NSG 5002 WEEK 1 QUIZ / NSG5002 WEEK 1 QUIZ / NSG 5002 QUIZ 1 (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SECURE HIGHSCORE|
NSG 5002
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NSG 5002 Week 1 Quiz
Which statement about a theory is false?
Question 1 options:
A) Theory is multifaceted, complex, and dynamic.
B) There is one widely accepted definition of what theory is and is not.
C) Theory falls into two broad categories--commonsense and scientific.
D) The overarching goal of theory is to explain phenomenon.
Which statement most likely describes a commonsense theory?
Question 2 options:
A) The other students in your class have more free time because they study less than you do.
B) All of your professors are involved in a plot to overthrow the president of your university.
C) You haven’t heard from your sister lately because she is busy studying for her final exams.
D) The number of hours spent studying for exams, a student’s willingness to ask questions, and completion of course homework are directly related to the final grade.
Which phrase does not describe one of the three main goals of scientific theory?
Question 3 options:
A) Separation of theory from practice
B) Description of a phenomenon being studied
C) Prediction about future relationship
D) Explanation that “makes sense” of observed events
Which analogy most accurately defines scientific theory?
Question 4 options:
A) Scientific theory definitively describes practice in much the same way that a dictionary definitively describes the meanings of different words.
B) Scientific theory components are combined in different ways to produce different theories in much the same way that beads are strung together in different ways to produce different necklaces.
C) Scientific theory represents only the thought-based aspects of a discipline (rather than the action-based aspects) in much the same way that a flag represents the physical entity of a country (rather than its individual people).
D) Scientific theory components are specific to only one particular theory in much the same way that a key is specific to one particular lock.
Which question would be least appropriate to ask if you were interested in examining health promotion from a scientific theory perspective as opposed to another type of perspective?
Question 5 options:
A) What influences health behavior among older adults?
B) Why is education level associated with certain outcomes?
C) What is the ultimate end of health promotion?
D) Do attitudes lead to behavior change among adolescents?
NSG 5002 Week 1 Quiz
Question
During the 1960s and 1970s, the theory movement in nursing sought to “prove” that nursing was a science by applying strict logical positivist philosophy to the discipline. Why was this application problematic from a philosophical standpoint?
Answer:
it ignored the humanistic and social aspects of providing quality care and focused on the hard science involved.
Question
Which statement best describes the role that logical positivism plays in modern philosophical thought about nursing science and science in general
Answer:
It works in concert with humanistic philosophies of science, with the opposing ideologies functioning as a system of philosophical checks and balances.
Question
Which argument best supports the idea of nursing as a professional discipline rather than an academic discipline?
Answer:
Nursing is an applied science. Its practice component places an emphasis on the delivery of service by nurses rather than the development of academic knowledge.
Question
During the 1960s, why did nursing scholars heavily emphasize a focus on the theoretical development of nursing as its own, independent discipline?
Answer:
To encourage and enhance the continued development of nursing science
Question
Historically, nursing preparation was referred to as “training,” and many nurses educated through the 1970s still use this term to refer to their education. Why is this terminology particularly problematic in light of the advances made in nursing science in the last 30 years?
Answer:
It places emphasis on nurses' abilities to perform tasks rather than reason through and understand the purpose of their actions.
NSG 5002 Week 2 Quiz
Question 1
What three conditions definitely alter the results of echocardiography in determining CAD?
Question 1 options:
a) Diabetes, kidney disease and tooth decay
b) Obesity, rapid heart rate and lung disease
c) Obesity, slow heart rates and hypertension
d) Previous MI, hypotension and diabetes
Question 2
Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see evidence of ischemic changes on the ECG. This would be predictive of what condition?
Question 2 options:
a) Significant CAD
b) Low risk of CAD
c) Impending death
d) Stroke
Question 3
What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship?
Question 3 options:
a) Ensures that patients receive whatever they want
b) Maintains costs in the healthcare arena
c) Obligates the provider to a one-on-one relationship with the individual
d) Ensures that providers honor their commitments to the patient
Question 4
A 55-year old man is referred to your clinic. He has been sedentary all of his life, is gaining weight and wishes to get into better physical shape. He has never had any chest pain or shortness of breath when walking or climbing a flight of stairs. Before recommending a vigorous exercise routine for this patient, you order what test?
Question 4 options:
a) CBC
b) Thyroid levels
c) Stool samples
d) ETT
Question 5
Medicare hospital insurance (Part A) is funded through what system?
Question 5 options:
a) State income taxes
b) Federal payroll taxes
c) Federal income taxes
d) Interest from investments
Question 6
Your patient is morbidly obese and cannot sit on a bicycle or walk a treadmill. She also has marked and severe emphysema. You need to make an assessment of the risk of significant CAD and your patient’s family says that their relative had their diagnosis based on an ultrasound echocardiography. What facts would influence your decision regarding the family request for echo assessment?
Question 6 options:
a) Sensitivity would be increased because of lung disease
b) Specificity would be increased because of obesity
c) Sensitivity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease
d) Specificity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease
Question 7
We all know that collaboration is integral to becoming a successful nurse practitioner. Among collaborations, however, only one can be considered as the most important. While each example below is important, which is the most important collaboration? The one that occurs:
Question 7 options:
a) Between the patient and the nurse practitioner
b) Between the patient and their family
c) Between two healthcare providers about a single patient
d) Between the nurse practitioner and their physician mentor
Question 8
Changes in Medicare are a method the government uses to make changes to reimbursement schedules for healthcare. Currently, Medicare reimburses nurse practitioners for all services, even those deemed to be exclusive to nursing?
Question 8 options:
a) True
b) False
Question 9
Narrowed coronary arteries or plague rupture within the arteries of the coronary system may directly cause which condition?
Question 9 options:
a) Diabetes
b) Coronary artery disease
c) Venous Statis
d) Hypertension
Question 10
Chronic, non-communicable diseases account for disproportionate costs to the healthcare system. According to the World Health Organization, what percent of preventable deaths and disabilities occur in the Americas related to chronic non-communicable diseases?
Question 10 options:
a) 80%-90%
b) 10%-15%
c) 35%-45%
d) 60%-70%
Question 11
Of the answers below, which would be included in defining a positive Exercise Echocardiogram?
Question 11 options:
a) Induced decrease in regional wall motion
b) Increase in wall thickening
c) Regional hypokensis of ventricular muscles walls
d) Death two days after test
Question 12
As patients that entrust our care to another individual, we always expect honesty to avoid leading us down a deceptive pathway in our healthcare decisions. Adherence to which principle compels providers to be truthful?
Question 12 options:
a) Fidelity
b) Veracity
c) Self-reflection
d) Finance
Question 13
By standard criteria, how is a positive stress test defined?
Question 13 options:
a) Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 1mm
b) Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 10mm
c) Upward sloping ST-segment measured at the J point of the QRS
d) Down sloping of the ST-segment at the J point of the QRS
Question 14
What are two of the most common forms of Exercise Stress Tests used today?
Question 14 options:
a) Unicycle and Running in pace
b) Bicycle and treadmill
c) Bicycle and rowing machine
d) Thallium and Dobutamine
Question 15
Your patient cannot sit on a bicycle and has difficulties walking a treadmill with limited capacity for exercising. Still, you know that the ETT is the preferred test for CAD. You consider adding a pharmacological agent to get to maximum heart rate. What agent would be the most commonly used agent to assist in an ETT?
Question 15 options:
a) Aspirin
b) Epinephrine
c) Dobutamine
d) Dopamine
Question 16
Population disease management is a term used to describe:
Question 16 options:
a) Low prevalence specific diseases
b) High prevalence specific diseases
c) High specificity disease states
d) Low specificity diseases states
Question 17
What ECG changes can reduce the specificity of the ETT?
Question 17 options:
a) Paced rhythm and resting bundle branch block
b) Exercise induced bundle branch blocks
c) Paced rhythm and exercise induced bundle branch blocks
d) Low voltage up sloping of the ST-segment
Question 18
Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise, he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see no evidence of ischemia on the ECG. This would be diagnostic for what condition?
Question 18 options:
a) Diagnostic for impending Myocardial Infarction
b) Predictive of no CAD
c) Diagnostic of laziness
d) Has no diagnostic value to rule out CAD
Question 19
Of the following, which is the best answer when asked for an advantage of echocardiogram exercise testing over thallium stress testing?
Question 19 options:
a) Results are available more quickly
b) Does not depend on operator experience
c) Costs are the same
d) Doesn’t matter because there are no advantages
Question 20
On the echocardiography during the ETT you notice the following change: abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction. What do these changes suggest related to this patient?
Question 20 options:
a) Non-ischemic changes of the baseline ECG
b) Ischemia of the myocardium
c) Weak ventricular muscles
d) Rise in heart rate without evidence of ischemia
Question 21
Specifically, when is an ETT considered to be negative?
Question 21 options:
a) Patient exercises to 85% of age predicted maximum heart rate without evidence of induced ischemia
b) Patient exercises until tired without evidence of induced ischemia
c) Patient has ST-segmental changes with down sloping of greater than 1 mm at 50% of age-predicted maximum heart rate
d) Patient exercises to 20% maximum age-predicted heart rate without induced ischemia
Question 22
Medicaid is mandated to be provided by each state through federal codes. Each state must offer Medicaid exactly as the federal government prescribes.
Question 22 options:
a) True
b) False
Question 23
The leads on the ECG showing ischemic changes during or immediately after an ETT can correlate roughly to the culprit artery or arteries with significant CAD. Is this true or false?
Question 23 options:
a) True
b) False
Question 24
What happens to coronary flow related to CAD?
Question 24 options:
a) Hyper profusion of the myocardium
b) Hypo profusion of the myocardium
c) Functional systolic pressures
d) Cerebral vascular infarction
Question 25
What do you know regarding ischemia that is confined to only the posterior and or lateral segments of the left ventricle?
Question 25 options:
a) Easier to detect by ETT
b) Difficult to detect by ETT
c) Requires both for detection of changes by ETT
d) ETT cannot be used for detection
Question 26
Encouragement of patients to take effective actions in their own healthcare refers to the concept of:
Question 26 options:
a) Physician or provider-driven care
b) Family care givers
c) Self-management support
d) Interprofessional support
Question 27
Your practice partner just ordered an exercise echocardiography 2DE for a patient with suspected cardiovascular risk. This patient has known resting wall motion abnormalities. Why would this not be the best test to assess this patient’s cardiac risk?
Question 27 options:
a) Sensitivity is increased
b) Sensitivity is decreased
c) Specificity is increased
d) Specificity is decreased
Question 28
All patients, even if asymptomatic, require risk stratification according to the Farmingham risk score. At present, ACC/AHA guidelines, however, do not normally support stress tests for asymptomatic patients without addiitonal justification. From the list below, what could be used to justify a ETT in an asymptomatic patient?
Question 28 options:
a) Sedentary and wishes to begin aggressive exercise
b) A member of congress
c) Developmentally challenged
d) A smoker of 3 weeks
Question 29
A 35 year old female arrives at your clinic. She has had diabetes and peripheral artery disease for the past 5 years. You decide to obtain an ETT. The insurance company argues that this is inappropriate. You justify the ETT because you are planning secondary strategies to prevent future heart disease. Where could one find the supporting data for these guidelines?
Question 29 options:
a) Framingham risk score
b) Medicare guidelines
c) Medicaid guidelines
d) Do not exist
Question 30
In CAD, after both systolic and diastolic dysfunction have occurred, the typical pattern of chest pain and related EKG changes occur. During an EKG, you should expect to see ST-segment and T-wave changes that are central to demonstration of ischemia occurring relatively late in the ischemic cascade.
Question 30 options:
a) True
b) False
Question 31
For women with known CAD and diabetes, which is most appropriate to assess CAD risk?
Question 31 options:
a) ETT
b) Coronary catheterization
c) ETT with imaging
d) Coronary bypass surgery
Question 32
You are counseling a patient diagnosed with stress-induced ischemia. You base your discussion on your knowledge that stress-induced ischemia is thought to be caused by what phenomena?
Question 32 options:
a) Heart muscle dysfunction
b) Diet and exercise
c) Endothelial dysfunction of the microvascular
d) Too many carbonated drinks
Question 33
Eligibility for Medicaid includes the following:
Question 33 options:
a) Very young and elderly only
b) Children and women regardless of income
c) Elderly, children and women living in poverty
d) Everyone unemployed
Question 34
You are in the clinic with your mentor observing the Echocardiogram exercise test of a 45-year old male that has been experiencing slight chest pressure almost daily during exercise. While observing your patient, your mentor points out that the left ventricle wall is thinning and there is some hyperkinesias of the ventricular wall. From your time in the clinic, you know that this test will be considered to be what type of result?
Question 34 options:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Non-readable
d) Impossible
Question 35
In women, you need to know the limitations of certain tests for CAD. For example, single-photon emissions CT imaging, while an acceptable test for most men and some women, is technically limited in women for two reasons. From the following, choose the best possible answer.
Question 35 options:
a) Multiple vessel disease and fat deposits
b) Smoking rates and lack of uptake of photons
c) Breasts and smaller coronary arteries
d) Breasts and fat deposits in abdomen
Question 36
Your patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segment. What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care?
Question 36 options:
a) These changes are predictive of myocardial infarction
b) This patient needs to see someone more experienced in treatment of CAD
c) These changes predict dire outcomes
d) These changes have minimal predictive value for CAD
Question 37
Your preceptor decides to add Doppler Flow studies to the echocardiogram exercise test for a patient with a recent history of a holistic murmur best auscultated at the left steral boarder. The patient has no history of cardiac surgeries. He asks you what might be the main advantages of adding Doppler Flow for this particular patient. You know from your readings that there are several reasons to add Doppler Flow and below are listed more than one correct reason. Your best response for this specific case, however, would be that Doppler Flow studies would be of what additive value during the echocardiogram study?
Question 37 options:
a) Gives better screen shots of wall
b) Provides assessment of prosthetic valve function
c) Detect and evaluate blood shunting from a septal defect
d) No advantage is seen for this patient
Question 38
The sensitivity of a routine ETT is effort dependent. What physiological changes occur during effort in the routine ETT?
Question 38 options:
a) Decrease in coronary blood flow
b) Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure
c) Rapid heart rates and coronary artery narrowing
d) Increased coronary flow and increased systolic blood pressure
Question 39
Medicare covers inpatient hospital services under which part of the Medicare insurance?
Question 39 options:
a) Part B
b) Part D
c) Part C
d) Part A
Question 40
Maintenance of an Isoelectric ST-segment during exercise is the response of?
Question 40 options:
a) A normal heart
b) An abnormal heart
c) CAD
d) Hypo profusion
Question 41
The diagnostic accuracy of stress testing is decreased among women compared to men for what reasons?
Question 41 options:
a) Women usually have single vessel or non-obstructive disease
b) Women typically have multiple vessel disease
c) Women having thinner ventricular and septal muscles
d) Women cannot exercise as vigorously as men
Question 42
What is the leading cause of death for women in the United States?
Question 42 options:
a) Breast cancer
b) Lung cancer
c) Heart disease
d) Complications of childbirth
NSG 5002 Week 4 Quiz
Which is not a fundamental pattern of knowing in nursing?
Question 1 options:
A) Ethics
B) Epistemologics
C) Aesthetics
D) Empirics
Which statement accurately reflects a fundamental assumption of emancipatory knowing?
Question 2 options:
A) Language carries power meanings.
B) All knowledge is value-neutral.
C) Social oppression is natural and unavoidable.
D) Research is an apolitical activity.
As a nurse, Sheila works hard to establish caring relationships with her coworkers, her patients, and her patients’ families. According to Habermas, this activity is most directly related to which area of human interest?
Question 3 options:
A) Technical interest
B) Emancipatory interest
C) Political interest
D) Practical interest
According to Freire’s theory of human liberation, the members of the dominant group in a society:
Question 4 options:
A) lack a sense of unity with one another.
B) are barred from realizing their full human potential.
C) deny the self and internalize the consciousness of others.
D) work to preserve the status quo.
Freire’s theory of human liberation states that disadvantaged groups must accomplish several steps in order to move toward freedom. The first of these steps is:
Question 5 options:
A) consciousness of emotion, or developing love for self and for those who are privileged.
B) consciousness raising, or coming to realize the actual circumstances of one’s own situation.
C) consciousness of unity, or acknowledging that others are also disadvantaged and joining with them to take action.
D) consciousness of actions, or identifying what potential courses of action are feasible but have not yet been tried.
NSG 5002 Week 5 Quiz
Which area of patient health is not directly addressed in Nightingale’s 13 canons for nursing practice?
Question 1 options:
A) Observing and recording patient behavior
B) Ensuring patient comfort and continuity of care
C) Caring for the holistic, spiritual aspects of the patient
D) Providing appropriate food and stimulation for the patient
Which selection most closely matches the definition of the health metaparadigm according to the concepts outlined by Nightingale?
Question 2 options:
A) Independence
B) Psychological, social, biological, and physiological interactions
C) A positive high-level state that is personally defined
D) Being well and using one’s talents wel
According to Nightingale’s model, what is the impetus for the cooperation of the nurse, nature, and the patient in the reparative process?
Question 3 options:
A) The nurse’s devotion to his or her calling
B) The patient’s desire for health
C) The tendency of biological systems to seek balance
D) The human tendency to alleviate the suffering of others
Which statement is not one of the 14 basic patient needs as outlined by Henderson?
Question 4 options:
A) To develop adequate self-care habits
B) To worship according to one’s faith
C) To move and maintain desirable postures
D) To participate in various forms of recreation
According to Henderson, which phrase is not one of the four inseparable components of the person?
Question 5 options:
A) The sociological components
B) The spiritual component
C) The biological component
D) The intrapersonal component [Show Less]