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Bundle for Dental Hygiene National Board
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Dental Hygiene Board Review 2020 (updated) correctly answered
To achieve high levels of integrity The purpose of a Professional Code of Ethics includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? ... [Show More] Non-Maleficence Which of the following examples of the Core Values in the Dental Hygiene Code of Ethics deals with the practitioner? Autonomy Which of the following Core Values states that patients have a right to privacy and freedom of choice? Beneficence Providing dental screenings would be an example of which Core Value? Proper documentation Which of the following is the best way to avoid a dental lawsuit? Battery Placing a sealant on a child's tooth without getting parental consent is an example of: Employer Which of the following is OSHA NOT responsible for? 18 months COBRA (Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) gives individuals the right to keep groups health insurance benefits for: Cost of procedure All of the following are true about Informed Consent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? No definitive time The Statute of Limitations for a dental law suit is: Hypoglycemia Which medical emergency is characterized by tachycardia, sweating, irritability, and dizziness? Spore test is Bacillus Atrophaeus Each of the following is true for steam sterilization EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Porcelain fused-to-metal crown that needs to be re-cemented Each is an example of regulated biohazardous waste EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Both statements are false The nutrient sources for supragingival calculus are crevicular fluid and inflammatory exudates. The nutrient source for subgingival calculus is saliva. Chlorhexidine Each of the following is a cause of endogenous staining EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Controlled water fluoridation Which method of fluoride delivery provides the maximum protection against dental caries with the least potential for causing dental fluorosis? Begins with flu-like symptoms within 30 minutes of ingestion that can last up to 24 hours Acute fluoride toxicity: Wedge Stimulator Which physiotherapy aid is the BEST choice for a patient with exposed root surfaces (recession)? 11/12 Which area-specific Gracey curet devrides the mesial, facial, and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth? Both statements are true Ultrasonic scalers work through cavitation and have an elliptical or orbital stroke. Sonic scalers use compressed air and have an elliptical or orbital stroke. Bacteriocidal Which of the following characteristics does not pertain to Chlorhexidine Gluconate (CHX) Oral Hygiene Indices Plaque Index is an example of ____________ Indices Can undergo a change of form without breaking A material that is highly ductile, Reduce the rate of corrosion Silver amalgam alloys contain copper to: Calcium hydroxide The liner most commonly used to stimulate the development of secondary dentin in the event of a pulp exposure is: Add borax to the mix To slow the set of gypsum and gain more working time in pouring a model, a person would: Utility wax The best dental wax to modify an impression tray is: They resist tarnish and corrosion The primary benefit of using noble metals in restorative alloys is: Inadequate bone, uncontrolled periodontal disease, and history of bisphosphonate therapy Contraindications to implant placement include: Pyrophosphates A leading cause of dentinal hypersensitivity is due to the incorporation of what ingredient in toothpaste? Class III According to G.V. Black's classification of restorations, an anterior proximal filling would be: It releases fluoride One of the benefits of using glass ionomer cement, is that: Explorer The instrument of choice for detecting an overhanging margin is a: Viscosity A material's resistance to flow is measured by its: It's made of a blend of both large and small particles The strength of a composite restoration is highest when: Zinc Phosphate The dental cement most known for generating heat when mixed is: Triclosan The active ingredient in "gum-care" toothpastes is: Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Zygoma Three of the seven bones which comprise the orbit include: V, VII, IX, and XII Four cranial nerves providing innervation to the tongue include: Lateral Pterygoids The muscles of mastication most responsible for protrusion of the jaw are: Temporal The articular fossa is provided by what bone? Submandibular salivary glands Wharton's Duct empties the: Filiform The keratinized papillae of the tongue are: Globular, and the left and right maxillary processes Three developmental processes must fuse to create the upper lip. They are: Submental node The primary lymphatic node which drains the lower incisors, tip of the tongue, midline of the lip, chin, and floor of the mouth is the: Inferior Vena Cava Fetal pressureon what structure can cause orthostatic hypotension? Palatoglossus Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal) provides motor innervation to all the muscles of the tongue except: Hyoid bone Of the body's 222 bones, only one is nto articulated with abother. It is the: Mastoid process The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts into what part of the temporal bone? IX Which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the Parotid salivary gland? Occipital bone The base of the skull is comprised by a single bone. It is the: Lateral surface of the mandible The mental foramen is a very important landmark found on the: Hepatitis A What type of Hepatitis is a dental hygienist least likely to contract? IgE An anaphylactic immune hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by: Translation The principal function of mRNA is: T-cells Which cell of our immune system migrates from bone marrow to the thymus? Sucrose Streptococcus mutans metabolizes which sugar into dextrans? Logarithmic Bacterial organisms are most susceptible to antibodies in which phase? Conditions are opportunistic, when the host's immune system is compromised, and the normal oral flora has been suppressed following antibiotic therapy Candida albicans, a common oral inhabitant, experiences accelerated growth when: Delayed and long-lasting Active immunity, acquired following an infection, is: diapedesis Movement of neutrophils through intact capillary lining is known as: Can cross the placenta, is the most abundent antibody, and is active as a first responder to a previously encountered antigen IgG: Collagenase An enzyme which breaks down collagen is: Hemolysin An agent which destroys the membrane of red blood cells is known as a: Results from an infection and is delayed, but long-lasting Naturally acquired active immunity: Neutrophils The most numerous of all white blood cells, representing our first line of defense are: Avidity The bond strength between an antigen and an antibody is known as: Dextrose Glucose is also known as: Glucose and fructose Sucrose is hydrolyzed into: [Show Less]
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Dental Hygiene National Board Pharmacology question and answer 2022 already passed
What is a log dose effect curve? This is when the therapeutic range of a certain drug is plotted and shows the percent of the maximum response and effecti... [Show More] ve dose. What is a therapeutic range of a drug? This is where the dose in increasing sharply or where the drug is working What is a maximum response of a drug? This is where the curve plateaus on the log dose effect curve What is the term that describes a function of the amount of a drug to produce an effect? potency When is the potency of a drug greater? when the dose is smaller What is the term that describes the maximum intensity of effect or response that can be produced by a drug regardless of dose? efficacy When administering more drug than prescribed, will it increase the efficacy of the drug or will it increase the probability of an adverse drug reaction? It will increase the probability of an adverse drug reaction, not increase the efficacy of a drug!! Are efficacy and potency related? No not related What is the term that is related to duration of effect of a drug? Half-life What equals half the amount of time for a drug to "fall" to half of the original blood level? Half-life of a drug What is the term that describes the time it takes for the drug to have an effect? onset What is the term that describes the length of the drug's effect? duration According to the route of administration, what can be affected? the onset and duration of a drug What are some routes of administration? enteral or parenteral What are some examples of enteral administration? oral, and rectal What are some examples of parenteral administration? intravascular, intramuscular, subcutaneous, intradermal, inhalation, and topical What is the difference of enteral and parenteral administration? enteral administration is placed directly into the GI tract, while parenteral administration by passes the GI tract What route of administration is considered the safest, least expensive, and most convenient? oral route Is it true that the less we ask of our patient by ways of drug administration the more effective the drug will be? Yes; less means more What are 3 negative aspects of oral administration route? 1) because of the large absorbing area present in small intestine it can cause slower onset of the drug's effect and can result in stomach irritation with nausea and vomiting, 2) also the drug blood levels are less predictable, 3) and last drugs derived from proteins sources may be inactivated by GI acidity or enzymes What is an example of a drug that is derived from proteins and are inactivated by GI acidity or enzymes? Insulin With orally delivered drugs where must the drug pass through first? hepatic portal circulation What are the terms that describes the first pass of an orally delivered drug? first-pass effect or Phase 1 reactions What reduces the first pass effect? the amount of drug available to produce systemic effect True or False, drugs with high-first past effect have a smaller oral to parenteral dose ratio? False; larger What is an example of a drug that has a high first-pass effect? morphine What does it mean when a drug has a high first pass effect? they require a larger dose What is another name for P-450 enzymes? mixed function oxidases What microsomal or cytochrome enzymes in the liver carry out the Phase 1 reaction aka: first-pass effect? P-450 enzymes of mixed function oxidases How can the concentration of these P-450 enzymes be affected? they can be affected by drugs and environmental substances like smoking and alcohol consumption What is a common example of P-450 induction? alcohol tolerance What does P-450 induction do to the drugs effect? inducement increases enzymes activity and metabolizes the drug more rapidly necessitating a larger drug dose for effect, What are 2 negative aspects of the rectal route? drugs are poorly and irregularly absurd rectally, not frequently used for systemic effect and poor patient acceptance What is the best route of administration for the most rapid drug response (immediate)? Intravascular route What are 3 advantages of using the intravascular route of administration? absorption phase bypassed, more predictable response, and route of choice for emergency situations What are 4 disadvantages of intravascular route? phlebitis (local irritation), drug irretrievability, allergy, and side effects of high plasma drug concentrations What are the most common injection sites of intramuscular route of administration? Deltoid and gluteal regions True or False , massage will increase the absorption of the intramuscular route of administration? True How does absorption occur in intramuscular route of administration? due to high blood flow in skeletal muscles What is an advantage of intramuscular route of administration? it provides a sustained effect What is the route of administration used to administer protein products? subcutaneous route of administration What are some examples of a subcutaneous route of administration? insulin and local anesthetics What is a disadvantage of subcutaneous route of administration? sterile abscess or hematomas are produced What is an example of a Intradermal route of administration? tuberculin skin test What is the most shallow route of administration and the most deepest route of administration? intradermal is most shallow and intravascular is the deepest What is an advantage of inhalation route? provides rapid delivery of drug across large surface area of respiratory mucosa What is an example of inhalation route? inhalers for asthma, nitrous oxide/oxygen sedation What is some contraindications for the topical route? if surface is ulcerated, burned, or abraded When is topical route most effective? with less keratinized tissue can topical route have systemic uptake? yes, but in limited doses What is the study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the body? Pharmacokinetics [Show Less]
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NBDHE Board Review - Dental Materials 2013 (updated) with complete solution
adhesion The chemical attraction between unlike molecules is __? cohesion The chemical attraction between like molecules is __? coefficient... [Show More] of thermal expansion This index indicates how one material reacts to temperature extremes in relation to another creep Slow dimensional changes caused by compression ductility The ability to undergo change of form without breaking Elasticity A materials ability to recover its intiial shape after undergoing a force galvanism An electrical current generated by dissilimia metals in an acidic environment Gelation The process of gelling (solidification by cold) gram The volumetric weight of one cubic centimeter or millimeter of water Imbibition Absorption of a solvent by a gel malleability A materials capacity to be shaped by force or pressure microleakage Pass of oral fluids/bacteria into and out of tooth structure due to marginalgap or failure of marginal (restorative) seal percolation microleakage is also known as __? polymerization The linking, branching, or cross linking of smaller molecules proportional limit The force at which a material cannot return to its original shape syneresis Contraction of a gel due to the loss of a solvent tensile strength The force needed to stretch a material to the point of fracture viscosity Resistance to flow amalgam An alloy of mercury with silver, copper, tin and zinc to minimize corrosion Why is copper added to amalgam? silver Which base metal in amalgam is susceptible to corrosion? 1. durable 2. similar compressive strength to enamel 3. relatively inexpensive Desirable features of amalgam are: coarse to fine When polishing amalgams, it is important to move from __ to __ agents. with tin oxide Final polish of an amalgam in the mouth is __? 1. Using a proper place band and wedge 2. Detecting overhang with explorer Avoid overhang formation by __? properties If you change a material's components then you change it __? 15-20 second etch rinse dry apply air-thin polymerize The steps for applying a bonding agent are: fiber optic light Polymerization in bonding is typically activated how? saliva or oils The most common failures from bonding are caused by what? Bonding agent (like 4 sealants) bisphenol a-glycidyl methacrylate What is BIS-GMA pit and fissure sealants This is a barrier used to protect the occlusal surfaces of teeth from bacterial assault by sealing anatomically unprotected tooth structure with resin. 1 pumice, rinse, isolate, etch, rinse, dry, apply, polymerization 2. re etch if enamel lacks the frosty look 3. retention is mechanical Steps for applying a sealant mechanical Retenion of a pit and fissure sealant is __? composite This is an esthetic restorative material composed of a bonding agent and tooth-colored filler particles of various sized silicates quartz glass What are the most common filler particles for composite retorations? high polishability and ease of handling but require tooth support Microfill for composites are popular why? combined strength and beauty Hybrid filler for composites are popular why? increase surface area and therefore bond strength, also polishability Nanofills for composites are good why? tin oxide or diamond polish paste NEVER coarse pumice When polishing a composite always use __? liners These are generally used to seal dentin or medicate the dental pulp 1. varnish 2. calcium hydroxide 3. Zinc oxide 4. Resin modified glass ionomer Types of liners include: resin modified glass ionomer The preferred liner in modern day is __? bases These are generally used to provide thermal insulation or mechanical protection for the dental pulp base Cements are typically considered what type of material? cements These are used to affix a restoration to a tooth structure or as a base. zinc phosphate This cement releases heat when mixed (exothermic), causes mechanical interlock between tooth and casting. Polycarboxylate This cement has a high chemical affinity for enamel and is a powder mixed with polyacrylic acid. Glass Ionomer This cement binds to dentin, releases fluoride, can be used as a Class V restorative material and its coefficient of thermal expansion approximates actual tooth structure. Resin This cement is tooth colored for restorations and ortho applications and is also used for luting etched metal retainer such as resin-bonded bridges and prefab endo posts Hybrid This cement is redin modified glass ionomers. It seals dental effectively which minimizes sensitivity and also releases fluoride. ZOE or Zinc oxide/eugenol This cement is commonly used for temp cementing, its putty like consistency works well for a temp restoration. Orange solvent is used to clean instruments contaminated with this cement type. Rigid Flexible The types of impression materials are: Aqueous Nonaqueous Flexible impression material can be broken down into which types? flexibility Elastometric means __? 1. Plaster 2. Compound (border mold custom tray) 3. Zinc Oxide/ Eugenol (final impression, full denture) Rigid inelastic impression materials include: Hydrocolloid: *alginate: non-reverisible *agar: reversible because it gels based on temp Flexible aqueous (elastometric) impression material includes: 1. Polysulfide rubber 2. Polyether Rubber 3. Silicone Rubber 4. Vinylpolysiloxane Flexible non-aqueous impression materials include: messy smelly and must be poured up the same day The thing to remember about Polysulfide rubber is? Unstable in the presence of moisture! It is somewhat ridgid, good tissue detail The thing to remember about Polyether Rubber is? Rarely used, putty like The thing to remember about Silicone Rubber is? Tasteless, odorless, stable, strong, accurate, easily mixed, capable of multiple pours The thing to remember about Vinylpolysiloxane is? according to manufacturers guidelines The mixing time for impressions materials vary how? mineral, calcium sulfate di-hydrate Gypsum products are made of? wax patterns, models and occlusal impressions What are gypsum products used for? it expands What happens to gypsum as it sets? Made of Beta-calcium Porous Undergoes HIGH-setting expansion (ie needs more water) It has LOW compressive strength overall Characteristics of stone (Type II gypsum) are? Made from alpha-calcium Less porous Undergoes LOW-setting expansion (needs less water) Has a HIGHER compressive strength Characteristics of plaster (Type III gypsum) are? Made from alpha-calcium Has the HIGHEST compressive strength Has additive to make it more durable and wear resistant Characteristics of Diestone (Type IV Gypsum) are? [Show Less]
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Dental Hygiene National Board CORRECLY ANSWERED 2022
What does the temporal bone include? `the mastoid process, styloid process, articular fossa and eminence, stylomastoid foramen (VII), and petrous portion ... [Show More] (house hearing components) What bone is considered the most medial bone of the orbit? The Lacrimal bone What bone is a nonarticulated horseshoe shaped bone in the midline, inferior to the mandible? Hyoid bone What are bilateral bones? The same bone that is located on the right and the left side What bone may be considered a bilateral bone? temporal bone, zygomatic bone etc. What nerve goes through the Superior Orbital Fissure and what division is it considered? Opthalmic nerve; (V1) Opthalmic division What nerve goes through the Foramen Rotundum and what division is it considered? maxillary nerve; (V2) maxillary division What nerve goes through the Foramen Ovale and what division is it considered? mandibular nerve; (V3) mandibular nerve The opthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular nerves are all branches of what nerve? The trigeminal nerve What bone projects from the medial pterygoid plate? Hamulus What are the 12 cranial nerves? olfactory, optic, oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibulocochlear, glossolypharyngeal, vagus, accessory, hypoglossal Which of these cranial nerves are sensory? olfactory, optic, vestibulocochlear, Which of these cranial nerves are motor? oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, accessory, hypoglossal Which of these cranial nerves are sensory and motor? Trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus What functions are involved with the facial nerve? muscles of mastication, taste sensation (anterior 2/3 of tongue),sublingual and submandibular salivary glands (parasympathetic) What functions are involved with the glossopharyngeal nerve? posterior 1/3 of tongue, parotid gland What functions are involved with the hypoglossal nerve? muscles of the tongue (except palatoglossus x, xI) How to remember the what cranial nerves are sensory, motor, or both? Some say marry money, but my brother says (its) bad business (to) marry money What does the V1 opthalmic division include? tip of nose (nasociliary), eyes (lacrimal), and forehead (frontal) What does the V2 maxillary division include? the upper teeth, nose, palate, mouth, cheek, and temporal region What does the V3 mandibular division include? muscles of mastication (motor) and lower teeth (sensory) What nerve innervates the tooth pulp on the mandible? Inferior Alveolar Nerve What is the innervation of the muscles of mastication? Mandibular Division of the Trigeminal Nerve (V3) What is the difference between the origin and insertion? origin is the anchor while insertion is the movable part What are the 4 muscles of mastication? temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid What 3 muscles close the mouth, elevate the mandible? temporalis, medial pterygoid, and masseter muscles What muscle open the mouth along with the hyoid muscle? Lateral ptergoid muscle What is the one of the main bones involved with the TMJ and what does it include? temporal bone; mandibular fossa, glenoid fossa, or articular fossa ( articular eminence anterior to the fossa) Where is the rotation of the TMJ located? condyle rotates in the fossa What are two infrahyoid muscles? thyrohyoid and sternothyroid What is the common junction of the sternothyroid muscle? thyroid area Where are the infrahyoid muscles located? beneath the hyoid bone What are 2 suprahyoid muscles? mylohyoid and stylohyoid What muscles make up the floor of the mouth? The mylohyoid muscles What nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid muscle? accessory nerve, XI What nerve innervate the Trapezius muscle? accessory nerve, XI What is the orgin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? sternum (breastbone) and clavicle (collarbone) What is the insertion of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? mastoid process of the temporal bone What is the orgin of the trapezius? occipital and vertebral bones What is the insertion of the trapezius muscle? scapula (shoulder blade) and clavicle (collarbone) What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? tilts and rotates the head What is the function of the veins? to carry blood to the heart What is the function of the arteries? to carry blood away from the heart What is the name for the SA node? SinoAtrial Node Where is the SA node located and what is its function? located in the right atrial wall and it is considered the pacemaker of the heart Where do we take an emergency pulse on an adult and child? adult= carotid artery child= brachial artery Where do we take a non-emergency pulse on an adult and child? adult= radial artery child= brachial artery what vein and artery are the exception to the rule that if they usually run with one another that they usually have the same name? The carotid artery and the jugular vein What anesthesia block might pierce the pterygoid plexus and leave a hematoma if there is improper angulation of the needle? PSA injection Where is the pterygoid plexus found? near the pterygoid muscles, maxillary tuberosity, and sphenoid bone What structures drain into the ptyergoid plexus? teeth, muscles of mastication, buccinator, nose, and palate What vein does the pytergoid plexus drain to form? maxillary vein What is the cavernous sinus? a sinus containing venous blood located on each side of the body of the sphenoid bone, near the base of the brain, behind the bridge of the nose. If a pregnant lady is laying on her back what vein may receive pressure and cause orthostatic hypotension? Inferior vena cava What is orthostatic hypotension? a drop in BP due to sudden change in posture What is the lymphatic system? a network of tiny channels and nodes What are the 3 main lymph nodes to remember? submental nodes, submandibular nodes, and deep cervical nodes [Show Less]
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Dental Hygiene Pharm Terms 2022 RATED CORRECTLY
Schedule I drug highest abuse potential - ex. heroin, LSD, marijuana, hallucinogens - no accepted medical use, experimental only in research Schedu... [Show More] le II drug High abuse potential - ex. oxycodone, morphine, amphetamine, secobarbital - written prescription with provider's signature only; no refills Schedule III drug Moderate abuse potential - ex. codeine mixtures, hydrocodone mixtures, scripts may be phoned in; no more than 5 scripts in 6 month period schedule IV drug less abuse potential - ex. diazepam, dextropropoxyphene forms - scripts may be phoned in; no more than 5 scripts in 6 month period schedule V drug least abuse potential - ex. some codeine containing cough syrups, can be bought OTC in some states a or -a before AC before meals BID twice a day c with CAP capsule d day disp dispense GM gram gr grain gtt drop h hour hs at bedtime p after pc after meals PO by mouth PRN as needed q every QID 4 times a day s without sig write SS one-half stat immediatly tab tablet TID 3 times a day UD as directed Max dose for compromised patients 0.04 grams or 2 carps antibacterial agents destroy bacteria antifungal agents destroy fungus antiviral agents destroy viral bacteria bacteriosidal kill bacteria bacteriostatic stop the replication of bacteria narrow spectrum drugs kill specific bacteria broad spectrum works on a wide range of bacteria antimicrobial destroy or suppress growth of microorganisms NSAIDS non-opioid pain relievers - ibuprofen, alieve, asprin, tylenol, motrin esterase erases , An enzyme that breaks down excess neurotransmitter acetylcholine transmitter - A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and also triggers muscle contraction acetylcholine esterase Removes acetylcholine or makes it stop beta1 works on heart beta 2 works on lungs amides metabolize in the liver excreted in the urine esthers hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterase excreted in the urine *do not use anymore in dentistry other than benzocaine due to the allergic reaction potential benzodiazepines antianxiety agents barbituates sedative drugs [Show Less]
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Dental Hygiene National Board questions and correct answers updated 2022
What is a log dose effect curve? This is when the therapeutic range of a certain drug is plotted and shows the percent of the maximum response and effecti... [Show More] ve dose. What is a therapeutic range of a drug? This is where the dose in increasing sharply or where the drug is working What is a maximum response of a drug? This is where the curve plateaus on the log dose effect curve What is the term that describes a function of the amount of a drug to produce an effect? potency When is the potency of a drug greater? when the dose is smaller What is the term that describes the maximum intensity of effect or response that can be produced by a drug regardless of dose? efficacy When administering more drug than prescribed, will it increase the efficacy of the drug or will it increase the probability of an adverse drug reaction? It will increase the probability of an adverse drug reaction, not increase the efficacy of a drug!! Are efficacy and potency related? No not related What is the term that is related to duration of effect of a drug? Half-life What equals half the amount of time for a drug to "fall" to half of the original blood level? Half-life of a drug What is the term that describes the time it takes for the drug to have an effect? onset What is the term that describes the length of the drug's effect? duration According to the route of administration, what can be affected? the onset and duration of a drug What are some routes of administration? enteral or parenteral What are some examples of enteral administration? oral, and rectal What are some examples of parenteral administration? intravascular, intramuscular, subcutaneous, intradermal, inhalation, and topical What is the difference of enteral and parenteral administration? enteral administration is placed directly into the GI tract, while parenteral administration by passes the GI tract What route of administration is considered the safest, least expensive, and most convenient? oral route Is it true that the less we ask of our patient by ways of drug administration the more effective the drug will be? Yes; less means more What are 3 negative aspects of oral administration route? 1) because of the large absorbing area present in small intestine it can cause slower onset of the drug's effect and can result in stomach irritation with nausea and vomiting, 2) also the drug blood levels are less predictable, 3) and last drugs derived from proteins sources may be inactivated by GI acidity or enzymes What is an example of a drug that is derived from proteins and are inactivated by GI acidity or enzymes? Insulin With orally delivered drugs where must the drug pass through first? hepatic portal circulation What are the terms that describes the first pass of an orally delivered drug? first-pass effect or Phase 1 reactions What reduces the first pass effect? the amount of drug available to produce systemic effect True or False, drugs with high-first past effect have a smaller oral to parenteral dose ratio? False; larger What is an example of a drug that has a high first-pass effect? morphine What does it mean when a drug has a high first pass effect? they require a larger dose What is another name for P-450 enzymes? mixed function oxidases What microsomal or cytochrome enzymes in the liver carry out the Phase 1 reaction aka: first-pass effect? P-450 enzymes of mixed function oxidases How can the concentration of these P-450 enzymes be affected? they can be affected by drugs and environmental substances like smoking and alcohol consumption What is a common example of P-450 induction? alcohol tolerance What does P-450 induction do to the drugs effect? inducement increases enzymes activity and metabolizes the drug more rapidly necessitating a larger drug dose for effect, What are 2 negative aspects of the rectal route? drugs are poorly and irregularly absurd rectally, not frequently used for systemic effect and poor patient acceptance What is the best route of administration for the most rapid drug response (immediate)? Intravascular route What are 3 advantages of using the intravascular route of administration? absorption phase bypassed, more predictable response, and route of choice for emergency situations What are 4 disadvantages of intravascular route? phlebitis (local irritation), drug irretrievability, allergy, and side effects of high plasma drug concentrations What are the most common injection sites of intramuscular route of administration? Deltoid and gluteal regions True or False , massage will increase the absorption of the intramuscular route of administration? True How does absorption occur in intramuscular route of administration? due to high blood flow in skeletal muscles What is an advantage of intramuscular route of administration? it provides a sustained effect What is the route of administration used to administer protein products? subcutaneous route of administration What are some examples of a subcutaneous route of administration? insulin and local anesthetics What is a disadvantage of subcutaneous route of administration? sterile abscess or hematomas are produced What is an example of a Intradermal route of administration? tuberculin skin test What is the most shallow route of administration and the most deepest route of administration? intradermal is most shallow and intravascular is the deepest What is an advantage of inhalation route? provides rapid delivery of drug across large surface area of respiratory mucosa What is an example of inhalation route? inhalers for asthma, nitrous oxide/oxygen sedation What is some contraindications for the topical route? if surface is ulcerated, burned, or abraded When is topical route most effective? with less keratinized tissue [Show Less]
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Dental Hygiene Prometric Exam, CSCE, CSCE, 2 Dental Hygiene Prometric 2, Computer Simulated
What is an oral side effect of Prozac? xerostomia How do steroids effect wound healing? causes delayed wound healing What should be done wi... [Show More] th a patient with a previous history of high blood pressure and comes in for their appointment with reading of 160/116? refer the patient to their physician immediately Premedication regimine 2g Amoxicillin 600 mg Clindamycin Patient comes in for appointment who needs premed, and they took 300 mg 1 hour prior to their appointment. What would you do? administer another 300 mg and wait 1 hr prior to treatment (because their clindamycin premed is 600mg 1hr prior to treatment) What is a PAN used for? - look at location of 3rd molars - impactions - pathology - NOT FOR BONE LOSS Items containing fluoride? - tea - pork - fish What type of water does not contain fluoride? well water Know the papilla of the tongue - filiform (most numerous, very small) - fungiform (mushroom shape, contain taste buds) - circumvallate (larger mushroom shaped, contain taste buds, on anterior side of sulcus terminalis) - foliate (leaf shaped, lateral border of tongue) What is hairy tongue caused by? elongation of the filiform papillae Delayed eruption may be caused by delayed exfoliation Identify mandibular canal radiographically radiolucent, long dark area outlined with dense cortical bone, located above or parallel to the inferior border of the mandible What is thickened lamina dura caused by? is this appearance normal? - caused by trauma - not normal Know film errors - elongation: too little vertical angulation - foreshortening: too much vertical angulation - cone cut: PID not aligned with censor - overlap: incorrect horizontal angulation Identify median rhomboid glossitis rhombus shaped, central denuded area of the tongue with red appearance What is the treatment for black hair tongue? brush it What is a vitality test used for? testing to see if the pulp is vital or not (applying cold air on cotton swap and pushing it against the tooth; if the pulp is vital it hurts, if its necrotic you would not feel anything) What are Hutchinson's incisors caused by? Syphillis, NOT biting on bobby pins Identify lingual varicosities.. are they normal? yes they're normal How long should ultrasonic units be flushed? 20 seconds What provides proof of sterilization? Spore test or autoclave tape? Spore test What does autoclave tape tell you? that it has reached proper temperature Hep B vaccination also protects you from? Hep D What can chlorhexidine cause? staining, increased calculus deposits What instrument should you use to work on mandibular anterior gingiva? - 1/2 gracey - columbia - sickle ultrasonic What drug causes bleeding? Aspirin What does the 2nd premolar replace? the 2nd deciduous molar What would you do for fordyce granules? leave alone; normal is a bifurcated maxillary canine normal? yes What would you do for lingual erosion? rinse with sodium bicarbonate Stannous fluoride is not found in which of the following? tea, pork, well water, or fish? well water Which is the only root that would be incomplete at age 15? the second molar Presents with a firm lesion on the ventral surface of the tongue? ranula, benign, or malignant? ? what is the panorex best used for? position of 3rd molars What is wrong with the PANO picture? patient should not have on a thyroid collar when taking a PAN What can prednisone cause? delayed wound healing How old is a patient with 2nd premolar, 1st molar, and 2nd molars are unerupted? 11 years old Does ankylosis of the tongue result in nutrition issues? no What would recession to the apex of #24-25 be a result of? AIDS Exaggerated gingival enlargement could be the result of what? uncontrolled diabetes What degree should the shank of the instrument be when scaling subgingivally? 70 degrees What should be done with safety glasses after each patient? washed Does lingual candidiasis of lateral tongue wipe off? yes What does leukoedema look like? white spot of buccal mucosa disappears when the cheek is stretched What type of drug is Procardia? calcium channel blocker What is procardia used for? for high blood pressure What does procardia cause intraorally? gingival enlargement What would mandibular anterior, facial, bright pink and enlarged gingiva indicate? pregnancy gingivitis Are bifurcated mandibular premolars normal? yes What drink can cause facial erosion? fruit juice What does median rhomboid glossitis look like? red lump in center of posterior portion of tongue What is the treatment for median rhomboid glossitis? antifungals Know what cross bite looks like ... Know classes of occlusion Class I: mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar occludes with buccal groove of mandibular first molar Class II: buccal groove of mandibular first molar is distal to the mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary fits molar Class III: buccal groove of mandibular first molar is mesial to the mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar Why would there be a white triangle covering all the mandibular anteriors and chin on a PAN? If the mouth looks smiley then the chin was too low, if the mouth looked frowning then the chin was too high FDA regulates fluoride content in bottled water medications that cause increased bleeding? anticoagulants (warfarin, heparin), antiplatelets (aspirin, plavix), blood modifiers (xarelto, eliquis, pradaxa) medications that cause gingival hyperplasia? - anti-seizure: Dilantin - calcium channel blockers: Norvask, Procardia (used to control BP) - Cyclosporine (used an immunosuppressant) Determine age of patient by teeth present ... Determine which tooth is present in mixed dentition ... distinguishing between between leukoplakia and candida? candida wipes off but leukoplakia doesn't clinical pictures of fluorosis, abrasion, pyogenic granuloma, redness on palate, what are some likely causes? ill-fitting denture, tobacco, stain, linea alba a patient on an anti-hypertensive is most likely to experience what problem in the dental chair? orthostatic hypotension what causes a diastema? genetics x-ray pit falls - patient moves - cone moves - film moves aspirin burn - chemical injury - white plaque lesion - can be wiped off - leaving a bleeding raw base - will heal once chemical is removed amelogenesis imperfecta - enamel is found to be defective - discolorations, pitting, thinner enamel, "flakes off" - etiology: genetics - defect in the mineralization, deposition, and hardening of enamel layers mucogingival junction - sharply defined scalloped junction between pinker attached gingiva and redder alveolar mucosa enamel projection (enamel pearl) - misplaced ameloblasts migrate to the root area - produces enamel pearl on CEJ or furcation area pyogenic granuloma - benign - tissue response to trauma, local irritation, hormonal changes - appear in pregnancy due to increase in hormones - puberty and pregnancy - composed of hyper plastic granulation tissue etiology of diastema? genetic when do maxillary centrals erupt? 7-8 when do mandibular centrals erupt? 6-7 when do maxillary laterals erupt? 8-9 when do mandibular laterals erupt? 7-8 when do maxillary canines erupt? 11-12 when do mandibular canines erupt? 9-10 when do maxillary first premolars erupt? 10-11 when do mandibular first premolars erupt? 10-12 when do maxillary second premolars erupt? 10-12 [Show Less]
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Dental Hygiene-Theory and Practice correctly answered 2022
Dental Hygiene-Theory and Practice correctly answered 2022
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OSCE Dental Hygiene questions and correct answers latest update 2022
Bass Method Most widely used method. Bristles are angled at a 45 degree angel towards the gingiva. Stillman's Method Bristles are positioned on th... [Show More] e gums rather than into the pockets and directed at a 45 degree angle. Charter's Method Bristles are directed occlusally, away from the gingiva. Useful for cleaning orthodontic brackets, prosthesis, and areas treated with surgeries. Fone's Method Bristles are moved in large circular motion on the buccal and lingual surfaces. Useful for children, those physically impaired, or adults who lack manual dexterity. Fluoride Varnish -Dries immediately upon contact with saliva. -Does not require a professional prophylaxis before hand. -Can eat and drink immediately after. -Avoid brushing, rigorous rinsing, or hard foods for 3 to 4 hours. -Easier and more effective method Fluoride is recommended for patients who: -Have xerostomia -High caries risk -Undergoing cancer therapy -Orthodontics Fluoride Gel or Foam (office application) -Applied onto tray and placed in patient's mouth usually for 4 minutes (Read manufactures label). -Do not eat, drink, or smoke for 30 minutes. -Most popular types are 1.23% APF and 2% Neutral sodium fluoride. Stannous Fluoride -0.4% available for non-prescription use. -1% neutral sodium fluoride gels available for prescription use. -Can cause extrinsic staining (especially in patient's with inadequate plaque control). Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride (APF) -Do NOT use of composites, porcelain, or sealant materials as it causing pitting and roughening. -Also avoid on root surfaces. Neutral Sodium Fluoride Agent of choice on root caries, implants, cosmetic restorations, and reduced salivary flow. Second trimester safest trimester for dental treatment. Pregnancy gingivitis -Caused by an elevation of hormones estrogen and progesterone. Hormones increase can cause exaggerated gingival response to microorganisms. Pyrogenic granuloma (Pregnancy tumor) localized area of gingival enlargement, typically involving interdental papilla, usually diminishes after delivery of baby. What category of LA can use administer to a pregnant patient? Category B (lidocaine and prilocaine) Can you use Nitrous oxide sedation and general sedation on a pregnant patient? relative contraindication (gas interferes with the absorption of B-12 and other nutrients). Early Childhood Caries (ECC) index -presence of 1 or more areas of decay on a child younger than 6 years of age Severe-Early Childhood Caries (S-ECC) index -Presence of decay in a child younger than 3 years old. When should a child's first dental appointment occur? -Within 6 months of the eruption of the first tooth or before 1-year of age. When should you first start brushing a child's teeth? -When the first tooth appears. Erosion causes -Anorexia Nervosa -Bulimia Nervosa Anorexia Nervosa extreme weight loss caused by self-starvation, excessive exercise, use of laxatives, self-induced vomiting. Bulimia Nervosa compulsive disorder that involves periods of starvation, binging, and purging. Signs and Symptoms of erosion -dental caries from vomiting -Perimolysis: erosion from vomiting mostly on the maxillary lingual surfaces. Raised appearance of restoration margins. Abrasion -V-shaped notch in the gingival portion of the facial aspect of the tooth. -Results from forces of friction between the teeth or external objects. -Can happen from improper brushing technique or the use of a toothpick or pipe. Attrition -Results from forces between the teeth. -Wear on the incised and occlusal surfaces from grinding. Abfraction -Biomechanical destruction related to fatigue, flexure, and deformation of tooth structure. -Can appear as a wedge-shaped lesion at the cervical third of the tooth. What is the most effective public health measure to prevent tooth decay? Community Water Fluoridation New recommended level of fluoride is? 0.7 ppm Old level of fluoride is? 0.7-1.2 ppm HIV can cause: -Linear gingival erythema -Kaposi Sarcoma -Delayed healing -Larger than usual ulcers -Candidiasis -Etc. Diabetes can cause: -Delayed healing -Periodontal disease -Candidiasis -Etc. ASA 1 Normal, Healthy ASA 2 Pt. with mild systemic diseases. -Allergies -Controlled hypertension -Asthma -Mild obesity -Pregnancy -Cigarette smoking without COPD -Diabetes without systemic effects ASA 3 Pt. with severe systemic disease and some functional limitation. -Controlled disease of more than one body system -Controlled CHF -Poorly controlled hypertension -Morbid obesity -Respiratory Problems (COPD) -Stable angina [Show Less]
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Dental Hygiene National Board CH. 1 & 2 questions and answers 2022
What is the discipline of dental hygiene? The study of preventive oral healthcare, including the management of behavior to prevent oral disease and promot... [Show More] e health Who is the professional dental hygienist? A licensed preventive oral health professional who has graduated from a Commission on Dental Accreditation, accredited, entry level dental hygiene program All of these services are provided by the majority of dental hygienists in the clinical setting except one. Which one is the exception? Place and remove restorations. Which of the following is a key behavior within the dental hygiene process of care? diagnosis Which of the following is not an environmental factor that the dental hygienist takes into account in the Human Needs Model? weight Which of the following is not one of the seven roles of a dental hygienist? a. Clinician b. Public Health c. Interpreter d. Research c. interpreter What is paradigm? a. A widely accepted worldview of a discipline that shapes the knowledge of its practitioners, educators, administrators, and researchers b. Decision-making skills that are used worldwide c. A school of thought within a discipline d. A widely accepted worldview of a discipline that shapes the direction and methods of its practitioners, educators, administrators, and researchers. d. A widely accepted worldview of a discipline that shapes the direction and methods of its practitioners, educators, administrators, and researchers. Which of the following is not one of the four ajor concepts of paradigm for the dental hygiene discipline? a. Client b. Health and oral health c. environment d. nutrition d. nutrition The importance of a conceptual model is to provide philosophic and practical perspectives about dental hygiene's paradigm concepts. Dental hygiene's paradigm is operationalized via the Human Needs Conceptual Model? a. Both statements are true What occurs when individuals with differing strengths and areas of expertise work together as equal partners to achieve better outcomes than each would achieve working alone? a. Implementation b. Collaboration c. Determination d. Concentration b. Collaboration What is the collaborative practice conceptual model? a. Dentist and dental hygienist work together as colleagues, each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public b. Model describing the best methods of dentist and dental hygienist to work as a team c. Model showing how collaboration produces better work d. Dental hygienists and other healthcare professionals work together as colleagues each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public a. dentist and dental hygienist work together as colleagues, each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public Which is not one of the five interrelated roles of a professional dental hygienist? a. educator b. manager c. researcher d. clients d. clients According to the Occupational Model, the dental hygienist: a. use a process of care to assess needs, diagnose dental hygiene problems, and plan, implement, evaluate, and document dental hygiene care. b. works together with the dentist, each offering professional expertise for the goal of providing optimum oral healthcare to the public c. is a dental auxiliary who implements treatment plans and carries out isolated duties as directed by the supervising dentist d. explains dental hygiene from different perspectives c. is a dental auxiliary who implements treatment plans and carries out isolated duties as directed by the supervising dentist. Which of the following is not a setting for a dental hygiene researcher? a. clinical practice b. research institutions c. hospitals d. oral healthcare industry e. public school programs c. hospitals The three responsibilities of the dental hygiene clinician are: a. preventive, therapeutic, educational b. manager, educator, researcher c. planner, organization of appointments, billing d. communicator, planner, researcher a. preventive, therapeutic, educational What is an administrator or manager not doing when referring to dental hygiene? a. planning b. staffing c. financial work d. directing c. financial work When considering the key roles of a dental hygienist, what does the client advocate most refer to? a. a dental hygienist who is working with the state legislature to change the dental practice act b. dental hygienist's role in protecting and supporting clients' rights and well-being c. A person whose official position is to guide and direct the work of others d. A dental hygiene educator who is employed as a full-time faculty member b. dental hygienist's role in protecting and supporting clients' rights and well-being A dental hygienist keeps up to date with the rapidly changing art and science of dental hygiene by doing all of the following, except one. Which one is the exception? a. Discussing updated techniques with other dental hygienists b. Making evidence-based decisions c. Using multiple research skills d. Practicing at least part-time as a dental hygienist a. discussing updated techniques with other dental hygienists What is accreditation? a the process of explaining the concepts of oral health and their relationship to general health b. The process of guiding and directing of the work of others so that they can become certified c. The process of researching a specific topic and analyzing it d. A formal, voluntary nongovernmental process that establishes a minimum set of national standards that promotes and ensures quality in education d. A formal, voluntary nongovernmental process that establishes a minimum set of national standards that promotes and ensures quality in education What professional organization promotes the profession of dental hygiene globally? a. ADHA b. NDHA c. CDHA d. IFDH d. IFDH What is the one most important reason why state dental practice laws were established? a. To regulate the practice of dental hygiene and dentistry b. To regulate the amount of education one must have to practice denistry c. to ensure the best overall service to the general public d. to protect the health and welfare of the public a. to regulate the practice of dental hygiene and denistry Which one of these is most descriptive of licensure? a. the process of becoming a dentist or dental hygienist b. the process of graduating from an accredited dental hygiene program and then practicing dental hygiene c. The process by which a government agency certifies that individuals are minimally qualified to practice within its jurisdiction d. All of the above c. The process by which a government agency certifies that individuals are minimally qualified to practice within its jurisdiction The Canadian Dental Hygienist's Association (CDHA) Board's actions are directed toward attaining: a. Direct access to dental hygienist care b. Recognition by the Canadian public c. Supportive public policy and a strong national voice d. All of the above d. All of the above [Show Less]
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