers do not undergo hypertrophy in response to anaerobic exercise. These endurance fibers are adapted for aerobic exercises such as long distance running and cycling and respond with increased oxidative capacity for ATP production. - correct answer C.The fast-twitch fiber is capable of generating more power than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for force generation is the same. this is literally given to you in the passage :) Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur in a muscle fiber that is metabolizing anaerobically? A.Fermentation of glucose to lactic acid B.Phosphorylation of ADP within the electron transport chain C.Depletion of stores of glycogen D.Acidification of the cytoplasm - correct answer electron transport chain will never occur during anaerobic metabolism. it needs oxygen! Assuming the duration of contraction is the same, which point on the power curve corresponds to the LEAST amount of work being done by the muscle? A.Point A B.Point B C.Point C D.Point D - correct answer for this question, we need to think about the work formula. work = force x distance. A has the lowest amount if force. We can also treat velocity on the y axis of the graph as distance as well because the units are meters/second. According to the passage, relative to slow-twitch fibers, fast-twitch fibers are likely to exhibit which property? A.Greater Ca2+-pumping capacity B.Increased capillary density C.More mitochondria D.Higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins - correct answer You know from the passage that fast twice uses anaerobic exercise. this will immediately cross out d and c. capillary density would also be with slow twitch fibers. A is the correct answer because ca2+ pumping capacity would increase because these muscles are faster. Based on the information in the passage, what is the most likely mechanism of inheritance for HPRCC? A.Autosomal dominant B.Autosomal recessive C.X-linked recessive D.Y linked - correct answer C and D are out because there is nothing in the passage to indicate that they are sex linked genes. you read the pedigree wrong :( you can see that the trait is dominant in the first one because 3/4 have the allele while 1 does not. also the parents in the second generation have both unaffected and affected kiddos. this could only be due to a dominant allele. Based on these results, the MET mutation is what type of mutation? A.Purine to purine B.Purine to pyrimidine C.Pyrimidine to purine D.Pyrimidine to pyrimidine - correct answer you see this go from thymine to cytosine which is pyrimidine to pyrimidine. Histidine structure - correct answer basic. has conjugated cyclopentane ring Which amino acid residue is involved in the bond that joins the α and β subunits of HGF? A.A B.C C.S D.Y passage says they are joined together by a disulfide bond - correct answer B. cysteine is the only AA that can make disulfide bonds :) Which of the following animal pairs best illustrates the outcome of convergent evolution? A.The dolphin and the shark B.The domestic sheep and the mountain goat C.The polar bear and the panda bear D.The light-colored and the dark-colored forms of the peppered moth - correct answer Convergent evolution occurs when organisms that are in similar environments have similiar changes happen to them but super different species. POE: C- these species are related. D- this is the same species B- these species are similar This leaves us with A. Sharks are cartilaginous fishies. Dolphins are mammals. These are hella unrelated. convergent evolution - correct answer Process by which unrelated organisms independently evolve similarities when adapting to similar environments Assume that a certain species with sex chromosomes R and S exists such that RR individuals develop as males and RS individuals develop as females. Which of the following mechanisms would most likely compensate for the potential imbalance of sex-chromosome gene products between males and females of this species? A.Inactivation of one R chromosome in males B.Doubling transcription from the S chromosome in females C.Inactivation of the R chromosome in females D.Doubling transcription from the R chromosomes in males - correct answer So let's think about this question this way. Females have a double x chromosome and one is inactivated (barr body). This would also need to occur. A. Kallman Syndrome is a disease in which gonadotropin-releasing hormone producing neurons fail to migrate from the olfactory area to the hypothalamus during embryonic development. Which endocrine axis is disrupted in individuals with Kallman Syndrome? A.The stress axis B.The growth hormone axis C.The thyroid axis D.The reproductive axis - correct answer D. gonadotropin!!! = sex organs Which statement correctly identifies an enzyme involved in DNA replication and describes its primary function? A.Ligase catalyzes the binding of RNA primers to DNA via phosphodiester bonds. B.Primase catalyzes the replacement of RNA primer nucleotides with DNA nucleotides. C.Helicase catalyzes the separation of the parent DNA strands at the origin of replication. D.Topoisomerase catalyzes the joining of adjacent Okazaki fragments into a continuous strand of DNA. - correct answer C.Helicase catalyzes the separation of the parent DNA strands at the origin of replication.---> helices unwinds the strands! A- this is done by dna polymerase B- primases catalyze synthesizing short RNA sequences that are complementary to a single-stranded piece of DNA, which serves as its template. These also make the primers. They do NOT attach the primer. D- topoisomerase relaxes strain! ligase actually joins the okazaki fragments. Overexpression of cFLIP in other cell types will most likely result in: A.decreased apoptosis in response to TNF. [Show Less]
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AAMC FL 3 PS questions & correct answers 2023
A researcher attempts to replicate studies 1 and 2 with a group of 5-year-olds by using simplified versions of the games. Which cognitive limitation is mos... [Show More] t likely to inhibit the participants' performance on the dependent variables? A.Lack of object permanence B.Limited understanding of conservation C.Centration D.Egocentrism - correct answer egocentrism. the study requires the participants to consider other people and egocentrism would stop that. Considering the research on interpersonal attraction, which variable is LEAST likely to predict whether two participants will select each other for a coalition in Study 2? A.The similarity between the participants in terms of activities they enjoy B.The physical attractiveness of the participants C.The number of times the participants have run into each other prior to participating in the study D.The participants' scores on a personality test that assesses neuroticism - correct answer D. neuroticism would not predict interpersonal interaction. Which of the following findings would suggest that the empathy questionnaire is NOT a valid measure? A.A positive correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the perspective taking skills questionnaire B.A negative correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the personal distress questionnaire C.A positive correlation between scores on the empathy questionnaire and the fantasy perspective taking skills questionnaire D.No correlation between the scores on the empathy questionnaire and the amount of money won in the competition trials - correct answer both positive correlations would be good. B because experiencing psychological distress when observing someone in pain is an element of empathy. Which of the following hypothetical findings would best support the researchers' hypothesis? A.Participants who have thicker cortexes show improved performance in both studies. B.Participants who have impairments in recognizing faces perform poorly in Study 2, but not in Study 1. C.Participants with damage to the language centers of the brain have difficulty understanding the rules for the war game in Study 1, but they perform similarly to unimpaired participants in Study 2. D.Participants with damage to a specific region of the cortex have difficulty inferring others' feelings in Study 2, but they perform similarly to unimpaired participants in Study 1. - correct answer A and B are dumb. hypothesis states that empathy and perspective taking are separate skills C- this is talking about language centers and understanding. this answer choice isn't really testing empathy. D- this would be a great way to show that empathy is controlled by a different region of the brain than perspective taking skills. Which term is used to refer to the type of memory phenomenon examined in studies 1 and 2? A.Reproductive memory B.Flashbulb memory C.Prospective memory D.Eidetic memory - correct answer it would be episodic memory. studies 1 and 2 are referring to information of events that are super emotional. The key details assessed in Study 2 were examples of which type of memory? A.Episodic B.Semantic C.Procedural D.Iconic - correct answer Episodic memory. studies were asking specific information about what people were doing. Personal information and recall is episodic memory! eidetic memory - correct answer photographic memory Which statement is the most reasonable explanation for the observation of intrusion errors in Study 2? A.False information was encoded. B.Memory is prospective. C.Memory is reconstructive. D.Repressed information was retrieved. - correct answer the reason for intrusion errors is because memory is reconstructive. Which critique of laboratory research on memory for emotional events is concerned with generalizability? A.Potential confounding variables are not always controlled in laboratory studies. B.Retention tests employed in laboratory studies are usually concerned with factual information rather than emotions. C.The intensity of emotional responses is more accurately measured after the event in laboratory studies. D. Memories and emotional experiences in real life are very different from those generated in laboratory studies. - correct answer D. Memories and emotional experiences in real life are very different from those generated in laboratory studies. generalizability---> refers to external validity. out of all of these d makes the most sense. also don't be stupid. look for the critique! external validity - correct answer extent to which we can generalize findings to real-world settings The finding from Study 3 regarding the differential effect of emotional arousal on memory for central and peripheral details is best explained by which mechanism? Increasing emotional arousal: A.causes a restriction of the focus of attention. B.improves memory, but only up to an optimal level of arousal. C.impairs the encoding of peripheral details. D.enhances the retrieval of encoded central details. - correct answer the key point of this question is that it wants the effect of emotional arousal on memory for central AND peripheral DETAILS. A. causes a restriction of the focus of attention. When in doubt, go with the most general answer choice. b----> this is involved in performing a task. NOT memory. The hypothesis (Easterbrook, 1959) that a person will notice information that elicits arousal, but fail to process other information, has been supported by studies in which memory for an (emotional) event's "central" aspects (directly tied to the emotion elicitor) is compared to memory for "peripheral" aspects (removed from the source of the emotional arousal). Thus, memory for the fundamental gist of the emotional event is retained, whereas memory for details (if they are encoded at all) either fades or undergoes changes. Individuals with impaired color perception, such as an inability to distinguish between red and green, are most likely to show improper functioning of which part of the visual system? A.Cones B.Cornea C.Rods D.Sclera - correct answer color= cones The data indicate that: A.the feeding behavior of monkeys was not affected by either prior diet type. B.prior protein insufficiency was a stronger predictor of future feeding behavior than prior protein sufficiency. C.prior feeding history influenced future feeding behavior in monkeys raised on a high-quality protein diet only. D.the feeding behavior was solely determined by both prior diet types. - correct answer So for this question you look at error bars. You see for the low quality group the error bars overlap and would therefore not be significant. However, there is no overlap in the error bars for the high quality food group, which would indicate that there is a significant correlation. this would make c the right answer choice. A 45-year-old man presents himself at a hospital emergency room. Symptoms include a pounding heart, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and feeling dizzy. Medical tests reveal that the man did not have a heart attack. Which psychiatric diagnosis provides the most likely explanation for the man's symptoms? A.Generalized anxiety disorder B.Panic disorder C.Illness anxiety disorder D.Somatic symptom disorder - correct answer Panic disorder. these are all symptoms of a panic disorder. heart attack feeling= panic disorder. panic disorder - correct answer An anxiety disorder marked by unpredictable minutes-long episodes of intense dread in which a person experiences terror and accompanying chest pain, choking, or other frightening sensations. somatic symptom disorder - correct answer this would be talking about symptoms that can't be explained. Every time a volunteer in a sleep study begins to exhibit rapid eye movements (REM), the experimenter wakes the person up. On the following night, when his or her sleep is uninterrupted, the person will most likely: A.have difficulty falling asleep. B.have more REM sleep than usual. C.have less REM sleep than usual. D.have the same sleep pattern as before the study. - correct answer have more REM! this would be REM rebound. Based on Figure 1, the best conclusion is that: A.all therapies are equally effective 6 months after treatment. B.CT has the most promising immediate effects. [Show Less]
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AAMC Situational Judgment Test: Practice Exam Booklet 2023
I - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor,... [Show More] and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Tell your classmate that only the professor is qualified to provide feedback. VE - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor, and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Explain to your professor that you understand you missed some opportunities during the exercise and discuss how to improve. VI - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor, and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Skip the debriefing session because you have already received feedback. VE - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor, and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Ask your classmate how you could improve your performance in the future. I - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor, and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Explain to your professor why you were satisfied with your performance. VE - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor, and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Ask your classmate if they would be willing to practice role playing in advance of your next exercise. VI - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor, and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Ask your classmate not to bring up the negative feedback during your debriefing session. E - correct answer During class, your professor observes you participating in a role-play exercise with one of your classmates. You are acting as a doctor, and your classmate is acting as an angry patient. The role-play is tense but stays on course. You think you performed well, but, after class, your classmate gives you unexpected negative feedback that you missed several opportunities to comfort the patient and calm the situation. You are now expected to attend a debriefing session with your professor. Confirm your classmate's feedback with your professor. VI - correct answer You are pursuing a two-week volunteer opportunity at a well-regarded local clinic. When you receive your course schedule, you realize the volunteer opportunity would conflict with your weekly required lab. This is the only time that the lab is offered this semester, so you are not able to make up the lab. Participation in the lab will count toward your grade. Skip your lab for two weeks to attend the volunteer opportunity. I - correct answer You are pursuing a two-week volunteer opportunity at a well-regarded local clinic. When you receive your course schedule, you realize the volunteer opportunity would conflict with your weekly required lab. This is the only time that the lab is offered this semester, so you are not able to make up the lab. Participation in the lab will count toward your grade. Ask your lab instructor to identify a solution that will allow you to attend both. E - correct answer You are pursuing a two-week volunteer opportunity at a well-regarded local clinic. When you receive your course schedule, you realize the volunteer opportunity would conflict with your weekly required lab. This is the only time that the lab is offered this semester, so you are not able to make up the lab. Participation in the lab will count toward your grade. Stop pursuing the volunteer opportunity so that you can attend the required lab. VI - correct answer You are pursuing a two-week volunteer opportunity at a well-regarded local clinic. When you receive your course schedule, you realize the volunteer opportunity would conflict with your weekly required lab. This is the only time that the lab is offered this semester, so you are not able to make up the lab. Participation in the lab will count toward your grade. Tell your lab instructor in advance that you will miss two of your scheduled lab sessions. VE - correct answer You are pursuing a two-week volunteer opportunity at a well-regarded local clinic. When you receive your course schedule, you realize the volunteer opportunity would conflict with your weekly required lab. This is the only time that the lab is offered this semester, so you are not able to make up the lab. Participation in the lab will count toward your grade. Attend the lab and investigate if similar volunteer opportunities are available at another time. E - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Encourage the group member to speak to the professor about creating a plan to handle their workload. VE - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Meet with the group member one-on-one and ask how you can help them contribute more effectively to the assignment. E - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Meet with your group and evenly divide tasks across all members, making sure expectations are clear. VI - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Ask the professor to assign the group member to a different group. VI - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Work with the other members of your group to complete the assignment without the group member. VI - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Request that your professor grade each group member independently. VE - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Schedule recurring group meetings to review the work completed by each group member. I - correct answer You are assigned to a small group in your clinical skills course. One of your group members has recently struggled with their assignments. The group member is often late to sessions, prepares materials of poor quality, and needs numerous reminders to complete tasks. Your group receives a new assignment that is due in three weeks and will be graded based on the group's overall performance. Tell the group member their lack of accountability places the entire group's performance and grade at risk. VE - correct answer For the past few days, you have been checking up on several patients, including a patient who is recovering from surgery. The patient has been in the hospital for one week and has not [Show Less]
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AAMC FL 2 PS question with 100% correct answers
When comparing the color perception of humans and baboons, similarity in which anatomical structure of the eye is most important? A.Optic disc B.Sclera... [Show More] C.Fovea D.Lens - correct answer color will always be seen more in the fovea because that is where a ton of cones are "During this phase, the target colors included colors all across the blue-green continuum. The response options were always a focal blue and a focal green." - correct answer So when looking at the graph choices, you need to choose the one where there is a continuum because baboons did have some responses to it If the researchers monitored the cortical activity of the baboons as they viewed the color patches, they would most likely find increased activity in the: A.occipital cortex. B.temporal cortex. C.somatosensory cortex. D.motor cortex. - correct answer A. Occipital lobe is where vision information is done Which schedule of reinforcement is used in the color-matching task? A.Fixed ratio B.Variable ratio C.Fixed interval D.Variable interval passage: When a correct response was produced, the subject received a banana chip. When an incorrect response was produced, an aversive procedure was introduced—the screen became black and there was a 20-second delay before the experiment continued. - correct answer A. The passage states that the subjects received a banana chip every time they responded correctly, which is an example of a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. The description of assimilation patterns in the passage (final paragraph) suggests that there is geographic variation in which pair of concepts? A.Social status and roles B.Social and cultural capital C.Cultural values and norms D.Material and symbolic culture Passage: Variation regarding how immigrants adopt the local traditions and behavioral standards in a region can lead to distinct geographic patterns of assimilation. - correct answer assimilation is all about conforming to what the new culture's norms. This goes along with C. Which historical factor primarily accounts for the projected increase in the population aged 65 and older in the United States? A.The increased immigration rate since the 1950s B.The increased fertility rate after World War II C.The sexual revolution of the 1960s and 1970s D.The relative deprivation of the Great Depression - correct answer BABY BOOM :) B. To explain the demographic dynamics in the passage, a conflict theorist is most likely to consider the relationship among which factors? A.Age, medicalization, and the illness experience B.Generational status, social solidarity, and the welfare state C.Age, social isolation, and networks of social support D.Generational status, political power, and resource allocation - correct answer Conflict= power; D. A- social constructivism B- functionalism C- symbolic interactionism (far stretch) The aging of the U.S. population is most likely to increase: A.the dependency ratio. B.the social gradient in health. C.the life course perspective. D.the intersectionality of medicine. - correct answer A. dependency ratio is when there are more elderly or super young people relying on other people who are working Which finding best supports the linguistic relativity hypothesis? A.All languages have a word for "up" and a word for "down." B.Humans are better at learning words for primary colors than for secondary colors. C.Some languages do not have words for "right" and "left." D.Humans are better at distinguishing colors for which their language has a name. - correct answer D. The linguistic relativity hypothesis says that people distinguish things better when they understand it from their language. this correlates with D. source monitoring errors - correct answer misidentifying the origins of our knowledge. Because the old names had a chance to become a part of your memory, you may confuse them with famous names in that you might recognize them (since you've already heard them once). For the new names, you haven't had a chance to associate them with anything or to ingrain them in your memory, so you shouldn't confuse them with the old or famous names. A patient who is experiencing severe marital problems reports having no memory of any life events surrounding the marriage and the spouse. The patient's memory for other life events is intact. This patient is most likely to be diagnosed with: A.a conversion disorder. B.schizophrenia. C.retrograde amnesia. D.a dissociative disorder. - correct answer Key words: patient's memory for other life events is intact. B and A are wrong. When looking at C and D C- you would not have any recollection of old life events. This proves it wrong. D is correct. the patient is selectively forgetting distracting elements of his/her life, indicating a dissociative disorder. Some studies have found that increases in dopamine activity are associated with increased reward-seeking motivation. This finding suggests an association between dopamine levels and which type of learning? A.Classical conditioning B.Operant conditioning C.Latent learning D.Observational learning - correct answer REWARD SEEKING MOTIVATION. Operant conditioning is all about rewards! A- classical conditioning has no rewards C- latent learning happens without rewards D- this occurs without rewards Based on the passage, findings from comparative studies of social mobility have led some scholars to question which aspect of U.S. society? A.Meritocracy B.Socialization C.Social identity D.Cultural capital - correct answer the passage only leads to meritocracy, which assumes that opportunity is based on a combination of talent and effort. Which type of poverty is referenced in the passage? A.Absolute poverty B.Marginal poverty C.Relative poverty D.Structural poverty - correct answer Relative poverty refers to social disadvantage by income or wealth as compared to the social advantages linked to income or wealth in a society. passage specifically discusses social disadvantage Which hypothesis of cultural assimilation, social support, and health outcomes is best supported by the passage information about immigrant groups? More assimilated groups will have: A.lower levels of support and better overall health. [Show Less]
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AAMC FL 1 CARS question with complete solution 2023
Which of the following statements from the passage most strongly indicates that the passage was written prior to the twenty-first century? - correct answer... [Show More] "The regular holding of deliberative assemblies of a thousand members encounters the gravest difficulties in respect of room and distance. . . ." The correct answer is A, because that option clearly reflects an earlier set of technological possibilities. In the twenty-first century, the Internet and other forms of electronic communication would certainly ameliorate "the gravest difficulties" in "holding . . . deliberative assemblies of a thousand members." The sentence in paragraph five that follows the sentence in option A ("Even if we imagined the means of communication . . .") clearly signals as well that the passage was written before the twenty-first century. Honestly no idea why i picked this Which of the following assertions in the passage does the author support with a practical example? - correct answer "[I]t is impossible for the collectivity to undertake the direct settlement of all the controversies that may arise." the question asks which passage assertion is supported with a "practical example." The answer is D because the claim about the impossibility of a "collectivity" settling all of the "controversies that may arise" in a society, is supported by the example (in the final paragraph) of what happens when "Peter wrongs Paul." That example demonstrates why it is absurd to imagine that the entire "collectivity" would be able to examine the circumstances of the controversy and adjudicate it. WIMI: no clue honestly this passage sucked Consider that some groups are defined as "cults"; members of these extremist sects generally live communally and obey an authoritarian, charismatic leader. Assume that all cults have fewer than 100 members. This information would tend to weaken the passage's assertions about the: - correct answer reasonableness of small groups compared to large groups. The answer is D, because the question describes a small group in which people "obey an authoritarian, charismatic leader." In the passage, however, the author claims that a "great multitude" is more likely to succumb to "unreflective enthusiasm . . . than is a small meeting" (paragraph 2). So if the cults that the question describes are small groups of fewer than 100 members, this would weaken passage claims about the more considered behavior of small groups when compared to larger ones. - passage says small areas w big groups have more panic alarms, enthusiasm WIMI: Between A and D pervasiveness - correct answer the quality of spreading widely or being present throughout an area or a group of people. Which of the following facts cited in the passage gives the strongest support for the claim that Portuguese liberals were in the minority politically? - correct answer The commoners were politically conservative. The correct answer is D, because paragraph 2 defines the components of the commoners as a highly inclusive segment of the populace: "peasants, craftspeople, tradespeople, soldiers." The aggregate number of their ranks would, therefore, vastly outnumber the relatively few groups of individuals (including scientists and poets) that comprise the liberal faction alluded to in the passage (paragraph 3). Called them "guardian's of the past" so they were conservative WIMI: stupid mistake The authors imply that the Portuguese ambassador applauded the French National Assembly because of genuine sympathy for their ideals. Alternatively, the ambassador's action could be explained as indicating that: - correct answer living in France, he was in fear of the new revolutionary French government. This is a Reasoning Beyond the Text question as it asks you to identify the novel situation most consistent with passage information. This is the most plausible: pretending support for those with power over you can offer protection from them. Option A is correct the Portuguese ambassador in Paris, who may have read Rousseau or heard Mirabeau, applauded the French National Assembly; WIMI: don't know why they say not to bring outside info in when this one has that The author's analysis of image-making rests on the assumption that a capitalist society separates: - correct answer private perception from social order. it asks you to recognize an implicit assumption on which a passage argument is based. The answer is B. In paragraph 3, the author distinguishes the aesthetic approach from the instrumental approach to image-making. The first is matched up with private perception ("Cameras capture and 'fix' impressions from that mythical space known as private perception"); and the second linked to the social order ("cameras also arm vision in the service of power - of the state. . . ."). In the next paragraph, this dichotomy is described as a capacity to "subjectify" reality and to "objectify it." WIMI: inbetween this answer and my wrong one Which of the following passage assertions suggests most strongly that the author is critical of capitalist society? - correct answer Freedom to consume is equated with freedom itself. A is the correct answer. This statement is made to explain, in a capitalist society, the constant production and consumption of images ("The narrowing of free political choice to free economic consumption [that] requires the constant production and consumption of images" in paragraph 4.) Because the author contends that this increasing supply of images is what leads to the 'disease' of a depleted real world (paragraph 5) and our inability to distinguish between images and real objects (paragraph 6), it does suggest that the author is critical of capitalist society. Freedom or liberty, by definition, entails much more than the right to purchase commodities. WIMI: guessed it but can see why wrong! question asking about capitalist society can eliminate B and D Recent technological developments like high-resolution satellite imagery and diagnostic positron emission tomography (PET scans) have refined and extended the camera's capacity to provide information. Which passage assertion does this information support most strongly? - correct answer Photography can be used to both control and benefit society. Satellite images of offenders such as speeding drivers could, for example, be used to both control (by penalizing offenders) and benefit society (by protecting them from offenders); PET scans could be used to benefit society by revealing information about the human anatomy. Option D is the correct answer. WIMI: stuck between D and A just confused on how PET can be to control a society?? The central thesis of the passage is that class-size reductions: - correct answer can improve academic achievement under some conditions but may not be the most effective way to do so. The answer is A, as the passage argues that while there is some evidence that reductions in class size do improve academic performance, these reductions are shown to be effective "only under certain conditions" (paragraph 2). The author argues that because reductions in class size are more expensive than are some other alternatives for improving academic performance, researchers should do more to compare the costs and benefits of reductions in class size with those of other interventions "before they can make sensible policy decisions" (final paragraph). WIMI: answer i picked was an idea mentioned but not main idea The assertion that reducing class sizes requires more teachers (first paragraph) plays which of the following roles in the passage? - correct answer It provides an explanation for the substantial costs of class-size reductions. The answer is B, because the passage reference to the greater number of teachers required in order to reduce class size comes right after the point that class-size reductions cost "plenty," and implicitly explains what makes them cost so much. WIMI: my answer choice was so stupid; number of teachers isn;t the need for more data --> the cost of having a smaller class is stupid mistake Which of the following findings would most weaken the author's explanation of the observed effects of class-size reductions? - correct answer Class-size reductions in the early grades are effective regardless of whether the teachers use methods well suited to small classes. This is another Reasoning Beyond the Text question, because it asks which situation, listed in the options and not presented in the passage, would have a particular effect (in this case, a weakening effect) on a passage claim. The answer is A, because the author's explanation for improved performance in small classes rests on the fact that "some teachers, who already use methods well suited to smaller classes, do very well when they are actually given small classes." If, however, early grades showed improvements in student performance in smaller classes regardless of teaching techniques, then this would clearly weaken the author's explanation for the effects of class-size reductions. WIMI: WEAKEN!! answer i picked doesnt weaken the claim The passage discussion of local content (paragraph 5) assumes which of the following? - correct answer There is an "artificial boundary between the roles of student and citizen." In paragraph 5, the author advocates a locally-based curriculum that is meant to allow students to do more than study "abstract theories [and] . . . airy generalizations. The author writes that this "rooted education . . . will tend to erase the artificial boundary between the roles of student and citizen." Because the author seeks to erase this boundary, the author must believe that such a boundary has been erected and enforced to begin with. This is a Comprehension question, because it asks you to understand a passage claim and how it functions as part of the author's argument. WIMI: reading comprehension issue Based on the description of performance in the second paragraph of the passage, which of the following occupations is most analogous to professional acting? - correct answer Massage therapist The answer is D, because the passage describes performance as "unusual in that it is a labor process both exhibited before and consumed by an audience. The . . . actor both produces the commodity and embodies it." This is most analogous to a massage therapist, who physically and visibly produces the commodity (the massage) for the consumer. WIMI: paragraph talks about how something is produced, shown off, and then taken in by audience In the passage, the author explains that his focus is different from that of most historians because he: - correct answer deals with the economic realities of the theater. The answer is C because the author writes in the first paragraph that "Most often, historians have allowed the dreams that actors weave to take precedence over the process of weaving." He then goes on to distinguish his own perspective from that of "most" historians, writing, "However, actors' dealings with their employers, like those of many other laborers, were fraught with tension." The rest of the paragraph talks about the economic circumstances confronted by actors and puts that in the context of the economic conditions in the culture industry more broadly. The author's concern with the "economic realities" of actors' lives is part of what makes his work different from that of other historians, according to the passage. WIMI: idk honestly my pick was similar to the correct answer but this is already known by others we want to know what he does The passage offers no information about mambos' and houngans': - correct answer costumes C is the correct answer, because passage information is available about the other options, but there is no information about or even reference to the specific costumes worn by the mambos and houngans. There is a reference to "costume changes" at the end of paragraph 3, but there is no way to know who is wearing these costumes, and there is certainly no information about any costumes specifically worn by mambos or houngans. WIMI: honestly this one was stupid for me to miss PASSAGE TALKS ABOUT BELIEFS BUT NO COSTUMES [Show Less]
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AAMC FL 1 PS question with complete solution 2023
Compared to the simultaneous condition, the serial condition of the experiment would be more likely to cause - correct answer In the serial condition, the ... [Show More] objects are presented to the participants one at a time, which might result in better memory for events at the beginning of the series (a primacy effect). The researchers change the procedure such that instead of placing the objects in a box, the participants have to recall all the objects that they have seen during training. According to the spreading of activation theory, which type of memory error is most likely? - correct answer spreading activation suggests that, when a concept is activated, the activation spreads to concepts that are semantically or associatively related to it. Thus, people often retrieve unpresented members of a category when tested on their memory for a series of presented concepts from that category The findings described in the passage suggest that memory for locations: - correct answer the nine-year-olds performed differently from adults, suggesting that spatial memory keeps undergoing changes after nine years of age. Because this categorical bias was present in adults, spatial memory does not necessarily become more accurate with age. Because world knowledge about categories affects people's judgments of distance, it is not accurate to say that spatial memory relies solely on the recall of distances. The children from the experiment in the passage participate in a separate study using Piaget's water conservation task. They are shown two identical beakers, containing equal amounts of water. The water from one of the containers is poured into a thinner and taller beaker. Which prediction is most likely to be confirmed? - correct answer according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, conservation tasks are mastered during the concrete operations stage, which starts at approximately 7 years and ends around 11 to 12 years. The majority of the 11-year-olds will have completed this stage, which will allow them to judge that pouring water into a taller beaker does not change its quantity Maintenance Factor 1 is most closely related to which approach to psychological disorders? - correct answer The answer to this question is B because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on the role of classical conditioning, which is most closely related to the behaviorist approach. According to Maintenance Factor 1, mild changes in bodily sensations act as: - correct answer mild changes in bodily sensations become cues that are associated with excessive panic. Thus, those mild changes in bodily sensations become conditioned stimuli, which elicit the conditioned fear response For Patient 2, panic attacks act as: - correct answer the panic attacks are adding anxiety and are unpleasant which in turn causes the patient to stop going to meetings. Does that help? The panic attacks don't take away the meetings, they add a level of unpleasantness that causes the patient to stop going to meetings. patient describes the panic attacks as highly aversive and mentions that he no longer goes to meetings for fear of a panic attack. Thus, the frequency of the patient's attendance at meetings has decreased as the result of the panic attacks. Therefore, the panic attacks have been positive punishers Interoceptive awareness involves sensitivity to increases in the activity of the: - correct answer interoceptive awareness is described as increased sensitivity to internal bodily sensations, such as heartbeat and blood pressure, which are regulated by the autonomic nervous system. Which two processes best summarize maintenance factors 1 and 2, respectively? - correct answer Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on classical conditioning of a fear response to bodily sensations, whereas Maintenance Factor 2 focuses on cognitive appraisal (interpretation) of bodily sensations. Data on the role of Maintenance Factor 1 on PD is LEAST likely to come from which type of research - correct answer experimental methods are not likely to be used in determining on how Maintenance Factor 1 works. The primary obstacle to using experimental methods in such studies is the difficulty of systematically manipulating participants' physiological states and their sensitivity to changes in those states. Harlequin ichthyosis, a rare genetic disorder, causes the skin to become thick and scaly. Flaking skin behind the eyelids of individuals with this condition is most likely to damage which structure of the eye? - correct answer the cornea is in direct contact with the eyelid and is thus most susceptible to damage from flaking skin. Sound-induced vibrations depolarize hair cells of the cochlea by opening ion channels that are gated in what way? - correct answer hair cells of the cochlea are specialized mechanoreceptors.Mechanically Max attends a party and does not make eye contact with, or approach, his acquaintance, Sam. According to the actor-observer bias, which graph best represents how Max and Sam view this behavior? - correct answer according to the actor-observer bias, actors attribute their own behavior to situational factors (not feeling well) whereas observers attribute actors' behavior to dispositional factors (social awkwardness). In a study, each trial involves administering a drop of lemon juice to the participant's tongue and measuring the participant's level of salivation. As more trials are conducted, the researcher finds that the magnitude of salivation declines. After a certain point, the researcher switches to administering lime juice. This researcher is most likely studying which process? - correct answer the study involves reduced responding to a repeating stimulus, which is best described as habituation. The researcher then changes the stimulus, which will likely lead to dishabituation. Which explanation of the results of Study 1 presents the most appropriate application of the optimal arousal theory? Reminding participants of: - correct answer Optimal arousal theory states that optimal performance requires optimal arousal and that arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance. Option C is compatible with this theory because it suggests that poor performance is a consequence of increased arousal levels resulting from negative stereotype activation If the participants in Study 1 differed in the degree to which their ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concept, which outcome would be most likely? Participants whose ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concepts would: - correct answer The answer to this question is C because people whose ethnic identity is a central part of their self-concept would be more prone to the effects of stereotype threat regarding their ethnic identity. This does not mean that they would not be affected by gender stereotypes or affected by the conditions of the experiment. Which measure would be most useful if the researchers were interested in the degree of sympathetic arousal experienced in the different conditions of Study 1? - correct answer The answer to this question is A because increased electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased sympathetic arousal, which is associated with anxiety The researchers collected data on participants' heart rates and electrical skin conductance at different stages of the experiment. Which pattern would verify that the independent variable had the intended effect? Heart rate and skin conductance are higher - correct answer The stress group (who expected to give a presentation) should differ from the control group (who did not expect to give a presentation). The stress response is associated with elevated heart rate and skin conductance. Therefore, the stress condition should lead to higher scores on these variables. Which statement provides the LEAST likely explanation for why the researchers dropped the highly anxious participants from their sample? - correct answer ethically practicable to conduct research on people who score high on anxiety. However, having outliers accumulate in the experimental or control condition can lead to confounding or to errors in statistical inference. It may also limit the generalizability of the results A researcher replicates the experiment with the addition of a physical stressor to the first phase of the experiment. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, this change is: - correct answer Selye's general adaptation syndrome, people's response to various stressors is similar. Selye's theory does not make claims about avoidance-avoidance or approach-approach conflicts. Which conclusion is best supported by the outcome of Study 2? - correct answer synchronous actions would make participants more prone to comply with prompts to act aggressively (i.e., conform to the confederate's suggestion to choose the "noise blast"). Damage to which nervous system structure is most likely to cause problems in the participants' ability to perform the synchronous behaviors in studies 1 and 2? - correct answer the cerebellum is most likely to be involved in the execution of a coordinated motor task. A researcher suggests that the effect of the testing condition on the affiliation ratings is caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to performing a repetitive behavior. Is this explanation likely to be supported? - correct answer e the participants engaged in repetitive activities in both the synchronous and asynchronous testing conditions. Therefore, if sympathetic nervous system arousal had caused the differences in the affiliation ratings, only the synchronous condition would have been affected Which type of design is LEAST appropriate for research on residential segregation - correct answer Due to ethical concerns, as well as practical considerations, experimental research is generally not available for studying residential segregation. Except under special circumstances, it would be unethical and impractical to randomly assign participants to groups in which segregation is manipulated as an independent variable. In contrast, the other response options present more acceptable methods. Because the question requires you to understand different types of research methods and consider their ethical implications Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample? - correct answer a median of 25 can be described as half the sample having a BMI over 25 and half having a BMI under 25 Often utilized when studying communicable diseases, which type of analysis maps the series of relationships among a set of individuals - correct answer social network analysis. Used in some epidemiological studies, social network analysis is the method described in the question. It involves the mapping of social relationships among individuals Which effect is LEAST likely to occur with the process of gentrification? - correct answer development of affordable housing. Gentrification is the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups. With the arrival of more affluent residents, housing demand increases and generally results in a decrease of affordable housing for lower income residents. On average, adults are found to be more risk averse than adolescents. Based on group polarization, how would testing condition affect adults' scores on the DMQ? Adults would have: - correct answer Group polarization is when people take on more extreme views of the VIEWS THEY ALREADY HAVE. Thus, since the adults are already risk averse, putting them in a group with likeminded adults increases their aversion to risk. Risk taking and score are positively correlated (low risk taking = low score). Which statement best applies the behaviorist theory to explain the association between age and DMQ scores? Compared to younger participants, older participants: - correct answer behaviorist theory focuses on the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behavior and A is the only option that applies this theory to risk aversion Which finding would support the validity of the DMQ measure - correct answer a valid measure is one that actually measures what it is intended to assess. Because both the DMQ (a self-report measure) and the CG (a behavioral measure) were intended to assess risky behavior, a positive correlation between the two measures would support the validity of the DMQ measure. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which group of participants are most likely dealing with the challenges of generativity versus stagnation? - correct answer Erikson's theory, the generativity versus self-absorption crisis occurs in mid-adulthood. Thus, the adults compose the only age group that is likely to experience this stage Which statement does NOT identify an aspect of the concept of assimilation? - correct answer Assimilation is related to the process of social integration and generally refers to when new members adopt the main elements of a culture. The other response options each provide an aspect of the definition of assimilation (cultural adaptation, adopting new norms, and relinquishing old norms). [Show Less]
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