Cardiovascular Exam 2 Questions & Answers
While performing a cardiac assessment on a client with an incompetent heart valve, the nurse auscultates a
... [Show More] murmur. The nurse documents the finding and describes the sound as which?
1. Lub-dub sounds
2. Scratchy, leathery heart noise
3. A blowing or swooshing noise
4. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise
A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess for which symptom, which is most commonly reported?
1. Hot, flushed feeling
2. Sudden chills and fever
3. Chest pain that occurs suddenly
4. Dyspnea when deep breaths are taken
The nurse is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. Which position should the nurse instruct the client to assume?
1. Sitting up in bed
2. Side-lying in bed
3. Sitting in a recliner chair
4. Sitting up and leaning on an overbed table
A client is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain that is consistent with myocardial infarction based on elevated troponin levels. Heart sounds are normal. The nurse should alert the primary health care provider because the vital sign changes and client assessment are most consistent with which complication? Refer to chart.
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1. Cardiogenic shock
2. Cardiac tamponade
3. Pulmonary embolism
4. Dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm
A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats per minute and blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg, reports dizziness. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
1. Administer digoxin.
2. Defibrillate the client.
3. Continue to monitor the client.
4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.
The nurse in a medical unit is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the primary health care provider and prepares to implement which priority interventions? Select all that apply.
1. Administering oxygen
2. Inserting a Foley catheter
3. Administering furosemide
4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously
5. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit
6. Placing the client in a low-Fowler's side-lying position
A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which finding would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds?
1. Stridor
2. Crackles
3. Scattered rhonchi
4. Diminished breath sounds
A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. What condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for?
1. Pulsus paradoxus
2. Ventricular dysrhythmias
3. Rising diastolic blood pressure
4. Falling central venous pressure
A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has had a urine output averaging 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 mL of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 mL. Daily laboratory results indicate that the blood urea nitrogen level is 45 mg/dL (16 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is
2.2 mg/dL (194 mcmol/L). On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem?
1. Hypovolemia
2. Acute kidney injury
3. Glomerulonephritis
4. Urinary tract infection
The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 seconds, and QRS complexes measure
0.06 seconds. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. Which action should the nurse take?
1. Check vital signs.
2. Check laboratory test results.
3. Monitor for any rhythm change.
4. Notify the primary health care provider.
A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is
the priority nursing action?
1. Call a code.
2. Check the client's status.
3. Call the primary health care provider.
4. Document the lack of complexes.
The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but more than 140 beats per minute. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which dysrhythmia?
1. Sinus tachycardia
2. Ventricular fibrillation
3. Ventricular tachycardia
4. Premature ventricular contractions
A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be most concerned about with this dysrhythmia?
1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time.
2. It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm.
3. It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom.
4. It produces a high cardiac output with cerebral and myocardial ischemia.
A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place priority on assessment of which item?
1. Causative factors, such as caffeine
2. Sensation of fluttering or palpitations
3. Blood pressure and oxygen saturation
4. Precipitating factors, such as infection
he client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. The nurse should assess the client for which associated signs and/or symptoms? Select all that apply.
1. Syncope
2. Dizziness
3. Palpitations
4. Hypertension
5. Flat neck veins
The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there are fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. How should the nurse interpret the client's heart rhythm?
1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Sinus tachycardia
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Ventricular tachycardia
The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. After placing the pads on the client's chest and before discharging the device, which intervention is
a priority?
1. Ensure that the client has been intubated.
2. Set the defibrillator to the "synchronize" mode.
3. Administer an amiodarone bolus [Show Less]