QUESTION 1
To appropriately monitor therapy and client progress, the nurse should be aware that increased myocardial work and O2 demand will occur with
... [Show More] which of the following?
A. Positive inotropic therapy
B. Negative chronotropic therapy
C. Increase in balance of myocardial O2 supply and demand
D. Afterload reduction therapy
Correct Answer: A Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Inotropic therapy will increase contractility, which will increase myocardial O2 demand. (B) Decreased heart rate to the point of bradycardia will increase coronary artery filling time. This should be used cautiously because tachycardia may be a compensatory mechanism to increase cardiac output. (C) The goal in the care of the MI client with angina is to maintain a balance between myocardial O2 supply and demand. (D) Decrease in systemic vascular resistance by drug therapy, such as IV nitroglycerin or nitroprusside, or intra-aortic balloon pump therapy, would decrease myocardial work and O2 demand.
QUESTION 2
The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on glycogenolysis and insulin release?
A. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
C. Propranolol (Inderal)
D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Norepinephrine’s side effects are primarily related to safe, effective care environment and include decreased peripheral perfusion and bradycardia. (B) Dobutamine’s side effects include increased heart rate and blood pressure, ventricular ectopy, nausea, and headache. (C) Propranolol’s side effects include elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D) Epinephrine increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis and inhibiting insulin release. Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary catecholamines, false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and decreased coagulation time.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following medications requires close observation for bronchospasm in the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma?
A. Verapamil (Isoptin)
B. Amrinone (Inocor)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Propranolol (Inderal)
Correct Answer: D
Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Verapamil has the respiratory side effect of nasal or chest congestion, dyspnea, shortness of breath (SOB), and wheezing. (B) Amrinone has the effect of increased contractility and dilation of the vascular smooth muscle. It has no noted respiratory side effects. (C) Epinephrine has the effect of bronchodilation through β stimulation. (D) Propranolol, esmolol, and labetalol are all β- blocking agents, which can increase airway resistance and cause bronchospasms.
QUESTION 4
The following medications were noted on review of the client’s home medication profile. Which of the medications would most likely potentiate or elevate serum digoxin levels?
A. KCl
B. Thyroid agents
C. Quinidine
D. Theophylline
Correct Answer: C Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Hypokalemia can cause digoxin toxicity. Administration of KCl would prevent this. (B) Thyroid agents decrease digoxin levels. (C) Quinidine increases digoxin levels dramatically. (D) Theophylline is not noted to have an effect on digoxin levels.
QUESTION 5
In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse would anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of which coronary artery?
A. Right coronary artery
B. Left main coronary artery
C. Circumflex coronary artery
D. Left anterior descending coronary artery
Correct Answer: A Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Sinus bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) heart block are usually a result of right coronary artery occlusion. The right coronary artery perfuses the sinoatrial and AV nodes in mostindividuals. (B) Occlusion of the left main coronary artery causes bundle branch blocks and premature ventricular contractions. (C) Occlusion of the circumflex artery does not cause bradycardia. (D) Sinus tachycardia occurs primarily with left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion because this form of occlusion impairs left ventricular function.
QUESTION 6
When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative of:
A. Pericarditis
B. Anxiety
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Angina
Correct Answer: C Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Pericarditis can cause dyspnea but primarily causes chest pain. (B) Anxiety can cause dyspnea resulting in SOB, yet it is not typically influenced by degree of head elevation. (C) The inability to oxygenate well without being upright is most indicative of congestive heart failure, due to alveolar drowning. (D) Angina causes primarily chest pain; any SOB associated with angina is not influenced by body position.
QUESTION 7
When a client questions the nurse as to the purpose of exercise electrocardiography (ECG) in the diagnosis of cardiovascular disorders, the nurse’s response should be based on the fact that:
A. The test provides a baseline for further tests
B. The procedure simulates usual daily activity and myocardial performance
C. The client can be monitored while cardiac conditioning and heart toning are done
D. Ischemia can be diagnosed because exercise increasesO2 consumption and demand
Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The purpose of the study is not to provide a baseline for further tests. (B) The test causes an increase in O2 demand beyond that required to perform usual daily activities. (C) Monitoring does occur, but the test is not for the purpose of cardiac toning and conditioning. (D) Exercise ECG, or stress testing, is designed to elevate the peripheral and myocardial needs for O2 to evaluate the ability of the myocardium and coronary arteries to meet the additional demands.
QUESTION 8
In assessing cardiovascular clients with progression of aortic stenosis, the nurse should be aware that there is typically:
A. Decreased pulmonary blood flow and cyanosis
B. Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and pulmonary edema
C. Systemic venous engorgement
D. Increased left ventricular systolic pressures and hypertrophy
Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) These signs are seen in pulmonic stenosis or in response to pulmonary congestion and edema and mitral stenosis. (B) These signs are seen primarily in mitral stenosis or as a late sign in aortic stenosis after left ventricular failure. (C) These signs are seen primarily in right-sided heart valve dysfunction. (D) Left
ventricular hypertrophy occurs to increase muscle mass and overcome the stenosis; left ventricular pressures increase as left ventricular volume increases owing to insufficient emptying.
QUESTION 9
The cardiac client who exhibits the symptoms of disorientation, lethargy, and seizures may be exhibiting a toxic reaction to:
A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
C. Quinidine gluconate or sulfate (Quinaglute,Quinidex)
D. Nitroglycerin IV (Tridil)
Correct Answer: B Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Side effects of digoxin include headache, hypotension, AV block, blurred vision, and yellow-green halos. (B) Side effects of lidocaine include heart block, headache, dizziness, confusion, tremor, lethargy, and convulsions. (C) Side effects of quinidine include heart block, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and respiratory depression. (D) Side effects of nitroglycerin include postural hypotension, headache, dizziness, and flushing.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following ECG changes would be seen as a positive myocardial stress test response?
A. Hyperacute T wave
B. Prolongation of the PR interval
C. ST-segment depression
D. Pathological Q wave
Correct Answer: C Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Hyperacute T waves occur with hyperkalemia. (B) Prolongation of the P R interval occurs with first- degree AV block. (C) Horizontal ST-segment depression of>1 mm during exercise isdefinitely a positive criterion on the exercise ECG test. (D) Patho-logical Q waves occur with MI.
QUESTION 11
Assessment of the client with pericarditis may reveal which of the following?
A. Ventricular gallop and substernal chest pain
B. Narrowed pulse pressure and shortness of breath
C. Pericardial friction rub and pain on deep inspiration
D. Pericardial tamponade and widened pulse pressure
Correct Answer: C Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) No S3 or S4 are noted with pericarditis. (B) No change in pulse pressure occurs. (C) The symptoms of pericarditis vary with the cause, but they usually include chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, rise in temperature, and friction rub caused by fibrin or other deposits. The pain seen with pericarditis typically worsens with deep inspiration. (D) Tamponade is not typically seen early on, and no change in pulse pressure occurs.
QUESTION 12
Clinical manifestations seen in left-sided rather than in right-sided heart failure are:
A. Elevated central venous pressure and peripheral edema
B. Dyspnea and jaundice
C. Hypotension and hepatomegaly
D. Decreased peripheral perfusion and rales
Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A, B, C) Clinical manifestations of right-sided heart failure are weakness, peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and elevated central venous pressure. (D) Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure are left ventricular dysfunction, decreased cardiac output, hypotension, and the backward failure as a result of increased left atrium and pulmonary artery pressures, pulmonary edema, and rales.
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