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DAANCE MODULE 1 BASIC SCIENCES PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS
1)What is the role of the central nervous system? 2)What are the 3 subdivisions of the central nervous system? - correct answer 1) To provide overall cont... [Show More] rol of body function 2) Central Nervous System, Peripheral Nervous System, Autonomic Nervous System NERVOUS SYSTEM: 1) What are the cells of the nervous system called? 2) What are they responsible for? 3) What is action potential? What happens during this? 4) How is this related to a synapse? 5) What is a synapse? - correct answer 1) Neurons 2) Responsible for conducting nerve impulses within the brain and from one body part to another 3) The nerves threshold of stimulus. When an impulse reaches the threshold, the impulse travels along the neuron at a constant rate. 4) When an impulse reaches the end of the neuron, it can pass to another neuron across a synapse. 5) A junction between two neurons. DEPOLARIZATION/REPOLARIZATION: 1) Explain depolarization. 2) What substance is often the material moving in and out of the membrane? 3) What is the wave of polarization? 4) Explain repolarization. 5) How does this relate to local anesthetics? - correct answer 1) The outside of a nerve membrane is positively charged. When those charges move into the membrane, the outside is left negatively charged. 2) Na+ ions 3) The movement of changing charges during depolarization. 4) After the nerve impulse passes through the nerve, the nerve fibers become repolarized, or positively charged, again. 5) Local anesthetics interfere with Na+ ions traveling through the ion channels, preventing depolarization and slowing or stopping the nerve impulses. SYNAPSES: 1) What is a terminal button? 2) What are pre-synaptic and post-synaptic? 3) What is a synaptic cleft? 4) What substance is this product dependent on? 5) What action does this substance have? - correct answer 1) The bulge at the end of the nerve, that touches the next nerve. 2) The nerve before and after the synapse that is active. 3) The gap between two nerves, which a nerve impulse must 'jump across' to communicate with the next nerve. 4) Neurotransmitters 5) They enable transmission of the depolarization wave from one nerve onto the receptor sites of the next. CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM: 1) What is the central nervous system, and what does it consist of? 2) What are the parts of the CNS? (4 parts) - correct answer 1) It is the overall control center of the body, consists of the brain and the spinal cord. 2) Cerebral Cortex, Core of the Brain, Cerebellum, and the Brainstem. CEREBRAL CORTEX: 1) How many parts does it have? 2) What are its main responsibilities? (6 things) - correct answer 1) 2 parts- paired cerebral hemispheres. 2) Essential functions- thought, learning, memory, consciousness, feeling of sensation (such as pain or heat), and initiation of muscle movement. CORE OF THE BRAIN: 1) What is its main purpose? 2) What does one of the core's components do? 3) What can other important structures in the core do? - correct answer 1) Impulses pass through the core on their way to or from the cerebral cortex. 2) It serves as a relay station between sensory inputs from the periphery of the body to the cerebral cortex. 3) They play important roles in the body's autonomic (automatic) functions, and emotions. CEREBELLUM: 1) What is the purpose? - correct answer 1) It is the coordinating center for both sensory receptors (vision, hearing) and coordination of movement. BRAINSTEM: 1) Where is this located? 2) What are the 3 parts of the brainstem? 3) What important control centers does it contain? 4) What else does it contain, and what does this do? - correct answer 1) Between the brains core and the spinal cord (inferiorly). 2) midbrains, pons, medulla oblongata. 3) Autonomic (automatic) nervous system. 4) Reticular formation, responsible for consciousness or arousal. BRAINSTEM: 1) What does the lower portion of the brainstem contain? 2) What does the pons do? 3) What does the medulla do? - correct answer 1) Pons and medulla. 2) It connects to the the cerebellum, and controls coordination and movement. 3) Contains centers which control blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory, and digestion. PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM: 1) What does this system consist of? 2) What are sensory nerves? 3) What are motor nerves? 4) What are the two main components of this system? - correct answer 1) Nerves, which carry impulses away from the CNS to parts of the body, and carry impulses from the periphery back to the the CNS. 2) Nerves that bring messages from the environments back to the CNS (such as touch and pain). 3) Nerves that send out responses to a muscle, which initiates body movement. 4) The cranial and spinal nerves. PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM- Cranial Nerves 1) What are they? 2) What are the cranial nerves which are exclusively sensory? 3) Which nerve is both sensory and motor? 4) Which nerve is primarily a motor nerves? 5) Which nerve is a primary concern with local anesthesia? - correct answer 1) Nerves that start at the base of the brain. 2) Optic nerve (sight), Olfactory nerve (smell), Auditory nerve (sound). 3) Trigeminal nerve, which supplies sensation to teeth and jaw, and has a motor branch which supplies the muscles of mastication. 4) Facial nerve, supplies motor fibers for facial expression such as smiling, frowning, etc. 5) Trigeminal nerve CRANIAL NERVE, TRIGEMINAL NERVE: Mandible 1) What are the 3 branches of the nerve? 2) What nerves are anesthetized when working on the mandible? What is this injection called? 3) What areas does this affect? - correct answer 1) Opthalmic, Maxillary, and Mandibular. 2) Inferior alveolar and lingual nerves. Mandibular block. 3) Mandibular teeth, chin, lips, half of the tongue, and the floor of the mouth. CRANIAL NERVE, TRIGEMINAL NERVE: Maxilla 1) If teeth are not infiltrated individually, what types of blocks can be used? 2) What do each of these nerves supply? - correct answer 1) Posterior superior alveolar, greater palatine, and nasopalatine. 2) Posterior Superior Alveolar- posterior portion of the maxilla. Greater Palatine- posterior palate. Nasopalatine- anterior palate. AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM: 1) What does this regulate? What is this regulation called? 2) What has this system also been called? 3) What are the two subdivisions of this system? - correct answer 1) It adjusts functions of the organs to keep the body in a constant state, such as blood pressure, heart rate, breathing, body temperature, water balance, etc. This is called homeostasis. 2) Involuntary or automatic nervous system. 3) Sympathetic and parasympathetic. AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, Sympathetic Nervous System: 1) What does this system do? 2) What important thing does this system maintain? How does it do this? 3) What chemical does this system use to cause action? What is this a close relative of? 4) What are the effects of this system sometimes called? - correct answer 1) It prepared the body for intense physical activity in response to stress. 2) The blood pressure. The sympathetic system in the medulla maintains vasoconstrictor tone, which controls blood vessel diameter. 3) Norepinephrine, closely related to epinephrine or adrenaline. 4) Adrenergic. (adrenaline!) AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM, Sympathetic Nervous System: 1) What are the two subgroups of this system? 2) What are the two sections of the second subgroup? - correct answer 1) Alpha (vasoconstriction of arteries and veins) and Beta (big organs) 2) #1- Heart, increases heart rate and strength of contractions. #2 Lung, causes bronchodilation. PARASYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM: 1) What does this system do? 2) What chemical does this system use? What are the actions of this system called? 3) What drugs do we use that counteracts this? 4) How does this system regulate blood press and heart rate? 5) What are these receptors called? - correct answer 1) Creates a vegetative state, such as slowing the heart, increased salivary secretion, and increased digestion. 2)Acetylcholine. Cholinergic. 3) Glycopyrrolate or atropine. 4) Receptors in the walls of the aorta, carotid artery, and ventricles of the heart response to changes in pressure and adjust the sympathetic and parasympathetic responses to regulate these. 5) Baroreceptors. AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM- OMS Perspective: 1) What do the anesthetic drugs utilized in OMS affect? 2) What do barbiturates and propofol do, and what does this result in? 3) What does ketamine do, and what does this affect? 4) What can anticholinergic drugs do, and how does it do this? What are some anticholinergic drugs? - correct answer 1) They affect the vital centers in the medulla and the pons that are associated with the autonomic nervous center. 2) They depress the vital centers, resulting in hypotension and respiratory depression. 3) This stimulates the vital centers and causes an increase in blood press and pulse. 4) They can reduce secretion of saliva, by counteracting parasympathetic stimulation. Atropine or glycopyrrolate. AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM- OMS Perspective: 1) Why is epinephrine put into local anesthetics? 2) How are autonomic drugs, such as epinephrine, useful in medical or anesthetic emergencies? 3) How is epinephrine used? 4) How is ephedrine used? How are adrenergic drugs, such as labetalol used? 5) How are adrenergic drugs such as albuterol used? - correct answer 1) It causes vasoconstriction, which decreases 'wash-out' of the anesthetic from the area, and helps control bleeding. 2) They can emulate or interfere with normal autonomic functions to help manage the emergency. 3) It is used in cardiac arrest to reestablish electrical conductivity in the heart by stimulating the adrenergic receptors. 4) It is used in the management of hypotension. Used in the management of hypertension. 5) To treat asthma and severe allergic attacks. AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM- OMS Perspective: 1) How is atropine used in bradycardia? 2) What are the roles of the cholinergic receptors in the heart, which normally receive acetylcholine? 3) How does atropine affect this? 4) What does this do to treat bradycardia? - correct answer 1) It counteracts the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the parasympathetic receptor sites in the heart. 2) To maintain the heart rate at a decreased heart level and keep it in check. 3) It blocks acetylcholine, which stops the parasympathetic 'braking' action of the heart. 4) It increases heart rate, which overcomes the bradycardia. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM: 1) How much blood can the heart pump per minute? 2) What kind of muscle is the heart made of? Why is this special? 3) What is this ability called? - correct answer 1) 5 quarts 2) Myocardium, it can contract on its own without stimulation by nerves. 3) Automaticity. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM- UPPER CHAMBERS: 1) How many chambers does the heart have? 2) What are the upper chambers? 3)Where do they receive blood from? 4) Which one receives oxygen-rich blood? - correct answer 1) 4. 2) The right and left atria. 3) The left atrium receives blood from the lung though the pulmonary vein. The right atrium receives blood from the body. 4) The left atrium. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM- LOWER CHAMBERS: 1) What are the lower chambers? Where do they receive their blood from? 2) What are the physical differences between these and the atria? 3) Where does the right ventricle send blood to? 4) Where does the left ventricle send blood to? 5) Which ventricle has the bigger job, which causes it to have the thickest wall of the 4 chambers? - correct answer 1) The right and left ventricles. From the atria. 2) Ventricle chambers are larger and have thicker walls. 3) The right ventricle send blood to the lung to be oxygenated. 4) The left ventricle send blood to the body or peripheral circulation. 5) The left ventricle. VESSELS AND VALVES: 1) Which side of the heart is filled with oxygenated blood? 2) What 3 sources does the right atrium receive blood from? 3) What additional source is the only one that returns oxygen-rich blood to the heart? 4) What step is this in blood circulation? - correct answer 1) The left side. 2) Superior Vena Cava, Inferior Vena Cava, and from the heart via the Coronary Sinus. 3) Pulmonary vein, which comes directly from the lungs. 4) The first step. VESSELS AND VALVES: 1) What is the second step in blood circulation? 2) What valve does this pass through? 3) How much pressure does this require? - correct answer 1) After the right atrium fills with blood, it contracts and forces blood into the right ventricle. 2) Tricuspid valve. 3) It is the lowest in the heart, has very little resistance. VESSELS AND VALVES: 1) What is the third step in blood circulation? 2) What is unique about the pulmonary artery? - correct answer 1) The right ventricle contracts, causing the tricuspid valve to close, and forces the blood through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery, which goes to the lungs. 2) It is the only artery that carries oxygen-depleted blood. VESSELS AND VALVES: 1) What is the fourth step in blood circulation? 2) What part of the RBC is responsible for releasing the waste products, and picking up oxygen? 3) Where does blood go after it as become oxygen saturated? - correct answer 1) Blood arrives at the lungs to be re-oxygenated. 2) Hemoglobin. 3) It returns to the left atrium through pulmonary veins. VESSELS AND VALVES: 1) After the left atrium fills and contracts, where does it go next? 2) What are the final steps in blood circulation? - correct answer 1) It passes through the mitral valve into the left ventricle. 2) The left ventricle contracts,closing the mitral valve and forcing the blood through the aortic valve and into the aorta. This blood goes to the body. 1) Right atrium receives oxygen depleted blood from the body. 2) Right atrium contracts, blood flow through tricuspid valve into right ventricle. 3) Right ventricle contracts, blood flows through pulmonary artery to the lungs. 4) Blood is re-oxygenated at lungs, travels through pulmonary veins to the left atrium. 5) Left atrium contracts, blood flows through mitral valve into the left ventricle. 6) Left ventricle contracts, forces blood through aortic valve into aorta, then to the body. - correct answer What are the steps of circulation? CARDIAC ISSUES: 1) What is back flow from a malfunctioning valve called when heard with a stethoscope? 2) What 2 things can cause a heart murmur? 3) How do we test for these things? - correct answer 1) Heart murmur. 2) Valves can be damaged from a previous sickness, or from mitral valve prolapse, where the valve swings back slightly during closure. 3) Echocardiogram. CARDIAC ISSUES: 1) What are the numerous vessels that pierce the myocardium called? What do many heart problems result from? 2) What is ischemia? 3) What is angina pectoris? How is it relieved? 4) What is a much more serious problem from poor coronary circulation? 5) What does infarction mean? - correct answer 1) Coronary arteries and veins. From faulty or reduced coronary circulation. 2) When reduced oxygen supply damages heart cells, but does not cause necrosis. 3) Chest pain, this is what results from ischemia. Nitroglycerine relives this. 4) Myocardial infarction, aka heart attack. 5) The death of an area of tissue because of an interrupted blood supply. ARTERIES AND VEINS: 1) What do arteries turn into as they leave the heart? What is their final destination? 2) How do these connect back to the heart? - correct answer 1) Arterioles, and then capillaries. They exchange oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other waste from the cells of the body. 2) Capillaries connect to venules, which are the smallest veins. These turn into small vein [Show Less]
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DAANCE MODULE 4 PRACTICE TEST 100- CORRECT ANSWER GUARANTEED A+
Purpose of the scavenging system - correct answer Reducing the levels of the noxious agents to an acceptably low level by exhausting them outside the opera... [Show More] ting room. Medical gas cylinder colors - correct answer Blue- Nitrous Oxide Green- Oxygen Yellow- Compressed Air Brown- Helium Black- Nitrogen Gray- Carbon Dioxide Airway Adjuncts(8) - correct answer Head-tilt/Chin-lift Tongue traction suture Nasopharyngeal airway Oropharyngeal airway Laryngeal mask airway I-gel supraglottic airway Endotracheal tube Combitube Cricothyrotomy Tongue traction suture - correct answer When the tongue is obstructing the airway one or two sutures can be placed through the dorsum of the tongue and grasped with a large hemostat Nasopharyngeal airway - correct answer Does not interfere with procedures Well-tolerated Can be used on awake patients Passed through one of the nostrils into the nasal cavity into the oropharynx posterior to the tongue. Oropharyngeal airway - correct answer Oral airway may be used to position the tongue in a more anterior position interferes with intraoral procedures not tolerated well in awake patients Supraglottic airway - correct answer Placed above the level of the vocal cords 2 types: laryngeal mask airway (LMA) and I-gel supraglottic airway Gastric port or small tube that passes through the length of the airway to allow access for a suction catheter that can by used to remove fluid in the stomach and diminish likelihood of aspiration of acidic gastric juices. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) - correct answer Plastic tube at the end of which is a small air inflated balloon that sits tightly over the top of the larynx. Advantage: may be placed blindly without the use of a laryngoscope. Does NOT protect the airway from the aspiration of regurgitated material. Follows the natural bend of the oropharynxa nd comes to rest over the larynx. →cuff is then inflated I-gel Supraglottic airway - correct answer Similiar to LMA, however, balloon is filled with gel rather than air, which enables the mask to adapt closely to the tissues surrounding the larynx and does not require inflation. These airways can be rapidly inserted, and they are less likely to become dislodged. Endotracheal Tubes - correct answer May be placed blindly orally, nasally or in tracheostomy site End of the tube passes through the vocal cords, after which it is advanced to terminate halfway between the vocal cords and bifurcation of the trachea. Important to auscultate the left and right side of the chest as well as the stomach. Breath sounds should be heard on both sides of the chest Combitube - correct answer Reserved for significant emergencies Can be placed blindly It will ordinarily (80%) of the time end up in the esophagus after blind placement. Both cuffs are inflated, can be ventilated through the esophagus or trachea Cricothyrotomy - correct answer Quickest and easiest surgical airway. Accomplished by making an opening through the thin membrane between the cricoid and thyroid cartilages of the larynx. Defibrulator - correct answer 2 types: Full function or AED Full function defibrulator - correct answer Paddles/pads can deliver electrical charges to the patient. Counter-shock is measured in joules. Only practical definitive treatment for V-fib AED - correct answer Automatically assess cardiac rhythm Semi-automatic type- device assess the rhythm and if a shock is advised, it instructs the operator to deliver. Automatic type-AED assesses the presence of V-fib and then automatically delivers the recommended shock on its own. Most are biphasic- discharge or shock in two directions across the chest. Maintenance: testing of paddles, checking and replacing pads Cardiac monitor - correct answer Determines arterial pressure Adult cuff of a child will result in a low bp Cuff needs to be sufficiently wide-should cover 2/3 the distance from the elbow to the shoulder. 80-100% circumference of the arm Respiratory ventilation - correct answer Observation: chest rise- easiest Anesthesia bag-inflating and deflating Color- extremely late sign of respiratory problems (hypoxema-insufficient oxygen in the blood) Pretracheal stethoscope sounds - correct answer Gurgling: Laryngospasm Wheezing: bronchospasm Rumbling: Vomit Pulse ox - correct answer Measures and displays the level of oxygenated hemoglobin compared with total hemoglobin at the site of the probe Measures pulse rate, the perfusion at the site of the probe, and the oxygenation of the patient by determining the oxygen saturation level of the circulation hemoglobin. Pulse ox measures only the oxygen that is bound to hemoglobin which is displayed as the oxygen saturation percentage. Capnograph - correct answer Measures the level of carbon dioxide as the patient exhales Monitoring anesthetic depth - correct answer Changes in vital signs and oxygen saturation. Inadequate: bp, pulse, respiratory rate and depth of respiration tend to increase. Too deep: vital signs and O2 decrease eyelid reflex-reflex is lost when pt is heavily sedated. Stroking the eyelashes will elicit a closing movement of the eyelid as the patient begins to awaken. How often should the function of an anesthesia machine be checked? - correct answer Daily in the US, the color for a Nitrous oxide cylinder is? - correct answer Blue Blood pressure levels will most likely be falsely LOW when using - correct answer an adult cuff on a small child A monitoring device that gives information about both circulation and ventilation is the? - correct answer Capnograph What are the indicators of partial respiratory obstruction in a sedated patient? - correct answer Gurgling, snoring, high-pitched crowing or wheezing noted while monitoring with a precordial stethoscope Ventilations can be monitored continuously by - correct answer Auscultation in the precordial or pretracheal region observation of the rebreathing bag A rocking or "see-sawing" rhythm of the chest and abdomen may indicate - correct answer an airway obstruction An increased heart rate may be cause by - correct answer painful stimuli Capnography measures - correct answer level of CO2 expired in each breath A patient who swallows during anesthesia is experiencing - correct answer a light level of anesthesia [Show Less]
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DAANCE- MODULE 3- ANESTHETIC DRUGS & TECHNIQUES PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
Brevital (Sodium Methohexital) - correct answer Primary anesthetic agent introduced in the 1960's. Balanced Anesthesia - correct answer Use of several a... [Show More] gents together Basic Requisites of an Anesthetic - correct answer Lack of toxicity, non-flammable, non-addictive, minimal allergenicity. Analgesia - correct answer Given to feel no pain (ex: Fentanyl and Local) Amnesia - correct answer Benzodiazepines (ex: Versed) Relaxation & Immobility - correct answer Versed, Propofol (Diprivan), Brevital (Methohexital), Ketamine Loss of Consciousness (Hypnosis) - correct answer Propofol & Brevital Wakefulness System - correct answer Core of brainstem, neurons to cerebrum. When a sleep inducing drug is introduced it interrupts transmission. Anxiolytic (Anxiety Reducing) Meds - correct answer Diazepam or Midazolam Relay Center - correct answer Sensory neurons that sense pain pass through this. Homeostasis (Homeostatic State) - correct answer Normal state in which there is minimal variation in respiration and circulation. Pharmacokinetics - correct answer The effects that the body has on drugs. Pharmacodynamics - correct answer The effects that the drug has on various body systems. Rapid Redistribution - correct answer Short acting drug only remain attached to the receptor sites for a short time and then move to the other tissues. PO (per os) - correct answer Through the mouth. (Delayed onset, unpredictable effects, patient compliance, not good when pt in nauseated) Subcutaneous (SQ) - correct answer Beneath the Skin (Absorption is somewhat delayed compared to IM or IV) Intramuscular (IM) - correct answer In the muscle (Unpredictable onset of drug effect, cannot titrate the dose) Intravenous (IV) - correct answer In the vein Inhalation Route - correct answer Inhaled (Very rapid absorption and titration) 4 Levels of Continuum - correct answer Minimal Sedation, Moderate Sedation, Deep Sedation (Analgesia), and General Anesthesia Minimal Sedation (Anxiolysis) - correct answer Normal response to verbal stimulation, cardiovascular function unaffected. Moderate Sedation (Conscious Sedation) - correct answer Normal response to verbal or light tactile stimulation with cardiovascular function usually maintained. Deep Sedation (Analgesia) - correct answer Not easily aroused but has purposeful response after repeated or painful stimulation. General Anesthesia - correct answer Not a rousable even with painful stimulation. Diffusion hypoxia - correct answer Nitrous Oxide rapidly moves from the blood to the alveoli of the lungs and displaces other gases, including oxygen. Hypoxia - correct answer Low levels of oxygen in the bodies tissues. Hypercarbia - correct answer An increased level of carbon dioxide. Anxiolytic - correct answer Triazolam, Diazepam, Modazolam Propofol (Diprivan) - correct answer Has antiemetic (anti-nausea) properties, insoluble in water, highly lipid soluble. Propofol (Diprivan) - correct answer Respiratory depressant and apnea may be noted after on induction dose. Ketamine (Ketalar) - correct answer Dissociative drug. Eye, cough and swallow reflexes are still present, eyes are open, but gaze in distant or wandering. Nystagmic Gaze - correct answer Distant or wandering gaze. Ketamine (Ketalar) - correct answer Undergoes metabolism in the liver, and excreted in the urine. Ketamine(Ketalar) - correct answer Increase in cerebral oxygen consumption, cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. Ketamine (Ketalar) - correct answer Stimulates the cardiovascular system, increases BP, heart rate and cardiac output. Contraindications to Ketamine use. - correct answer Severe cardiovascular disease, severe hypertension, glaucoma (not controlled), severe psychotic illnesses, pregnancy. Barbiturates - correct answer Taken up by body fat and released into the system slowly, depressing the CNS. Barbiturates - correct answer Detoxified in the liver. Side effects of Brevital - correct answer Apnea on induction, laryngospasm, bronchospasm, hypotension, tachycardia, hiccups, and muscle twitching. Esters - correct answer Metabolized in the bloodstream by an enzyme known as pseudocholinesterase. Amides - correct answer Metabolized more slowly in the liver. Esters - correct answer Cocaine, Procain (Novocaine) Amides - correct answer Lidocaine (max 10 or 11 carpules) Amides - correct answer Mepivacaine (Carbocaine) (max 7-8 carpules) Amides - correct answer Prilocaine (Citamest) (max 6 carpules) Amides - correct answer Bupivacaine (Marcaine) (max 10 carpules) Amides - correct answer Articaine (Septocaine) (max 7 carpules) Sympatho-mimetic - correct answer Mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system. Anxiolytic - correct answer Dissolving anziety Paradoxical Effect - correct answer Patients exhibit an excitement with the administration of Diazepam rather than a tranquilization. Midazolam (Versed) - correct answer 3-6 times more potent than Diazepam. Morphine - correct answer Major action in analgesia but also produces drowsiness, euphoria and sedation. Meperidine (Demerol) - correct answer Has a slight drying effect, commonly used for postoperative pain. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) - correct answer 100 times more potent than morphine. Rapid onset of action, duration of only 30-45 minutes Remifentanil (Ultiva) - correct answer Metabolized by enzymes throughout the body. Very rapid dissipation. Rapid onset of action, duration of only 5-10 minutes. Can be used in patients with liver and kidney failure. Narcotic Reversals - correct answer Naloxone (Narcan), Pentazocine (Talwin), Nalbuphine (Nubain), Butorphanol Tartrate (Stadol), Flumazenil (Romazicon) Narcotic Agonist-Antagonist - correct answer Reverse the effects of narcotics, and when given by themselves have agonistic or therapeutic properties. Anticholinergic - correct answer Decrease secretions of the salivary glands, thus helping to provide a dry airway during surgery. Anticholinergic Agents - correct answer Atropine, Scopolamine, Glycopyrrolate (Robinul) Antiemetics - correct answer Antihistamines, Chlorpromazine (Thorazine), Prochlorperazine (Compazine), Metoclopramide (Reglan) Antiemetics - correct answer Trimethobenzamide (Tigan), Ondansetron (Zofran), Corticosteroids, Benzodiazepines Steroids - correct answer Dexamethasone (Decadron), Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol), Hydrocortisone (Solu-Cartef) Muscle Relaxants - correct answer Succinylcholine (Anectine) Fasciculation - correct answer Total body muscle twitching. Succinylcholine (Anectine) - correct answer Can be a significant trigger for malignant hyperthermia in susceptible individuals, either adults or children. Short Acting. Rocuronium - correct answer Steroid based, short to intermediate acting muscle relaxant with rapid onset of action. Not a triggering agent for malignant hypertheria. Long acting Halogenated Hydrocarbons - correct answer Inhalation agents used for general anesthesia. 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DAANCE EXAM STUDY QUESTIONS 130 QUESTIONS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS UPDATED 2023 GUARANTEED A+
The "T" wave on an ECG tracing is evidence of what change in polarization? - correct answer Repolarization of the ventricles What anatomical structure l... [Show More] ocated at the top of the larynx closes the airway and prevents foreign bodies from entering the trachea? - correct answer The epiglottis Which structure is most likely to cause obstruction of the airway when an anesthetized patient is lying in a supine position? - correct answer The tongue What is the "supine" position? - correct answer Pt laying face up What is the "fowlers" position? - correct answer Pt is sitting straight up or leaning slightly back What is the "trendelenberg" position? - correct answer Pt's head is slightly lower than their feet Blood is pumped to the lungs from the heart through which vessel? - correct answer pulmonary artery What is the normal sequence for the flow of blood through the heart and lungs? - correct answer Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta The small sac like structures located at the end of the respiratory tract in which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged are called? - correct answer Aveoli Which structure may be involved in a pt who has an upper respiratory infection? - correct answer nose, sinuses, and pharynx What is the soft tissue valve that covers the larynx and allows food to enter the esophagus? - correct answer Epiglottis An artery located in the neck that is readily palpated when looking for a patients pulse is? - correct answer common carotid Which part of the eye loses its reflex action first during the induction of anesthesia? - correct answer The eyelid What is hypoxia? - correct answer Lack of oxygen What is Addisons disease? - correct answer hyposecretion of glucocorticoids What type of medication do pt's with Addisons disease take? - correct answer Cortisone daily What is hyperglycemia? - correct answer An insufficient supply of insulin which is produced in the pancreas, prevents the body's cells from metabolizing carbohydrates properly. What is "Type 1 diabetes"? - correct answer Insulin dependent What is "type 2 diabetes?" - correct answer non-insulin diabetes A pt with history of transient ischemic attacks (TIA's) has had temporary lessening of? - correct answer Blood supply to the brain Ischemic heart disease is a result of? - correct answer decreased blood flow in the coronary arteries The main purpose of the review of systems is to obtain a careful evaluation of the pt's? - correct answer Medical history A pt who has renal disease would be expected to have difficulty with? - correct answer drug excretion Medical history is not used to document ? - correct answer The socioeconomic status of the pt. Congestive failure does not result in? - correct answer bronchospasm Normal blood oxygen saturation in an ASA class I pt ranges from? - correct answer 95%-100% Why are diabetic pt's at risk for oral and maxillofacial surgery? - correct answer Pt's are subject to postoperative infections. A pt who has had a myocardial infarction should wait how many months before having elective surgery? - correct answer 6 months What is midazolam? - correct answer Versed What is glycopyrrolate? - correct answer Robinul What does robinul do? - correct answer Dry mouth What type of drug is "diazepam"? - correct answer Anxiolytics (dissolving anxiety) What is another word for "diazepam"? - correct answer Valium What is another word for "midazolam"? - correct answer Versed What is the main difference between valium and versed? - correct answer Versed is faster acting and water soluble, making it less irritating to the veins. What is a narcotic? - correct answer Used to provide systemic pain control What is fentanyl (Sublimaze) - correct answer A narcotic, Much more potent than demerol or morphine What is diphenhydramine? - correct answer Benadryl What is another word for "Dexamethasone"? - correct answer Decadron What type of medication is decadron? - correct answer A steroid What is another name for "Odanestron?" - correct answer Zofran What does "odanestron" do? - correct answer Helps with perioperative nausea What does decardon help with? - correct answer The prevention of swelling Diazepam (valium) is used in outpatient oral and maxillofacial surgery to? - correct answer sedate the patient Barbiturates are detoxified primarily in the ? - correct answer Liver Rapid administration of anesthetic doses of methoexital (brevital) can result in? - correct answer hiccups, tachycardia, and respiratory depression What is "tachycardia"? - correct answer Fast heart rate (greater than 100 beats per minute) What is "titrate"? - correct answer to give a small quantity of a drug and assess its effects before giving additional drugs The reason that methohexital (brevital) is considered to be ultrashort acting is because it is? - correct answer not as highly bound to fat as thiopental Oxygen is approximately what precent of room air? - correct answer 20% Naloxone (narcan) is used primarily as? - correct answer A narcotic antagonist Recovery from ketamine (ketalar) anesthetic is sometimes associated with? - correct answer Bad dreams Local anesthetics containing epinephrine should be used cautiously on pt's who have? - correct answer cardiac disrhythmias What is "Cardiac disrhythmias (arryhthmias) - correct answer Rhythm disturbances of the heart What is Arryhythmia ? - correct answer Any variation from the normal rhythm of the heartbeat What is the "Arteriole?" - correct answer Any of the very small arterial branches located at the end of an artery (furthest from the heart) how is the group of local anestethics ester's metabolized? - correct answer They have a higher potential for allergic reaction and are metabolized by the enzymes in the blood What group of anesthetic is cocaine a part of? - correct answer Esters How is the group of local anesthetics Amides metabolized? - correct answer In the liver What group of anesthetics is Lidocaine part of? - correct answer Amides What are "Vasoconstrictors"? - correct answer Pharmacologic agents that cause blood vessels to constrict What is "Vasoconstriction"? - correct answer The decrease in the diameter of a vessel, especially constriction of arterioles leading to decrease blood flow to a part What are the "pulmonary veins"? - correct answer The veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. This is the only case in the body in which veins carry oxygenated blood What is the benefit to using propofol (Diprivan) over methohexital (Breviatl)? - correct answer lower incidence of nausea and a shorter duration What is the benefit to using local anesthetic alone? - correct answer The patient doesn't have to be NPO, and a driver is not neccesary What is NPO? - correct answer Nothing by mouth Which is the easiest and quickest emergency airway ? - correct answer Cricothyrotomy What does the pulse oximentry monitor? - correct answer Measures the oxygen bound to hemoglobin in the blood What does a "Capnometer" monitor? - correct answer Ventilation in real time by measuring the level of carbon dioxide as the pt exhales How often should the function of an anesthesia machine be checked? - correct answer Daily In the united states the standard color for a nitrous oxide cylinder is? - correct answer Blue Blood pressure levels will most likely be falsely low when using? - correct answer An adult arm cuff on a small child What would indicate of partial respiratory obstruction in a sedated pt? - correct answer gurgling, snoring, high pitched crowing or wheezing, noted while monitoring with precordial stethoscope Ventilation can be monitored continually by? - correct answer observation of the rebreathing bag, and auscultation in the precordial or pre tracheal region A rocking or "see-sawing" rhythm of the chest and abdomen may indicate ? - correct answer Airway obstruction An increased heart rate may be caused by ? - correct answer Painful stimuli Capnography measures? - correct answer Level of carbon dioxide expired in each breath A patient who swallows during anesthesia is experiencing? - correct answer A light level of anesthesia What is "addison's disease?" - correct answer A disease due to hyposecretion of glucocortirodes, characterized by low pressure, aremia, diarrhea, digestive disturbance and a bronzelike pigmentation of the skin What is the "Alveous?" - correct answer A small air sac within the body of the lung What is "Anaphylaxis" ? - correct answer A severe allergic reaction marked by any of several severe responses, including skin reactions, smooth muscle cramping, urinary incontinence, constriction of bronchioles, respiratory difficulty and cardiovascular collapse What is Anemia? - correct answer A reduction in the number of red blood cells in the blood stream what is "Angina Pectoris"? - correct answer Pain in the chest, with a feeling of suffocation, usually due to a deficiency of blood supply to the myocardium What is the "Myocardium"? - correct answer The middle and thickest layer of the heart wall, composed of cardiac muscles What is an "Anticholinergic"? - correct answer What is "syncope"? - correct answer Sudden, brief loss of consciousness caused by decreased blood flow to the brain ("passing out") What is "Hypoglycemia"? - correct answer Reduction in blood glucose levels (low blood sugar) What can occur during the "syncopal stage"? - correct answer hypotension, bradycardia, pupil dilation, visual disturbance, loss of consciousness What is treatment for Syncope? - correct answer place pt in trendelenburg position, assess consciousness, airway/breathing, tilt head to establish airway, place crushed ammonia capsule under nose What can cause "Hypoglycemia"? - correct answer Excessive insulin therapy, missed/delayed meals, illness/infection, excessive exercise What are some mild signs/symptoms of Hypoglycemia? - correct answer cold/clammy skin, extreme hunger, nausea, tachycardia, numbness/tingling, trembling What are some moderate symptoms of Hypoglycemia? - correct answer lack of energy, irritability, anxiety, restlessness, fatigue, headache, weakness, anger, poor cordination What are some severe symptoms of Hypoglycemia? - correct answer loss of consciousness, seizures/convulsions, hypothermia, coma What is early treatment for Hypoglycemia? - correct answer Place pt in supine position, maintain airway, check blood glucose levels (glucometer), treat blood glucose <50 mg/dl What is "oral glucose" ? - correct answer tablets, soft drink, candy, cake frosting What is advanced treatment for HYpoglycemia? - correct answer PT becomes unconscious (life support), activate EMS, establish IV (glucose), How many chest compressions to how many breaths in CPR? - correct answer 30 compressions/ 2 breaths When would you perform CPR? - correct answer If the pt has no pulse What is "Thyroid storm"? - correct answer A life threatening condition that is more likely to develop when a person has a serious health problem (major infection), in addition to hyperthyroidism; the thyroid gland releases large amounts of thyroid hormone in a short period of time and most often occurs in people with Graves disease What causes a "Thyroid storm"? - correct answer surgery, trauma, infection, physiologic/emotional stress, pregnancy What are some acute signs of thyroid storm? - correct answer tremor, tachycardia, hypertension, irritability, heart failure What is "tachycardia"? - correct answer >140 beats/minute What is "Hypotension"? - correct answer <90 mm Hg What is treatment for thyroid storm? - correct answer Activate 911, 100% oxygen, initiate life support What is a "laryngospasm"? - correct answer A protective reflex to prevent foreign matter from entering the larynx, trachea or lungs What can cause a laryngospasm? - correct answer light general anesthesia, foreign material in the region of the vocal cords What are some signs/symptoms of larygnospasm? - correct answer increased respiratory effort, increased difficulty in exchanging of air, "Crowing" sound, developing cardiac arrhythmia's What is early treatment of a laryngospasm? - correct answer pack off surgical site, 100% oxygen, immediate suction of oropharynx (tonsil suction), establish proper head tilt/position to establish airway, position tongue anteriorly [Show Less]
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DAANCE MODULE 1 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS
Myocardium - correct answer Cardiac Muscle In what order does blood flow through the heart - correct answer Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventric... [Show More] le, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium, Mitral valve, left ventricle , aorta. Right atrium receives blood from which three sources? - correct answer 1. Superior Vena Cava- above the heart 2. Inferior Vena Cava- below the heart 3. Coronary Sinus- blood from the veins of the heart muscle Diastolic - correct answer The pressure in the arteries Systolic - correct answer The pressure generated in the arteries bradycardia - correct answer below 60 bmp tachycardia - correct answer greater then 100 bmp SA node (Sinoatrial) - correct answer located in the right atrium and acts as the hearts pacemaker. Rhythms that start from impulses in the SA node are called sinus rhythms. AV node (Atrioventricular) - correct answer located between the atria and ventricles. Transmits electrical impulses to bundle of His. The bundle of His branches into the right and left ventricles which carry the impulse from the AV node stimulating the contraction of the ventricles. Brachiocephalic artery - correct answer branches into right common carotid artery Lingual artery - correct answer supplies the tongue and floor of mouth facial artery - correct answer starts behind the angle of the mandible and wraps around the inferior border of the mandible and travels back up to the face supplying it with blood Maxillary artery - correct answer basic supply to the face Antecubital space - correct answer anterior surface of elbow Pharynx - correct answer space between the nose and trachea Nasopharynx - correct answer part above the back of the soft palate oropharynx - correct answer lies between soft palate and epiglottis Epiglottis - correct answer soft tissue valve that covers the larynx (voice box), allows air in and out of longs and prevents food or liquids to enter lungs Laryngopharynx - correct answer behind the larynx (voice box) Dead space - correct answer area which gases are not exchanged. extends from the pharynx to bronchioles. 150cc in average adult. Adult intakes 500 cc of air but only 350cc reaches alveoli and is available for gas exchange. Medulla Oblongata - correct answer controls respiration Central Nervous System - correct answer consists of brain and spinal cord. Cerebrum and Cerebellum - correct answer Cerebrum- thought area Cerebellum-motor area Peripheral Nervous System - correct answer Sensory nerves-recieve the message/response and motor nerves- carry out the response Autonomic Nervous System - correct answer Sympathetic "fight or flight" Parasympathetic "rest and digest" P wave - correct answer Atrial depolarization QRS complex - correct answer Ventricular depolarization T wave - correct answer Ventricular repolarization Dysrhythmias - correct answer abnormal rhythms [Show Less]
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DAANCE MODULE 1-BASIC SCIENCES QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GUARANTEED A+
Neurons do what - correct answer conduct nerve impulses What is the synapse - correct answer junction between two neurons What makes up the central n... [Show More] ervous system - correct answer brain and spinal cord What three parts make up the brain - correct answer cerebrum, cerebellum, medulla oblongata What makes up the peripheral nervous system - correct answer sensory nerves and motor nerves How many cranial nerves are there - correct answer 12 What nerve is the trigeminal nerve - correct answer 5 What parts does the trigeminal nerve control - correct answer supplies sensation to the teeth and jaw What are the 2 components of the autonomic nervous system? - correct answer sympathetic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system What nervous system "speeds things up" - correct answer sympathetic What nervous system "slows things down" - correct answer parasympathetic What nervous system has terminations in all level of the heart - correct answer sympathetic nervous system Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes what? - correct answer vasoconstriction in general and increases the heart rate What nervous system is important in maintaining blood pressure - correct answer sympathetic Vasomotor is controlled by the - correct answer sympathetic nervous system The vasomotor does what - correct answer controls the diameter of the blood vessels Baroreceptors regulate what function - correct answer blood pressure with positional changes the sympathetic or adrenergic effects of the autonomic nervous system involve what - correct answer two effects A and B- these effect several tissues and organs Alpha effect is what (only one alpha) - correct answer vasoconstriction Beta effect is what( two beta categories) - correct answer seen in bigger organs, heart and lungs Beta 1 activity is where - correct answer heart related functions- such as increased heart rate and strength of contraction Beta 2 activity is where - correct answer pulmonary function of bronchiolar dilation (lungs) Parasympathetic stimulation causes what - correct answer increased activity of digestive tract and stimulates production of saliva and pharyngeal secretions. (atropine or Robinul can counteract stimulations) Automaticity - correct answer heart pumps on its own Heart has four chamber- what are they - correct answer left atrium, right atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle Where does the left atrium receive blood from - correct answer from the lungs, via the pulmonary vein- oxygen rich blood Where does the right atrium receive blood from - correct answer from the peripheral (body's) circulation and is oxygen poor the ventricles receive blood from where - correct answer the atria Ventricle anatomy - correct answer thicker walls larger chambers left ventricle is the thickest m. Where does the right ventricle send blood - correct answer deoxygenated blood to the lungs Where does the left ventricle send blood - correct answer oxygenated blood to the body/ peripheral circulation What are the three sources the right atrium receives blood - correct answer above: superior vena cava below: inferior vena cava inside the heart m.: coronary sinus the blood in veins are considered what - correct answer oxygen poor blood vessels leading AWAY from the heart are - correct answer arteries blood vessels leading TO the heart are - correct answer veins Flow of Blood through the heart - correct answer 1. right atrium fills with blood 2. contracts- tricuspid valve 3. right ventricle fills with blood 4. contracts- closes tricuspid valve/opens pulmonary valve 5. blood goes through pulmonary artery to the lungs 6. pulmonary veins returns blood to left atrium 7. contracts-mitral valve 8. left ventricle fills with blood 9. Contracts- forces blood through aortic valve into aorta and then the peripheral circulation. closure of the four valves prevents back flow. if valve is damaged then this will be a - correct answer heart murmur or mitral valve prolapse most heart problems are because of - correct answer faulty or reduced coronary circulation- the hearts own circulatory system reduced oxygen supply weakens the heart this condition is called - correct answer ischemia what results from ischemia - correct answer angina pectoris- chest pain poor circulation can also cause - correct answer myocardium infarction arteries can either ________ or _________ - correct answer vasodilation or vasoconstriction diastolic phase is during what part of the blood flow - correct answer when the ventricles are relaxed diastolic pressure measures what - correct answer the pressure in the arteries during the relaxation of the ventricles systolic phase is what part of the blood flow - correct answer when the ventricles contract systolic pressure measures what - correct answer the pressure in the arteries during the contraction of the ventricles cardiac cycle - correct answer 60-100 beats/minute bradycardia - correct answer less than 60 tachycardia - correct answer greater than 100 sinoatrial node (SA) - correct answer located right atrium pacemaker of the heart rhythms caused by the SA node are called what - correct answer sinus rhythms ectopic pacemakers occur when - correct answer when the SA node fails- they will be produced and take over as the pacemaker the impulse from the SA Node travels to where - correct answer the atrioventricular node (AV) after the AV node is stimulated where does the impulse go - correct answer bundle of His where does the impulse go after the bundle of His - correct answer purkinje fiber system the Purkinje system does what with the impulse - correct answer fibers that branch into the right and left ventricles and the ventricles will contract does the AV node speeds up or slows down the impulse - correct answer slows down Stroke Volume - correct answer 60 mL of blood (30 mL = 1 oz) amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in one beat cardiac output - correct answer total amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in one minute stroke volume x heart rate =________ - correct answer cardiac output P wave is what - correct answer atrial depolarization QRS wave is what - correct answer ventricular contraction- ventricular depolarization T wave is what - correct answer Ventricular repolarization makes the ventricle muscle ready for a new contraction [Show Less]
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DAANCE EXAM UPDATED 2023 WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+
Addison's disease - correct answer A disease due to hyposecretion of glucocorticoids, characterized by low blood pressure, diarrhea, digestive disturbance,... [Show More] and a bronzelike pigmentation of the skin Adjunctive agents - correct answer Agents that supplement the primary anesthetic agents to augment or enhance the effects of the primary agent Allergenicity - correct answer Having the property of an allergen, a substance that will elicit an allergic response in sensitive individuals Alveolus (plural: alveoli) - correct answer A small air sac within the body of the lung Amide - correct answer A chemical structure derived from ammonia; there is a group of amide local anesthetics that are widely used in dentistry (eg, lidocaine, mepivacaine, prilocaine, bupivacaine). Amnesia - correct answer Failure to remember events related to surgery Analgesia - correct answer Insensitivity to pain Anaphylaxis - correct answer A severe allergic reaction marked by any of several severe responses, including skin reactions, smooth muscle cramping, urinary incontinence, construction of bronchioles, respiratory difficulty, and cardiovascular collapse Anemia - correct answer A reduction in the number of red blood cells in the bloodstream Angina pectoris - correct answer Pain in the chest, with a feeling of suffocation, usually due to deficiency of blood supply to the myocardium Antecubital - correct answer Situated in front of the elbow Antecubital fossa - correct answer The depression between the forearm and the upper arm that is literally "in front of the elbow" Anticholinergic - correct answer A drug that counteracts the action of acetylcholine, the neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system and thereby blocks the action of the parasympathetic nerves Antiemetic - correct answer A drug that counteracts nausea and vomiting Antisialagogue - correct answer A drug that counteracts the production of saliva Anxiolytic - correct answer Drugs that reduce anxiety, agitation, or tension (eg, Valium, midazolam) Aorta - correct answer The main trunk (a very large artery) from which the arterial system proceeds Apnea - correct answer Absence or cessation of breathing Arrest rhythms - correct answer Cardiac rhythms in which there is cardiac arrest. Some arrest rhythms such as pulseless ventricular tachycardia are accompanied by a rhythm display, but there is no contraction Arrhythmia - correct answer Any variation from the normal rhythm of the heartbeat Arteriole - correct answer Any of the very small arterial branches located at the end of an artery (furthest from the heart) Artery - correct answer A vessel that varies blood away from the heart to other parts of the body Ascites - correct answer Accumulation of the serous fluid in the abdominal cavity Asystole - correct answer Cardiac arrest in which there is no rhythm display and no contraction Ataractics - correct answer Pharmacologic agents that produce a tranquilizing effect Atherosclerosis - correct answer A disease of the arteries characterized by the deposition of plaques of fatty material on their inner walls Atrial fibrillation - correct answer Atrial arrhythmia characterized by rapid randomized contractions of the atrial myocardium, causing a totally irregular and often rapid ventricular rate Atrial flutter - correct answer A condition of cardiac arrhythmia in which the atrial contractions are rapid (200 to 320 per minute) Atrial (supraventricular) rhythms - correct answer Dysrythmias in which the pacemaker is in the atria above the level of the ventricles (supraventricular) area Atrial Tachycardia - correct answer Rapid heartbeat originating from the atria Atrioventricular block (AV block) - correct answer A cardiac conduction defect in which the impulse generated by the SA node is partially or completely blocked in the area of the AV nose Atrioventricular node - correct answer A microscopic collection of heart muscle fibers involved in the electrical activity of the heart Atrium (plural: atria) - correct answer An upper chamber of the heart; atria also exist in other parts of the body Automaticity - correct answer The condition of being automatic Autonomic nervous system - correct answer A portion of the nervous system concerned with regulation of the activity of cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands Balanced anesthesia - correct answer Anesthesia that relies on the use of several agents together, capitalizing on the best aspects of each agent, but using each at a smaller dose than would be required if it were used alone Barbiturates - correct answer A group of pharmacologic agents that have sedative properties and produce amnesia and a hypnotic effect (eg, thiopental sodium, brevital) Baroreceptor - correct answer A sensory nerve ending that is stimulated by changes in pressure, as those in the walls of blood vessels Blood Dyscrasia - correct answer Any abnormal condition of the blood Bolus - correct answer A rapidly administered dose of medication, as compared to a slow, steady administration of medication with continuous infusion Brachial artery - correct answer Artery that supplies blood to the shoulder, arm, forearm, and hand Brachiocephalic artery - correct answer The large artery on the right of the neck that distributes blood to the right side of the head and neck and right arm Bradycardia - correct answer Slow heart rate (less than 60 beats per minute) Bronchiole - correct answer One of the finer (1mm or less) subdivisions of the branched bronchial tree Bronchus - correct answer Any of the larger air passages of the lungs Bundle of His (HISS) - correct answer A small band of atypical cardiac muscle fibers the propagates the atrial contradiction rhythm to the ventricles Capillary - correct answer Any of the minute vessels that connect the arterioles and venules, forming a network in nearly all parts of the body Capnography - correct answer Measurement and recording of the amount of carbon dioxide in expires air Cardiac dysrhythmias (arrhythmias) - correct answer Rhythm disturbances of the heart Cardiac cycle - correct answer The complete cardiac movement (the systolic and diastolic movement with the interval between them) or heartbeat; the number of cardiac cycles per minute constitutes the heart rate Cardiac output - correct answer The total amount of blood pumped by either ventricle of the heart per unit of time (usually volume per minute); it is equal to stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate Cardioacceleratory center (CAC) - correct answer A group of neurons (conducting cells of their nervous system) in the brain stem involved in the acceleration of the heart action Cardioinhibitory center (CIC) - correct answer A group of neurons in the brain stem that has an inhibitory influence on the heart action via the vagus nerve (tenth cranial nerve) Catatonic - correct answer A psychiatric state in which the patient appears apathetic and stuporous with diminution of sensibility Center of Emotion - correct answer A group of structures in the central portion of the brain that regulate the spectrum of emotional response from a calm, placid state on the one hand to a state of anxiety or rage on the other Central Nervous System - correct answer That portion of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord Cerebellum - correct answer The part of the brain that is concerned with coordination of movement Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) - correct answer Also called stroke; a neurologic defect lasting more than 24 hours caused by a reduced blood flow in the brain Cerebrum - correct answer The main portion of the brain that is concerned with thinking Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) - correct answer Any disorder (eg, asthma, chronic bronchitis, and pulmonary emphysema) marked by persistent obstruction of bronchial air flow Cirrhosis - correct answer Liver disease characterized by loss of normal microscopic lobular structure of the liver and the formation of fibrous tissue CMTC - correct answer The chemoreceptors trigger zone. A center in the brain stem that responds to the presence of potentially toxic substances in the blood and signals the vomiting center to induce vomiting Coarse V. Fib. - correct answer Ventricular fibrillation in which there are relatively prominent deflections of the baseline Common carotid artery - correct answer One of two large, palpable arteries in the neck; the one on the right branches off the brachiocephalic artery and the one on the left branches off the aorta Compensatory pause - correct answer A long beat that compensates for a shorter beat which contains either an atrial or ventricular premature contraction Congenital heart disease - correct answer A cardiac disease caused by a defect in the heart structure present at birth Congestive heart failure - correct answer A clinical syndrome due to heart disease and characterized by breathlessness and abnormal water and sodium retention, resulting in edema Coniotomy - correct answer A procedure involving incision or passage of a large needle through the cricothyroid ligament to create an airway for emergency relief of upper airway obstruction; also called cricothryotomy Continuous infusion - correct answer Slow steady administration of intravenous fluid or an anesthetic agent Coronary sinus - correct answer The terminal portion of the great cardiac vein, which lies between the left atrium and ventricle, and empties into the right atrium Corticosteroid - correct answer (Also called adrenocortical hormone) Any of the steroids produced by the adrenal vortex and involved in many activities, including the body's response to stress; they are used clinically for anti-inflammatory purposes, to suppress the immune response, or for other purposes Couplets - correct answer Two premature ventricular contractions (PVC's) in succession Cranial nerve - correct answer Any of the 12 pairs of nerves connected with the brain; they are part of the peripheral nervous system Cricothyrotomy - correct answer A procedure involving incision or passage of a large needle through the cricothyroid ligament to create an airway for emergency relief of upper airway obstruction; also called coniotomy Cushing's disease - correct answer Abnormally increased activity of the adrenal gland as a result of excessive pituitary secretion of glucocorticoids Cyanosis - correct answer A bluish discoloration, especially of the skin and mucous membranes Deciliter (dL) - correct answer A deciliter is 1/10 of a liter and is the common unit used in the measurement of hemoglobin, which is expressed in milligrams per deciliter (mg/dL) Depolorization - correct answer A reversal of charge across the neuronal membrane caused by the movement of positively and negatively charged ions through ion channels Diaphragm - correct answer The partition of muscles and tendons between the abdominal and chest cavities. It is the primary respiratory muscle responsible for inhalation and exhalation of air in the lungs Diastolic - correct answer Pertaining to the phrase when the heart's pumping action forces blood into the ventricles to expand Diffusion hypoxia - correct answer A phenomenon during emergence from anesthesia that follows the discontinuation of nitrous oxide and during which nitrous oxide rapidly passes from the bloodstream into the alveoli and displaced other gases, including oxygen Digitalis - correct answer A pharmacologic agent used to treat congestive heart failure, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, and paroxysmal tachycardia of the atria Dissociative anesthesia - correct answer A form of anesthesia in which the patient becomes dissociated or detached from the sensory inputs from his/her environment Diuretic - correct answer An agent that promotes excretion of urine Dorsum - correct answer The back or posterior aspect of an anatomic part, eg, the dorsum of the hand Dysphoria - correct answer unpleasant feeling on emerging from anesthesia Dyspnea - correct answer Difficult or labored breathing Dysthymia - correct answer Disturbance of cardiac rhythm Ectopic - correct answer Displaced. The term is often used to describe displaced foci for the generation of an impulse in the myocardium ie an ectopic pacemaker Ectopic focus (pl.foci) - correct answer A displaced central point of origin for a cardiac dysthymia Ectopic pacemaker - correct answer Any biologic cardiac pacemaker other than the sinus node [Show Less]
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DAANCE STUDY QUESTIONS, ENTIRE DAANCE GLOSSARY, DAANCE DRUGS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS
Nose/nasal passages, sinuses, pharynx - correct answer What consists of the upper airway? Larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, pulmonary alveoli - cor... [Show More] rect answer What consists of the lower airway? Immediate hypersensitivity response that involves antigen-antibody reactions (IgE) - correct answer What is the most severe type of allergic reaction? Liver - correct answer What is the largest gland in the body? Pediatric patients - correct answer What age group of patients will hypoxia occur much more rapidly in? Bradycardia is a sign relating to hypoxia Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) - correct answer What does HIPAA stand for? Ischemia - correct answer A decrease in blood flow in the coronary arteries? Can temporarily or permanently damage the heart muscle by decreasing O2 available to the muscle cells? 1 year- Plavix & Aspirin - correct answer If a cardiac patient just had stent placement, how long are they required to be on antiplatelet drugs? What are the 2 drugs they usually do together? Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE) aka infectious endocarditis - correct answer Type of infection that can further damage heart valves or cause systemic infections? Requires antibiotic prophylaxis P wave - correct answer Atrial depolarization (contraction) QRS complex - correct answer Ventricular depolarization T wave - correct answer Ventricular repolarization (relaxation) Cushing's disease - correct answer Type of disease due to excessive secretion of corticosteroid due to a presence of a tumor or from administration of high doses of corticosteriod drugs (ex: Prednisone) Myxedema - correct answer Chronic long-term hypothyroidism, most commonly seen in older adults (elderly women) who have had a stroke or stopped taking their thyroid medication Thyroid crisis - correct answer Most severe complication of hyperthyroidism from an OMS perspective Hyperthyroidism - correct answer Untreated __________ are at an increased risk for outpatient anesthesia and tend to be sensitive to epinephrine in a local anesthetic Diabetes Type 1 - correct answer Insulin-dependent Diabetes Type 2 - correct answer Non-insulin dependent Elevated LFTs (Liver function tests) - correct answer Elevated level of several liver enzymes and bilirubin is often termed? Women - correct answer What gender is Propofol more rapidly redistributed in and require 10-15% larger dose? Children - correct answer What age group would Propofol redistribute very rapidly, and require at least 50% increase in drug dose? Diffusion hypoxia - correct answer What is a complication of N2O rapidly moving from blood to alveoli of lungs, and displaces other gases, including O2 General anesthesia - correct answer Patient is not aroused, even during painful stimulation. Required airway intervention & cardiovascular function is impaired Deep sedation/analgesia - correct answer Can't be easily aroused, purposeful response to pain, and requires airway assistance Moderate sedation (conscious sedation) - correct answer Response to verbal or light tactile touch with no compromise of airway Minimal sedation (anxiolysis) - correct answer Normal response to verbal stimulation with airway reflexes, ventiliation & cardiovascular functions are unaffected Valium or Versed - correct answer What drugs are given for minimal sedation (anxiolysis) Balanced anesthesia - correct answer Anesthesia that relies on the use of several agents together to benefit from each other. Using each drug at a smaller dose than required if it were being used alone 0.2 mg - correct answer Maximum does of Epi for a healthy patient? 100% O2, Dantrolene (2.5 mg/kg) and IV cold saline (NOT Ringer's) - correct answer What is the treatment for Malignant Hyperthermia? Hypertension - correct answer What emergency would a beta blocker be given? 0.04 mg - correct answer What is the maximum dose of Epi for a patient with cardiovascular disease? Asystole - correct answer Cardiac arrest- has no rhythm or contraction of EKG Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) - correct answer No discernable P, QRS or T waves noted. No pumping of blood at all and no depolarization of the ventricles V-Fib or Asytole - correct answer What are 2 emergencies would Epi be given in? Lidocaine - correct answer What are PVCs treated with? Versed, valium or propofol - correct answer What medications can be given for a severe case of hyperventilation? Ventricular tachycardia (V-tach) - correct answer Dysrhythmia with a rapid firing of an ectopic focus with a rate of 140-200 BPM but no P wave Amiodarone - correct answer What medication would be given for V-tach? Adenosine, Inderal or Esmolol - correct answer What are 3 different medications that could be given for SVT? Atropine - correct answer What medication would be given for symptomatic bradycardia? Airway obstruction - correct answer What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performed? ETT, LMA or ETA (endotracheal tube, laryngeal mask airway, esophageal tracheal airway) - correct answer What type of intubation is preferred with emesis and aspiration? Medical information that helps oral surgeons identify poor-risk patients, guide treatment, and written evidence the patient was given to evaluate the treatment plan - correct answer What are the 3 basic requirements to follow when gathering medical information? Hematuria - correct answer What is the term for blood in the urine? Pulmonary artery - correct answer What is the artery that carries oxygen-poor (venous) blood from the heart to the lungs? Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta - correct answer What is the blood flow through the heart? 100% O2, turn patient to their right side with head down, tonsil suction, intubate - correct answer What is the treatment for emesis with aspiration? Laryngospasm - correct answer Crowing sounds, labored breathing, suprasternal retraction & rocking of the chest and abdomen (paradoxical) are signs of what? 100% O2, head tilt chin position, tonsil suction, bag/mask, succinylcholine - correct answer Treatment of a laryngospasm Tracheostomy - correct answer Surgical airway below level of larynx into the trachea is called what? Capnograph/capnometer - correct answer Device that monitors ventilation in real time by measuring the level of O2 the patient exhales Pulse oximeter - correct answer Device that monitors ventilation and circulation Bronchspasm - correct answer Difficulty with expiration not inspiration, wheezing and labored breathing are signs of what medical emergency? 100% O2, Albuterol inhaler, epi, ETT/LMA or Igel, and a steroid - correct answer Treatment of bronchospasm MP 1 - correct answer What MP classification is visualization of soft palate, fauces, uvula, anterior and posterior pillars? MP 2 - correct answer What MP classification is visualization of soft palate, fauces & uvula? MP 3 - correct answer What MP classification is visualization of soft palate and base of tongue? MP 4 - correct answer What MP classification would the soft palate not be visible at all? Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin - correct answer What does MONA stand for? Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, and morphine (ONAM) - correct answer What is the actual order of MONA? Systolic blood pressure - correct answer Ventricular contraction is which phase of BP? Dystolic blood pressure - correct answer Ventricular relaxation is what phase of BP? Repolarization of the ventricles - correct answer The T wave on a cardiac monitor tracing is evidence of what change in polarization? Epiglottis - correct answer What anatomical structure located at the top of the larynx closes the airway and prevents foreign bodies from entering the trachea? Tongue - correct answer What is most likely to cause obstruction of the airway when an anesthetized patient is lying in a supine position? Pulmonary artery - correct answer Blood is pumped to the lungs from the heart through what vessel? Alveoli - correct answer Small, sac-like structures located at the end of the respiratory tract in which O2 and CO2 are exchanged. Epiglottis - correct answer Soft tissue valve that covers the larynx and allows food to enter the esophagus is called the? Common carotid - correct answer Artery located in the neck that is readily palpated when looking for a patient's pulse. Brain and spinal cord - correct answer CNS consists of: Blood supply to the brain - correct answer Patient with a history of TIA has had a temporary lessening of? Ischemic heart disease - correct answer Decreased blood flow in the coronary arteries is caused by? Medical history - correct answer Main purpose of the review of systems is to obtain a careful evaluation of the patient's ______________? Drug excretion - correct answer Patient who has renal disease would be expected to have difficulty with what? Basic medical information, process of evaluating the patient & the patient's psychological status - correct answer Medical history is used to document? SOB, edema, ascites - correct answer CHF can result in all of the following: 95-100% - correct answer Normal blood O2 saturation in an ASA (class) I patient ranges from: Subject to postoperative infections - correct answer Diabetic patients are at risk for oral surgery because they are: 6 months - correct answer Patient who has had a MI should wait how long before having elective surgery? Grave's disease - correct answer Hyperthyroidism is also considered? Hepatitis A - correct answer Hepatitis caused by contaminated food or water Hepatitis B - correct answer Hepatitis most frequently in patients who have been incarcerated or who have been treated for STDs Hepatitis C - correct answer Hepatitis caused by contaminated needles (IV drug use) Ascites - correct answer What is the term for large fluid filled abdomen? Hepatic coma - correct answer Prolonged CNS depression in a patient with liver disease can result in a condition called? Liver disease - correct answer Patients who have ______ disease don't have the ability to produce clotting factors INR (international normalized ratio) - correct answer Ratio of how long it takes a patient's blood to clot Cirrhosis - correct answer Liver disease with the formation of fibrous tissue and is most commonly caused by alcoholism is called what? Acute renal failure - correct answer Sudden onset, can't have NSAIDS, caused by heavy blood loss, dehydration, injury Chronic renal failure - correct answer the progressive loss of renal function over a period of months or years, usually on dialysis Hemodialysis - correct answer Patients go to a dialysis center several hours a day, usually 3 days/week. Are given Heparin during dialysis, and have a shunt or AV fistula Periotoneal dialysis - correct answer Natural membrane in patients abdomen is used for dialysis, less efficient and carried out for a longer period of time Anemic - correct answer Renal failure patients tend to become _____ because they can't produce adequate blood cells Seizures - correct answer Transient disturbance of cerebral functions Tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure - correct answer Most common type of seizure Prodromal phase, ictal tonic clonic phase, post ictal phase - correct answer 3 phases of grand mal seizures Grand mal status (status epilepticus) - correct answer Seizure lasting 5 minutes or longer Petit mal seizure - correct answer 2nd type of seizure Dilantin hyperplasia - correct answer Drug given to seizure patients that cause swelling/inflammation of gingival tissues TIA stroke (transient ischemic attack) - correct answer Mini stroke- recovery within 24 hours Aspiration and respiratory obstruction - correct answer Patients who have had strokes in the past are more prone to _______ and ______ during anesthesia 2nd trimester - correct answer Best trimester to perform oral surgery in 1st trimester - correct answer What trimester has the greatest risk for oral surgery? Obesity - correct answer 20% above ideal body weight Overwight - correct answer BMI 25-29 is considered Obese - correct answer BMI over 30 is considered Morbidly obese - correct answer BMI over 40 is considered Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) - correct answer Cessation of air flow for more than 10 seconds 2-3 - correct answer Patients INR is often _____ when on Coumadin 3-4 days - correct answer How long should a patient hold their Coumadin prior to surgery? Heparin - correct answer Given IV only, immediate effect and wears off rapidly. Given to patients on Coudmadin Plavix, Aspirin, Ticlid - correct answer Medications that interfere with platelets developing "sticky" characteristics. Life cycle of these drugs are 7-10 days Propofol, ketamine, versed, fentanyl - correct answer 4 most common drugs used together for balanced anesthesia Analgesia - correct answer Inability to feel pain - Fentanyl, ketamine & local Amnesia - correct answer Loss of memory - Versed & valium Versed, propofol, brevital & ketamine - correct answer 4 drugs that can be essential for a patient to be relaxed and immobile during procedure. Hypnosis - correct answer Loss of consciousness "put to sleep"- Propofol & brevital Anxiolytics - correct answer Centers for emotion- Valium & versed Dissociative anesthesia - correct answer Isolated from the environment "relay center"- Ketamine Opioid receptors - correct answer Calming/euphoric effects "pain free"- Demerol & Fentanyl Homeostasis/homeostatic state - correct answer Depress respiration and cause hypotension- minimal variation to respiration and expiration Pharmacokinetics - correct answer Effects the body has on the drugs Pharmacodynamics - correct answer Effects the drug has on the body Intravenous - correct answer Most common route of drug administration Rapid redistribution - correct answer Short-acting drugs wear off rapidly because they are only attached to receptor sites for a short amount of time before they move to other tissues like fat or muscle Propofol - correct answer Type of short-acting drug Valium - correct answer Type of long-acting drug Intramuscular (IM) - correct answer Unpredictable onset of drug effect upon injection Subcutaneous (SQ) - correct answer Beneath the skin- emergency use for Epinephrine By mouth (PO) - correct answer Delayed onset of drug absorption 1.7 mL / carpule - correct answer How much Epinephrine is in 1 carpule of Lidocaine for a 1% solution Minimal sedation - correct answer Normal response to verbal stimulation with airway reflexes, ventilation & cardiovascular function uneffected (Anxiolysis) - Oral preop meds Moderate sedation - correct answer Response to verbal light tactile touch, no airway compromise ("conscious sedation") - N2O or EMLA Deep sedation - correct answer Cannot be easily aroused, purposeful response to painful stimulation, airway assistance may be required, ventilation may be inadequate, cardiovascular function is usually maintained (analgesia) Vitals, ambulation, N/V, pain, surgical bleeding - correct answer What are the 5 things you evaluate for modified post-anesthesia discharge score? Total score is 10 (Score of 9 or greater is considered fit for discharge) Local, local with N2O or IV sedation, IV balanced anesthesia or inhalation anesthesia - correct answer What are the 4 categories of anesthesia? 30% - correct answer What percentage of O2 is required when administering N2O? 3-4 minutes - correct answer How long should you administer O2 after turning off the N2O 15 minutes - correct answer How long should you keep a patient in the office after they have been on N2O 8 hours - correct answer How long is it required to be NPO for IV sedation? 15-20 mL/kg - correct answer What is the recommended fluid volume administration throughout an IV sedation? Versed - correct answer What drug is for relaxation & amnesia? Fentanyl - correct answer What drug is for analgesia? Inhalation anesthetics - correct answer _________ anesthetics are potential triggers for malignant hypothermia Propofol - correct answer What drug is used quite often due to its antiemetic effects, and does not predispose laryngospasms? 12 hours - correct answer After opening a vial of Propofol, how long do you have before it is no longer good to use? Children - correct answer What age group rapidly redistributes Propofol and requires a 50% increase in dosage? Older patients - correct answer What age group has an increased sensitivity to Propofol and requires the dosage to be reduced? Women - correct answer What gender rapidly redistributes Propofol and requires a 10-15% larger dose? Lean body mass - correct answer For obese patients, how should the dosage of Propofol be determined? Mild bradycardia - correct answer What is noticed in the first 10 minutes of administering Propofol? Hypotension - correct answer Large doses, rapid administration and advanced age can cause _________ when adminstering Propofol Propofol - correct answer What drug induces bronchodilation and can decrease the incidence of intraoperative wheezing in patients with asthma & COPD? Ketamine 10mg - correct answer What drug can you give 30 seconds before giving Propofol to reduce the incidence of pain during Propofol infiltration? Catatonic state - correct answer Ketamine causes a patient to be dissociated from sensory inputs in his environment which is called _________ state? Nystagmic - correct answer Distant/wandering gaze Ketamine - correct answer What drug is twice as rapidly eliminated in children then adults? Vivid dreaming and illusions - correct answer What can Ketamine cause a patient to do? Increases salivation - correct answer One disadvantage of Ketamine is? Liver - correct answer Where are barbiturates detoxified? Barbiturates - correct answer Produces amnesia and hypnotic effects along with sedative properties. Thought to make patients more sensitive to pain Hematomas - correct answer What is most frequently encountered during injection in posterior aspect of maxilla in the 3rd molar region? Esters - correct answer Metabolized in bloodstream by pseudocholinesterase Amides - correct answer Metabolized in the liver Cocaine & Procaine - correct answer 2 types of Esters Lidocaine, mepivacaine, prilocaine, bupivacaine, articaine - correct answer 5 types of Amides Vasonconstrictors - correct answer Dilate blood vessels 10-11 carpules - correct answer Maximum amount of Lidocaine for an average patient 7-8 carpules - correct answer Maximum amount of Mepivacaine for an adult patient 6 carpules - correct answer Maximum amount of Prilocaine for a patient 10 carpules - correct answer Maximum amount of Bupivacaine for a patient 7 carpules - correct answer Maximum amount of Articaine for a patient Inadverent injection of Epinephrine - correct answer This type of injection in a vessel can lead to tachycardia, hypertension and sense of heart pounding in chest 20% O2 - correct answer What percentage of O2 is in room air? 1 hour - correct answer How long is the contact time for EMLA cream to be sufficient? Capnography - correct answer Level of CO2 expired in each breath- this is mandatory when an ETT is being used [Show Less]
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DAANCE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100- CORRECT ANSWERS
Wave of Depolarization - correct answer an advancing wave of charge reversal as the nerve impulse advance a long the neuron Wakefullness system - correc... [Show More] t answer consists of a central core in the brainstem with neurons that radiate to the cortex Vomiting Center - correct answer the center in the brainstem that induces vomiting Vital Centers - correct answer centers in the brainstem that control such physiologic processes as blood pressure and pulse, depth and rate of respiration Vestibular nerve - correct answer part of the eighth cranial nerve that is connect with equilibrium and hearing Venule - correct answer any of the small vessels that collect blood from networks of capillaries and join them to form veins Ventricular tachycardia - correct answer a cardia dsrhythmia in which there is rapid firing of an ectopic focus in the ventricles and a wide QRS complex with no p waves Ventricular rhythms - correct answer a cardia dsrhythmia in which the pacemaker is in the ventricles rather than in the SA node or atria Ventricular focus - correct answer a displace point of origin for a dysrhythmia that is in the ventricles Ventricular fibrillation - correct answer arrhythmia characterized by contractions of ventricle muscle fibers due to rapid excitation of myocardial fibers without coordinated contraction of the ventricle Sensory nerve - correct answer a nerve of the peripheral nervous system that conducts impulses from a sense organ to the spinal cord or brain Sinoatrial node - correct answer a microscopic collection of heart muscle fibers where cardiac rhythm originates; also called the pacemaker of the heart sinus arrhythmia - correct answer a cardiac dysrhythmia similar to normal sinus rhythm, but withslight variation in rate with inspiration and expiration sinus bradycardia - correct answer cardiac dysrhythmia similar to normal sinus rhythm except for a slower rate of less than 60 bpm sinus rhythms - correct answer cardiac rhythms in which the pacemaker is the sinoatrial node sinus tachycardia - correct answer dysrhythmia similar to normal sinus rhythm except for an increase in rate of greater than 100 bpm but less than 150 bpm stroke volume - correct answer the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle during each beat of the heart subcutaneous - correct answer beneath the skin superior vena cava - correct answer the venous trunk that drains blood from the head, neck, upper extremities, and chest and empties into the right atrium of the heart supraventricular foci - correct answer central points of origin of dsrhythmias, which are located above the level of the ventricles in the atria sympathommimetic - correct answer having activity that mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system, epinephrine synapse - correct answer the junction between two neurons where impulses are transmitted from one neuron to another synaptic cleft - correct answer the gap between two nerves where they meet at a synapse syncope - correct answer fainting synergistic - correct answer the phenomenon that exists when two drugs are administered together, and the combined effect is greater than the sum of its parts systolic - correct answer pertaining to the phase of the heart's pumping action when the ventricles contract, forcing blood either to the lungs or peripheral circulation T wave - correct answer the EKG waveform that represents repolarization of the ventricles Tachycardia - correct answer fast heart rate terminal button - correct answer the bulge at the end of the nerve that touches the next nerve in the never pathway at a synapse third degree AV block - correct answer an atrioventricular block in which the impulse does not conduct from the atria to the ventricles and there is independent contraction of the atria and ventricles Thrombosis - correct answer formation of a blood clot in a blood vessel, usually a vein Tidal Volume - correct answer the amount of gas that is inspired or expired during one respiratory cycle titrate - correct answer to give a small quantity of a drug and assess its effects before giving additional drugs trachea - correct answer windpipe tracheostomy - correct answer the surgical creation of an opening into the trachea through the neck transient ischemic attack - correct answer a brief attack of cerebral dysfunction caused by reduced blood flow in the brain trigeminal nerve - correct answer the fifth cranial nerve, which supplies sensation to the face, teeth, mouth, and nasal cavity type I diabetes - correct answer insulin-dependent diabetes type II diabetes - correct answer noninsulin- dependent diabetes vagus nerve - correct answer the tenth cranial nerve, which supplies fibers to many parts of the body, including the ears, tongue, pharynx, larynx, and thoracic, and abdominal viscera vapocoolant - correct answer a chemical spray applied to the skin to rapidly cool the skin surface vaporizer - correct answer a device that allows for the controlled evaporation and release of inhalation anesthetic agents for the administration of inhalation anesthesia vasoconstriction - correct answer the decrease in the diameter of a vessel, especially constriciton of arterioles leading to decreased blood flow to a part vascoconstrictors - correct answer pharmacologic agents that cause blood vessels to constrict vasodilation - correct answer dilation of a vessel vein - correct answer vessel that carries blood from organs ventricle - correct answer one of a pair of cavities that have thick muscular walls and make up the bulk of the heart P wave - correct answer a wave appearing on a cardiac monitor tracing that reflects the electrical activity that produces contraction of the atria Paradoxical effect - correct answer an effect that is the opposite of the intended effect Parenteral - correct answer routes of medication administration other than by mouth Paroxysmal tachycardia - correct answer a condition marked by sudden attacks of rapid heartbeats PEA - correct answer a cardiac dsyrhythmia in which a normal rhythm such as sinus bradycardia appears on the monitor screen although there is no contraction of the heart pharmacodynamics - correct answer the effects that the drug has on various body system pharmacokinetics - correct answer the effect that the body has on a drug pharynx - correct answer the muscular and membranous cavity leading from the mouth and lower nasal passages to the trachea phlebitis - correct answer inflammation of a blood vessel in response to an irritating intravenously administered substance pneumonitis - correct answer inflammation of the lungs pons - correct answer almond shaped structure that is the upper-most portion of the brainstem and serves as a "bridge" to the midbrain potentiate - correct answer to make stronger or enhance the effect of a drug PAC - correct answer a premature firing of an ectopic focus in the atria producing an early contraction of the atria PVC - correct answer premature contraction of the heart that is independent of the normal rhythm and arises in response to an impulse in the ventricle Prothrombin - correct answer protein present in plasma that represents one of several coagulation factors protease inhibitors - correct answer class of pharmacologic agents used in the treatment of AIDS to help prevent viral replication pseudocholinesterase - correct answer a type of enzyme found in the blood that is responsible for the metabolic breakdown of the muscle relaxant succinylcholine pterygoid plexus - correct answer a network of veins corresponding to the second and third parts of maxillary artery pulmonary artery - correct answer one of two arteries that carry venous blood from the heart to the lungs pulmonary veins - correct answer the veins that return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart pulseless V. Tach - correct answer a cardiac dysrhythmia in which there is a monitor display of ventricular tachycardia, but there is no contraction purkinje fiber system - correct answer specialized cardia muscle fibers that rapidly transmit impulses in the heart and coordinate contraction of the heart QRS complex - correct answer an element appearing on a cardiac monitor tracing that reflects the activity that produces ventricular contration Rales - correct answer abnormal breath sounds detected during auscultation of the lungs that are often described as crackling or bubbling receptor sites - correct answer specialized sites on ion channels to which natural neurotransmitter substances or drugs attach, usually leading to the opening of the ion channel for passage of positively or negatively charged ions redistribution - correct answer the release of a drug from its initial receptor site and its movement through the blood stream to other body structures such as fat stores, muscles, etc. relay center - correct answer an ovoid structure in the central portion of the brain that relays sensory input to the cerebral cortex repolarization - correct answer reestablishment of the normal distribution of charge across a neuronal membrane review of system - correct answer an organized set of questions asked during history taking that address each of the major body systems rheumatic heart disease - correct answer damage to the heart, primarily the heart valve, caused by a systemic bacterial infection run of PVCs - correct answer several PVCs in succession second degree AV block Type I - correct answer an atrioventricular block with progressive elongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped beat second degree AV block Type II - correct answer an atrioventricular block with alternating conducting and non-conducting impulses and multiple dropped beats sedatives - correct answer a group of pharmacologic agents used to provide a sense of relaxation in patients who are apprehensive Hemoglobin - correct answer a component of red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs Hypercarbia - correct answer increased level of carbon dioxide hypertension - correct answer abnormally high blood pressure hyperthyroidism - correct answer excessive functional activity of the thyroid gland, characterized by increased basal metabolism, goiter, and disturbances of the autonomic nervous system hypotension - correct answer abnormally low blood pressure hypothyroidism - correct answer deficiency of thyroid activity characterized in adults by decreased basal metabolic rate, tiredness, sensitivity to cold, and menstrual disturbances hypoxia - correct answer low levels of oxygen induction - correct answer the initiation of a state of unconsciousness duirng anesthesia Inferior alveolar artery - correct answer artery that supplies blood to the mandible, teeth, lower lip and chin inferior vena cava - correct answer the venous trunk from the lower extremities and abdominal viscera that empties blood into the right atrium of the heart internal jugular vein - correct answer vein that drains much of the blood from the head and the neck ion channels - correct answer microscopic channels within the membranes of neurons through which charged particles or ions pass during conduction of the nerve impulse ischemia - correct answer deficiency of the blood to a body part junctional rhythms - correct answer cardiac dsrhythmia in which the ectopic pacemaker is in the area of the AV junction [Show Less]
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DAANCE ALL MODULES PRACTICE TEST EXAMS GRADED A+ UPDATED 2023
Pulmonary artery - correct answer One of two arteries that carry venous (oxygen poor) blood from heart to lungs What type of intubation is preferred wit... [Show More] h emesis with aspiration? - correct answer ETT. LMA or combitube acceptable. What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performed? - correct answer Airway obstruction Atropine would be given in which emergency? - correct answer Symptomatic bradycardia Adenosine would be given in which emergency? - correct answer SVT Amiodarone would be given in which emergency? - correct answer V. Tach What medications can be given for a sever case of hyperventilation? - correct answer Versed, Valium, or Propofol PVC's are treated with which medicine? - correct answer Lidocaine Epi is given in which two emergencies? - correct answer V. Fib and asystole Max dose of epi for cardiovascular disease pt - correct answer .04mg A beta blocker would be given in which emergency? - correct answer Hypertension A fluid bolus of NS and ephedrine can be given with what emergency? - correct answer Hypotension What medications are used to treat malignant hypothermia? - correct answer Dantrolene, IV cold saline (not Ringer's) Nasopharyngeal airway - correct answer When tongue is obstructing airway. Tube is lubricated and passed through the nose into nasal cavity. Sits in oropharynx behind tongue. Well tolerated and can be used on awake pts. Oropharyngeal airway - correct answer Also placed to position tongue in more anterior position. Often interfere with intra oral procedures. Not tolerated well with awake pts. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) - correct answer Device that sits over top of larynx. Can be placed blindly. Does not protect against aspiration. Inflated with 30cc to create seal. Endotracheal intubation - correct answer End of tube passes through vocal cords and terminates half way between vocal cords and bifurcation of trachea. Important to listen to both lungs after placement. May or May not be cuffed. Combitube - correct answer Generally used for specific emergencies. Both cuffs inflated. Pts predisposed to bronchospasm - correct answer Allergies, asthma, copd, bronchitis Bronchospasm - correct answer Generalized contraction of smooth muscles of small bronchi and bronchioles in lungs causing restriction of air flow of air to and from lungs. Maximum dose of epi for healthy pt - correct answer .2mg Liver - correct answer Protein and lipid synthesis, bio transformation, detoxification and storage of vitamin A, E, D, K, and B12. Causes of seizures - correct answer Liver failure, renal failure, sickle cell disease, brain tumor, meningitis, previous stroke and hypo-hyperglycemia. Medications to treat seizures - correct answer Tegretol, Klonopin, Neurontin, luminal, Dilantin, depacon Main function of kidneys - correct answer Maintain volume and composition of body fluids. Body's main source of filtration and excrete metabolic end products and toxins. Islets of langerhans - correct answer Located in pancreas. Secrete insulin and glucagon. Insulin helps the body store sugar to keep glucose levels in a steady state. Adrenal glands - correct answer Secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. Controls electrolyte balance and carb metabolism. Thyroid - correct answer Regulates body's basal metabolic rate. Pterygoid plexus - correct answer Network of veins corresponding to 2nd and 3rd parts of maxillary artery Olfactory nerve - correct answer 1st cranial nerve that controls smell Optic nerve - correct answer 2nd cranial nerve that controls sight Internal jugular vein - correct answer Drains much of blood from head and neck Purkinje fiber system - correct answer Causes muscles of heart to contract. Spreads impulse rapidly along heart muscle. Brachiocephalic artery - correct answer Branches into right common carotid in neck and right subclavian artery in arm. Hematocrit - correct answer % blood volume made up of red blood cells. Men: 42-52% women: 37-48%. Anything below 35% considered anemic. Mental artery - correct answer Supplies blood to chin. Ischemia - correct answer Reduced blood flow in coronary arteries. Lack of oxygen to heart cells weakens, but does not kill them. Maxillary artery - correct answer Supplies blood to maxilla, teeth, sinuses, and portion of nose. Medulla oblongata - correct answer Coordinating region for impulses. The seat of many autonomic centers. Normal levels of hemoglobin - correct answer Males: 13-18 mg/dL Females: 14-16 mg/dL Oropharynx - correct answer Located between soft palate and epiglottis. Facial nerve - correct answer 7th cranial nerve. Supplies motor fibers to muscles of facial expression. Trigeminal nerve - correct answer 5th cranial nerve. Supplies sensation to teeth and jaws. Vagus nerve - correct answer 10th cranial nerve. Supplies fibers to many parts of body. (Ears, tongue, pharynx, larynx, thoracic/abdominal viscera). Pulmonary veins - correct answer Return oxygenated blood to left atrium from lungs. Only veins that carry oxygenated blood. Superior vena cava - correct answer Drains head, neck, and upper extremities into right atrium. Adrenal glad - correct answer Secretes epinephrine, norepinephrine, and corticosteroids. Ectopic focus - correct answer Displaced central point of origin for cardiac dysrhythmias. Inferior alveolar artery - correct answer Supplies blood to teeth, mandible, lower lip, and chin. Inferior vena cava - correct answer Drains lower extremities and abdominal viscera into right atrium. Brachial artery - correct answer Supplies blood to shoulder, arm, forearm, and hand. Facial artery - correct answer Supplies blood to face, tonsil, palate, and submandibular gland. T's of pulseleas electrical activity - correct answer Toxins, trauma, thrombosis, tension pneumothorax, tamponade H's of pulseless electrical activity - correct answer Hydrogen ion, hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypoglycemia, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) - correct answer Normal appearing tracing, but patient has no pulse. Asystole - correct answer Cessation of all contractions. "Flat line" usually follows v. fib or v. tach. Treated with CPR. Ventricular fibrillation v. fib - correct answer Course v. fib with prominent, erratic baseline or fine v. fib with far less pronounced vacillations. No p, qrs, or t. Often precedes asystole. Class III - correct answer Pt has severe systemic disturbance or disease. Class IV - correct answer Patient has a severe, life threatening systemic disorder. Class V - correct answer Patient is moribund with little chance of survival. Surgery is done in desperation. Class II - correct answer Patient has mild to no systemic disturbance. Smokers included. Class I - correct answer Patient has no organic, biochemical, psychiatric, or physiological disturbance. Beta blockers - correct answer Reduce the rate and force of contraction of the heart. (Atenolol) Vasodilators - correct answer Reduce the pressure vasculature. (Norvasc, lisinopril, diovan) Diuretics - correct answer Reduce the volume of fluid in system. Used to treat coronary artery disease. (HCTZ, Lasix) Hypertension - correct answer Blood pressure of 140/90 or greater. (Hx of nosebleeds, headaches, and dizziness) Rate of ventricles - correct answer 20-40 Rate of AV node - correct answer 40-60 Rate of atria - correct answer 60-80 Arrest rhythms - correct answer Ventricular dysrhythmias Rate of SA node - correct answer 60-100 Social history review of systems - correct answer Patients smoking and alcohol history/current use should be noted along with illegal drug use. Ventricular foci - correct answer Located in ventricles Supraventricular foci - correct answer Located above level of ventricles in atria. Antibiotic prophylaxis for total joint replacement patients - correct answer Previous joint infection, 2 yrs following joint replacement, malnourishment, hemophilia, diabetes type I, immunosuppressed or immunocompromised patients. AV blocks - correct answer PR length is prolonged or varies in length due to impulse being partially or completely blocked as it attempts to travel from atria to ventricles via AV node. Patients who need antibiotic prophylaxis - correct answer Previous infective endocarditis, prosthetic valves, cardiac transplant patients who develop valvulopathy, congenital heart disease. Congestive heart failure - correct answer Condition caused by the heart is unable to handle blood volume coming back to it from either the lungs or peripheral circulation. 3 characteristics of normal heart rhythms - correct answer Rate, regularity, and rhythm. MVP (mitral valve prolapse) - correct answer One or more of valve flaps don't close completely allowing redundancy of valve leaflets into left atrium. Rheumatic heart diseases - correct answer Condition caused secondary to rheumatic fever (beta hemolytic streptococci) which damages the heart valves, primarily the mitral valve, and causes heart murmur. MI (myocardial infarction) - correct answer Heart attack. Six should be performed on patient until 6 months after. Right sided heart failure - correct answer Increased pressure of fluid in blood vessels causes fluid to leak into body's tissues causing peripheral edema and ascites Left sided heart failure - correct answer Increased pressure of fluid in blood vessels causes fluid to leak into lungs. Patients often present with shortness of breath. Review of systems musculoskeletal - correct answer Weakness of extremities, atrophy of muscles, frequent cramping of muscles. Review of systems neurologic - correct answer Weakness of extremities, hx of projectile vomiting, headaches, visual disturbances, any unexplained pain or numbness in body. Review of systems pulmonary - correct answer Shortness of breath, dizziness, chronic cough, wheezing, productive cough. Review of systems genitourinary - correct answer Painful urination, blood in urine, frequent urination, incontinence, discharge in urine. Review of systems gastrointestinal - correct answer Loss of appetite, swallowing, change in taste, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation. Review of systems skin - correct answer Bruising, bleeding, discoloration. Review of systems cardiovascular - correct answer Headaches, dizziness, nosebleeds, shortness of breath, chest or arm pain, edema. Review of systems general - correct answer Weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, fatigue. 4 key questions to ask patient in evaluation - correct answer Are they currently under physicians care, do they take any meds, do they have any allergies and reactions they have, review of systems. Asthma - correct answer Usually associated with allergies. Increased secretions in the muscles membranes lining bronchioles. Mucus plugs block smaller bronchi making movement of air in and out if lungs difficult. More difficulty with expiration. Focus (foci) - correct answer Site in atria or ventricles which is center for generation of impulse. Cushing's disease - correct answer Non life threatening. Hyper secretion of glucocorticoids. Glucocorticoids - correct answer Allow the body to respond to stress. Addison's disease - correct answer Life threatening. Hypo secretion of glucocorticoids. Cirrhosis - correct answer Fibrosis or scar tissue in liver. Patients with cirrhosis may have difficulty metabolizing medications and may have prolonged effects of medications. Risks of liver cirrhosis - correct answer Prolonged effects of medications, prolonged mental depression can cause hepatic coma, trouble clotting, peripheral edema, ascites. Dyspnea - correct answer Difficulty breathing or breathlessness. Bronchitis - correct answer Inflammation of the mucous membranes lining the bronchial tubes. Sx should be delayed. Smoking - correct answer Predisposes patients to laryngospasm and bronchospasm. Upper respiratory infection (URI) - correct answer Common cold or cough which produces increased secretions in airway. Best to delay surgery. Involves sinuses, nasal passages, pharynx, and larynx. Diabetes mellitus - correct answer Metabolic impairment where the body is unable to metabolize glucose properly causing increased blood glucose levels. This prevents the body from metabolizing carbs properly. Type I - correct answer Insulin dependent diabetes. Type II diabetes - correct answer Non insulin dependent Considerations for diabetic patients - correct answer Patients with diabetes do not heal as quickly and are more prone to infection. Often placed on antibiotics. Fasting blood sugar (FBS) - correct answer 125 mg/dL normal or in control [Show Less]
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DAANCE PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS UPDATED 2023 GRADED A+
Signs of malignant hyperthermia - correct answer Tachycardia, CO2 retention, muscle rigidity, increase in body temp, lethal arrythmia Tx for malignant h... [Show More] yperthermia - correct answer EMS, O2, dantrolene, cold saline IV, ice packs-groin, axilla,neck What tyoe of med is methohexital/brevital - correct answer Barbiturate Side effects of brevital - correct answer Apnea on induction, muscle twitching, hiccups, decrease in BP, increase in HR, laryngospasm, bronchospasm What type of med is pentothal/Thiopental - correct answer Barbiturate Side effects of thiopental - correct answer Long recovery time, anesthetic hangover What type is propofol - correct answer Short acting hypnotic.... Antiemetic properties Side effects of propofol - correct answer Apnea, bradycardia, hypercarbia, hypotension What med is ketamine - correct answer Schedule II: dissociative also causes amnesia and analgesia Side effects of ketamine - correct answer Increase in salvation, BP,HR,ICP Vivid dreaming Contraindications of ketamine - correct answer Uncontrolled glaucoma, pregnancy, psych issues, heart disease Basic requisites of aesthetic - correct answer Nontoxic Non flammable Non addictive Minimal allergenicity What's balanced anesthesia - correct answer Amnesia Analgesia Relaxation/immobility Loss of consciousness Levels of sedation - correct answer I- minimal sedation (anxiolytics) II- conscious sedation III- deep sedation (analgesia) General anesthesia T wave is what change in polarization - correct answer Ventricular repolarization P wave is what change in polarization - correct answer Atrial depolarization QRS is what change in polarization - correct answer Ventricular depolarization What anatomical structure is located at the top of the larynx closes the airway and prevents foreign bodies from entering trachea - correct answer Epiglottis Bloods pumped to lungs from heart through which vessel - correct answer Pulmonary artery Alveoi - correct answer Small sac located at end of respiratory tract where oxygen and CO2 are exchanged Structures maybe involved in upper respiratory infection - correct answer Nose Sinuses Pharynx Epiglottis - correct answer Soft tissue valve that covers the larynx and allows food to enter esophagus Common carotid - correct answer Artery located in neck that's palated for pukse What part of eye loses reflex on induction of anasthesia - correct answer Eyelid Patient with hist of transient ischemic attacks had temporary lessening of - correct answer Decrease of blood supply to brain Ischemic heart disease results of - correct answer Decrease blood flow in coronary arteries Medical history is NOT used for - correct answer Med history is not used to document - correct answer Socioeconomic status of patient Congestive heart failure results in - correct answer Shortness of breath Pitting dependent Edema Ascites Ascites - correct answer Accumulation of fluid in abdominal cavity Patients with diabetes are at risk for oral sx why - correct answer Subject to post op infections Pt that's had a MI should wait how long before having elective sx - correct answer 6 months Diazepam (Valium) used in oral sx for - correct answer Sedating patient Barbiturates detoxifies in - correct answer Liver Local containing epinephrine should be used cautiously in patients who have - correct answer Cardiac dysthymia What's the advantage of using local anesthetic alone - correct answer Pt doesn't have to be NPO and no driver necessary BP levels will most likely be LOW when - correct answer Using adult arm cuff on a child Monitor device that gives info on circulation and ventilation - correct answer Pulse oximeter 3 ways to monitor ventilation - correct answer Chest rise Color Anesthesia bag What's cyanosis - correct answer Blue tinge color of mucous membranes, skin, nails veds What monitors pt ventilation in real time - correct answer Capnograph or capnometer What's malignant hyperthermia - correct answer Can't regulate body's temp Heart is an organ made up of specialized type of muscle - correct answer Myocardium How many chambers in the heart - correct answer 4 Two superior chambers of heart called - correct answer Atria Two chambers below atria - correct answer Ventricles Which chamber is larger - correct answer Ventricles Which chamber is thicker and more powerful - correct answer L ventricle bc pumps blood to the body R side of heart has what kind of blood - correct answer Deoxygenated red blood R atrium receives blood from which 3 sources - correct answer Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava Coronary sinus Vessels leading away from heart - correct answer Arteries Vessels leading to heart - correct answer Veins What vessel does blood travel through to get to lungs - correct answer Pulmonary artery Blood picks up what in the lungs - correct answer Oxygen Where does blood go after entering L atrium - correct answer Through mitral valve into L ventricle Name of smallest veins - correct answer Venules Name of smallest arteries - correct answer Capillaries What's difference between veins and arteries - correct answer Arteries have much thicker walls to ah doe pressure of blood flow in them Vasoconstriction is - correct answer When artery constricts and gets smaller Vasodilation - correct answer Arteries relax and increase in size Pressure of blood when hearts pumping - correct answer Systolic Pressure blood when hearts at rest - correct answer Diastolic What's pharynx - correct answer Space bwtn nose and trachea 3 region of pharynx - correct answer Nasopharyngeal Oropharynx Laryngopharynx Laryngoharynx located - correct answer Directly behind larynx (voice box) Another name for trachea - correct answer Wind pipe Diaphragm - correct answer Dome shaped muscle separates chest cavity from abdominal cavity What's oxygen capacity - correct answer How much oxygen is attached to hemoglobin What's normal adult respiration rate - correct answer 12-16 respiration per min at rest Where's the islets located - correct answer Pancreas What do islets of langerhans do - correct answer Secrete insulin and gkucagon Adrenal glands located - correct answer Top of each kidney What's largest organ in body - correct answer Liver What's function of kidneys - correct answer Maintain volume and composition of body fluids In autonomic nervous system what's alpha - correct answer Vasoconstrictors In autonomic nervous system what's Beta - correct answer Big organs Beta 1 - correct answer Heart Beta 2 - correct answer Lungs Bundle of his - correct answer Small band of muscle fibers that propagates atrial contraction rhythm to ventricles Capnography - correct answer Measures amount of CO2 in expired air Emergence is - correct answer Waking or returning of consciousness following anesthesia Hypercarbia - correct answer Increased level of CO2 HyperpyrexiA - correct answer Increased body temp Hypoxia - correct answer Low levels of O2 in body tissues Induction - correct answer Initiation of state of unconsciousness during anesthesia Inferior alveolar artery - correct answer Artery supplies blood to mandible,teeth,lower lip, chin Inferior vena cava - correct answer Venous trunk from lower abdominal that empties blood into R atrium Ischemia - correct answer Lack of blood to body part Syncope is result of - correct answer Decreased cerebral blood flow Angina pectoris most likely caused by - correct answer Heart disease Cricothyroidotomy is emergency procedure used to establish an airway when - correct answer Upper airway obstruction that prevents ventilation Most important for IV began during MI - correct answer Medications can be administered Which arrhythmia is most dangerous - correct answer Ventricular fibrillation Drug for management of grand mal seizures - correct answer Diazepam valium Analgesia - correct answer Pain killers - insensitivity to pain Anxiolytics - correct answer Reduce anxiety Apnea - correct answer Absence of breathing Drugs that counteracts nausea - correct answer Antiemetic Vessel that carries blood away from heart to body - correct answer Artery A systole - correct answer Cardiac arrest where no rhythm display and no contraction Mitral valve does what - correct answer Opens to let blood pass into L ventricle Heart murmur - correct answer Back flow or turbulence ( heart valve properly doesn't close due to damage) MVP (mitral valve prolapse) - correct answer Leaflets swing backwards during closure that allows backflow [Show Less]
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