Straighterline BIO 201 Anatomy & Physiology I Midterm Exam (New Version June 2024)
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BIO201_MH_V4
Topic 8: Joints
Question 1
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The brachial region is commonly known as the_________.
Select one:
a. groin
b. upper arm
c. naval
d. breastbone
e. buttock
Question 2
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Which technique creates a three-dimensional dynamic image of blood vessels?
Select one:a. Digital subtraction angiography
b. Positron emission tomography
c. Dynamic spatial reconstruction
d. Magnetic resonance imaging
Question 3
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Which of the following would be classified as a lipid?
Select one:
a. Sucrose – a disaccharide
b. Alanine – an amino acid
c. Cholesterol – a steroid
d. Catalase – an enzyme
e. Starch – a polysaccharide
Question 4
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_________ is the substrate of_________.
Select one:
a. Lactose; lactase
b. Sucrase; sucrose
c. Lactase; glucose
d. Galactose; lactose
e. Glucose; lactoseQuestion 5
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Which cell type would have many Golgi apparatuses?
Select one:
a. Mucus cell (secretes mucus)
b. Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)
c. Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide
d. Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)
e. White blood cell, a phagocyte
Question 6
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The organelles involved with organization of the spindle fibers are the_________.
Select one:
a. mitochondria
b. centrioles
c. nuclei
d. ribosomes
e. lysosomes
Question 7
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Cytoplasm is found
Select one:
a. in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum.
b. outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane.
c. on the cristae of the mitochondria.
d. between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
e. in the nucleus.
Question 8
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A coiled fibrous protein in connective tissue that is stretchy is called_________.
Select one:
a. hyaluronic acid
b. a reticular fiber
c. proteoglycan
d. collagen
e. elastin
Question 9
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Identify the embryonic germ layers. (Check all that apply.)
Select one or more:
a. Ectodem
b. Mesoderm
c. Exoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Epiderm
Question 10
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Which of the following occur due to changes in the cells, extracellular materials, and tissues in older
adults? (Check all that apply.)
Select one or more:
a. Loss of elasticity of connective tissue
b. Increase of muscle cells
c. Increase of neurons
d. Loss of flexibility of connective tissue
e. Increase in collagen fibers
Question 11
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What is a malignant tumor derived from connective tissue?Select one:
a. Melanoma
b. Carcinoma
c. Sarcoma
d. Lymphoma
e. Both "Carcinoma" and "Sarcoma" are correct.
Question 12
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Which type of cell breaks down bone tissue?
Select one:
a. Adipocyte
b. Stem cell
c. Macrophage
d. Osteoclast
e. Mast cell
Question 13
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Three students were asked to identify the type of muscle tissue that makes up the arrector pili, a
structure that moves the hair relative to the skin. Which of the following answers correctly identifies
the muscle tissue type?
Select one:
a. Student 2 stated that it is cardiac muscle, eliminating smooth muscle because it is not associated
with blood vessels and skeletal muscle because it is not attached to bones.b. Student 1 stated that it is smooth muscle, eliminating cardiac muscle because the tissue is not
located in the heart and skeletal muscle because it is not under voluntary control.
c. Student 3 stated that it is skeletal muscle, eliminating cardiac muscle because it is not located in
the heart and smooth muscle because it is not part of blood vessels.
Question 14
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This is a figure of a skin wound. What does "E" represent?
Select one:
a. Epidermis
b. Blood vessel
c. Subcutaneous adipose tissue
d. Blood clot
e. Dermis
Question 15
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Which of the following represent functions of connective tissue? (Check all the apply.)
Select one or more:
a. Insulating
b. Secretion of substances
c. Contractiond. Enclosing organs
e. Communication
f. Movement of body parts
g. Cushioning
Question 16
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Indicate the statements that describe erythema. (Check all that apply.)
Select one or more:
a. It results from an inflammatory response.
b. It can be caused by emotions such as embarrassment.
c. It occurs during pregnancy when estrogen and melanocyte-stimulating hormone levels have
increased.
d. It may occur in response to exposure to the cold.
e. It can be caused by emotions such as anger.
Question 17
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The dermal layer closest to the epidermis is the_________.
Select one:
a. stratum basale
b. subcutaneous tissuec. papillary layer
d. stratum lucidum
e. reticular layer
Question 18
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Which cells of the epidermis are part of the immune system?
Select one:
a. Melanocytes
b. Keratinocytes
c. Merkel cells
d. Langerhans cells
e. Fibroblasts
Question 19
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Which type of burn appears white or black with no immediate pain?
Select one:
a. Second-degree
b. First-degree
c. Fourth-degree
d. Partial-thickness
e. Third-degree
Question 20Correct
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The diagram illustrates accessory structures of the skin. What does "D" represent?
Select one:
a. Sebaceous gland
b. Duct of eccrine sweat gland
c. Sweat pore
d. Eccrine sweat gland
e. Hair follicle
Question 21
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The layer of the epidermis in which there is the greatest amount of mitotic activity is the_________.
Select one:
a. stratum granulosum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum basale
e. stratum corneumQuestion 22
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Subcutaneous tissue contains of all of the following EXCEPT_________.
Select one:
a. loose connective tissue
b. macrophages
c. stratified squamous epithelial tissue
d. fibroblasts and adipocytes
e. collagen and elastin fibers
Question 23
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Melanin
Select one:
a. is absent in individuals with albinism.
b. is increased with exposure to infrared light.
c. is transferred to other cells by osmosis.
d. is a pigment produced by cells in the stratum corneum.
e. makes the skin lighter.
Question 24
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The locations where ossification begin in intramembranous ossification are known as
Select one:
a. medullary cavity ossification centers.
b. epiphyseal ossification centers.
c. centers of ossification.
d. secondary ossification centers.
e. membranous ossification centers.
Question 25
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Osteomalacia is
Select one:
a. bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection.
b. a group of genetic disorders producing very brittle bones that are easily fractured; this occurs
because of insufficient collagen development.
c. a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone matrix.
d. a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion.
e. a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones.
Question 26
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In which type of bone tissue are osteons present?
Select one:
a. Both "spongy bone" and "compact bone" are correct.
b. Spongy bone
c. Compact bone
Question 27
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When a fracture begins to heal, one type of bone cell moves into the fracture site and tears down the
damaged bone tissue. Which of the following does this?
Select one:
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteoblasts
d. Osteons
e. Matrix cells
Question 28
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The primary function of osteoblasts is to
Select one:
a. prevent osteocytes from forming.
b. stimulate bone growth.c. lay down bone matrix.
d. inhibit the growth of bone.
e. resorb bone along the epiphyseal plate.
Question 29
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The connective tissue sheath of cartilage is called the_________.
Select one:
a. ligamentous cord
b. chondrocyte
c. matrix
d. lacuna
e. perichondrium
Question 30
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Select the functions of the skeletal system. (Check all that apply.)
Select one or more:
a. Storage of minerals
b. Storage of glycogen
c. Production of blood cells and platelets
d. Protection of internal organs
Question 31Correct
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Ossification that involves replacing cartilage with bone is_________.
Select one:
a. appositional
b. interstitial
c. endochondral
d. osteomalacia
e. intramembranous
Question 32
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The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "E" represent?
Select one:
a. Lacrimal
b. Zygomatic
c. Ethmoid
d. Frontal
e. Maxilla
Question 33
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What does structure "D" represent?
Select one:
a. Axis
b. Intervertebral disk
c. Atlas
d. Thoracic region or curve
e. Body of vertebra
Question 34
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Which of the following bony features is not associated with the skull?
Select one:
a. Obturator foramen
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Cribriform plate
d. Stylomastoid foramen
e. Pterygoid canal
Question 35
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Which of the following statements concerning the vertebrae is true?
Select one:
a. The spinal cord protects the vertebral column.
b. The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae.
c. The first cervical vertebra is called the axis.
d. Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae.
e. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes.
Question 36
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The ribs articulate with the_________ vertebrae.
Select one:
a. lumbar
b. cervical
c. sacral
d. thoracic
e. coccygeal
Question 37
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The thumb and big toe are similar in that
Select one:
a. both have two rather than three phalanges.
b. both have three rather than two phalanges.
c. each have three metatarsals.
d. both are composed of sesamoid bones.
e. both contain carpal bones.
Question 38
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The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "B" represent?
Select one:
a. Posterior sacral foramina
b. Coccyx
c. Superior articular facet
d. Median sacral crest
e. Sacral hiatus
Question 39
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The large depression on the medial side of the ilium is the
Select one:a. symphysis pubis.
b. ischial tuberosity.
c. iliac fossa.
d. anterior superior iliac spine.
e. sacroiliac joint.
Question 40
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What is the most commonly dislocated joint in the body?
Select one:
a. Temporomandibular joint
b. Knee joint
c. Glenohumeral joint
d. Humeroulnar joint
e. Hip joint
Question 41
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Rotating the ankles so that the bottoms of the feet face each other medially is called_________.
Select one:
a. inversion
b. retraction
c. opposition
d. medial excursion
e. dorsiflexionQuestion 42
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Synovial fluid
Select one:
a. is a thin lubricating film covering the surface of a joint.
b. provides a smooth surface where bones meet.
c. is a layer of tissue that is continuous with the periosteum.
d. lines the joint everywhere except over the articular cartilage.
e. is a double layer of tissue that encloses a joint.
Question 43
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Which of the following are effective ways to prevent effects of aging on the joints? (Check all that
apply.)
Select one or more:
a. Use them sparingly
b. Strengthen muscles
c. Take aspirin daily
d. Use them regularly
e. Stretching routines
Question 44
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A patient has shoulder pain due to ligament damage. Which of the following symptoms will most
likely accompany the pain?
Select one:
a. Reduction of range of motion
b. Damage to the anterior cruciate ligament
c. Increased range of motion
d. Tear in the lateral ligament
Question 45
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A synchondrosis
Select one:
a. is freely movable.
b. is found in the arm.
c. may be temporary.
d. is a type of gomphosis.
e. is not found in a growing long bone.
Question 46
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The figure illustrates a posterior view of the right knee joint. What does "B" represent?
Select one:
a. Medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL)
b. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
c. Lateral meniscus
d. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
e. Lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL)
Question 47
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The type of movements where one linear part of the body bends relative to another part would
be_________ movements.
Select one:
a. angular
b. circular
c. linear
d. gliding
Question 48
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An infant born with a gestational age of 254 days would be considered_________.Select one:
a. immature
b. normal maturity
c. postmature
d. premature
e. None of the choices are correct.
Question 49
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Down Syndrome is an example of an aneuploidy called_________.
Select one:
a. trisomy 21
b. monosomy 21
c. trisomy 17
d. disomy 21
e. monosomy 23
Question 50
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A display of the chromosomes of a somatic cell during metaphase of mitosis is the_________.
Select one:
a. locus
b. autosome
c. karyotype
d. homologe. genome [Show Less]