Bundle
ARRT Exam Bundle (Graded A) updated 2023
10 Items
Limited scope of radiography practice exam with complete solutions
what statements are correct regarding the link between radiation and genetic effects - ANSWER-The link has been demonstrated in animal studies . Increased... [Show More] risk to humans cannot be predicted with respect to an individual. The changes in kilovoltage (kVp) will result in the greatest reduction of patient dose, when milliampere-seconds (mAs) is adjusted to compensate for the change - ANSWER-Increase kVp by 30% The following image receptor (IR) system speeds will result in the lowest patient dose - ANSWER-Faster speed IR system The primary purpose of using gonad shields - ANSWER-reduce the likelihood of genetic effects Are gonad shields - ANSWER-Contact and shadow gonad shielding should be used - ANSWER-when the gonads are within 5 cm of the radiation field the greatest cause of unnecessary radiation to patients that can be controlled by the limited operator is - ANSWER-repeat exposures the limited operator can reduce repeat exposure - ANSWER-clearly instructing patients how does the x-ray beam restriction minimize patient exposure - ANSWER-it limits the radiation field to the area of interest what is the device that allows the limited operator to vary the size of the radiation field - ANSWER-collimator how does filtration reduce patient exposure - ANSWER-removes longer-wavelength photons The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements(NCRP) recommendation for the amount of total filtration - ANSWER-2.5 mm Al equiv Three principal methods used to protect limited operators from unnecessary radiation exposure - ANSWER-time, distance, and shielding The following is not a type of personal radiation shielding - ANSWER-Shadow personnel shielding must be worn on the rare occasion during which the limited operator may need to remain in the radiographic room during an exposure to assist the patient in maintaining the proper position. What is the source of the greatest radiation hazard under this circumstance.? - ANSWER-scattered radiation from the patient the term for radiation the escapes from the x-ray tube housing - ANSWER-leakage radiation why are limited operators prohibited from activities that result in direct exposure to the primary x-ray beam - ANSWER-they are considered occupationally exposed individuals distance, as a method used to limit operator exposure, means that - ANSWER-the operator should maximize the distance from the source during an exposure shielding worn for personnel protection is designed to attenuate what source of exposure - ANSWER-scatter radiation the acronym for a common type of personnel dosimeter - ANSWER-TLD What is the recommended placement for personnel dosimeter on the body of the limited operator - ANSWER-the badge should be worn in the region of the collar on the anterior surface of the body and outside the lead apron, if worn The NCRP recommended annual effective dose limit for occupational exposure - ANSWER-5.0 rem (0.05 Sv) The NCRP recommended monthly effective (or equivalent) dose limit to the fetus for a pregnant worker - ANSWER-0.05 rem (0.0005 Sv) Radiation monitoring of personnel is required when what percentage of the annual occupational effective dose limit is likely to be received - ANSWER-10% The conventional (British system) radiation unit to express radiation intensity in the air - ANSWER-Roentgen The conventional (British system) unit commonly used to report occupational dose to radiation workers in the United States is the - ANSWER-rem What is the conventional (British system) radiation unit of absorbed dose - ANSWER-Rad According to the Bergonie-Tribondeau law, the following types of cells are most radiosensitive - ANSWER-embryonic tissue cells Type of x-ray photon interaction with the body is primarily responsible for the radiation dose absorbed by the patient - ANSWER-Photoelectric The NCRP (report #102) recommendation for lead equivalency of aprons used for personnel protection - ANSWER-0.5 mm Erythema as it relates to radiation exposure - ANSWER-reddening of the skin caused by a high radiation dose The guiding philosophy of radiation protection - ANSWER-ALARA--as low as reasonably achievable The following statements reflects current scientific opinion regarding the effects of diagnostic levels of ionizing radiation - ANSWER-There is an increased risk of cancer, leukemia, birth defects, and cataracts The following changes will decrease patient dose - ANSWER-using a faster-speed class imaging system increasing the grid ratio to a 16:1 ratio When radiation exposure occurs during pregnancy, the greatest risk of birth defects occurs when the exposure - ANSWER-exceeds 5 rad to the uterus occurs within the first trimester of pregnancy At what kVp levels do Compton interactions occur - ANSWER-they occur throughout the diagnostic radiology kVp range The principal source of scatter radiation in radiography - ANSWER-The IR The four essentials elements required for x-ray production - ANSWER-A target, a vacuum, an electron source, and a high potential difference The greatest portion of the x-ray beam is made up of - ANSWER-Bremsstrahlung radiation The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is controlled by varying the - ANSWER-kilovoltage (kVp) The following functions involve the autotransformer - ANSWER-kVp selection What is the IR that is used for computed radiography - ANSWER-Photostimulable phosphor (PSP) plate Nearly all new x-ray machines manufactured today use _________________ generators - ANSWER-High-frequency The target of the x-ray tube is made of - ANSWER-tungsten The standard control limit for the field light to radiation field alignment test - ANSWER-+-2% of SID The standard control limit for the beam (central ray) alignment tests - ANSWER-within 1 degree of perpendicular How often should lead aprons and gloves be checked for cracks or holes - ANSWER-every 6 months how can detector fog be prevented when using computed radiography cassettes - ANSWER-protect the cassette before and after exposure The following will result in increased radiographic density - ANSWER-increased mA increased exposure time increased kVp If the radiographic image is overexposed, which of the following changes in exposure factors should be used to correct the problem - ANSWER-decrease the mAs The relationship between SID and beam intensity is expressed in the - ANSWER-inverse square law What are the four primary factors of radiographic quality ( photographic and geometric properties) - ANSWER-Density, contrast, distortion, and recorded detail Contrast is primarily controlled by altering the - ANSWER-kVp Scatter radiation fog affects radiographic quality by causing - ANSWER-decreased contrast A change from the small focal spot to the large focal spot will result in - ANSWER-decreased image sharpness (detail) An increase in object-image receptor distance (OID) will result in - ANSWER-increased magnification motion of the patient, the tube, or the IR during the exposure will result in decreased - ANSWER-recorded detail What does quantum mottle(noise) look like on a radiographic image - ANSWER-finely speckled or grainy areas Quantum mottle with a digital imaging system is caused by - ANSWER-the mAs being set too low The following will increase recorded detail - ANSWER-increase in SID decrease in focal spot size What is the appearance of a high signal to noise ratio image - ANSWER-highly detailed, with very little quantum mottle What is the proper method for storing unopened boxes of x-ray film - ANSWER-standing on edge Which of the following describe the action of the developer in an automatic film processor - ANSWER-changes the exposed silver halide crystals into black, metallic silver During digital image processing electronic collimation (masking) should not be used to replace - ANSWER-proper radiographic collimation The following is not a component of a computed radiography plate reader - ANSWER-developing solution What condition are most important for optimum viewing of a radiographic images - ANSWER-low room light level Marks, exposures, or images on a radiograph that are not a part of the intended image are called - ANSWER-artifacts If the amount of irradiated tissue increases, what happens to scatter radiation fog - ANSWER-scatter radiation fog increases the most effective and practical way to reduce scatter radiation fog on a radiograph is to - ANSWER-use a grid or Bucky As a general rule, a grid should be employed when the part thickness is greater than - ANSWER-12 cm Technique charts are based on patient part measurements obtained using an x-ray - ANSWER-thickness in centimeters The following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure - ANSWER-multiple myeloma emphysema osteoporosis How will the anode heel effect, if present, be seen on an image? - ANSWER-the image will be lighter on the anode end than on the cathode end Which radiographic quality factor is most affected by angulation of the central ray, part, or IR - ANSWER-Distortion What is the recommendation for a hard-copy image that is mislabeled - ANSWER-A sticker with the correct information should be applied to the hard copy image The following will result in a screen or film image with low density - ANSWER-IR exposure with an mAs less than needed for the particular anatomic structures The following will result in a screen or film image with low contrast - ANSWER-IR exposure with a kVp higher than needed for the particular anatomic structures When viewing a digital image on a monitor, how do you determine if the proper mAs was selected - ANSWER-evaluate the exposure index value The following will result in an image with poor recorded detail - ANSWER-Patient motion The following will result in an image with excessive magnification of image structures - ANSWER-IR exposure at an OID greater than recommended for a particular body part The following will result in an image with excessive distortion of anatomic structures - ANSWER-Improper central ray angulation for the selected radiographic projection Poor film or screen contact is seen on a radiograph as a decrease in what radiographic quality factor - ANSWER-recorded detail or spatial resolution the screen or film image artifact looks like lightning - ANSWER-static artifact The following would be a violation of patient confidentiality - ANSWER-a limited operator talks to his or her friend during lunch about a patients imaging procedure the following are true regarding informed consent - ANSWER-informed consent may be revoked at any time the patient must be legally competent to sign a limited operator innocently commits an error as a result of following the orders of his or her employer, a physician. The employer may be held responsible according to the - ANSWER-doctrine of respondeat superior communication has been "validated" when the speaker has - ANSWER-received a response from the listener that demonstrates comprehension the following is not a form of nonverbal communication - ANSWER-speaking Mrs. Elizabeth Dunbar is 86 years old and a bit confused. She is most likely to respond appropriately if you address her as - ANSWER-Mrs. Dunbar The following are correct statements of proper body mechanics - ANSWER-use a broad stance carry heavy objects close to your body what type of disease transmission is possible when the limited operator does not clean the Bucky device after performing an examination on a patient with influenza - ANSWER-indirect contact or fomite transmission standard precautions involve the use of barriers whenever contact is anticipated with - ANSWER-blood, body fluids, mucous membranes the process of reducing the probability that infectious organisms will be transmitted to a susceptible individual is called - ANSWER-asepsis a health care workers single best protection against disease is - ANSWER-frequent hand washing a limited operator who does not change linens between patients is - ANSWER-providing an opportunity for fomite transmission What is anaphylaxis - ANSWER-a severe allergic reaction what is the basic life support system used to ventilate the lungs and circulate the blood in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest - ANSWER-CPR when a patient in a cardiac arrest presents with a rapid, weak, and ineffective heartbeat, what device is used to return the heart to a normal rhythm - ANSWER-AED The following vital signs can be assessed without touching the patient - ANSWER-respiration the most common site for palpation of a patients pulse - ANSWER-Radial artery at the wrist what position is when patient is standing upright and is facing the board? - ANSWER-posterioranterior (PA) what structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity? - ANSWER-the diaphragm which of the following organs are found within the mediastinum - ANSWER-heart trachea three lobes are present in which lungs? - ANSWER-the right lung what is the name of the upper portion of the lung? - ANSWER-apex the inferior lateral corners of the lungs, visible on a PA chest radiograph, are called the - ANSWER-costophrenic angles when taking a PA projection of the chest, the recommended SID is: - ANSWER-72 inches what is the purpose of the 72 inches SID used for chest radiography? - ANSWER-minimizes magnification of the heart shadows which of the following describe the importance of using an upright position for chest radiography? - ANSWER-1. the upright position demonstrates air-fluid levels 2. the upright position allows maximum lung expansion 3. the upright position minimizes magnification of the heart in chest radiography, which body habitus is best imaged by placing the 35 x 43 cm IR crosswise in the upright grid cabinet? - ANSWER-hypersthenic which of following techniques is desirable for chest radiography? - ANSWER-high kvp high ma and short exposure what is the purpose of rotating the patient's shoulders anteriorly for the PA projection of the chest? - ANSWER-this motion rotates the scapulae out of the lungs where does the central ray enter the patient for the upright, PA projection of the chest? - ANSWER-midsagittal plane at the level of T7 what is the proper placement of the arms for the upright lateral projection of the chest? - ANSWER-arms raised over head, hands grasping opposite elbows what are the proper patient instructions for the PA projection of the chest? - ANSWER-stop breathing after second deep inspiration lateral projections of the chest are taken with the left side against the IR because - ANSWER-magnification of the cardiac silhouette is reduced with the left side neared the IR how much should the central ray be angled cephalad for an AP axial projection of the chest if the patient cannot assume the lordotic position? - ANSWER-15 degrees which chest projection and position are needed to demonstrate free pleural fluid along the dependent chest wall? - ANSWER-AP, lateral decubitus which of the following projections is best for demonstration of the apices of the lungs without bony superimpostion? - ANSWER-AP axial lordotic position why is grid used for routine chest radiography? - ANSWER-to reduce scatter fog caused by use of high kvp The bones of the forefoot include the - ANSWER-Phalanges and metatarsals The bones of the midfoot are called the - ANSWER-tarsals Small, flat, oval bones in the region of the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint are called the - ANSWER-sesamoid bones What tarsal is commonly referred to as the heel bone - ANSWER-calcaneus [Show Less]
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Patient Care - Radiology Exam Review [ARRT] - [Appelton & Lange Review] Q&A
A nosocomial infection is a(n) (A) infection acquired at a large gathering. (B) upper respiratory infection. (C) infection acquired in a hospital. (D) ... [Show More] type of rhinitis. - ANSWER-Infection acquired in a hospital. Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care? 1. The right to considerate and respectful care 2. The right to privacy 3. The right to continuity of care (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only - ANSWER-The Right To Privacy The most effective method of sterilization is (A) dry heat. (B) moist heat. (C) pasteurization. (D) freezing. - ANSWER-Moist heat. A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of (A) invasion of privacy. (B) slander. (C) libel. (D) defamation. - ANSWER-Invasion of privacy. Hypochlorite bleach (Clorox) and Lysol are examples of (A) antiseptics. (B) bacteriostatics. (C) antifungal agents. (D) disinfectants. - ANSWER-Disinfectants. Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Diagnostic and Therapeutic Orders Medical History Informed Consent The pulse can be detected only by the use of a stethoscope in which of the following locations? (A) Wrist (B) Apex of the heart (C) Groin (D) Neck - ANSWER-Apex of the heart An esophagogram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms? 1. Varices 2. Achalasia 3. Dysphasia (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Varices Achalasia When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range? (A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL (B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL (C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL (D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL - ANSWER-0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed (A) surgical asepsis. (B) medical asepsis. (C) sterilization. (D) disinfection. - ANSWER-Sterilization. Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock? 1. Pallor and weakness 2. Increased pulse rate 3. Fever (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Pallor and Weakness Increased Pulse Rate Which of the following may be used to effectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media? (A) Warming (B) Refrigeration (C) Storage at normal room temperature (D) Storage in a cool, dry place - ANSWER-Warming The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as (A) neurogenic. (B) cardiogenic. (C) hypovolemic. (D) septic. - ANSWER-Neurogenic. The usual patient preparation for an upper GI exam is (A) NPO 8 h before the exam. (B) light breakfast only on the morning of the exam. (C) clear fluids only on the morning of the exam. (D) 2 oz castor oil and enemas until clear. - ANSWER-NPO 8 h before the exam. The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient is (A) 5 to 7 breaths/min. (B) 8 to 12 breaths/min. (C) 12 to 20 breaths/min. (D) 20 to 30 breaths/min - ANSWER-12 to 20 breaths/min. A patient whose systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg is usually considered (A) hypertensive. (B) hypotensive. (C) average / normal. (D) baseline. - ANSWER-Hypotensive. Local anesthetics are likely to be used in all of the following radiographic examinations except (A) lower-extremity arteriography. (B) arthrography. (C) myelography. (D) postoperative or T-tube cholangiography. - ANSWER-Postoperative or T-tube Cholangiography. The condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles is called (A) patent ductus arteriosus. (B) coarctation of the aorta. (C) atrial septal defect. (D) ventricular septal defect. - ANSWER-Ventricular Septal Defect. When disposing of contaminated needles, they are placed in a special container using what procedure? (A) Recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle. (B) Do not recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle. (C) Recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe. (D) Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe. - ANSWER-Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe. The condition of slow heart rate, below 60 beats per minute (bpm), is termed (A) hyperthermia. (B) hypotension. (C) hypoxia. (D) bradycardia. - ANSWER-Bradycardia. An informed consent is required before performing which of the following exams? (A) Upper GI (B) Lower GI (C) Sialogram (D) Renal arteriogram - ANSWER-Renal Arteriogram Increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands are all important considerations when working with which group of patients? (A) Infants (B) Children (C) Adolescents (D) Geriatric patients - ANSWER-Geriatric Patients Which of the following statements are true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. 3. Never suction for longer than 15 s, permitting the patient to rest in between. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. Never suction for longer than 15 s, permitting the patient to rest in between. Where is the "sterile corridor" located? (A) Just outside the surgical suite (B) Immediately inside each operating room door (C) Between the draped patient and the instrument table (D) At the foot end of the draped patient - ANSWER-Between the draped patient and the instrument table What is the most widely used method of vascular catheterization? (A) Doppler (B) Moniz (C) Grandy (D) Seldinger - ANSWER-Seldinger If an emergency trauma patient experiences hemorrhaging from a leg injury, the radiographer should 1. apply pressure to the bleeding site. 2. call the emergency department for assistance. 3. apply a pressure bandage and complete the examination. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Apply pressure to the bleeding site. Call the emergency department for assistance. A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? 1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation 2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination 3. Discussing a patient's condition with a third party (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination. Discussing a patient's condition with a third party. When caring for a patient with an IV, the radiographer should keep the medication (A) 18 to 20 in above the level of the vein. (B) 18 to 20 in below the level of the vein. (C) 28 to 30 in above the level of the vein. (D) 28 to 30 in below the level of the vein. - ANSWER-18 to 20 in above the level of the vein. Protective or "reverse" isolation is required in which of the following conditions? 1. Tuberculosis 2. Burns 3. Leukemia (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Burns Leukemia A drug's chemical name is called its (A) generic name. (B) trade name. (C) brand name. (D) proprietary name. - ANSWER-Generic name. A diabetic patient who is prepared for a fasting radiographic exam is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. shaking and nervousness. 2. cold, clammy skin. 3. cyanosis (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Shaking and Nervousness Cold Clammy Skin Because of medicolegal considerations, radiographic images are required to include all the following information, except (A) the patient's name and/or identification number. (B) the patient's birth date. (C) a right or left side marker. (D) the date of the examination. - ANSWER-The patient's birth date. All of the following rules regarding proper handwashing technique are correct except (A) Keep hands and forearms lower than elbows. (B) Use paper towels to turn water on. (C) Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible. (D) Carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers. - ANSWER-Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible. Medication can be administered by which of the following routes? 1. Orally 2. Intravenously 3. Intramuscularly (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Orally Intravenously Intramusculary Skin discoloration due to cyanosis may be observed in the 1. gums. 2. nailbeds. 3. thorax. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Gums Nailbeds In classifying intravenous contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water defines (A) osmolality. (B) toxicity. (C) viscosity. (D) miscibility. - ANSWER-Osmolality. When a patient arrives in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to (A) place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder. (B) place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder. (C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. (D) clamp the Foley catheter. - ANSWER-Place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. The act of inspiration will cause elevation of the 1. sternum. 2. ribs. 3. diaphragm. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Sternum Ribs Ingestion of a gas-producing powder or crystals is usually preliminary to which of the following examinations? 1. Oral cholecystogram 2. Double-contrast GI 3. Intravenous urogram (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only - ANSWER-Double-Contrast GI Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health-care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? (A) Intentional misconduct (B) Contributory negligence (C) Gross negligence (D) None of the above - ANSWER-Contributory negligence When radiographing young children, it is helpful to 1. let them bring a toy. 2. tell them it will not hurt. 3. be cheerful and unhurried. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Let them bring a toy. Be cheerful and unhurried. Chemical substances that inhibit the growth of pathogenic microorganisms without necessarily killing them are called 1. antiseptics. 2. germicides. 3. disinfectants. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-Antiseptics (1 only) Blood pressure is measured in units of (A) mmHg. (B) beats per minute. (C) ºF. [Show Less]
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ARRT Practice Exam 1 Questions with Verified Answers
Rheostat - ANSWER-What type of device is the mA selector? 7; 20 - ANSWER-The angle of the anode in the region of the target has a variation of ________ ... [Show More] ° to ________ °. 10 days to 6 weeks of development - ANSWER-Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from ________________ can result in congenital abnormalities. kilovoltage - ANSWER-The quality of x-ray photons is affected by: 15-20; caudad - ANSWER-For a posteroanterior (PA) axial oblique projection of the C-spine, the central ray is angled ________° in the _______ direction. full inspiration - ANSWER-What instructions for respiration are given to a patient during a routine chest lateral projection? 100;100 - ANSWER-Selecting exposure factors of ________ milliampere-seconds (mAs) and _______peak kilovoltage (kVp) delivers the LEAST amount of radiation to the patient. Thermionic emission - ANSWER-The process of electrons boiling off the filament is referred to as: sitting eye level with the child and walking them through the examination - ANSWER-A 4-year old patient enters the radiology suite for chest radiography and appears anxious. The child has never had the examination before. She is not speaking or answering questions. The technologist could best attempt to communicate with the child by: H2O2 - ANSWER-Combining 2 hydroxyl radicals (OH*) will form: 15 inch minimum SSD - ANSWER-Which of the following is a guideline used to reduce personnel and patient dose during fixed fluoroscopy? rotor and stators - ANSWER-Which of the following components make up the induction motor in an imaging system? bregma - ANSWER-The junction between the coronal and sagittal sutures of the skull is called the: bargaining - ANSWER-A terminally ill patient has asked the doctor about possible volunteer opportunities in the hospital. She says that if she can volunteer in the hospital, she might be able to extend her life a bit longer from doing good deeds. This represents the ________ stage of grief for the patient. 86 - ANSWER-All of the following are within acceptable kVp accuracy variance for an exposure using 80 kVp EXCEPT FOR ________ kVp. -86 -84 -82 -76 visceral - ANSWER-The kVp variance is within + 5%. At 80 kVp, the variance is 4 kVp (80 x .05 = 4). Therefore, 76 kVp - 84 kVp is within acceptable limits. 1,2, and 3 - ANSWER-According to the American College of Radiology, which of the following are indications for obtaining a skeletal survey? 1. suspected nonaccidental trauma 2. skeletal dysplasias, syndromes, and metabolic disorders 3. neoplasms low contrast - ANSWER-An image that has many shades of gray with few differences among them is defined as exhibiting: bone - ANSWER-Of the following, the greatest attenuator of x-rays is: -bone -air -muscle -fat 2 inches above the iliac crests - ANSWER-For an upright abdomen, the central ray should be placed on the midsagittal plane and: kVp - ANSWER-All of the following affect the spatial resolution of an image EXCEPT FOR: -kVp -part size -tube angle -SID filtration - ANSWER-Which of the following radiography equipment features is designed to eliminate unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient? 10 posterior ribs visible above diaphragm - ANSWER-Which of the following radiographic evaluation criterion demonstrates proper inspiration on a PA projection of the chest? placing them in the sharps container - ANSWER-Needles used for venipuncture should be properly disposed of by: compensating - ANSWER-A wedge filter is a type of ________ filter. increased grid ratio - ANSWER-Radiographers can decrease patient dose by using all of the following EXCEPT: scaphoid - ANSWER-The anatomic snuffbox overlies the ________ bone and the radial artery. Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox is a clinical sign suggesting fracture of this bone, the MOST commonly fractured carpal bone. cardiac - ANSWER-The ________ sphincter prevents reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. analog-to-digital converter - ANSWER-The ________ receives electrons immediately after they are read out from an imaging detector. increasing the focal spot size - ANSWER-All of the following EXCEPT ________ will result in an increase in AEC response time. -decreasing kVp -increasing focal spot size -increasing part thickness -increasing SID fibrosis - ANSWER-Which of the following is considered a late nonstochastic effect? -fibrosis -cancer -birth defect -increased fertility topical - ANSWER-Tinctures, ointments, lotions, and sprays are administered by the ________ route. the hand and wrist - ANSWER-For children older than 3 years, bone age is MOST commonly determined by comparing a radiograph of ________ with a set of reference images. spatial resolution - ANSWER-Decreasing the detector element size will affect which of the following? 40 - ANSWER-X-ray tubes are operated at or above ______ kVp to avoid being space-charge limited. small focal spot; optimize spatial resolution - ANSWER-When obtaining images for a bone age protocol on an infant, it is BEST to use the ________ to ________. hyaline cartilage - ANSWER-Children have epiphyseal plates made of ________ that can be evaluated as part of normal chronologic age for bone age analysis. occlusal - ANSWER-When positioning a patient for an AP projection (open-mouth technique) for C1-C2, the ________ plane/lines should be perpendicular to the image receptor. nasal, lacrimal, vomer, and mandible - ANSWER-Which of the following are facial bones? trachea and thymus - ANSWER-Which of the following structures is located in the mediastinum? radiolucent - ANSWER-A contrast medium that lets x-ray photons easily pass through it is considered: stochastic - ANSWER-Genetic defects and cancer are examples of ________ effects. anode - ANSWER-The positive side of the x-ray tube is known as the 1,2, and 3 - ANSWER-Which are the appropriate methods to ensure the correct drug is administered to the patient? 1. Confirm the correct medication. 2. Record the time and date of administration. 3. Check the label at least 3 times. death - ANSWER-Irradiation of the embryo during the first week of development to equivalent doses exceeding 200 mSv frequently results in: rotator cuff tears or labral tears - ANSWER-Evaluation of ________ are the primary indications for arthrography of the shoulder. 45 degrees - ANSWER-Technologists should rotate a patient ________ for anteroposterior (AP) axial oblique projections of the C-spine. subcutaneous - ANSWER-A 25-gauge, 0.5-inch needle is BEST used for a(n) ________ injection. top incisors; base of the skull - ANSWER-When evaluating an AP projection (open-mouth) radiograph of C1-C2, the occlusal surface of the ________ should be superimposed with the ________. relative - ANSWER-Infants and the elderly often can have trouble maintaining the necessary radiographic position. If an immobilization device cannot be used, who is the BEST choice for holding the patient? 200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp - ANSWER-An acceptable PA chest exam is taken using 300 mA, 0.008 seconds, and 110 kVp. If this examination is repeated using an AEC that has a minimum response time of 10 ms, which of the following exposure factors would be appropriate? 7 - ANSWER-Primary radiation barriers must be AT LEAST ______ feet high. all patents are potentially infected with bloodborne pathogens - ANSWER-Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding standard precautions for venipuncture? terminate the exposure in the event of equipment or operator error - ANSWER-A backup timer for the automatic exposure control (AEC) serves to: help distinguish differences between anatomic tissues - ANSWER-The specific purpose of a contrast medium is to: focused - ANSWER-The ________ grid design is manufactured to match the divergence of the x-ray beam. OID - ANSWER-Select the item below that is NOT required as part of a standardized technique chart. 500 - ANSWER-The International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP) dose equivalent limit for the hands is_______ mSv. liver - ANSWER-The ________ is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. current - ANSWER-When electrons move through a conductor, ________ is said to flow. AP/PA axial oblique - ANSWER-Which of the following is the BEST projection for demonstrating the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? nonverbal - ANSWER-Which type of communication includes eye contact, touch and tone of voice? contrast improvement factor - ANSWER-When discussing the grid, the letter "K" represents the ________. must be atleast 6 feet long on mobile equipment - ANSWER-Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by following the guideline stating that exposure cords: 150 - ANSWER-According to NCRP Report No. 116, annual occupational exposure to the lens of the eye should not exceed: exposure time will decrease - ANSWER-If the center cell is selected for an anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine, the MOST likely response of the automatic exposure control (AEC) if the spine is not over the ion chamber is that: receptor exposure - ANSWER-When the x-ray beam is NOT properly aligned with the grid strips the ________ is changed. ionization chamber - ANSWER-The ________ is an automatic exposure device that uses a gas-filled container. bolus - ANSWER-A patient is injected with a large volume of fluid intravenously; this is called a(n): lateral - ANSWER-Which of the following is the BEST projection for demonstrating the intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine? precent the vein from rolling before injection - ANSWER-When performing venipuncture, the technologist should stabilize the vein before inserting a needle for intravenous drug injection to: the joint spaces are perpendicular to the image receptor and open on the resulting image - ANSWER-When acquiring a lateral projection of the finger, it is important to keep the finger parallel to the image receptor because in this position: sphenoidal - ANSWER-The ________ sinus(es) sit(s) directly beneath the sella turcica. specify instructions or locations - ANSWER-The BEST reason to use touch for emphasis when performing a radiologic examination is to: ionization - ANSWER-The ejection of an electron from an atom or molecule is known as: 0 - ANSWER-If 90 kVp is used with a single-phase generator, the minimum electron voltage across the tube is ________ keV. deglutition - ANSWER-The act of ________ is observed on fluoroscopy during an esophagram. water-soluble iodinated contrast - ANSWER-What medium is injected into the joint of a patient undergoing positive single-contrast radiographic arthrography? basilic - ANSWER-During positive single-contrast radiographic arthrography, water-soluble iodinated contrast is injected into the joint space. 66% - ANSWER-Using a 75 kVp x-ray beam with a 0.25 mm lead-equivalent apron provides protection from _______ of the beam. parietal - ANSWER-Which of the following is a cranial bone? diaphragm at the top of the image - ANSWER-The upright abdomen must include the: 10-20 - ANSWER-The typical flow rate for drip infusion drug administration is ________ drops per minute. AP hip, AP knee, AP ankle - ANSWER-The 3 projections taken for a long-bone measurement (scanography technique) of the lower extremity include: patient skin dose - ANSWER-The primary function of filtration is to reduce: response that is known to occur following exposure to radiation - ANSWER-Select the statement below that is TRUE as it relates to a nonstochastic (deterministic) effect. costophrenic angles - ANSWER-On a PA chest radiograph, which of the following is MOST inferior? capitate, hamate, pisiform, scaphoid - ANSWER-Which of the following are carpal bones? bone age - ANSWER-What type of radiographic study is used to evaluate skeletal maturity? remnant - ANSWER-Radiation that exits the patient and is directed toward the receptor is referred to as ________ radiation. xray tube housing - ANSWER-Leakage radiation in the radiography/fluoroscopy exposure room is emitted from the: 0 - ANSWER-The letter "U" as an abbreviation can be mistaken for: consoles are supplied with high voltage - ANSWER-Which of the following is NOT TRUE concerning operator consoles? -contain exposure button -allow for focal spot size selection -supplied with high voltage -display AEC settings parietal peritoneum - ANSWER-The outer portion of the double-walled sac in the abdominal cavity is called the: kVp - ANSWER-Which of the following technical factors simultaneously affects overall image quality and [Show Less]
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ARRT MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS ANS ANSWERS
M/C: Which of the following are true for an AP coccyx projection? 1. 15 degree cephalic angle. 2. 10 degree caudal angle 3. center 2 inches superior ... [Show More] to the pubic symphysis - ANSWER-2 and 3 More windings on the primary side of the transformer will create ____ voltage on the secondary side. - ANSWER-less In the construction of a radiographic grid, what defines the grid ratio? - ANSWER-height of lead strips compared to the distance between them What positioning technique could help enhance the quality of a lateral knee? - ANSWER-CR with a 5 degree cephalic angle During a fluoro exposure, a patient's stomach absorbs a total of 0.012 joules of energy. The tissues of the stomach weigh 3 kilograms. What is the absorbed dose? - ANSWER-0.004 Gy Genetic effects are those that manifest: - ANSWER-in future generations of the exposed individual General Fluoro is limited to maximum entrance skin exposure rate of: - ANSWER-100 mGy/min How is the patient positioned for an external rotation of the shoulder? - ANSWER-abduct the patients arm T/F: Electrons and x-rays can be focused. - ANSWER-False Which device in an image receptor can collect and convert light into an electrical signal? - ANSWER-CCD, Photodiode if a patient begins to have symptoms of hives after an injection of contrast for an IVP, what should be done first? - ANSWER-call a radiologist What is the most common cause of an off-level grid error? - ANSWER-grid shifts due to patient movement The trachea bifurcates at the level of the _____. - ANSWER-Aortic notch If the x-ray tube is moved rapidly during a fluoro exam, the image will blur. This is the result of the following: - ANSWER-camera tube lag during an x-ray exposure, electrons accelerate towards what part of the x-ray tube? - ANSWER-Anode What is the radiation weighting factor of x-rays? - ANSWER-1 M/C: The use of proper collimation serves to: 1. Increase image contrast 2. reduce radiation exposure to the patient 3. decrease effective focal-spot size - ANSWER-1 and 2 Inherent filtration refers to: - ANSWER-filtration that is part of tube design What effect will decreasing collimation have on patient radiation exposure - ANSWER-increases patient radiation exposure The severity of the hell effect can be increased by what change in SID? - ANSWER-decreasing sid M/C: Federal Law on radiation protection requires which of the following? 1. signage for radiation areas 2. maintaining personal dose records 3. publication of personal dose records - ANSWER-1 and 2 What is the largest carpal bone? - ANSWER-capitate T/F: the esophagus lies anterior to the trachea? - ANSWER-False To function correctly, the current entering a transformer must be: - ANSWER-AC A middle-aged male with a blood pressure reading 180/80 mmHg would be diagnosed as - ANSWER-hypertensive PICC lines are used to: - ANSWER-Deliver medication through a vein M/C: Which of the following facts are true regarding x-rays? 1. x-rays have no mass 2. x-rays travel at the speed of light 3. x-rays have a positive charge - ANSWER-1 and 2 M/C: Which of the following is true about the fibula? 1. it sits laterally to the tibia 2. it articulates with the tibia at the proximal end 3. it articulates at the distal medial talus - ANSWER-1 and 2 photons produced outside of the actual focal spot are known as: - ANSWER-Off focus radiation M/C: Total filtration of the x-ray beam includes: 1. Added Filtration 2. Inherent filtration 3. collimation - ANSWER-1 and 2 Which sinus is demonstrated through the open mouth waters? - ANSWER-sphenoid Which area is myelography not used on? - ANSWER-sacrum M/C: How does the anode heel effect manifest itself on a radiographic image? 1. Higher exposure on the anode side of the image 2. Higher exposure on the cathode side of the image 3. Increased detail on the anode side of the image 4. increased detail on the cathode side of the image - ANSWER-2 and 3 Penumbra and detail share what relationship? - ANSWER-increased penumbra = decreased detail When using AEC, which of the following may result in an image with excessive receptor exposure? - ANSWER-incorrect photo-timer cell selection M/C: What portion of the CR imaging plate protects the plate from unwanted light and background radiation? choose two. A. protective layer B. phosphor layer C. conductive layer D. light shield layer - ANSWER-c and d How does the presence of oxygen affect the radiosensitivity of a cell - ANSWER-increased radiosensitivity What is the normal pulse rate for an adult? - ANSWER-60-100 beats per minute Equivalent dose is a measurement that takes into consideration which of the following variables? 1. radiation type 2. tissue type 3. exposure rate - ANSWER-1 Within the oblique lumbar spine, the nose of the scotty dog is: - ANSWER-Transverse process What is demonstrated in profile in the medial rotation view of the elbow? - ANSWER-coronoid process A decrease in oxygen content is called? - ANSWER-Hypoxia The wrist should be turned laterally ____ degrees when performing an oblique view - ANSWER-45 Acute infection of the parenchyma is characterized as: - ANSWER-pneumonia On an AP Pelvis, if the lesser trochanters are partially visible, this indicates: - ANSWER-the feet are in anatomic position The waters view best demonstrates: 1. Frontal sinus 2. maxillary sinus 3. ethmoid sinus 4. sphenoid sinus - ANSWER-2 What determines the quantity of electrons in tube current? - ANSWER-Heating of the filament An avulsion fracture is characterized as: - ANSWER-Fracture where a tendon or ligament pulls off a piece of bone The light signal released by photo-stimulable phosphors is too weak to produce a quality radiograph. The light is enhanced by a device called? - ANSWER-PMT (Photomultiplier tube) A patient suffering from a gunshot wound to the abdomen would most likely suffer from this type of shock: - ANSWER-Hypovolemic shock proper positioning of the PA axial caldwell projection includes: - ANSWER-OML perpendicular to the IR with a 15 degree caudad angle A "coherent scattering" event may also be called - ANSWER-classical scattering Dynamic range is defined as: - ANSWER-The range of exposures that can be captured by a detector M/C: Personal monitoring devices are worn for what reasons: 1. check radiation safety practice 2. monitor dose in the air 3. estimate eye and thyroid dose - ANSWER-1 and 3 The smallest exposure difference that can be detected and displayed by the imaging system is called? - ANSWER-contrast resolution During Fluoro imaging: reducing _____ increases _____. - ANSWER-reducing kvp increases patient dose Select the bun level that most accurately describes proper kidney function: - ANSWER-7 to 20mg/100 ml All the following are examples of conduction materials EXCEPT: A. ALuminum B. Air C. Rubber D. Water - ANSWER-c Scatter radiation does not affect: - ANSWER-recorded spatial resolution Which of these materials are essential to image production within CR imaging systems? - ANSWER-PSP Limb-stunting, anecephaly and evisceration are all examples of: - ANSWER-Teratogenic effects The relationship between distance and intensity can be expressed by which of the following? - ANSWER-Inverse Square Law The isotropic nature of the x-ray beam means that it? - ANSWER-travels in all directions If an x-ray tech touches their patient without asking first, they are guilty of: - ANSWER-battery What is the most commonly used beam restricting device? - ANSWER-collimator Effects of radiation induced damage can be studied from? A. Hiroshima B. Nagasski C. Atomic bomb D. All of these - ANSWER-d What term describes the FUNCTIONAL portion of the kidney? - ANSWER-Nephron What is the source of x-radiation in the x-ray tube? - ANSWER-focal spot M/C: Ingesting barium sulfate and having multiple KUB radiographs performed at 15 and 30 minute intervals is used to visualize 1. Duodenum 2. Ileocecal Valve 3. Splenic Flexure 4. Plyoric Sphincter - ANSWER-1 and 2 What anatomy of the heart aids in delivering oxygen-rich blood to the body: - ANSWER->>>>> A patient suffering from a hypoglycemic reaction should be given: - ANSWER-a bolus of sugar Which bony landmark lies directly medial to the greater trochanter? - ANSWER-Pubic Symphysis [Show Less]
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ARRT Test Prep Questions with 100% correct Answers
Main property of x-radiation that makes it potentially hazardous is its ability to? - ANSWER-Ionize Describe the damage potential of ionization? - ANSWE... [Show More] R-Chain reaction in the human body that may eventually cause biologic damage. X-rays are from the Electric Magnetic Spectrum or radiation energy and is considered harmful in high energy ranges. What is the most likely potential hazard working with diagnostic radiology? - ANSWER-Carcinogenesis - Stochastic/Non-Threshold Effect .1 Rem = ? Seivert - ANSWER-1 Sievert 0.1 Gray = ? Rad - ANSWER-10 Rad 1 Gray = ? Rad - ANSWER-100 Rad What is Aplastic Anemia? When dose it occur? - ANSWER-All types of blood cells: Red & White 25 Rads A decrease in blood count is the earliest response seen to dose radiation. It can occur at dosease as low as? - ANSWER-25 Rads or .25 Gray What is Cataractogenesis? - ANSWER-Process of Cataract Formation Cataractogenesis occurs after acute or chronic exposures of how many Rads? - ANSWER-200 Rads, 2 Gray Skin Eyrythemia (Skin Redning) occurs above? - ANSWER-Above 200 Rad, 2 Gray Temporary Sterility occurs in the adult male at acute doses of how many Rads? - ANSWER-250 Rads, 2.5 Gray Pregnant radiographer should? (3) - ANSWER-Always practice TDS Has legal right for re-assignment of duty Never confuse collar badge with waist badge Monthly dosimetry reports is based on what? - ANSWER-OCCUPATIONAL exposures only. Monthly Dosimeter reports does NOT include? - ANSWER-Natural or Background Radiation What is the recommended monthly dose-equivalent limit for the fetus in the third trimester? - ANSWER-0.5 mSv .05 Rem NRCP 116 Radiation workers cumulative dose-equivalent limit is determined by? - ANSWER-Age x 10 mSv Age x 1 Rem NCRP 110 What is the Occupational radiation dose equivalent limit for stochastic effects to the whole body? - ANSWER-50 mSv (5 Rem) When using a C-Arm mobile unit, the intensification tower should be? - ANSWER-As close as possible to the patient to reduce patient dose and unnecessary magnification. Radiation exposure in air = ? - ANSWER-Roentgens - Ionization in air dose measurement. Electrical current being generated by a charge created in air thru ionization by x/gamma radiation is called a? - ANSWER-Ion Chamber The quantity of radiation exposure measured by an ionization chamber would be? - ANSWER-Coulomb/Kilogram The C/Kg or R is usually the unit measured in? - ANSWER-Air dose List the 3 measurements that are more appropriate for measuring absorbed doses for radiation or occupational dose? - ANSWER-Gray (1) - Rad (100) Seivert (1) - Rem (100) Curie - Bacquerel What type of changes are used to measure occupational dose? (3) - ANSWER-Scintillation Biological Chemical Example of personnel monitor that measures radiation thru chemical change reaction? - ANSWER-Film Badge - Operate off Gurney-Mott theory. Explain the Gurney-Mott Theory...? - ANSWER-Describes how an x-ray photon changes silver halide into atomic silver in the film emulsion--a definite chemical change. How long can a film badge be worn? - ANSWER-No more than a month Why shouldn't film badges be worn greater than a month? - ANSWER-Extreme sensitivity to environmental conditions. TLD's operate thru? - ANSWER-Luminescence (NO chemical rx's occur) Pocket dosimeters can only work for? - ANSWER-1 day and must be reset everyday. Upper reading limit of 200-300 rads Pocket dosimeter uses? - ANSWER-Electrical current as a measurement of charge. The type of personnel monitor that could be worn the longest is the? - ANSWER-OSD Optical stimulated detector can be worn up to? - ANSWER-3 months and be sensitive to 2 mR Leakage radiation should NOT exceed how much mR at 1 meter from the scource? - ANSWER-100 mR per hr 0.1 Rad per hr NCRP 102 According to Bushong, tabletop intensity should NOT exceed what? - ANSWER-2.1 mR per min for each mA operating at 80 kVp. Under normal modes of operation, fluoroscopic procedures should NOT exceed? - ANSWER-10 Renkens per min. What does GSD stand for? - ANSWER-Genetic Significant Dose What is GSD? - ANSWER-Average gonadal dose received by an exposed population. It is used to estimate the genetic impact of medical radiation dose on the entire population. Beam limiting devices will? (3) - ANSWER-Improve image quality Reduce patient dose Reduce scatter radiation The purpose of reducing added filtration is to reduce radiation dose to? - ANSWER-Patients skin Recommended amount of filtration in Fluoro? - ANSWER-3 mm Al Equivalent Disadvantage to having 3 mm Al Equivalent? - ANSWER-Would require an increase in technical factors defeating the purpose of filtration. What is the usual amount of filtration in Fluoro? - ANSWER-2.5 mm Al Equivalent What effect does excessive filtration have on xray image? - ANSWER-Reduced contrast # of grid lines per inch or centimeter defines? - ANSWER-Grid Frequency For all dedicated chest units whose tube potential routinely exceeds 90 kVp, the minimum recommended grid ratio is? - ANSWER-8:1 Techniques below or at 90 kVp would utilize what grid ratio? - ANSWER-8:1 Techniques above 90 kVp would utilize what grid ratio? - ANSWER-12:1 What is the ratio of a grid whose lead strips are 0.25 mm thick, 1.6 mm high and are seperated by a 0.10 mm alluminum spacer? - ANSWER-16:1 grid During latent image formation, the concentration of metallic silver in the exposed crystals occurs in the region of the sensitivity specks. This explanation of the formation of the image is reffered to as? - ANSWER-Gurney-Mott theory What type of interactions cause ionization of irradiated material? - ANSWER-Photoelectric - Changes inner shell electrons Compton - Affects outer shell electrons Which of the following xray interactions with matter is primarily responsible for contrast? - ANSWER-Photoelectric effect Radiation produces at very discrete energies of approx 69 kiloelectron colts (kev) when electrons interact with the K shell of the tungsten target atom is called? - ANSWER-Characteristic Radiation Pair-Production affects what portion of the cell? - ANSWER-Nucleus. It does NOT cause ionization. What type of radiation would produce the greatest amount of biological damage in human tissue? - ANSWER-High LET's What is the active component of the TLD? - ANSWER-Lithium Fluoride What is used in input phosphors? - ANSWER-Cesium Iodide What is used in output phosphors? - ANSWER-Zinc Cadmium Sulfide What must be done to Xray film to make it compatible to rare earth phosphors? - ANSWER-Add light absorbing dye in the x-ray film emulsion About what percentage of radiographic density is due to light emitted by an intensifying screen phosphor? - ANSWER-95-98% What occurs when exit radiation interacts with a Photo-Stimulable imaging plate? - ANSWER-Energy Absorption What is used in scintillation gamma cameras in nuclear medicine/CT? - ANSWER-Sodium Iodide What color of light emitted by lanthanum oxy-bromide rare earth crystals in the intensifying screen? - ANSWER-Blue Maximum # of electron that may be found in the L-Shell of an atom? - ANSWER-8 What is the most radiosensitive part of any human cell? - ANSWER-Chromosome DNA Nucleus What is arguably the MOST radiosensitive cell in the human body? - ANSWER-Mature Lymphocyte Example of Radiosensitive stem cells? - ANSWER-Neuroblasts Spermatogonia Human tissue considered to be the most radio-resistant? - ANSWER-Erythrocyte What is a Erythrocyte? - ANSWER-End cells w/ no nucleus Like mature nerve cells, are practically immune from radiation and have about a 4 month life span Example of Deterministic Effect? - ANSWER-Cataracto-genesis Examples of Deterministic or Non-Stochastic associated with a threshold dose? - ANSWER-Cataracts (2 grey - 200 Rad) Examples of Stochastic, Non-Deterministic, Non threshold dose? - ANSWER-Leukemia Thyroid Cancer Genetic Effects Whole body doses only need...? - ANSWER-Very low doses for cancer & genetic effects. What is a cutie pie? - ANSWER-Radiation survey monitor or it can be a hot personnel monitoring device. Reduction in resolution often seen with the use of higher tube currents in a single focus tube is a phenomenon called? - ANSWER-Blooming What type of exposure factors provide the least patient exposure? - ANSWER-Lowest kVp and lowest mAs would cause the lowest patient dose. What film change can be made to reduce the dose to the patient and surrounding radiographer? - ANSWER-Use higher speed screen w/ a comparable change in mAs Radiographing Lumbar vertebrae of a geriatric patient, what technique change could be made to reduce patient exposure but maintain significant density? - ANSWER-Increase kVp by 15% with a 50% reduction in mAs What should be considered when using AEC? - ANSWER-Proper selection of ionization chamber(s) Precise positioning over desired chambers NOT Proper selection time If using automatic exposure control (AEC) device to make an exposure, what would be adjusted to ensure proper optical density from pt to pt? - ANSWER-Set Field Detector's (Chambers) Set Density compensation (+1, +2...) NOT Set time! Where should ionization chambers be located if it is to be used as an efficient automatic exposure - ANSWER-Between the patient and the image receptor Underexposed radiograph produced by AEC device might result from? - ANSWER-Having insufficient backup time set for a very large patient Appearance of grid lines on radiograph with the table Bucky in use indicates? - ANSWER-Exposure time too short What would be used by tech to compensate for the caring densities of anatomic structures on a routine PA projection of the chest? - ANSWER-Trough Filter Using compression band will have what effect during the production of a radiograph? - ANSWER-Reduces scatter radiation Decreases radiographic contrast NOT reduces patient motion What radiographic procedure requires an image demonstrating a long scale of contrast? - ANSWER-Chest When using AEC w/ DR, selecting the center chamber on a PA radiogragh results in? - ANSWER-Appropriate density in the lungs As the field size is increased with all other factors remaining constant, the scale of contrast will? - ANSWER-Be lengthened What could decrease the production of scatter radiation? - ANSWER-Decrease in kVp Which of following pathological conditions would allow the x-ray beam to easily penetrate the pt? - ANSWER-Rheumatoid arthritis Which pathologic condition would require increase in technical factors? - ANSWER-Ascites What is Ascites? - ANSWER-Fluid in the peritoneal cavity What would affect shape distortion? - ANSWER-Tube Angulation If a radiograh demonstrates excessive size distortion, which of the following corrections should be made before repeating? - ANSWER-Increase SID Image noise can be decreased by? - ANSWER-Increasing xray dose Purpose does a photo-cathode serve? - ANSWER-Converts light photons to electrons What type of generator would incorporate a DC chopper in order to convert 60 hz AC to pulsed DC? - ANSWER-High frequency Disadvantage of a flat panel direct capture detector is? - ANSWER-Difficult in mobile imaging How many heat units are genera [Show Less]
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ARRT Practice Questions and Answers (Graded A)
What radiographic procedure must you use sterile gloves for touching items on the tray? - ANSWER-Myelogram Written defamation of character is known as? ... [Show More] - ANSWER-Libel Which drug would you administer when a patient develops urticaria? - ANSWER-Antihistamine What is another name for hives? - ANSWER-Urticaria A skin rash triggered by a reaction to food, medicine, or other irritants. - ANSWER-Hive Or Urticaria Transmission of an infection by insects such as a tick or mosquito is known as a? - ANSWER-Vector When an object is free of all microorganisms it is termed? - ANSWER-Sterile Why is the IV bag 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein? - ANSWER-To prevent the backflow of blood into the tubing which forms a clot and obstructs the flow of the IV fluid An inanimate object that is been in contact with an infectious organism is a? - ANSWER-Fomite a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful to the person. - ANSWER-Contraindication The main advantage of using non-ionic water-soluble contrast media on the patient would be? - ANSWER-Fewer adverse reactions What type of radiographic procedure requires an intrathecal injection? - ANSWER-Myelogram ______ is a route of administration for drugs via an injection into the spinal canal - ANSWER-intrathecal Which gauge size has the biggest lumen? - ANSWER-The smallest number gauge has the biggest lumen If the CR is angled 40° Cephalic what projection of the calcareous so calcis are you taking? - ANSWER-Plantodorsal Projection In the thoracic cavity each lung is enclosed in a? - ANSWER-Pleura Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the long arch? - ANSWER-Lateralmedial erect or weight-bearing In the AP axial projection Townes of the skull with the CR directed 30° caudal to the OML and passing midway between the EAM which structures best demonstrated? - ANSWER-Occipital Bone not alive, especially not in the manner of animals and humans. objects like stones showing no sign of life; lifeless. - ANSWER-inanimate An imaging examination that involves the introduction of a spinal needle into the spinal canal and the injection of contrast material in the space around the spinal cord and nerve roots (the subarachnoid space) using a real-time form of x-ray called fluoroscopy. - ANSWER-Myelogram The best way to control voluntary motion is? - ANSWER-Careful explanation of the procedure to the patient What is demonstrated on the oblique position of the cervical spine? - ANSWER-Intervertebral foramina In relation to the Esophagus the trachea is located where? - ANSWER-The trachea is anterior in relation to the esophagus Which position will demonstrate the right axillary ribs? - ANSWER-RPO Or LAO The manubrial notch is located at the level of? - ANSWER-T2-t3 interspace Which projection of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibio fibular joint? - ANSWER-Medial oblique 45° What is the position of the gallbladder in a Asthenic patient? - ANSWER-Inferior and medial The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? - ANSWER-Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR MSP parallel to the IR IOML parallel to the IR During myelography a contrast medium is injected into which space? - ANSWER-Subarachnoid space Which position of the elbow will separate the radial head neck and tuberosity from the superimposition of the ulna? - ANSWER-Lateral or external oblique With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR where will the Petrous pyramids be demonstrated within the orbits? - ANSWER-Completely within the orbits The sternoclavicular joint is best demonstrated with the patient PA and ? - ANSWER-A slightly oblique position with the affected side adjacent to the IR. RAO What position will demonstrate the patients left kidney parallel to the IR and the right kidney perpendicular to the IR? - ANSWER-30 degrees RPO or LAO Which position will demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina? - ANSWER-Lateral Which position will demonstrate the apophyseal joints closest to the IR? - ANSWER-RPO (right) LPO (left) How should a patient be examined for separation of the AC joint? - ANSWER-Erect position with use of weights to improve demonstration of both joints The coronoid process can be visualized in profile in what position of the elbow? - ANSWER-Both medial and internal AP oblique If the lesser tubercle is in profile for the AP shoulder joint the humorus is in which rotation? - ANSWER-Internal If the greater tubercle is in profile then the humorous is in which rotation? - ANSWER-External What type of fracture is it called when a bone is driven into another bone? - ANSWER-Impacted No grid (Times mAs by...) - ANSWER-1 5:1 (Times mAs by...) - ANSWER-2 6:1 - ANSWER-3 8:1 - ANSWER-4 Most commonly used 12:1 - ANSWER-5 16:1 - ANSWER-6 Density Maintenance Formula - ANSWER-mAs1 = D1 squared mAs2 D2 squared Inverse square law - ANSWER-I1= D2 squared I2 D1 squared What is the establish fetal does limit guideline for pregnant radiograph's during the entire gestation period? - ANSWER-0.5 rem 5 mSv 500mrem What should you use if you have to restrain a child or infant in order to perform a procedure? - ANSWER-Restraining them with the use of a mechanical device if you cannot use a mechanical device have the patients father hold the child According to the NCRP the annual occupational full body does equipment limit is? - ANSWER-5 rem 50 mSv 5000mrem How will the x-ray photons intensity be affected if the SID is doubled? - ANSWER-The intensity of the beam will decrease four times this is known as the inverse square law If the patient received 2000 MRAD during a 10 minute fluoro exam how much exposure will the patient recieve in five-minutes? - ANSWER-1000 Mrad which is half of what they received in 10 minutes The photo electric effect is an interaction between x-ray photons and... - ANSWER-And inner shell electron What is recommended for the pregnant radiographer to use as far as the dosimeter badge? - ANSWER-Wear one dosimeter badge outside the lead apron at the collar level and one dosimeter badge inside the lead apron at the level of the waist so A total of two badges are worn and these badges position should never be interchanged What is likely to occur if 25 Rad is delivered to fetus in early pregnancy? - ANSWER-Spontaneous abortion will occur if 25 rad were to be delivered to fetus during the second through the 10th week skeletal abnormalities may appear How does filtration affect the primary beam? - ANSWER-It increases the average energy of the primary beam by filtering out the low-energy photons The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is the? - ANSWER-REM (seivert) The unit of absorbed dose is? - ANSWER-Rad (gray) Biologic material is most sensitive to irradiation under which condition? - ANSWER-Oxygenated The reduction in the intensity of the x-ray beam as it passes through a material is termed? - ANSWER-Attenuation The largest amount of diagnostic x-ray absorption occurs in which tissue? - ANSWER-Bone since it is the most dense tissue The effects of radiation on biological material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time the fact will be? - ANSWER-The effect will be less than if it were delivered all at one time for a short period of time What interaction contributes most to occupational exposure? - ANSWER-Compton Scatter What factors affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary been? - ANSWER-Half value layer (hvl) [Show Less]
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Radiology Exam Review [ARRT] -Exam with complete solutions
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace? (A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad (B) Patient AP with... [Show More] 30 to 35º angle caudad (C) Patient AP with 0º angle (D) Patient lateral, coned to L5 - ANSWER-(A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2-7? (A) Talus (B) Medial malleolus (C) Lateral malleolus (D) Lateral tibial condyle (Cornuelle & Gronefeld, pp 193-195) - ANSWER-(B) Medial malleolus The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery. 2. common carotid arteries. 3. vertebral arteries. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(C) 2 and 3 only What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image recorder? (A) Coracoid (B) Coronoid (C) Olecranon (D) Glenoid - ANSWER-(C) Olecranon What are the positions most commonly employed for a radiographic examination of the sternum? 1. Lateral 2. RAO 3. LAO (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(A) 1 and 2 only Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-1 should be used to demonstrate the cervical apophyseal articulations? 1. A 2. B 3. C (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (Ballinger & Frank, pp 400-403) - ANSWER-(B) 2 only When the erect position is requested as part of an IVP, it is used to demonstrate (A) the adrenal glands. (B) the renal surfaces. (C) kidney mobility. (D) the bladder neck. - ANSWER-(C) kidney mobility. For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Biliary tract calculi 2. Patency of the biliary ducts 3. Function of the sphincter of Oddi (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(D) 1, 2, and 3 During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm. 2. raises the ribs. 3. depresses the abdominal viscera. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(C) 2 and 3 only Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations? (A) Barium examinations (B) Spine radiography (C) Skull radiography (D) Emergency and trauma radiography - ANSWER-(D) Emergency and trauma radiography Which of the localization lines seen in Figure 2-35 is used for the SMV (Schüller method) projection of the skull? (A) Line 1 (B) Line 2 (C) Line 3 (D) Line 4 (Saia, p 144) - ANSWER-(C) Line 3 #3 is the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) Which of the following projections of the abdomen may be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels? 1. Dorsal decubitus 2. Lateral decubitus 3. AP Trendelenburg (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(B) 1 and 2 only Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the (A) lateral projection of the facial bones. (B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method). (C) posteroanterior projection with a 15º caudal angle. (D) Sweet's localization method. - ANSWER-(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method). Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses? (A) Parietoacanthial (B) PA axial (C) Lateral (D) True PA - ANSWER-(C) Lateral Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position. 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints. 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only - ANSWER-(B) 1 and 2 The structure labeled 1 in Figure 2-30 is the (A) intervertebral disk space. (B) apophyseal joint. (C) intervertebral foramen. (D) spinous process. [shown is a lateral projection of the cervical spine taken in flexion] (Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 398, 399) - ANSWER-(B) apophyseal joint. Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate (A) humeral dislocation. (B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears. (C) osteoarthritis. (D) acromioclavicular joint separation. (Fig. 2-59) (Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 496) - ANSWER-(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears. The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2-26 may be obtained with the patient 1. supine and the central ray angled 30º caudad. 2. supine and the central ray angled 30º cephalad. 3. prone and the central ray angled 30º cephalad. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, pp 134, 139) - ANSWER-(B) 2 only Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25º RPO position with the central ray entering 1 in medial to the elevated ASIS? (A) Left sacroiliac joint (B) Right sacroiliac joint (C) Left ilium (D) Right ilium - ANSWER-(A) Left sacroiliac joint In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those (A) nearest the film. (B) furthest from the film. (C) seen medially. (D) seen inferiorly. - ANSWER-(B) furthest from the film. The junction of the transverse colon and the descending colon forms the (A) hepatic flexure. (B) splenic flexure. (C) transverse flexure. (D) sigmoid flexure. (Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 89) - ANSWER-(B) splenic flexure. In order to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the (A) skull is obliqued toward the affected side. (B) skull is obliqued away from the affected side. (C) central ray is angled cephalad. (D) central ray is angled caudad. - ANSWER-(C) central ray is angled cephalad. Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate 1. pneumothorax. 2. foreign body. 3. atelectasis. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(D) 1, 2, and 3 Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral oblique - ANSWER-(D) Lateral oblique The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the (A) transverse processes. (B) vertebral arches. (C) laminae. (D) pedicles. - ANSWER-(D) pedicles. The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are (A) ionic non-water-soluble. (B) ionic water-soluble. (C) nonionic water-soluble. (D) gas. - ANSWER-(C) nonionic water-soluble. The axiolateral position (Law method) of examining the mastoids uses which of the following? 1. OML 2. MSP parallel to the tabletop 3. 15º caudad angulation (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only - ANSWER-(D) 2 and 3 only Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40º, central ray directed caudad 40º to the popliteal fossa 2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, central ray directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. Patient PA, patella parallel to film, heel rotated 5 to 10º lateral, central ray perpendicular to knee joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(B) 1 and 2 only Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a 1. torn meniscus. 2. Baker's cyst. 3. torn rotator cuff. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(A) 1 and 2 only Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. Knee 2. Intervertebral joints 3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(C) 1 and 3 only Which of the following statements are true regarding Figure 2-28? 1. The radiograph was made in the RAO position. 2. The central ray should enter more inferiorly. 3. The sternum should be projected onto the right side of the thorax. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 (Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 274-277) - ANSWER-(A) 1 and 2 only Which of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam to rule out fracture? (A) Internal and external rotation (B) AP and tangential (C) AP and AP axial (D) AP and scapular Y - ANSWER-(D) AP and scapular Y Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-3 is (are) true? 1. The tibial eminences are well visualized. 2. The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles. 3. The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 290) - ANSWER-(C) 1 and 3 only The structure(s) best demonstrated on an AP axial projection of the skull with the central ray directed 40 to 60º caudally is (are) the (A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina. (B) petrous pyramids. (C) occipital bone. (D) rotundum foramina. - ANSWER-(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina. AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula. 2. following inversion or eversion injuries. 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(C) 2 and 3 only In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30º caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meatus, which of the following is best demonstrated? (A) Occipital bone (B) Frontal bone (C) Facial bones (D) Basal foramina (Fig. 2-40) (Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, p 270) - ANSWER-(A) Occipital bone Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the (A) lateral projection. (B) PA axial (Caldwell method) projection. (C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection. (D) AP axial (Grashey / Towne method) projection. - ANSWER-(C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the LUQ? 1. Stomach 2. Spleen 3. Cecum (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(C) 1 and 2 only Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with spot film and tilt table capabilities 2. A fiberoptic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(D) 1, 2, and 3 Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile? 1. Epicondyles parallel to the film 2. Arm in external rotation 3. Humerus in AP position (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(D) 1, 2, and 3 During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate 1. filling of obstructed ureters. 2. the renal pelvis. 3. the superior calyces. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 - ANSWER-(B) 1 and 2 only Which of the following positions is required in order to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity? (A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up (B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down (C) AP Trendelenburg (D) AP supine - ANSWER-(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down [Show Less]
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ARRT Radiography Exam Review (300-400) Graded A
Elongation (body part appears longer than normal) is caused by angulation along the ________ axis of the part being imaged. - ANSWER-Long Foreshortening... [Show More] (body part appears shorter than normal) is caused by angulation against the ________ axis of the part being imaged. - ANSWER-Main Grids are constructed of ________ strips separated by ________ interspacers. - ANSWER-1) Lead 2) Aluminum The height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips is known as: - ANSWER-Grid Ratio Grid Ratio Formula: - ANSWER-H/D The number of lead strips in a grid per inch (or centimeter) is known as: - ANSWER-Grid Frequency The measure of the ability of a grid to increase contrast is the ________. - ANSWER-Contrast Improvement Factor The ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is the ________. - ANSWER-Grid Selectivity Grid conversion factor (GCF) is the amount of exposure ________ necessary to compensate for the ________ of image-forming x-rays and scatter in the cleanup process. - ANSWER-1) Increase 2) Absorption Grid conversion factor is also known as: - ANSWER-Bucky Factor Value How do you calculate the new mAs required for a specific grid using the grid conversion factor? - ANSWER-GCF of selected grid times the current mAs What is the grid conversion factor for a 5:1 grid? - ANSWER-2 What is the grid conversion factor for a 8:1 grid? - ANSWER-4 What is the grid conversion factor for a 12:1 grid? - ANSWER-5 What is the grid conversion factor for a 16:1 grid? - ANSWER-6 When normal density appears in the middle of a radiograph with decreased density on the sides, this is likely a result of: - ANSWER-Grid Upside Down When image-forming x-rays are absorbed all across the radiographic field, with cutoff (decreased density) visible over the entire radiograph, this is a result of: - ANSWER-Grid Off-Level When the central ray does not strike the grid in the center, and there is visible cutoff more to one side of the radiograph than the other, the cause is: - ANSWER-Lateral Decentering When there is normal density in the middle of the radiograph, with cutoff visible on the sides, the cause is likely to be: - ANSWER-Grid-Focus Decentering ________ is the distance at which focused grids may be used. - ANSWER-Grid Focus Focus range is ________ for low-ratio grids. - ANSWER-Wide Focus range is ________ for high-ratio grids. - ANSWER-Narrow Generally, grids are used when the body part being imaged is ________ cm thick or greater, or when more than ________ kVp is used. - ANSWER-1) 10 2) 60 What type of build is massive, represents 5% of the population, has a broad and deep thorax, high diaphragm, high colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are high and horizontal? - ANSWER-Hypersthenic What body type is a slight modification of hypersthenic, is the most common body habitus, and is present in 50% of the population? - ANSWER-Sthenic What body type is between asthenic and sthenic and is present in 35% of the population? - ANSWER-Hyposthenic What body type is a slender build, is present in 10% of the population, has a narrow and shallow thorax, long thoracic cavity, long lungs, low diaphragm, short abdominal cavity, low colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are low, vertical, and near the midline? - ANSWER-Asthenic A process is a: - ANSWER-Prominence A spine is a: - ANSWER-Sharp prominence. A tubercle is a: - ANSWER-Rounded projection. A tuberosity is a: - ANSWER-Large rounded projection. A trochanter is a: - ANSWER-Very large body prominence. A crest is a: - ANSWER-Ridge A condyle is a: - ANSWER-Round process of an articulating bone. A head is a: - ANSWER-Enlargement at the end of a bone. A fossa is a: - ANSWER-Pit A groove is a: - ANSWER-Furrow A sulcus is: - ANSWER-Synonymous with a groove. A sinus is a: - ANSWER-Cavity within a bone. A foramen is a: - ANSWER-Opening A meatus is: - ANSWER-Tubelike Fibrous joints are known as ________. - ANSWER-Synarthroses Fibrous joints are generally ________ and have no joint cavity or capsule. - ANSWER-Immovable Cartilaginous joints are known as ________. - ANSWER-Amphiarthroses Cartilaginous joints are ________ movable, but have no joint cavity and are contiguous bones united by cartilage and ligaments. - ANSWER-Slightly Synovial joints are known as ________. - ANSWER-Diarthroses Synovial joints are ________ movable, and have bones held together by a fibrous capsule lined with synovial membrane and ligaments. - ANSWER-Freely There are ________ types of movements capable with synovial joints. - ANSWER-6 A ________ joint permits motion in one plane only, such as an elbow. - ANSWER-Hinge A ________ joint permits rotary movement in which a ring rotates around a central axis, such as a proximal radio-ulner articulation. - ANSWER-Pivot A ________ joint has opposing surfaces that are concavo-convex, and allow flexion, extension, adduction and abduction, such as the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. - ANSWER-Saddle A ________ joint is capable of movement in an infinite number of axes, and has a round head of one bone that moves in a cuplike cavity of the approximating base, such as a hip. - ANSWER-Ball and Socket A ________ joint is capable of permitting articulation of contiguous bones and allows only for gliding momements, such as a wrist or ankle. - ANSWER-Gliding A ________ joint permits movement in two directions at right angles to one another. Circumduction is possible, but rotation is not. Occurs in areas such as the radiocarpal joints. - ANSWER-Condyloid A ________ skull is considered to be a typical skull. - ANSWER-Mesocephalic A ________ skull is short from front to back, and broad from side to side, and shallow from vertex to base. - ANSWER-Brachycephalic A ________ skull is long from front to back, narrow from side to side, and deep from vertex to base. - ANSWER-Dolichocephalic Digital radiography is more efficient in ________, ________ and ________ than screen-film radiography. - ANSWER-1) Time 2) Space 3) Personnel What are the three basic components of a DR imaging system? - ANSWER-1) Capture Element 2) Coupling Element 3) Collection Element What is a capture element? - ANSWER-The location where the x-ray is captured. In CR, the capture element is ________ phosphor. - ANSWER-1) Photostimulable In DR, the capture element may be ________, ________, ________ or ________. - ANSWER-1) Cesium Iodide (CsI) 2) Sodium Iodide (NaI) 3) Gadolinium Oxysulfide (GdOS) 4) Amorphous Selenium (a-Se) What is a coupling element? - ANSWER-It is where the x-ray generated signal is transferred to the collection element. A coupling element may be a ________ or ________ optic assembly, a ________ layer or ________. - ANSWER-1) Lens 2) Fiber 3) Contact 4) a-Se What is a collection element? - ANSWER-The area in which the x-ray signal is captured via light or electrons. The collection system may be a ________, a ________ or a ________. - ANSWER-1) Photodiode 2) CCD 3) TFT A photodiode and a CCD are light-sensitive devices that collect light ________. - ANSWER-Photons A TFT is a charge-sensitive device that collects ________. - ANSWER-Electrons A CCD is a highly ________-sensitive device with ________ principal advantageous imaging characteristics. - ANSWER-1) Light 2) Three What are the three imaging characteristics of a CCD? - ANSWER-1) Sensitivity 2) Dynamic Range 3) Size What is sensitivity in relation to a CCD? - ANSWER-The ability of the CCD to detect and respond to very low levels of visible light. What is dynamic range in relation to a CCD? - ANSWER-The ability of the CCD to respond to a wide range of light intensity, from very dim to very bright. A CCD has a ________ sensitivity for radiation and a much ________ dynamic range than screen-film image receptors. - ANSWER-1) Higher 2) Wider Using a CCD image receptor as opposed to a screen-film image receptor results in a much ________ patient dose. - ANSWER-Lower With the use of a CCD, image ________ is unrelated to image receptor x-ray exposure. - ANSWER-Contrast With a CCD, the four decades of radiation response (0 to 10,000) can be visualized by image ________. - ANSWER-Postprocessing A CCD is very ________, which makes it highly adaptable to ________ in its various forms. - ANSWER-1) Small 2) DR A CCD measures approximately ________ cm, but the pixel size is only ________ µm. - ANSWER-1) 1 to 2 2) 100 x 100 One successful approach to DR utilizes ________ CCDs receiving light from a ________. - ANSWER-1) Tiled 2) Scintillator The scintillation light from a CsI phosphor is efficiently transmitted through ________ to the CCD array. - ANSWER-Fiber Optic Bundles Light from a CsI phosphor that is delivered to the CCD array results in high x-ray capture efficiency and good ________ resolution up to ________ lp/mm. - ANSWER-1) Spacial 2) 5 CsI/CCD is an ________ DR process by which x-rays are converted first to ________ then to ________ signal. - ANSWER-1) Indirect 2) Light 3) Electric Overcoming the challenge of creating a seamless image at the edge of each CCD is accomplished by ________ of pixel values at each tile ________. - ANSWER-1) Interpolation 2) Interface An early application of DR involved the use of CsI to capture the x-rays, as well as transmission of the resulting scintillation light to a ________ element. - ANSWER-Collection A collection element is ________ sandwiched as a ________. - ANSWER-1) Silicon 2) TFT [Show Less]
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ARRT registry review Exam 2023 with complete solutions
Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with - ANSWER-PSP storage plates The threat of bodily harm, with apparent ability to do so, is term... [Show More] ed - ANSWER-Assault An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes - ANSWER-Anaphylaxis As the CR laser scanner/reader recognizes the photostimulated luminescence (PSL) released by the PSP storage plate, it constructs a graphic representation of pixel value distribution called a - ANSWER-Histogram An accurately positioned oblique position of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae will demonstrate the classic "Scotty dog." What bony structure does the Scotty dog's neck represent? - ANSWER-Pars interarticularis How is source-to-image distance (SID) related to exposure rate and receptor exposure? - ANSWER-As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and receptor exposure decreases. What information must be included on an x-ray image for it to be considered as legitimate legal evidence? - ANSWER-1. Name of facility where examination performed 2. Examination date The principal late effects of ionizing radiation on humans include - ANSWER-2. Genetic effects 3. Malignant disease Which of the following procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the ureters? - ANSWER-Retrograde pyelogram What is the standard international unit of radiation exposure? - ANSWER-Gy a Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode? - ANSWER-1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs Coracoid process - ANSWER-Located in the shoulder girdle Which of the following indicates the scapular notch seen in figure 6-3? - ANSWER-H The CR should be directed to the center of the part of the greatest interest in order to avoid - ANSWER-Rotation distortion Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational safety and health adminstration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements? - ANSWER-2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles. 3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick. Imperfect expansion of the lung(s), often accompanied by dyspnea, is called - ANSWER-Atelectasis Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas? - ANSWER-Barium enema (BE) The exposure timer settings on three-phase radiographic equipment must be tested annually and must be accurate to within - ANSWER-+/-5% Fluoroscopic equipment features designed to eliminate unnecessary radiation exposure to patients and/or personnel include - ANSWER-1. Protective curtain 2. Filtration 3. Collimation Which of the following will best demonstrate the lumbosacral articulation in the AP position? - ANSWER-CR cephalad 30 to 35 degrees The following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation? - ANSWER-AP humerus During endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) examination, contrast medium is injected into the - ANSWER-Common bile duct Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical vertebrae? - ANSWER-Pedicles Which of the following is most likely to produce a high-quality image? - ANSWER-High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) A decrease from 90 to 77 kVp in SF/analog imaging will result in a decrease in which of the following? - ANSWER-2. Scale of grays 3. Optical density The term that refers to size distortion include - ANSWER-Magnification Advantages of high-frequency generators include - ANSWER-1. Small size 2. Decrease patient dose 3. Nearly constant potential Biologic matter is most sensitive to radiation exposure under which of the following conditions? - ANSWER-Oxygenated Which of the following is the preferred scheduling sequence? - ANSWER-Abdomen ultrasound, lower GI series, upper GI series The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of - ANSWER-Heart shadow As window level decreases - ANSWER-Brightness decreases The AP axial projections of the chest for pulmonary apices - ANSWER-2. Requires 15 to 20 degrees of cephalad angulation 3. Should demonstrate the medial ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food or after an insect bite describes - ANSWER-Anaphylaxis The following is/are used to indicate the appropriateness of radiation intensity reaching the IR - ANSWER-1. Exposure index 2. Sensitivity (S) number Which of the following is most useful for bone age evaluation? - ANSWER-PA hand What lies immediately under the phosphor layer of a PSP storage plate - ANSWER-Reflective layer Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include - ANSWER-1. Sputum 2. Synovial fluid 3. Cerebrospinal fluid The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) had recommended what total equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus? - ANSWER-5.0 mSv Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons? - ANSWER-1. To promote rapid response 2. To administer parental nutrition Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a QC program? - ANSWER-1. Beam alignment 2. Reproducibility 3. Linearity The line-focus principle refers to the fact that - ANSWER-The actual focal spot is larger that the effective focal spot Which of following positions will move the fundus of the gallbladder away from the superimposed transverse process? - ANSWER-LAO Which of the following effects does an analgesic have on the body? - ANSWER-Decreases pain The roentgen, as a unit of measurement, expresses - ANSWER-Exposure in air Histogram appearance can be skewed is there is inaccuracy in - ANSWER-1. Part centering 2. Part positioning 3. Processing algorithm selection Bone densitometry is often performed to - ANSWER-1. Measure degree of bone (de)mineralization 2. Evaluate results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy Indirect modes of disease transmission include - ANSWER-1. Vector 2. Fomite 3. Airborne If a part received 0.8 rad during a 4-minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate? - ANSWER-200 mrad/min An increase from 78 to 92 kVp will result in a decrease in which of the following? - ANSWER-Wavelength In the 45-degree medial oblique projection of the ankle, the - ANSWER-2. Tibiofibular joint is visualized 3. Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the lower leg Major effect(s) of irradiation of macromolecules include(s) - ANSWER-1. Point lesions 2. Cross-linking 3. Main-chain scission Cells described as somatic include - ANSWER-2. Neuron 3. Muscle An animal host of an infectious organism that transmits the infection via a bite or sting is a - ANSWER-Vector If the exposure rate at 2.0 m from a source of radiation is 18 mR/min, what will be the exposure rate at 5 m from the source? - ANSWER-2.8 mR/min Methods of decreasing patient dose during fluoroscopic examinations and include - ANSWER-1. Use of last image hold 2. Using the lowest practical pulse rate 3. Keeping the patient/part as close to the image intensifier as possible An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture that is not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the PA position, how is the CR directed for the axial projection? - ANSWER-Caudad An exposure was made using 600 mA, 0.04-s exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will serve to decrease the receptor exposure by one-half except a change to - ANSWER-18 mAs All the following are rules of good body mechanics except - ANSWER-Keep the load away from the body Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee? - ANSWER-1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally The source-to-table distance in fixed/stationary fluoroscopy must - ANSWER-Be at least 15 inches Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except - ANSWER-Each lung is enclosed in peritoneum Which of the following artifacts is occasionally associated with the use of grids in digital imaging? - ANSWER-Aliasing Images useful in demonstrating postspinal fusion degree of motion include - ANSWER-2. Lateral flexion and extension 3. AP right and left bending A blowout fracture usually occurs in which aspect of the orbital wall? - ANSWER-Inferior Which of the following projections/positions would best demonstrate the radial head? - ANSWER-AP external oblique The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is - ANSWER-Emphysema Tungsten alloy is the usual [Show Less]
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ARRT Radiography Exam Review (1-200) Questions and Answers
*Study guide for the ARRT exam in radiography.* - ANSWER-*Anatomy and positioning are not covered in this study guide.* What is a tort? - ANSWER-A viola... [Show More] tion of civil law. Torts are also known as ________. - ANSWER-Personal Injury Law If a patient is apprehensive about being injured, or a radiographer causes fear in the patient, it is known as ________. - ANSWER-Assault Unlawful touching or touching without consent, harm resulting from physical contact with the radiographer, and imaging the wrong body part or against the patients will is known as ________. - ANSWER-Battery Unjustified restraint of a patient is known as ________. - ANSWER-False Imprisonment Exposing confidential information, improperly exposing the patients body, inappropriately touching a patients body, or photographing a patient without their permission is known as ________. - ANSWER-Invasion of Privacy Written information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________. - ANSWER-Libel Orally spreading false information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as ________. - ANSWER-Slander Respondeat Superior is a legal doctrine stating the employer is held liable for an employee's negligent act. Respondeat Superior means ________. - ANSWER-Let the master answer. Res Ipsa Loquitur is a legal doctrine stating that the cause of the negligence is obvious. Res Ipsa Loquitur means ________. - ANSWER-The thing speaks for itself. The ARRT Standards of Ethics consists of the ________ of Ethics and the ________ of Ethics. - ANSWER-1) Code 2) Rules The ARRT ________ of Ethics serves as a guide for what radiographers aspire to become as professionals. - ANSWER-Code The ARRT ________ of Ethics are mandatory, enforceable, and carry sanctions for violations. - ANSWER-Rules Attempting to copy ARRT exam materials, disclosing exam questions, impersonating a test candidate, being convicted of a crime, engaging in unprofessional conduct, injuring a patient, misrepresenting CE units earned, violating state or federal narcotics and controlled-substance laws, and attempting to circumvent the certification and registration process are examples that violate the ARRT ________ of Ethics. - ANSWER-Rules Acting in a professional manner, responding to patient needs, and supporting colleagues and associates in providing quality patient care, practicing technology founded upon theoretical knowledge and concepts, practicing ethical conduct appropriate to the profession and protecting the patient's right to quality radiologic care, and striving to improve knowledge and skills by participating in continuing education and professional activities are examples covered under the ARRT ________ of Ethics. - ANSWER-Code Tachycardia is having a heartbeat of more than ________ beats per minute. - ANSWER-100 Bradycardia is having a heartbeat of less than ________ beats per minute. - ANSWER-60 Diastolic blood pressure greater than ________mm/Hg indicates an increasing level of hypertension. - ANSWER-90 Diastolic blood pressure less than ________mm/Hg gives some indication of shock. - ANSWER-50 The usual oxygen flow rate through a nasal cannula is ________ L/minute. - ANSWER-3 to 5 Loosing large amounts of blood or plasma may result in ________ shock. - ANSWER-Hypovolemic When toxins are produced during massive infection causing a dramatic decrease in blood pressure, ________ shock is suspected. - ANSWER-Septic ________ shock is when blood pools in peripheral vessels. - ANSWER-Neurogenic ________ shock results from cardiac failure or other interference with heart function. - ANSWER-Cardiogenic ________ shock (or ________) is a reaction to foreign proteins after injections, and may follow injection of iodinated contrast media. - ANSWER-1) Allergic 2) Anaphylaxis Contrast media ________ may occur in infants, or patients who have renal, cardiac or hepatic failure. - ANSWER-Overdose What are some reactions to anaphylactic shock? - ANSWER-1) Flushing 2) Hives 3) Nausea What are some reactions to cardiovascular shock? - ANSWER-1) Hypotension 2) Tachycardia 3) Cardiac Arrest ________ contains negatively and positively charged ions. - ANSWER-Iodinated Ionic Contrast Media ________ do not ionize into separate negative and positive charges. - ANSWER-Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media ________ has a far lower incidence of contrast agent reactions because it is not ionized. - ANSWER-Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media What is the atomic number for iodine? - ANSWER-53 What is the atomic number for barium? - ANSWER-56 What is the atomic number for tungsten? - ANSWER-74 What letter represents the atomic mass number? - ANSWER-A What letter represents the atomic number? - ANSWER-Z When handling chemicals and they are exposed to skin, the area should be washed with cool water for at least ________ minutes. - ANSWER-5 When handling chemicals and they splash into the eyes, the eyes should be washed with cool water for at least ________ minutes. - ANSWER-15 This is used to define radiation exposure or radiation delivered to a specific point. - ANSWER-Air Kerma Air kerma is measured in ________. - ANSWER-Gray (Gyᵃ) This is sometimes used to measure exposure, but the preferred unit is air kerma. - ANSWER-Coulombs/Kilogram This is used to define the amount of energy absorbed per unit mass of tissue. - ANSWER-Absorbed Dose Absorbed dose is measured in ________. - ANSWER-Gray (Gyᵗ) This is used to define the product of absorbed dose (Gy) times the radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ). - ANSWER-Equivalent Dose ________ takes into account the biologic impact of the type and energy of the radiation being used. - ANSWER-Radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ). This is used to define the estimated risk present when various tissues are irradiated. - ANSWER-Effective Dose Effective dose uses the ________, and takes into account the relative radiosensitivity of the irradiated organ or body part. - ANSWER-Tissue weighting factor (Wᵀ). ________ is the product of absorbed dose times the radiation weighting factor times the tissue weighting factor. - ANSWER-Effective Dose ________ is the unit of effective and equivalent dose. - ANSWER-Sievert (Sv) The unit of radioactivity that is used to measure the quantity of radioactive material is the ________. - ANSWER-Becquerel (Bq) Radiation exiting the x-ray tube is known as ________. - ANSWER-Primary Radiation X-rays that emerge from the patient and strike the image receptor, and are composed of primary and scattered photons is known as ________. - ANSWER-Exit or Remnant Radiation X-ray beams that contain photons of many different energies are known as ________. - ANSWER-Heterogeneous. X-ray's have diagnostic wavelengths of ________ to ________, and travel as bundles of energy called photons. - ANSWER-1) 0.1 Å 2) 0.5 Å The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual, is known as ________. - ANSWER-Effective Dose What is the annual effective dose limit for occupational exposure? - ANSWER-50 mSv What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the lens of the eye? - ANSWER-150 mSv What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the localized areas of the skin, hands and feet? - ANSWER-500 mSv This is calculated by multiplying the radiographer's age in years times 10 mSv. - ANSWER-Cumulative effective dose limit. The annual effective dose limit for students over the age of 18 is ________. - ANSWER-50 mSv The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure is ________. - ANSWER-1 mSv The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure is ________. - ANSWER-5 mSv The total equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus for the entire gestational period is ________. - ANSWER-5 mSv The equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus per month is ________. - ANSWER-0.5 mSv Effects that occur by chance and which may occur without a threshold level of dose, whose probability is proportional to the dose and whose severity is independent of the dose: - ANSWER-Stochastic Effects Effects that have a threshold below which the effect does not occur. The threshold may be very low and may vary from person to person. However, once the threshold has been exceeded, the severity of an effect increases with dose: - ANSWER-Deterministic Effects ________ is somatic cell division that comprises of four phases. When division is complete, each new cell contains 46 chromosomes. - ANSWER-Mitosis What are the four phases of mitosis? - ANSWER-1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase ________ is germ (sperm or ovum) cell division that halves the number of chromosomes in each cell so that the union of two germ cells produces a new cell with 46 chromosomes. - ANSWER-Meiosis This occurs when radiation transfers its energy directly to the DNA or RNA. - ANSWER-Direct Effect Because a cell contains mostly water, the probability that it will be struck by radiation is greater. This interaction is known as the ________ effect. - ANSWER-Indirect ________ of water occurs as radiation energy is deposited into the water of a cell. - ANSWER-Radiolysis Cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing. This describes: - ANSWER-The law of Bergonie and Tribondeau. If cells are more oxygenated, they are more susceptible to radiation damage. This describes: - ANSWER-Oxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER) A whole-body dose of ________ will depress the blood count. - ANSWER-0.25 Gy Somatic effects are evident in the ________ being exposed. - ANSWER-Organism Doses causing somatic effects are much ________ than those received in general diagnostic radiography. - ANSWER-Higher What are some examples of early somatic effects (acute radiation syndrome)? - ANSWER-1) Hematopoietic Syndrome 2) GI Syndrome 3) Central Nervous System Syndrome What is hematopoietic syndrome? - ANSWER-It decreases the total number of all blood cells, and can lead to death. What is GI syndrome? - ANSWER-It causes total disruption of GI tract structure, and function, and can result in death. What is central nervous system syndrome? - ANSWER-It causes complete failure of the nervous system and results in death. What is carcinogenesis? - ANSWER-It causes cancer. What is cataractogenesis? - ANSWER-It causes cataracts to form, following a nonlinear-threshold dose-response curve. When are embryologic effects most sensitive? - ANSWER-During the first trimester of gestation. What are late somatic effects of the thyroid? - ANSWER-Manifestion of cancer or cessation of function. Shortening of lifespan ________ occur in modern radiation workers. - ANSWER-Does Not A genetic effect is damage to the ________ molecule, which is then passed on to the next generation. - ANSWER-DNA Genetic effects follow a ________ dose-response curve. - ANSWER-Linear-Nonthreshold There is no such thing as a safe ________ dose. - ANSWER-Gonadal Any exposure amount to the gonads can represent a ________ threat. - ANSWER-Genetic The amount of radiation that causes the number of mutations in a population to double is the ________. - ANSWER-Doubling Dose The doubling dose for humans is approximately ________. - ANSWER-1.56 Sv Gonadal shielding may reduce female gonad dose by up to ________%. - ANSWER-50 Gonadal shielding may reduce male gonad dose by up to ________%. - ANSWER-95 Gonadal shielding is required when the gonads are within the primary beam, or within ________ cm of the primary beam. - ANSWER-5 The minimum source-to-skin distance for portable radiography equipment is ________ inches. - ANSWER-12 Source-to-tabletop distance for fixed fluoroscopes may not be less than ________ inches. - ANSWER-15 Source-to-tabletop distance for portable fluoroscopes may not be less than ________ inches. - ANSWER-12 Fluoroscopy timers must sound an alarm after ________ minutes (________ seconds) of beam-on time. - ANSWER-1) 5 2) 300 Fluoroscopy exposure switches must be of the ________ type. - ANSWER-Dead-Man Limit dose during fluoroscopy at the tabletop may be no more than ________ mGyᵃ per minute. - ANSWER-100 Limit use of high-level-control fluoroscopy during interventional procedures must be no more than ________ mGyᵃ per minute. - ANSWER-200 The total of air kerma striking the surface of the patient is known as ________. - ANSWER-Dose Area Product (DAP) Dose area product (DAP) is expressed as ________. - ANSWER-mGy-cm² The average dose to active bone marrow is the _________. - ANSWER-Mean Marrow Dose Radiation dose that, if received by the entire population, would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the persons actually being exposed (the average gonadal dose to the childbearing-age population) is known as: - ANSWER-Genetically-Significant Dose (GSD) Primary protective barriers must be ________ lead equivalent. - ANSWER-1/16-Inch Primary barriers must be located where the ________ may strike the wall or the floor. - ANSWER-Primary Beam If in the wall, primary barriers must extend to a height of ________ feet. - ANSWER-7 Secondary protective barriers must be ________ lead equivalent. - ANSWER-1/32-Inch Secondary barriers must extend from where the primary protective barrier ends, and extend to the ________. - ANSWER-Ceiling Primary and secondary protective barriers must overlap by at least ________. - ANSWER-1/2-Inch Secondary protective barriers must be located wherever ________ or ________ radiation may strike. - ANSWER-1) Leakage 2) Scatter The x-ray control booth is considered to be a ________ protective barrier. - ANSWER-Secondary The lead window in a control booth enclosure is usually ________ lead equivalent. - ANSWER-1.5 mm Measured in mA minutes per week, ________ takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room. - ANSWER-Workload The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier defines the ________. - ANSWER-Use Factor Uncontrolled areas must be shielded to ensure an effective dose limit to the general public of ________ per week. - ANSWER-20 µSv Controlled areas must be shielded to keep exposure under ________ per week. - ANSWER-1 µSv Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube housing may not exceed ________ per hour at a distance ________ from the housing. - ANSWER-1) 1 mGyᵃ 2) 1 m The protective curtain on a fluoroscopy unit must be ________ lead equivalent. - ANSWER-0.25 mm [Show Less]
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