NR283 Exam 1 (ONLINE) Questions Bank with Answers (Latest-2021/2022)/ NR 283 Exam 1 Questions Bank with Answers: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100%
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NR 283 EXAM 1 (ONLINE) QUESTIONS BANK WITH ANSWERS / NR283 EXAM 1 (ONLINE) QUESTIONS BANK WITH ANSWERS (Newest-2020): CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING
Chapter 1
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called:
a. metaplasia.
b. atrophy.
c. dysplasia.
d. hypertrophy.
10. Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing:
a. hypertrophy.
b. dysplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. regeneration.
12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b. Ischemic damage to cells
c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
13. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
a. an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
b. a preventive measure.
c. a precipitating factor.
d. a predisposing condition.
19. Pathophysiology involves the study of:
a. the structure of the human body.
b. the functions of various organs in the body.
c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
d. various cell structures and related functions.
Chapter 2
8. Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
a. Rapid, strong pulse
b. Low hematocrit
c. Increased urine output
d. Rough oral mucosa
9. Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
a. Dehydration
b. Third-spacing
c. Hypovolemia
d. Water retention
10. Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Iron
11. Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia?
a. Loss of the thirst mechanism
b. Excessive sweating
c. Excessive aldosterone secretion
d. Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations
17. Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?
a. 4.5-8
b. 7.0
c. 7.4
d. 8
30. An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to:
a. increased PCO2.
b. decreased PCO2.
c. respiratory acidosis.
d. metabolic acidosis.
Chapter 21
2. What is the term for an arrangement of the chromosomes from an individual’s cell, organized in pairs based on size and shape?
a. Pedigree
b. Punnett squares
c. Karyotype
d. Genotype
6. Down syndrome is an example of a/an:
a. autosomal dominant disorder.
b. multifactorial disorder.
c. developmental defect.
d. chromosomal disorder.
15. Which of the following are common manifestations of Down syndrome?
1. Congenital heart defect
2. Cleft lip and palate
3. Large protruding tongue
4. Limited intellectual development
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
16. A spontaneous alteration in genetic material that may result from exposure to harmful substances is termed:
a. autosome.
b. genotype.
c. meiosis.
d. mutation.
24. Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT:
a. exposure to radiation.
b. mercury in foods and water.
c. drugs and alcohol.
d. folic acid.
32. The cellular division process that produces the chromosomes that are in the sperm and ova is called:
a. meiosis.
b. mitosis.
c. organogenesis.
d. polysomy.
Chapter 5
3. The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to:
a. phagocytosis of foreign material.
b. local vasodilation.
c. any tissue injury.
d. formation of purulent exudates.
4. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
a. albumin and fibrinogen.
b. growth factors and cell enzymes.
c. macrophages and neutrophils.
d. histamine and prostaglandins.
8. The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
a. increased interstitial fluid.
b. production of complement.
c. a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area.
d. increased blood flow into the area.
12. The term leukocytosis means:
a. increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood.
b. decreased WBCs in the blood.
c. increased number of immature circulating leukocytes.
d. significant change in the proportions of WBCs.
21. A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as:
a. full-thickness.
b. deep partial-thickness.
c. superficial partial-thickness.
d. first-degree.
23. The characteristic appearance of a full-thickness burn is:
a. painful with multiple blisters.
b. heavy bleeding.
c. red with some swelling.
d. dry, firm, charred, or hard white surface.
34. Application of ice to an injured knee reduces edema by:
a. promoting return of lymph fluid.
b. causing local vasoconstriction.
c. increasing the rate of tissue repair.
d. causing systemic vasodilation.
55. All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT:
a. good nutrition: protein, vitamins A and C.
b. a clean, undisturbed wound.
c. effective circulation.
d. advanced age.
Chapter 6
9. How do antiviral drugs act?
a. They interfere with cell wall development.
b. They decrease cell membrane permeability.
c. They destroy new, immature viral particles.
d. They reduce the rate of viral replication.
17. The term nosocomial infection means:
a. transmission involves an insect or animal host.
b. acquired in a hospital or medical facility.
c. transmitted by a fomite.
d. spread by direct contact with secretions from an open lesion.
18. Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
a. touching a contaminated countertop.
b. sexual intercourse.
c. drinking contaminated water.
d. inhaling dust-borne microbes.
27. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
a. Fever and leukocytosis
b. Headache and anorexia
c. Pain, erythema, and swelling
d. Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue
28. What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
a. To determine the type of microbe present in an exudate
b. To provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
c. To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
d. To provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication
48. Drugs that are designed to inhibit or slow down growth of microbes but not necessarily kill them are considered:
a. ineffective.
b. bacteriostatic.
c. narrow-spectrum.
d. bactericidal.
Chapter 7
3. Humoral immunity is mediated by:
a. natural killer cells.
b. T lymphocytes (T cells).
c. B lymphocytes (B cells).
d. neutrophils.
5. Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
a. Active natural
b. Active artificial
c. Passive natural
d. Passive artificial
6. When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:
a. cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
b. immune complex hypersensitivity.
c. type I hypersensitivity.
d. type IV hypersensitivity.
9. Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?
a. A severe, systemic allergic reaction
b. Type III hypersensitivity
c. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
d. Immune complex deposits in many tissues
12. An autoimmune disease is:
a. excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
b. an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
c. an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
d. failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.
13. Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
a. a chronic allergic condition.
b. development of an immune-deficient state.
c. a deficiency of T lymphocytes.
d. immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.
22. Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
a. hyperacute rejection of tissue.
b. T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.
c. infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.
d. transplant rejection by the recipient’s immune system.
28. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive?
a. No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range.
b. Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others.
c. Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.
d. Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication.
29. The term tolerance refers to:
a. surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system.
b. the ability of the immune system to ignore “self” cells.
c. the ability of T and B lymphocytes to work together.
d. the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses.
Chapter 20
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
a. It is unencapsulated and invasive.
b. It consists of undifferentiated cells.
c. It exerts systemic effects.
d. Cells appear relatively normal.
5. A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
a. persistent, unusual bleeding.
b. a change in bowel habits.
c. sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea.
d. a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion.
8. Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
a. Invasiveness
b. Seeding
c. Metastasis
d. Systemic effect
13. The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
a. thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
b. headache and lethargy.
c. nausea and constipation.
d. alopecia and weight loss.
24. Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
a. chemotherapy cannot be used.
b. signs and symptoms are absent.
c. complications are evident.
d. metastases occur.
26. High risk factors for cancer include:
1. human papilloma virus.
2. chronic irritation and inflammation.
3. repeated sun exposure.
4. high family incidence.
a. 1, 3
b. 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
27. The term apoptosis refers to:
a. programmed cell death.
b. abnormal or immature cells.
c. degree of differentiation of cells.
d. the development of new capillaries in a tumor.
34. Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors?
a. Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases
b. Location of tumor, size, type of cellular abnormality
c. Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue
d. Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumors, location/tissue affected
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