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THe Heart_Sample Questions and Answers
The Cardiovascular System- Heart 1. Which of the following membranes are found in the body cavities and have parietal layers that line the cavities and vi... [Show More] sceral layers that cover the organs? • Osseous membranes • Serous membranes • Cutaneous membranes • Synovial membranes • Mucous membranes 2. Which of the following is true of cardiac muscle tissue? • nonstriated, Z-discs, involuntary • striated, multinucleated, voluntary • nonstriated, intercalated discs, multinucleated • nonstriated, multinucleated, involuntary • striated, uninucleated, intercalated discs 3. Determine which characteristics are true of each of the layers of the heart. Epicardium Myocardium Endocardium Produces pericardial fluid Outermost layer Composed of elastic fibers and adipose tissue Middle layer Generates force to pump blood Composed primarily of cardiac muscle Innermost layer Regulates contractility 4. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest myocardium? Left ventricle Right ventricle Right atrium Septum Left atrium 5. Match the valve to its corresponding characteristic. Separates the right atrium from the right ventricle - Tricuspid Separates the left atrium from the left ventricle - Bicuspid Separates the heart from the vessel that delivers blood to the lungs to receive oxygen - Pulmonary Separates the heart from the vessel that delivers blood to the entire body - Aortic 6. Which type of cell junction allows cardiac muscle tissue to transmit signals rapidly? Neural synapses Adherens junction Tight junctions Gap junctions Hemidesmosomes 7. Match the heart valve with its location. Between the right atrium and right ventricle. - Tricuspid Valve Between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk. - Pulmonary Semilunar Valve Between the left atrium and left ventricle - Mitral Valve Between the left ventricle and ascending aorta. - Aortic Semilunar Valve 8. Correctly label the following external anatomy of the anterior heart. 9. Which of the following is the region of the thoracic cavity where the heart is located? Pleural cavity Hypochondriac Mediastinum Hypogastric 10. Label the structures of the heart that are indicated. 11. Label the structures of the pericardium in the figure. 12. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest myocardium? Left ventricle 13. Correctly label the following external anatomy of the anterior heart. 14. Select all that apply. Which of the following are functions of the pericardium? Prevent the heart from bouncing in the thoracic cavity. Prevent the heart from overfilling with blood. Allow for the movement of blood through the myocardium. Create a near-frictionless environment through the production of serous fluid. Aid the heart in the strength of contractions. 15. What term is given to the event whereby another action potential cannot be propagated shortly after an action potential? Reflective period Spasmodic period Tetanic period Refractory period Plateau period 16. What term is given to the event whereby the voltage of an action potential begins to return to its resting potential from the height of its peak? Repolarization 17. Which of the following elements is required to sustain a muscular contraction? Sodium Calcium Potassium ATP All of the above 18. Complete the sentence with the proper description of the action potential. Cardiac contractile action potentials will have a rapid depolarization that is maintained via the presence of calcium. Cardiac autorhythmic action potentials will have both a rapid depolarization and repolarization with not refractory period. 19. During the depolarization phase of cardiac muscle voltage-gated sodium channels open 20. Which of the following aspects of the conduction system would directly result in contraction of the myocardium in the ventricular walls? SA node AV bundle Left and right bundle branches Purkinje fibers AV node 21. A distinct, extended plateau occurs in the action potential in cardiac muscle cells, producing a refractory period of ______ milliseconds. 20-50 1-2 100 10 250 22. What are the individual ion contributions to the resting membrane potential of the cardiac pacemaker cells? Select all that apply. Greater concentration of sodium outside the cell No sodium/potassium pump Greater concentration of potassium inside the cell Calcium gradient with more calcium outside the cell Greater concentration of anionic proteins outside the cell. 23. Without a plateau, extending the refractory period, cardiac muscle cells might be stimulated so quickly that they would not relax, leading to a sustained contraction known as what? Tetany 24. The ____________ phase of the action potential in cardiac muscle delays repolarization to the resting membrane potential in order to lengthen refractory period. Hyperpolarization Plateau Depolarization Repolarization Hypopolarization 25. Which of the following phrases is true of arteries? Arteries are thin vessels that allow for the exchange of nutrients. Arteries always carry oxygenated blood. Arteries always carry deoxygenated blood. Anatomy always take blood towards the heart. Arteries always take blood away from the heart. 26. Assuming a patient is perfectly healthy, all blood in the right atrium will move into which area? Left atrium Coronary sinus Left ventricle Right ventricle Pericardium 27. Drag and drop each structure to indicate whether it is a part of the systemic or pulmonary circuit. Pulmonary circuit Systemic circuit Pulmonary veins Left ventricle Pulmonary trunk Aorta Lungs Venae cavae Right ventricle Left atrium 28. Select all of the statements that are true. Pulmonary veins pass blood into the right atrium whereas the pulmonary arteries carry blood away from the left ventricle. Pulmonary veins pass blood into the left atrium whereas the pulmonary arteries carry blood away from the right ventricle. Oxygenated blood enters the left atrium. The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The left ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Oxygenated blood enters the right atrium. 29. Oxygenated blood flows from the ___________ to the _____________ before being pumped into the system circulation. Left atrium; right ventricle Left ventricle; left atrium Right atrium; left atrium Right atrium; right ventricle Left atrium; left ventricle 30. Unidirectional flow in the heart is ensured because the heart contains valves that prevent backflow. 31. Match the vessels with their associated chambers. Inferior and superior venae cavae - Right atrium Pulmonary trunk - Right ventricle Pulmonary veins - Left atrium Aorta - Left ventricle 32. Order the statements below in the proper order of blood flow through the heart. Begin with "Blood enters the right atrium from the superior and inferior venae cavae" and end with "Blood returns to the heart via the venae cavae" • Blood enters the right atrium from the superior and inferior venae cavae • Blood in the right atrium flows through the right AV valve into the right ventricle. • Contraction of the right ventricle forces the pulmonary valve open • Blood flows through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary trunk • Blood is distributed by the left and right pulmonary arteries to the lungs • Blood returns from the lungs via the pulmonary veins to the left atrium • Blood in the left atrium flows through the left AV valve into the left ventricle • Contraction of the left ventricle (simultaneous with the third step) forces the aortic valve open • Blood flows thorugh the aortic valve into the ascending aorta • Blood in the aorta is distributed to every organ in the body • Blood returns to the heart via the venae cavae 33. The right side of the heart pumps blood through the vessels to the lungs and back to the left side of the heart through the pulmonary circulatory pathway? Pulmonary 34. Which of the following ions is required to leave the cell in order to result in hyperpolarization? Potassium 35. Which of the following events of an action potential occurs with an influx of sodium ions? Depolarization 36. What tool can we use to determine the electrical events within the heart? Electrocardiogram 37. Place the events of the conduction system in the proper order beginning with the firing of the SA node. SA node fires AV node fires Signal travels to AV bundle (Bundle of His) Signal travels through bundle branches Purkinje fibers fire Contraction of ventricles occurs 38. The ___________ is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Select all that apply. Sinoatrial node AV node Atrioventricular node, Purkinje fibers 39. Place a single word into each sentence to make it correct. Not all terms will be used. • Electric currents in the heart can be detected by means of electrodes applied to the skin. • An instrument called the electrocardiograph amplifies these signals and produces a record on a moving paper chart. • The chart includes three principle deflections above and below the baseline: the P wave, QRS complex, and the T wave. • The P wave is produced when a signal from the SA node spreads through the atria and depolarizes them. • The QRS complex is produced when the signal from the AV node spreads through the ventricular myocardium and depolarizes the muscle. • The T wave is generated by ventricular repolarization immediately before diastole 40. Match the events in the cardiac cycle with the corresponding component of an EKG. Ventricles depolarize - QRS Complex Atria depolarize - P wave Ventricles repolarize - T wave 41. Which of the following aspects of the conduction system would directly result in the contraction of the myocardium in the ventricular walls? Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle, Left and right bundle branches, SA node 42. The rate of ventricular conduction is best determined by ______________ on an EKG The number of PQRS intervals present within a specific unit of time The number of T-waves within a specific unit of time The number of P-waves present within a specific unit of time The number of PT intervals present within a specific unit of time The number of QRS-complexes present within a specific unit of time 43. Identify each component of the electrical conduction system of the heart. 44. Place the locations of the heart’s conduction system in order, beginning with the location where the heartbeat is initiated. • Sinoatrial node • Atrioventricular node • Atrioventricular bundle • Left and right bundle branches • Purkinje fibers 45. Diastole occurs when the heart is at its most relaxed. 46. Which of the following valves is an example of a semilunar valve? Pyloric Mitral Pulmonary Tricuspid Bicuspid 47. Which chamber of the heart has the thickest wall? Left ventricle 48. Identify whether the AV and/or SL valves are open or closed in each event. • Ventricular filling AV valves open, and SL valves closed • Isovolumic ventricular contraction AV valves closed, and SL valves closed • Ventricular ejection AV valves closed, and SL valves open • Isovolumic ventricular relaxation AV valves closed, and SL valves closed Electrical and Mechanical Events 49. Place the events of the electrical and mechanical events in the correct order, beginning with start of the cardiac cycle. • SA node fires • Atrial systole • Atrial diastole • Signal reaches Purkinje fibers • Ventricular systole • Ventricular Repolarization • Ventricular diastole 50. Length of a Cardiac Cycle 51. Determine the length of a single cardiac cycle given a patient with a heart rate of 85 beats per minute. 706 52. During which event of the cardiac cycle does aortic pressure reach its maximum? Ventricular ejection 53. Regurgitation of blood through a prolapsed mitral valve (detected as a heart murmur) may cause _________ pressure in the __________ atrium. Increased; left 54. When blood is flowing out of the left ventricle, the bicuspid valve is ________ and the aortic semilunar valve is _________. Closed; open 55. Select all that occur during ventricular systole. The AV valves open to allow blood to enter the ventricles from the atria. All valves in the heart close in order to complete relaxation. The semilunar valves remain closed throughout systole to prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles. The AV valves close to prevent backflow of blood into the atria. The semilunar valves open to allow blood to flow into the large arteries. 56. Put the steps of the cardiac cycle into the correct order, beginning with the atria in diastole. • Atria begin systole and ventricles are filling • Atria are relaxing (diastole) and ventricles are in isovolumetric contraction • Ventricles are in systole and ejecting blood • Ventricles are in isovolumetric relaxation • Atria are in diastole, atria are filling and ventricles are filling 57. Drag and drop the label to the correct location on the graph showing pressures on the left side of the heart and aorta. 58. The ___________ is a low-pitched sound caused by vibration of the atrioventricular valves and surrounding fluid as the valves close at the beginning of ventricular systole. Second heart sound Fifth heart sound Third heart sound Fourth heart sound First heart sound 59. The AV valves close in response to the _______________. Contraction of the ventricles and the resulting drop in ventricular pressure. Contraction of the atria and the resulting rise in atrial pressure. Contraction of the atria and resulting drop in atrial pressure. Contraction of the ventricles and the resulting rise in ventricular pressure. 60. Which of the following would NOT increase heart rate? Running 2 miles Becoming anxious before an exam Stimulation by the vagal nerve Receiving an injection of epinephrine Increasing blood calcium 61. Which of the following regions of the brain contains the cardioregulatory centers? Limbic system Insula lobe Cerebellum Medulla oblongata Frontal lobe Cardiac output is directly proportional to the heart rate and stroke volume of a patient. For example, take a patient with a heart rate of 60 bpm and a stroke volume of 80 mL/beat. 62. Detemine the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 80 beats/min with a stroke volume of 75 mL/beat. CO = (HR)(SV) Answer = 6 L/min 63. Determine the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 80 beats/min with an end diastolic volume of 80 mL and an end systolic volume of 120 mL. 3.2 L/min Factors for Stroke Volume 64. Match the factor that affects stroke volume to its description. Preload - The stretch of the atria during ventricular filling. Afterload - The pressure required to overcome the vascular resistance. Venous return - The amount of blood returned to the heart via the veins. Contractility - The intrinsic strength of the contractions of the cardiac muscle. 65. Categorize the compounds below as either positive or negative ionotropic agents. Drag and drop the compounds to the correct column. Positive Negative Ionotropic Agent Glucagon Angiotensin II Catecholamine Insulin Antiarrhythmic Beta blockers 66. Categorize the compounds below as either positive or negative chronotropic agents. Drag and drop the compounds to the correct column. Positive Negative Chronotropic Agent Epinephrine Dopamine Acetylcholine Beta blockers 67. As blood pressure increases, the volume of blood returned to the left ventricle will increase, stretching it more than typical, leading to an increase in stroke volume. This is an example of ______________. Cardiac reserve Contractility Preload Afterload Cardiac output 68. Schwannomas are due to tumor formation within the Schwann cells of the peripheral nervous system. When they occur in the neck, removal is difficult due to the possibility of severing a cranial nerve responsible for parasympathetic activity in the heart. What is this cranial nerve? Glossopharyngeal Trigeminal Vagal Accessory Cardiac accelerator nerve 69. The difference between the maximum and resting cardiac output is called ____________. Cardiac reserve Preload Stroke volume Afterload Contractility 70. A patient with a heart rate of 85 beats per minute has an end systolic volume of 70 mL and an end diastolic volume of 150 mL. Determine the cardiac output in L/min. Your answer should be rounded to the nearest 10th, and ensure you use the proper units. L/min 6.8 L/min 71. Classify the following statements as belonging to either sympathetic or parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. Sympathetic Stimulation Parasympathetic Stimulation Statement Fibers pass through the cardiac plexus Increases the contraction strength of the heart Dilates the coronary arteries Little or no innervation to the myocardium Slows the heart rate 72. What variable(s) determine the effects of cardiac output? Choose the best answer. Only a conduction system change Changes to both HR and SV Only change in heart rate Changes to HR, SV, and rearrangement of the conduction system Only change in stroke volume 73. Identify whether each item would increase or decrease stroke volume. Increase stroke volume Decrease stroke volume Factors Increased venous return Positive inotropic agent Systemic vasodilation Decreased venous return Negative inotropic agent Decreased preload [Show Less]
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The Endocrine System_Case Study
Scenario/Summary A patient has checked into the ER complaining of having blurry and sometimes double vision. She's also worried about a lump starting to d... [Show More] evelop on her throat. When you bring her into triage, you quickly note exophthalmos and the lump. When taking her history, she notes that she has always been remarkably healthy and always full of energy. She even brags that she doesn't need as much sleep. She also complains that it's warm in your usually cold triage room. Deliverables Answer the following questions and save your responses in a Microsoft Word document. Provide a scholarly resource in APA format to support your answers. 1. What does the thyroid and its associated hormones do? 2. What is a goiter? 3. There are cases when both Hyperthyroidism and Hypothyroidism could present with a goiter. Why? 4. Do you believe that she is presenting with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism? Why? 5. You suspect Grave's disease. What sign made you jump to this conclusion? [Show Less]
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The Endocrine System Revision Questions
General Functions of the Endocrine System The two principle systems of regulation of the body’s various organ systems are the nervous and endocrine syst... [Show More] ems. The endocrine system functions to secrete chemical messengers, or hormones, and to direct and coordinate the activities of target cells and organs. Q1. Select all the following body systems that have mechanisms of regulation for most body systems. Digestive Nervous Skeletal Endocrine Muscular The major functions of the endocrine system • Metabolism • Growth • Sleep • Mood • Tissue function • Reproduction • Stress • Fluid dynamics Major Organs of the Endocrine System. This system also includes gland cells in many other organs not shown here. Indicate if the following functions are regulated by the endocrine system or by other systems. Regulated by endocrine system Regulated by other systems Sleep Stress Growth Metablolism Olfaction Mood Reproduction Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Tissue Function Define the terms hormone, endocrine gland, endocrine tissue (organ) and target cell. Part 1 The overall function of the endocrine system is based on its communication and integration with other body systems. Endocrine cells are single cells that are responsible for the secretion of chemical messengers known as hormones into the blood stream. Clusters of these cells can form endocrine tissues that will make up primary endocrine glands/organs or portions of secondary endocrine structures. The primary endocrine organs refer to structures whose entire role is devoted to the production of hormones. These include the pineal gland, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, and adrenal glands. The secondary endocrine structures are organs that are capable of producing hormones but that is not their primary function. Examples of these include the pancreas, thymus, skin, heart, stomach, liver, kidneys, hypothalamus, gonads, and small intestine. Define the terms hormone, endocrine gland, endocrine tissue (organ) and target cell. Part 2 The hormones produced by the endocrine tissues will have target cells that possess specific receptors that can bind to, and interpret hormonal messages secreted by endocrine cells and glands. These target cells can be the same cell as the secretory cell (autocrine) or an adjacent cell (paracrine). However the most common form communication between the secretory cells and the target cells is one where the target cell (organ) is farther away and connected by blood vessels (classic endocrine secretions). Endocrine cells secrete a hormone into the bloodstream (left). At a point often remote from its origin, the hormone leaves the bloodstream and enters or binds to its target cells (right). Compare and contrast endocrine and exocrine glands Glands are any epithelial tissue that secretes a product and can be categorized by the presence or absence of duct systems. Exocrine glands will secrete products into ducts that lead to body surfaces, cavities, or organs. Examples of these include sebaceous glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands. Endocrine glands lack ducts and secrete their products into the interstitial space. These will contain a high density of very permeable blood capillaries which allow for rapid diffusion of hormone secretions into the bloodstream. Examples of these include the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, and pancreas. Development of Exocrine and Endocrine Glands. (a) An exocrine gland begins with epithelial cells proliferating into the connective tissue below. A form of cell death called apoptosis hollows out the core and creates a duct to the surface. The gland remains connected to the surface for life by way of this duct and releases its secretions onto the epithelial surface. (b) An endocrine gland begins similarly, but the cells connecting it to the surface degenerate while the secretory tissue becomes infiltrated with blood capillaries. The secretory cells secrete their products (hormones) into the blood. Compare and contrast the nervous and endocrine regulatory pathways Nervous System Endocrine System Communicates by means of electrical impulses and neurotransmitters. Communicates by means of hormones. Releases neurotransmitters at synapse at specific target cells. Releases hormones into bloodstream for general distribution throughout the body. Neurons innervate specific cells and usually have relatively local, specific effects. Hormones typically have more general and widespread effects. Reacts quickly to stimuli, usually within 1-10 ms. Reacts more slowly to stimuli, often taking seconds to days. Stops quickly when the stimulus stops. May continue responding long after stimulus stops. Adapts relatively quickly to continual stimulation Adapts relatively slowly; may respond for days to weeks. Is significantly slower to respond to continuous stimulation and its effects are slower to manifest. Image of communication by the nervous and endocrine systems. (a) A neuron has a long fiber that delivers its neurotransmitter to the immediate vicinity of its target cells. (b) Endocrine cells secrete a hormone into the bloodstream (left). At a point often remote from its origin, the hormone leaves the bloodstream and enters or binds to its target cells (right) Questions 1. A hormone is a molecule that has a metabolic effect on another cell and the target cells is a cell that has receptors for specific hormones. 2. Which of the following is considered a secondary endocrine structure? Thyroid Adrenal glands Pancreas Parathyroid Pituitary gland Classify the following as characteristics of the endocrine system or nervous system. Endocrine System Nervous System Adapts relatively slowly ES Communicates by means of hormones ES Communicates by means of electrical impulses NS Reacts more slowly to stimuli ES May continue responding long after stimulus stops ES Adapts relatively quickly to continual stimulation NS 3. Which glands secrete their product by way of a duct directly onto an epithelial surface? Exocrine glands 4. Distinguish between the nervous and the endocrine system? Chemical Classification of Hormones and Mechanisms of Hormone Actions at Receptors Select all of the following molecules that are capable of penetrating the plasma membrane of cells. Hydrophobic molecules Water Hydrophilic molecules Lipids Gases List the three major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body The hormones of the human body can be subdivided into three chemical classes; steroid hormones, monoamines, and peptide hormones. Steroid Hormones are derived from cholesterol precursors, giving them the hydrophobic properties associated with lipids. Hydrophilic molecules are unable to penetrate through the plasma membrane whereas hydrophobic molecules can pass through the membrane. As such, their actions, as we’ll see shortly, can interact with receptors inside the cell. These are only produced within the gonads and adrenal cortex. Examples of these include the sex hormones and corticosteroids. Monoamines are derived from amino acids that retain their amino group. The amino acids will express polarity, and as such, will have hydrophilic properties and will be unable to pass through the plasma membrane. Examples of these include several of the neurotransmitters discussed in earlier weeks and a classification of hormones known as catecholamines. Peptide hormones are composed of 2-200 amino acid chains. These hormones can express both the polar properties of the amino and carboxyl groups, but they can also be considered hydrophobic depending on the variable R-groups. Examples of these include hormones of the pituitary gland and insulin (from the pancreas). The Chemical Classes of Hormones. (a) Two steroid hormones, defined by their four-membered rings derived from cholesterol. (b) Two monoamines, derived from amino acids and defined by their ─NH─ or ─NH2 (amino) groups. (c) A small peptide hormone, oxytocin, and a protein hormone, insulin, defined by their chains of amino acids (the yellow circles). Match the description to the correct hormone classification. Steroid Hormones Monoamine Hormones Peptide Hormones Hormone Description Derived from cholesterol. Derived from amino acids that retain their amine group. Consist of chains of 2-200 amino acids. Describe how steroid hormones are produced and stored in the endocrine cell, released from the endocrine cell, and transported in the blood Steroidal hormones are synthesized with a precursor of cholesterol and will differ in just the functional groups attached to the four ringed-carbon structure. The first step in producing any of the steroid hormones is first converting cholesterol to progesterone. From progesterone, minor modifications can be made to form cortisol, aldosterone, or testosterone. In women, the testosterone can be further modified to form estradiol. These steroid hormones are typically not stored in their endocrine cells, nor are they stored in vesicles; but rather, they are transported out of the cell via diffusion immediately after synthesis. Since steroid hormones are hydrophobic, they require amphipathic (both hydrophilic and hydrophobic) transport proteins such as albumin in order for them to be transported throughout the blood. In addition to being capable of transporting the steroids, these proteins will also protect the hormones from degradation via enzymes in the blood plasma. The Synthesis of Steroid Hormones from Cholesterol. The ovaries secrete progesterone and estradiol, the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and aldosterone, and the testes secrete testosterone. Describe how peptide hormones are produced and stored in the endocrine cell, released from the endocrine cell, and transported in the blood Much like other proteins synthesized by cells, peptide proteins will be produced via the endomembrane system. A gene for the peptide hormone will be transcribed into mRNA which can then be translated into amino acids at the ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum. These proteins will be transported to the Golgi complex for final conformational changes before becoming a mature hormone. To prepare for secretion into the bloodstream, peptide hormones will be stored in secretory vesicles within the endocrine cell until they are needed. As most peptide hormones are hydrophilic, they do not require transport proteins and can be transported through the blood plasma via simple diffusion. In the image, we see an example of proinsulin, an inactive form of insulin. When insulin is needed, a peptide chain will be cleaved from the inactive form, allowing for the secretion of active insulin. The Synthesis of Insulin, a Representative Polypeptide Hormone. Proinsulin has a connecting (C) peptide, 31 amino acids long, that is removed to leave insulin. Insulin has two polypeptide chains, 30 and 21 amino acids long, joined by two disulfide bridges (─S─S─) represented by the yellow bars. A third disulfide bridge creates a loop in the short chain. Compare and contrast the locations of target cell receptors for steroid and peptide hormones The receptors for the peptide and monoamine hormones will be found on the plasma membrane of target cells. These hormones are hydrophilic, so they are not capable of penetrating the membrane. Conversely, the receptors for the steroid hormones will be found within the cytoplasm or in the nucleus itself. These hormones are hydrophobic and are capable of penetrating through the nonpolar plasma membrane of both the cell and the nucleus. Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of plasma membrane hormone receptors and intracellular hormone receptors, including the speed of the response - For a target cell to be activated by a hormone, it must first bind to a receptor on the plasma membrane, in the cytoplasm, or in the nucleus (depending on the type of hormone in question). The water-soluble peptide hormones are hydrophilic and are not capable of penetrating the plasma membrane. As such, peptide hormones will only bind to receptors present on the plasma membrane. These receptors will deliver a signal to the cytoplasmic side of the membrane and activate a series of second messengers. - The most common mechanism of this membrane-bound communication occurs when the receptor activates a membrane enzyme known as a G protein. This enzyme will activate another enzyme to generate a coenzyme known as cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate). cAMP will activate cytoplasmic enzymes to generate the appropriate metabolic effects. Though this mechanism of hormonal reception is indirect, the effects can be seen quickly as the cell does not need to make new proteins. - The lipid-soluble steroid hormones are hydrophobic and can easily pass through the plasma membrane of the cells, thereby binding to intracellular receptors. These receptors will target a specific gene in the nucleus and either increase or decrease its transcription, leading to the production of more proteins. Though this mechanism of hormonal reception is direct, their effects can take hours or even days due to the amount of time required to make the appropriate proteins and have a significant effect. Hormone Actions on a Target Cell. Some process steps are omitted for simplicity. (a) Action of a peptide hormone through a surface receptor and second messenger. (b) Action of a steroid hormone by diffusing into the nucleus and binding to a nuclear receptor associated with a gene. Either process can lead to a great variety of effects on the target cell. Match the letters in the picture to the labels below. Study how steroid hormones are synthesized, starting with cholesterol at the top. Steroid • Hydrophobic • Bind to receptors in the cell’s nucleus • Pass directly through the plasma membrane • Elicit response over several hours to days • Require a transport protein Peptide • Bind to membrane bound receptors • Hydrophilic • Elicit responses almost immediately • Utilize cAMP DAG, or IP3 systems • Require second messenger systems Peptides and catecholamines are hydrophilic and cannot penetrate a target cell. Where are the receptors for these hormones? On the cell surface Steroid hormones bind to ___________ of the target cell protein receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus Control of Hormone Secretion As the endocrine system is a major regulatory system, it must be carefully controlled via different means of activation and inhibition. It will rely on a mixture of neural stimuli, various other hormones, and a humoral system. In addition, the secretion of hormones will be dependent on negative feedback (most common) and positive (least common) mechanisms to return the body to homeostasis. Target organs regulate the pituitary through feedback loops. Most often, this is in the form of ______________. Answer: negative feedback Various signals that initiate hormone production and secretion - Part 1 There are three categories of signals that initiate the production of hormones and secretion; neural, hormonal, and humoral stimuli. Neural stimuli consist of nerve fibers that will innervate endocrine glands that will allow the release of their hormones. One of the most important examples of this is the neural reflexes found between the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary gland. The posterior pituitary gland is responsible for the storage of hormones. The hypothalamus will send an electrical signal to the posterior pituitary gland, causing the release of stored hormones into the bloodstream. Another example is one that was discussed previously when discussing the sympathetic nervous system. When this subdivision of the autonomic nervous system is activated, pre-ganglionic neurons will innervate the adrenal medulla, causing the release of epinephrine, also known as adrenaline. Types of Endocrine Stimulation. An endocrine gland can be stimulated to release its hormone in response to (a) hormonal stimulation, (b) humoral stimulation, or (c) nervous system stimulation. Hormonal stimuli consist of hormones of one gland affecting the secretion of hormones from another gland, known as tropic hormones. Once again, the hypothalamus plays a major role in hormonal stimulus. In this case, it will release tropic hormones that will activate the anterior pituitary gland to secrete its hormones. Another example of hormonal stimulus occurs when the anterior pituitary releases the tropic hormone thyroid-stimulating hormone. Just as its name implies, it will act to stimulate to activate the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland will then release its thyroid hormones. Types of Endocrine Stimulation. An endocrine gland can be stimulated to release its hormone in response to (a) hormonal stimulation, (b) humoral stimulation, or (c) nervous system stimulation. APR Finally, the humoral stimuli consist of non-hormonal substances found within the blood stream. One of the most common examples of this would be the effects of blood glucose levels on hormonal secretion. As blood glucose levels rise, the pancreas will be triggered to release the hormone insulin. Insulin is responsible for decreasing blood glucose levels by increasing the permeability of cells to glucose. Another example would be the presence of histamine in the blood. In future courses, you will learn about histamine’s role in the inflammatory response. However, one of its other functions is to trigger the activation of the hormone gastrin in the stomach. This hormone is responsible for moderating gastric secretions and muscle contractions in the digestive process. Describe a simple endocrine pathway in which the response is a negative feedback loop The regulation of most hormonal secretions relies on negative feedback mechanisms. These negative feedback loops require a disruption of a controlled condition. An example of such negative feedback loop is shown in the image, whereby low blood calcium levels act as the stimulus that triggers the release parathyroid hormone (PTH). This change in the controlled condition will be detected via receptors on target cells. In the image, low blood calcium levels will be detected by the parathyroid glands. The receptor will send a sensory signal to a control center. In the image, the control center will be the nucleus of the cells of the parathyroid gland where the genes for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located. The control center will send an output to the effectors that will reverse the disruption in the controlled condition. In the image, the effectors are the osteoclasts that will increase bone resorption and the kidneys which will retain calcium in the blood. The effect of this will lead to an increase of blood calcium and the parathyroid gland will no longer produce PTH. Simple endocrine pathway in which the response is a negative feedback loop. Describe a simple endocrine pathway in which the response is a positive feedback loop Positive feedback mechanisms are similar to negative feedback loops in that they require a disruption of a controlled condition. However, the crucial difference between the two is that instead of reversing the homeostatic imbalance like in the negative feedback loop, positive feedback aims to increase the stimulus. This only happens in a few scenarios in the human body, but the positive feedback example most people think of is the process of labor. The stretch receptors found upon the cervix are activated when the head of the fetus presses against it from the inside of the womb. The receptor will send a sensory signal to a control center. In the image, the control center will be the hypothalamus within the brain. The control center will send an output to the first effectors that will release a hormone that will amplify the stimulus. Oxytocin is produced within the hypothalamus and secreted via the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin travels to the womb via the blood where it triggers stronger uterine contractions to force the fetus to press against the cervix harder, leading to a greater stretch and reinforcing the stimulus. This process will continue to build until the neonate has been born. Once the initial stimulus is gone, the body will slowly return to normal as oxytocin levels decrease. 1. Head of fetus pushes against cervix 2. Nerve impulses from cervix transmitted to brain 3. Brain stimulates pituitary gland to secrete oxytocin 4. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and pushes fetus toward cervix In each scenario, identify if the initiation of hormone secretion is due to neural, hormonal, or humoral stimulation. a. As calcium levels begin to fall in blood, the parathyroid gland will secrete parathyroid hormone. Humoral stimulation b. When a patient is exposed to a major stressor, it triggers the brain to send sympathetic innervation towards the adrenal glands, leading to the secretion of adrenaline. Neural stimulation c. Corticotropin release from the hypothalamus will lead to the secretion of ACTH Hormonal stimulation As glucose levels of blood rise, insulin secretions increase, leading to a decrease in glucose levels. This is an example of ____________ feedback. Negative Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland The control center of the endocrine system resides in the brain. One of the key regulators of the endocrine system is the hypothalamus. It controls secretions from the pituitary, its primary target, through the hypophysial portal system (anterior pituitary) and direct neural control (posterior pituitary). Most of the hormones released from the anterior pituitary are tropic hormones that will affect the secretion of hormones from other endocrine glands. The hypothalamus primarily relies on a series of negative feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. Which organ is considered the master regulator of homeostasis? The hypothalamus Describe the locations and the anatomical relationships of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary, and the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system The hypothalamus is a flattened funnel-shaped gland that lines the walls of the third ventricle of the brain. The pituitary gland (hypophysis) is suspended from the hypothalamus by a stalk (infundibulum), resting within a depression of the sphenoid bone. This gland can be subdivided into its anterior and posterior regions. The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis) is the anterior ¾ of the pituitary gland with no nerves connecting to the hypothalamus but is connected by a series of blood vessels (hypophysial portal system). The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) is the posterior ¼ of the pituitary gland that consists primarily of the axon terminals of neurons. These neurons begin in the hypothalamus and travel through the hypothalamic-hypophysial tract to the posterior pituitary. Thus, action potentials generated in the hypothalamus ultimately result in the release of hormones into capillaries of the posterior pituitary by the axon terminals found there. The pituitary gland is also called the hypophysis. It lies inferior to the hypothalamus and is connected to the hypothalamus by a very thin stalk, called either the infundibulum or the infundibular stalk. This small, slightly oval gland, which is approximately the size of a large pea. Explain the role of the hypothalamus as an organ of homeostasis The hypothalamus is sometimes referred to as the master regulator of homeostasis. It is responsible for the detection of changes to internal body temperature, blood pressure, chemical composition of the blood, emotions, sex drive, and heart rate. As such, it is a major component of both the endocrine and nervous systems as described previously in this course. It will influence the activity and secretions of the anterior pituitary gland via the secretion of tropic hormones and the posterior pituitary gland via a series of nerve innervations. Major structures of the pituitary and hormones of the neurohypophysis. Describe the negative feedback mechanisms for the hypothalamic-anterior pituitary-peripheral endocrine gland pathway Tropic hormones include any hormone that will activate another hormone. The first set of tropic hormones are produced in the hypothalamus which will act to either release or inhibit the various hormones of the anterior pituitary gland. As the levels of anterior pituitary hormones increase, they will trigger a short negative feedback loop that will decrease the hypothalamic hormones from secreting, leading to a decrease in anterior pituitary secretions. The anterior pituitary hormones will activate another endocrine gland in another region of the body to allow it to generate its secretions. An increase of these secretions will trigger a long negative feedback loop that will reach the hypothalamus to decrease the level of hormone secretions, leading to a general decrease of the hormone levels of the signal cascade. Hypothalamic-anterior pituitary-peripheral endocrine gland pathway Explain the role of hypothalamus neurohormones in the release of anterior pituitary hormones The hormones of the hypothalamus that will enter the hypophysial portal towards the anterior pituitary gland can either be classified as “releasing hormones” or “inhibiting hormones” to regulate the hormonal secretions of the anterior pituitary gland, respectively. Please note that some of the hormones of the anterior pituitary gland will be activated by multiple tropic hormones such as prolactin being secreted in the presence of both TRH and PRH. Hypothalamic Hormone Abbreviation Trigger for Release Principle Function Thyrotropin-releasing hormone TRH Low energy reserves, latching of infant to a nipple Promotes secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone and prolactin Prolactin-releasing hormone PRH Latching of an infant to a nipple Promotes secretion of prolactin Gonadotropin-releasing hormone GnRH Low levels of FSH and LH Promotes secretion of hormones that will affect the gonads (follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone) Corticotropin-releasing hormone CRH Low levels of corticosteroids, stress Promotes secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone Growth hormone-releasing hormone/ somatocritin GHRH Growth factors, tissue damage Promotes secretion of growth hormone Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone/ somatostatin GHIH High levels of GH Inhibits secretion of growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone Prolactin-inhibiting hormone/dopamine PIH High levels of prolactin, baby is not latching to nipple Inhibits secretion of prolactin The hypothalamus releases regulatory hormones, to control the release of hormones from the anterior pituitary. Each regulatory hormone released from the hypothalamus is the same highlighted color as the specific hormone(s) from the anterior pituitary that it controls (Note: The anterior pituitary also secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH), but because it normally has little effect in humans and secretion ceases prior to adulthood, it is not included in this figure.) Match the tropic hormone to its function. Somatostatin - Inhibits growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone. Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone - Stimulates the release of prolactin and thyroid-stimulating hormone. Dopamine - Inhibits prolactin. Corticotropn Releasing Hormone - Stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone. Describe the major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects The anterior pituitary gland produces hormones that will influence the majority of the endocrine structures, both primary and secondary. These will be regulated via tropic hormone secretion from the hypothalamus. A list of the anterior pituitary hormones are listed below. Anterior Pituitary Hormone Abbreviation Trigger for Release Target Organ or Tissue Principle Function Follicle-stimulating hormone FSH Gonadotropin- releasing hormone (GnRH) Ovaries, testes Male: sperm production Female: growth of ovarian follicles and secretion of estrogen. Luteinizing hormone LH Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Ovaries, testes Male: testosterone secretion Female: ovulation, maintenance of corpus luteum Thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) Thyroid gland Growth of thyroid, secretion of thyroid hormone Adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) Adrenal cortex Growth of adrenal cortex, secretion of glucocorticoids Prolactin PRL Prolactin-releasing hormone/ Thyrotropin-releasing hormone Mammary glands Milk production Growth hormone GH Somatocrinin/ Growth hormone-releasing hormone Liver, bone, cartilage, muscle, and fat Widespread tissue growth, especially in the stated tissues. Hypothalamo–Pituitary–Target Organ Relationships. Hypothalamic releasing hormones, shown at the top, trigger secretion of all of the anterior pituitary hormones (bottom) Match the hormone of the anterior pituitary gland with their function. Not all options will be used. Production of sex cells - Follicle Stimulating Hormone Activation of the thyroid gland - Thyroid Stimulating Hormone Activation of the adrenal cortex - Adrenocorticotropic Hormone Production of breast milk - Prolactin Describe the function of the posterior pituitary gland The posterior pituitary gland, unlike the anterior pituitary, does not produce its own hormones. Rather, its hormones, ADH and OT, are produced in the hypothalamus and transported to the posterior pituitary where they are stored and secreted. Regulation of the secretions of the posterior pituitary is conducted by neuroendocrine reflexes that are monitored by the hypothalamus. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect increases in osmolarity, the concentration of solutes in blood, leading to signals being delivered to the posterior pituitary gland to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Upon return to homeostasis, another reflex will instruct the posterior pituitary to cease secretions. Nerve endings from a female’s stretch receptors in the cervix or mechanoreceptors of the nipples will reach the hypothalamus, triggering a neuroendocrine reflex to release oxytocin from the posterior pituitary, leading to contractions during labor or milk ejection from the mammary glands. The anatomic relationship of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract. List the hormones stored in the posterior pituitary and describe their primary targets and effects Hormones Secreted by the Posterior Pituitary Gland Posterior pituitary gland ________________________________________ Posterior Pituitary Hormone Abbreviation Trigger for Release Target Organ or Tissue Principle Function Antidiuretic hormone ADH Angiotensin II (indirect through RAAS and low volume/pressure) or high blood osmolarity Kidneys Water retention Oxytocin OT Stretching of the cervix, child latching to the nipple, skin-to-skin contact with another individual, the sound of an infant crying Uterus, mammary glands Labor contraction, milk release, ejaculation, sperm transport, emotional affection, mother-infant bonding, smooth muscle contraction during orgasm With a basic understanding of the hormones of the pituitary gland, match each of the following hormones to the biological process they would be most associated with. Mitosis of cells - Growth Hormone Blood pressure - Antidiueretic Hormone Ovulation (female); promotes production of testosterone (male) - Luteinizing Hormone Childbirth - Oxytocin Correctly label the following gross anatomy of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands. Not all answer options will be used Nuclei of hypothalamus Infundibulum Anterior pituitary Stalk Hypophysial portal venules Secondary capillaries Which of the following statements are true? Check all that apply. Cell bodies in the hypothalamus synthesizes hormones that pass down the hypothalamo-hypophysial tract and are stored in the posterior pituitary. The posterior pituitary secretes gonadotropins. The anterior pituitary is stimulated by the hypothalamus via tropic hormones. The anterior pituitary is also known as the adenohypophysis. Oxytocin is secreted by the anterior pituitary Match the hormone abbreviations with their function. ADH - Stimulates water retention TRH - Stimulates production of TSH and PRL LH - Stimulates ovulation PRL - Stimulates milk synthesis ACTH - stimulates secretion of adrenal hormones Match the hormone to its appropriate stimulus. Low blood pressure - ADH Sexual maturation - FSH/LH Stretching of the cervix - Oxytocin Tissue damage - GHRH Corticotropic releasing hormone – ACTH [Show Less]
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The Antidiuretic Hormone_Anatomy & Physiology
There are seven hormones produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary and two hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary. Pick one of these hormones a... [Show More] nd describe the following: What is the trigger for the release of the hormone you chose? What is the target tissue of the hormone you chose? What is the hormone's effect on the target tissue? [Show Less]
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Anatomy & Physiology Final Exam Questions & Answers
1. Define spinal reflex and use an example from the body to illustrate a spinal reflex. (Page 446) Spinal Reflex – when integration takes place in the... [Show More] spinal cord gray matter If you pick up something hot, the grasping muscles may relax and you may drop the hot object even before you are consciously aware of the extreme heat or pain. This is an example of a spinal cord reflex—a quick, automatic response to certain kinds of stimuli that involves neurons only in the spinal nerves and spinal cord. 2. Describe sleep and its major stages and then contrast sleep to coma - how are they similar and how do they differ. (Page 570) Sleep is a state of altered consciousness or partial unconsciousness from which a person can be aroused Coma is a state of unconsciousness in which a person has little or no response to stimuli Alpha waves- stage 1 (drowsy) Sleep Spindles – Stage 2 light sleep Theta and delta waves – stags 3-4 deep sleep Beta waves- fully awake eyes open Brain Waves: Alpha waves – awake and resting Beta Waves – mental and sensory activity Theta Waves – emotional distress Delta Waves – Deep sleep in adults 2. Explain language usage and comprehension including a description of the two major language areas of the brain, where they are located and what they are specialized to accomplish, including what happens when damage occurs to either area. Broca’s Area: Located in the frontal lobe left hemisphere, deals with speaking and understanding language that involve sensory association and motor areas at the cortex Wernicke’s Area: Located in the left temporal & parietal lobes left hemisphere, interprets the meaning of speech by recognizing spoken words, translates words into thoughts Damage to Broca’s: Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) means understand words but cannot speak your thoughts Damage to Wernicke’s: Can speak but cannot arrange words in a coherent fashion 3. Compare and contrast the cochlea and the vestibular apparatus, discussing their anatomical and physiological differences. The inner ear is divided into 2 categories: the cochlea and vestibular apparatus. Cochlea – snail shape boney spinal canal makes 3 turns around a boney cord and divided into 3 channels Vestibular apparatus – is the oval central portion of the boney labyrinth the membranous labyrinth in the vestibule consists of two sacs the utricle and saccule which are connected by a small duct coming from the vestibule are 3 boney semicircular canals 4. Explain the process of light reflecting off an object will pass through the eye. Include all relevant structures and indicate how the photon is transduced into an electrochemical signal in the brain. Include the major regions involved in visual transduction. Light rays reflecting distant objects are focused on the retina after they passed through the cornea, aqueous humor, the lens, and vitreous humor. As light passes through the eye they experience refraction, which is the change in direction of light rays as they transition between different materials. Once the light rays are focused on the retina, the formed image is processed by photoreceptor cells called rods and cones. These photoreceptors relay the signal to the brain by the optic nerve. 6. Explain the control of estrogen and progesterone through the endocrine system. FSH – stimulates follicular cells to secrete estrogen, which is the female sex hormone Both FSH and LH stimulate secretion of estrogen by ovarian cells together estrogen and progesterone prepare uterus for implantation of fertilized ovum and help prepare mammary gland for milk secretion 7. Explain the process of calcium regulation in the body using the concepts of homeostasis and negative feedback The parathyroid glad is the main regulator of calcium. PTH stimulates the release of calcium into the blood from the bones and causes the kidneys to retain calcium from urine and activate Vitamin D that aids in the retention of Ca. The thyroid gland makes calcitonin which removes calcium from the blood and puts it into the bones. 8. How is sugar regulated in the body (both up and down regulation of the molecule in the blood stream) When the body does not convert enough glucose for use, blood sugar levels remain high. Insulin helps the body’s cells absorb glucose, lowering blood sugar and providing the cells with the glucose they need for energy. When blood sugar levels are too low the pancreas releases glucagon. Glucagon forces the liver to release stored glucose which causes the blood sugar to rise. 9. Discriminate between paracrine, autocrine, endocrine and exocrine secretions Autocrine – Hormones that act on the cell that produced them. Paracrine – Hormones are released from cells and bind to receptor on nearby cells and affects their function. Local hormones diffuse a short distance to other cells Endocrine –Secret their hormones into the interstitial fluid surrounding secretory cells Exocrine – Secrete their products into ducts that carry the secretion into body cavities into the lumen of an organ or the sweat glands and sebaceous glands, mucus and digestive glands 10. Describe each endocrine gland and describe the hormone(s) it secretes, the function(s) of the hormone(s) and how the endocrine gland is regulated. Endocrine Gland Regulated by: Secretes Pituitary: Anterior Pituitary Hypothalamus Growth Hormone – cell growth Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone – Stimulates melanocytes Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone – Controls thyroid activity Follicle- Stimulating Hormone – in males, stimulates testes to produce sperm; in females, initiates development of oocytes and induces ovarian secretion of estrogens Prolactin – promotes milk production of mammary glands Adrenocorticotropic Hormone- increased release of hormone from adrenal cortex Anterior Pituitary Hypothalamus Antidiuretic Hormone – conserves body water by decreasing urine Oxytocin – stimulating contraction of smooth muscle cell during childbirth Thyroid Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone T3/T4 – Helps with metabolism Calcitonin – decrease blood calcium Parathyroid Blood Calcium Level Parathyroid Hormone – Increases blood calcium Adrenal Gland Adrenal Cortex Blood Pressure/ Blood Volume Aldosterone – Increase of Sodium and H2O Cortisol – Anti-inflammatory Adrenal Medulla Brain Epinephrine & Norepinephrine – fight or flight Pinal Gland Serotonin Melatonin – contributes to the setting of the bodies biological clock Pituitary Gland – is a pea shaped structure that attaches to the hypothalamus by a stalk called the infundibulum and has 2 separate portions the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary. Growth Hormone – promotes growth of body tissues and regulates certain aspects of metabolism Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) – stimulates synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones by thyroid gland Follicle-stimulating Hormone (FSH) – in females, initiates development of oocytes and induces ovarian secretion of estrogens. In males, stimulates testes to produce sperm Luteinizing Hormone (LH)- In females, stimulates secretion of estrogens and progesterone, ovulation, and formation of corpus luteum. In males, stimulates testes to produce testosterone Prolactin (PRL) – together with other hormones promotes milk production by mammary glands Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) – Stimulates secretion of glucocorticoids by adrenal cortex Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH) – Exact role in humans in unknown but many influence brain activity; when present in excess can cause darkening of skin Oxytocin (OT)- Stimulates contraction of smooth muscle cells of uterus during childbirth; stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cells in mammary glands to cause milk ejection Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) – Conserves body water by decreasing urine volume; decreases water loss through perspiration ; raises blood pressure by constricting arterioles Thyroid Gland – butterfly shaped located inferior to the larynx and is composed of right and left lateral lobes T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine) or thyroid hormones – increase basal metabolic rate; stimulate synthesis of proteins; increase use of glucose and fatty acids for ATP production; increase lipolysis; enhance cholesterol excretion; accelerate body growth; contribute to development of nervous system Parathyroid Glands – on the posterior surface of the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are small round masses of tissue called parathyroid glands one superior and one inferior are attached to each lateral lobe Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)- Increases calcium (Ca2+ ) and Magnesium (Mg2+) levels and decreases blood phosphate (HPO42-) level; increases bone resorption by osteoclasts; increases Ca2+ reabsorption and phosphate excretion by kidneys; promotes formation of calcitriol which increases rate of dietary Ca2+ and Mg2+ absorption Adrenal Glands- lie superior to each kidney in the retroperitoneal space and have a flattened pyramid shape Mineralocorticoids – increase blood levels of Na+ and water; decrease blood level of K+ Glucocorticoids – Increase protein breakdown, stimulate gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, provide resistance to stress, dampen inflammation, depress immune responses Androgens – Assist in early growth of axillary and pubic hair in both sexes; in females, contribute to libido and are source of estrogens after menopause Epinephrine and Norepinephrine – enhance effects of sympathetic division of autonomic nervous system (ANS) during stress Pancreas – a flattened organ, located in the curve of the duodenum, this first part of the small intestine and consists of a head, body, and tail Glucagon – raises blood glucose level by accelerating breakdown of glycogen into glucose in liver, converting other nutrients into glucose in liver and releasing glucose into blood Insulin – Lowers blood glucose level by accelerating transport of glucose into cells, converting glucose into glycogen and decreasing glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; increases lipogenesis and stimulates protein synthesis [Show Less]
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Anatomy & Physiology Endocrine System Labster Questions and Answers
Learning Objectives • Learn about the endocrine role of the pancreas. • Understand Type 2 diabetes mellitus risk factors and effects. • Understand... [Show More] the function of insulin and glucagon. Introduction: The pancreas functions as both an endocrine and exocrine gland, with 99% of its activity centered around exocrine secretion of digestive enzymes and sodium bicarbonate. Today we will discuss the crucial endocrine role of the pancreas. Glucose is an important energy source for the body. In order to use that energy, the body needs the hormone insulin. In diabetes mellitus the body either does not produce enough insulin, or it does not function properly. This results in high levels of glucose in the blood, which cannot be used as energy. Over time, high blood glucose levels can cause nerve damage to the eyes and nerves, as well as damage to the kidneys and cardiovascular system.We will understand better how a person develops Type 2 diabetes and what they must do to maintain health. You will learn how to perform fingerstick blood sugar testing and even how to administer insulin. Assignments: Part 1 Complete the activities on Anatomy. TV Endocrine System: Pancreas To access Anatomy.TV: Resources tab>Library>Library Resources-Database A-Z>Anatomy.TV>Titles(default tab): Choose Endocrine system>choose Pancreas You will then work through the material and activities by scrolling down on the right. This will allow you to see and work through all activities for that section. Have the lab report with you as you complete the activities to record data. Part 2 Complete Labster “Diabetes” Have the lab report with you as you complete the lab to record data. The theory section is a useful resource. Part 3 Complete the Lab Report 1. Complete the following table regarding hormones secreted by the pancreas. (3 points) Hormone Principle actions Secreted by which cells in the pancreas? Insulin Glucagon 2. What is the name of the regions in the pancreas that secrete hormones? (1 point) 3. Discuss the endocrine pancreas role in homeostasis. (1 point) 1. What are 2 symptoms of diabetes mellitus? (see theory Type 2 DM symptoms) (2 points) 2. Complete the chart regarding medications to reduce blood sugar: (see theory: insulin and non-insulin therapies) (4 points) 3. Name 2 symptoms of hypoglycemia? (See theory low blood glucose) (2 points) 4. What instrument is used to measure blood glucose in the simulation? (1 point) [Show Less]
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Anatomy & Physiology_Endocrine Structures and their Hormones
Endocrine Structures and Their Hormones Though the hypothalamus and pituitary glands make an impressive number of hormones, the majority of the hormones o... [Show More] f the body are secreted by the other various endocrine organs. Primary endocrine organs are organs whose main function is production/secretion of hormones. Secondary endocrine organs are those that secrete hormones but are known for other primary functions. Primary endocrine organs such as the pineal gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, pancreas, and adrenal glands are responsible for regulation of a large variety of hormonal functions. [Show Less]
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The Endocrine System_Discussion Questions
Discussion questions and guide
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Anatomy & Physiology_Diabetes_Case_Study
Scenario/Summary A person driving on highway 11 towards New Orleans was reported scraping the side rails and swerving into the other lane. A brief police ... [Show More] chase ensued. The police thought he was inebriated but began to question their first impression when they didn't smell alcohol or drugs. They called for an ambulance and the individual was rushed to the ER. The patient had slurred speech. The patient wasn't aware of where they were and couldn't tell the medical staff the correct year either. There was a fruity smell noted on the patient's breath. Deliverables Answer the following questions and save your responses in a Microsoft Word document. Provide a scholarly resource in APA format to support your answers. 1. The very next question after checking level of consciousness and vitals was whether he was diabetic, why? 2. Why would a hypoglycemic patient possibly present with a decreased level of consciousness? 3. Why would a hyperglycemic patient possibly present with a decreased level of consciousness? 4. The patient's breath has a fruity smell which is attributed to ketone bodies. Why are they present when the patient exhales and what is this state called? [Show Less]
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Anatomy & Physiology_Blood_Questions&Answers
Week 1 Concepts: Questions and Answers Introduction - General Functions of the Cardiovascular System An Introduction to Erythrocytes, Their Role, Homeost... [Show More] asis, Disorders, Blood Groups, and Clinical Significance Introduction to Leukocytes Introduction to Thrombocytes 1. The type of blood cells that help fight infection are Erythrocytes Osteocytes Astrocytes Leukocytes Thrombocytes 2. The process of producing the formed elements of blood is called Leukocytosis. Agglutination. Leukopenia. Hematopoiesis. Erythroblastosis. 3. Which of the following is NOT a function of blood? Transports a variety of nutrients Helps to regulate body temperature Helps to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids Participates in the initiation of blood clotting Produces hormones 4. What are the components of the circulatory system? Heart Blood Vessels Blood Heart and Blood Vessels Heart, blood vessels, and blood 5. If you need to examine antibodies against a virus in a patient, which part of the blood will you need? WBC Plasma RBC Platelets 6. An athlete is training for a marathon, which hormone do you think may help in enhancing the performance in the competition? Cytokines Interferons Erythropoietin Thrombopoietin 7. Where does hematopoiesis take place in adults? Lymph nodes Spleen Red bone marrow Liver Thymus 8. Centrifugation of blood gives a buffy coat. This does NOT contain ________. Lymphocytes Agranulocytes Granulocytes Erythrocytes Thrombocytes 9. A normal hematocrit is ________ of the total blood volume. Less than 1% 47% to 63% 25% to 37% 42% to 45% 37% to 52% 10. Which plasma protein is accurately described? Albumin: Transport of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins Albumin: Blood clot formation Fibrinogen: Transport of lipids and fat-soluble vitamins Immunoglobulin: Fighting infections 11. In blood plasma, the % of water is approximately: 98% 92% 1% 25% 46% 12. Between all three plasma proteins, which is the most abundant? Bilirubin Acetycholine Insulin Creatinine Albumin 13. As a result of liver failure, blood protein concentration: Increases and water accumulates in cells Decreases and water accumulates in tissue spaces Decreases and water accumulates in cells Increases and water accumulates in tissue spaces 14. "Formed elements" in our blood include: Plasma and waste Serum and plasma Carbon and oxygen Blood and lymph Blood cells and platelets 15. Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma? Electrolytes Albumin Hormones Hemoglobin Metabolic wastes 16. Which of the following leukocytes are classified as agranulocytes? Erythrocytes Basophils Eosinophils Lymphocytes Neutrophils 17. The myeoblast cell line gives rise to which mature blood cells? Erythrocytes and platelets T cells and B cells Monocytes and lymphocytes Neutrophils and basophils 18. Plasma resembles serum but has which additional protein? Platelets Glucose Fibrinogen Albumin Nitrogenous wastes 19. The percentage of red blood cells within a volume of blood is: Hemoglobin Plasma Hematocrit Platelets 20. What are the two principal functions of erythrocytes? Transfer carbon dioxide from the lungs to tissues Transfer nitrogen from the tissues to the lungs Transfer nitrogen from lungs to tissues Transfer oxygen from tissues to lungs Transfer oxygen from lungs to tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs 21. The biconcave formed elements that lack mitochondria and a nucleus are called: Red blood cells Platelets White blood cells Macrophages 22. The most common type of formed elements in blood are of this type: Albumins Basophils Erythrocytes Neutrophils Platelets 23. Hemoglobin helps in carrying __________ gas. Carbon dioxide and oxygen Carbon dioxide Nitrogen Oxygen 24. Which of the following are characteristics of type A positive blood. Select all that apply. Plasma has anti-B antibodies. Plasma has anti-A antibodies. Erythrocytes have A antigens. Erythrocytes have Rh antigens. Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes. 25. Which of the following transfusions are not compatible? Donor is type AB, recipient is type B Donor blood is type O, recipient is Type O Donor RBC has A antigen, recipient plasma anti-B antibody Donor RBC has B antigen, recipient plasma has antibody anti-A Donor is type A, recipient is type AB 26. Which component of blood increases its viscosity? Sodium Nitrogenous wastes Gases Erythrocytes (Polycythemia can result in increased blood pressure, volume, pressure, and viscosity) Water 27. Blood doping can lead to: An increase in the nitrogen carrying capacity of the blood. An increase in the viscosity of the blood. A decrease in the blood pressure in the arteries. A decrease in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. 28. An individual’s hematocrit would vary with: Altitude Sex Age Smoking All of the above 29. Select all that apply. Which of the following are characteristics of Type O blood? Plasma has anti-B antibodies. Plasma has anti-A antibodies. Erythrocytes have B antigens. Erythrocytes have A antigens. Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes. 30. What is the correct order for the breakdown and disposal of heme? Biliverdin > bilirubin > bile Biliverdin > bile > bilirubin Bilirubin > bile > biliverdin Bile > bilirubin > biliverdin 31. Which is the form of anemia caused by lack of Vitamin B12? Iron deficiency anemia Aplastic anemia Pernicious anemia Hemolytic anemia 32. The plasma protein transferrin functions to transport _______ whereas immunoglobulins are _____. Oxygen, clotting proteins Clotting factors, hormones Iron ions, antibodies Lipids, heavy metals Antibodies, lipids 33. Erythrocytes have a life span of how many days? 360 30 60 10 120 34. ABO and Rh blood types are dependent on antigens found on/in: Surface of erythrocytes. Cytosol of the erythrocytes. Surface of the leukocytes. Cytosol of the leukocytes. Surface of platelets. 35. The red blood cells of type AB blood have which anitgens on their surfaces? Antigen A only Anitgen B only Neither antigens A or B Anitgens A and B 36. Old erythrocytes are phagocytized by: Platelets. Basophils Lymphocytes. Macrophages. Mast cells 37. Erythroblastosis fetalis may occur when: A first Rh-positive fetus develops in an Rh-negative woman. A first Rh-negative fetus develops in an Rh-negative woman. A second Rh-positive fetus develops in an Rh-negative woman. A second Rh-negative fetus develops in an Rh-negative woman. 38. How many oxygen molecules may bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin? 2 6 8 4 16 39. The hemoglobin in RBC can transfer: Both oxygen and carbon dioxide. Oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen. Only oxygen. Only carbon dioxide. Only nitrogen. 40. The main function of leukocytes is to: Form clots. Carry oxygen through the blood. Defend against pathogens. Carry carbon dioxide through the blood. 41. Leukocytes are the only formed elements that have: All of these are correct Nuceolus Nucleus Mitochondria 42. Select all that apply. Which leukocytes are granulocytes? Lymphocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Monocytes Basophils Erythrocytes 43. Which type of leukocyte will increase in number during allergic response? Monocyte Basophil Neutrophil Lymphocyte Eosinophil 44. The type of leukocyte that has a 2 to 7 lobed nucleus is: Basophil Monocyte Eosinophil Lymphocyte Neutrophil 45. A primary function of lymphocytes is to: Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide. Form blood clots Act against foreign substances. Phagocytize damaged cells. 46. Which of the following tests would help clinicians identify an infection? Blood typing. Platelet count. Red blood cell differential count. Total cell count for red and white blood cells. White blood cell differential count. 47. These are the most abundant leukocytes and are first to arrive when tissue damage occurs: Basophils Eosinophils Monocytes Neutrophils Lymphocytes 48. Leukemia is a blood disorder characterized by: Too many immature leukocytes. Too many platelets Not enough red blood cells Not many platelets 49. Which of the following white blood cell concentrations would represent leukocytosis? 6,000 cells/ml 3,000 cells/ml 1,500 cells/ml 12,000 cells/ml 50. Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukopenia? Radiation therapy Dehydration Lead poisoning Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) Immunosuppressant drugs 51. Which leukocyte becomes macrophage after migrating to specific tissues? Basophil Monocyte Lymphocyte Eosinophil Neutrophil 52. What are the leukocytes that stain red with eosin dye? Eosinophil Basophil Monocyte Lymphocyte Neutrophil 53. Which type of leukocyte releases heparin? Basophil Monocyte Neutrophil Eosinophil Lymphocyte 54. Platelets have the following organelles in their cytoplasm: None of the above Nucleus Golgi bodies Chloroplasts 55. Platelets play a key role in _________. Hemolysis Hemopoiesis Hemostasis Hematopoiesis 56. Bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia, may be caused by deficiency of: Vitamin A Vitamin K Vitamin E Vitamin C 57. If blood clotting is not appropriately controlled it may result in the spontaneous formation of a(n): Thrombus. Platelet plug. Aneurysm. Embolus. 58. Which of these will most likely be given to a patient with embolic or thrombotic stroke? T-plasminogen activator Thrombin Fibrin Fibrinogen 59. Which of the following is not required for proper hemostasis? Calcium Albumin Vitamin K Fibrinogen 60. Hemostasis is completed in three phases. The second phase is called: Elimination of clots. Vascular spasm. Platelet plug formation. Coagulation. 61. An abnormal blood clot formed in a blood vessel is called: Embolus. Thrombus. Aneurysm. Platelet plug. 62. Seratonin is released by: Neutrophils. Basophils. Platelets. Erythrocytes. 63. A mutation in the gene for plasmin that results in non-functional plasmin can cause: Plasminogen to clot blood faster. No clotting will occur. Blood clots will not be dissolved. Thrombin to activate. 64. Thrombocytopenia is a low presence of: Leukocytes Vitamin K Platelets Factor VII 65. The final event in the formation of a blood clot is the conversion of: Thrombin to prothrombin. Vitamin K to prothrombin. Fibrin to fibrinogen. Fibrinogen to fibrin. 66. Which of the following is a step within the common pathway of blood clotting? Factor XII converts inactive Factor XI to active Factor XI Calcium combines with Factor IX Prothrombin is activated to thrombin Factor III combines with Factor VII 67. A pulmonary embolism is most likely caused by a clot reaching: A lung through a pulmonary artery. The heart through a pulmonary artery. A lung through a pulmonary vein. The heart through a pulmonary vein. 68. In the first phase of hemostasis there is: Release of pro-coagulants. Fibrinolysis. Blood vessel constriction. Release of plasmin. [Show Less]
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