Thiopental (Pentothal) - correct answer C3
C3 - correct answer Amobarbital and noncontrolled active ingredients
Amobarbital suppository dosage
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Anabolic steroids
Barbituric acid derivative
Benzphetamine (Didrex, Inapetyl)
Buprenorphine (Buprenex, Temgesic)
Butabarbital (Butisol, Butibel)
Butalbital (Fiorinal, Butalbital with aspirin)
**Calcium, magnesium, potassium and sodium oxybate (Xywav)
Codeine and isoquinoline alkaloid (Codeine with papaverine or noscapine)
Codeine combination product (Empirin, Fiorinal, Tylenol, ASA or APAP w/codeine)
Dronabinol in sesame oil in soft gelatin capsule (Marinol)
Ketamine (Ketalar)
Lysergic acid
Lysergic acid amide
Methyltestosterone (Android, Oreton, Testred, Virilon)
Nalorphine (Nalline)
Nandrolone (Deca-Durabolin, Durabolin, Durabolin-50)
Norethandrolone(Nilevar, Solevar)
Opium combination product (Paregoric)
**Perampanel (Fycompa)
Pentobarbital and noncontrolled active ingredients
Pentobarbital suppository dosage form
Testosterone (Android-T, Androlan, Depotest, Delatestryl) - correct answer C3
**Sodium oxybate (Xyrem) - correct answer C3
Secobarbital suppository dosage form - correct answer C3
Secobarbital and noncontrolled active ingredients - correct answer C3
Phendimetrazine (Bontril) - correct answer C3
C5 - correct answer Codeine preparations - Not more than 200 mg per 100 ml or 100 gm (Robitussin AC, Phenergan with Codeine)
Difenoxin preparations - Not more than 0.5 mg Difenoxin + 25mcg Atropine sulfate (Motofen)
Dihydrocodeine preparations - Not more than 100 mg per 100 ml or 100 gm
Diphenoxylate preparations- Not more than 2.5 mg Diphenoxylate + 25mcg Atropine sulfate (Lomotil, Logen)
Ethylmorphine preparations - Not more than 100 mg per 100 ml or 100 gm
Opium preparations - Not more than 100 mg per 100 ml or 100 gm (Parepectolin, Kapectolin PG, Kaolin Pectin P.G.)
Lyrica - Pregabalin
Vimpat - Lacosamide
Potiga - Ezogabine
**Briviact - Brivaracetam
**Xcopri - Cenobamate
**Reyvow - Lasmiditan
**Pyrovalerone
HIPAA Major Objectives - correct answer 1. To assure health insurance portability. This will help a person who has preexisting health conditions and wants to change jobs. Before the HIPPA, a person would think twice before changing jobs, if they had preexisting health conditions, because of insurance problems.
2. To prevent or reduce healthcare related fraud and abuse.
3. To ensure the safety and security of each patient's health related information. This will help to keep a patient's condition confidential.
4. To enforce the standard for health.
Registrant type (first letter of DEA Number): - correct answer 1. A, B or F: Hospital/Clinic/Practitioner/Teaching Institution/Pharmacy
2. M: Mid-Level Practitioner (APN/CNP/PA/OD/ET, ETC)
3. P or R: Manufacturer/ Distributor/ Researcher/ Analytical Lab/Importer/Exporter/Reverse Distributor/Narcotic Treatment Program
A pharmacist may disclose patient information to a third party without the patient's consent in the following situations: - correct answer 1. When a pharmacist is performing prospective DUR.
2. To assist prescribers in obtaining a comprehensive drug history on a patient.
3. To prevent abuse or misuse of any drug or device and the diversion of controlled substances.
4. Provide a medication therapy management program or a quality assurance program
Implementation of the Provision of the Comprehensive Addiction and Recovery Act of 2016 Relating to the Dispensing of Narcotic Drugs for Opioid Use Disorder - correct answer In January 2018, DEA announced a deregulatory measure that will make it easier for residents of underserved areas to receive treatment for opioid addiction.Nurse practitioners and physician assistants can now become Drug Addiction Treatment Act-Waived qualifying practitioners, which gives them authority to prescribe and dispense the opioid maintenance drug buprenorphine from their offices. [Show Less]