____ 1. Which joints are frequently moving articulations that are enclosed by a capsule of fibrous articular cartilage?
a. Synarthroses
b.
... [Show More] Synchondroses
c. Amphiarthroses
d. Synovial
d. Synovial
____ 2. Fluid that lubricates articular cavities is called:
a. blood.
b. synovial fluid.
c. mucus.
d. cerumen.
b. synovial fluid.
____ 3. Joints are held together by:
a. tendons.
b. ligaments.
c. muscles.
d. cartilage.
b. ligaments.
____ 4. Bones are attached to muscles by:
a. tendons.
b. ligaments.
c. muscles.
d. cartilage.
a. tendons.
____ 5. An increase in muscle tone is known as:
a. crepitus.
b. effusion.
c. spasticity.
d. atrophy.
c. spasticity.
____ 6. The type of joint that has the widest range of motion in all planes is the:
a. ball-and-socket.
b. condyloid.
c. gliding.
d. saddle.
a. ball-and-socket.
____ 7. Spinal vertebrae are separated from each other by:
a. bursae.
b. tendons.
c. disks.
d. ligaments.
b. tendons.
____ 8. The glenohumeral joint is the other name for the:
a. elbow.
b. shoulder.
c. wrist.
d. scapula.
b. shoulder.
____ 9. The joint where the humerus, radius, and ulna articulate is the:
a. wrist.
b. elbow.
c. shoulder.
d. clavicle.
b. elbow.
____ 10. The articulation of the radius and carpal bones is the:
a. wrist.
b. elbow.
c. shoulder.
d. clavicle.
a. wrist.
____ 11. The cruciate ligaments of the knee provide for:
a. anterior and posterior stability.
b. medial and lateral stability.
c. movement on one plane.
d. pivoting and rotation.
a. anterior and posterior stability.
____ 12. Medial and lateral surfaces of the tibiotalar joint are protected by:
a. bursae.
b. tendons.
c. muscles.
d. ligaments.
d. ligaments.
____ 13. The suprapatellar bursa separates the patella, quadriceps tendon, and muscle from the:
a. tibia.
b. fibula.
c. femur.
d. pelvis.
c. femur.
____ 14. The tibia, fibula, and talus articulate to form the:
a. ankle.
b. knee.
c. hip.
d. pelvis.
a. ankle.
____ 15. Long bones in children have growth plates known as:
a. epiphyses.
b. epicondyles.
c. synovium.
d. fossae.
a. epiphyses.
____ 16. The elasticity of pelvic ligaments and softening of cartilage in a pregnant woman are the result of:
a. decreased mineral deposition.
b. increased hormone secretion.
c. uterine enlargement.
d. gait changes.
b. increased hormone secretion.
____ 17. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of:
a. increased bone deposition.
b. increased bone resorption.
c. decreased bone deposition.
d. decreased bone resorption.
b. increased bone resorption.
____ 18. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with:
a. trauma to the skeletal system.
b. chronic atopic dermatitis.
c. genetic disorders.
d. obesity.
c. genetic disorders.
____ 19. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include:
a. competing in colder climates.
b. previous fracture.
c. history of recent weight loss.
d. failure to warm up before activity.
d. failure to warm up before activity.
____ 20. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for:
a. rheumatoid arthritis.
b. osteoarthritis.
c. congenital bony defects.
d. osteoporosis.
d. osteoporosis.
____ 21. Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of:
a. adolescents.
b. infants.
c. older adults.
d. middle-age adults.
c. older adults.
____ 22. The musculoskeletal examination should begin when:
a. the patient enters the examination room.
b. during the collection of subjective data.
c. when height is measured.
d. when joint mobility is assessed.
a. the patient enters the examination room.
____ 23. Pain, disease of the muscle, or damage to the motor neuron may all cause:
a. bony hypertrophy.
b. muscle crepitus.
c. muscle hypertrophy.
d. muscle wasting.
d. muscle wasting
____ 24. Fasciculation occurs after injury to a muscle's:
a. venous return.
b. motor neuron.
c. strength.
d. tendon.
b. motor neuron
____ 25. The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is:
a. inspection.
b. palpation.
c. percussion.
d. the use of joint calipers.
a. inspection.
____ 26. A goniometer is used to assess:
a. bone maturity.
b. joint proportions.
c. range of motion.
d. muscle strength.
c. range of motion.
____ 27. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:
a. irregular bony surfaces rub together.
b. supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
c. joints are excessively lax.
d. there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.
a. irregular bony surfaces rub together.
____ 28. The temporomandibular joint is palpated:
a. under the mandible, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
b. above the mandible at midline.
c. anterior to the tragus.
d. at the mastoid process.
c. anterior to the tragus
____ 29. The temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:
a. having the patient shrug their shoulders.
b. having the patient clench their teeth.
c. asking the patient to fully extend their neck.
d. passively opening the patient's jaw.
b. having the patient clench their teeth.
____ 30. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:
a. clench her or his teeth during muscle palpation.
b. push her or his head against the examiner's hand.
c. straighten her or his leg with examiner opposition.
d. uncross her or his legs with examiner resistance.
b. push her or his head against the examiner's hand.
____ 31. Expected normal findings during the inspection of spinal alignment include:
a. asymmetric skin folds at the neck.
b. slight right-sided scapular elevation.
c. concave lumbar curve.
d. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.
d. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.
____ 32. A common finding in markedly obese patients and pregnant women is:
a. kyphosis.
b. lordosis.
c. paraphimosis.
d. scoliosis.
d. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.
____ 33. A wheelchair-dependent older woman would most likely develop skin breakdown at:
a. C7.
b. the iliac crests.
c. L4.
d. the gibbus.
d. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.
____ 34. When the patient flexes forward at the waist, which spinal observation would lead you to suspect scoliosis?
a. Prominent lumbar hump
b. Prominent cervical concave curve
c. Lateral curvature of the spine
d. Restricted ability to flex at the hips
c. Lateral curvature of the spine
____ 35. When a patient abducts an arm and the ipsilateral scapula becomes more prominent (winged), this usually means that:
a. there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.
b. one of the clavicles has been fractured.
c. there is a unilateral trapezius muscle separation.
d. one shoulder is dislocated.
a. there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.
____ 36. When the shoulder contour is asymmetric and one shoulder has hollows in the rounding contour, you would suspect:
a. kyphosis.
b. fractured scapula.
c. a dislocated shoulder.
d. muscle wasting.
c. a dislocated shoulder.
____ 37. Ulnar deviation and swan neck deformities are characteristic of:
a. rheumatoid arthritis.
b. osteoarthritis.
c. osteoporosis.
d. congenital defects.
a. rheumatoid arthritis.
____ 38. A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is (are):
a. swan neck deformities.
b. Bouchard nodes.
c. ganglions.
d. Heberden nodes.
d. Heberden nodes.
____ 39. Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in:
a. a negative Tinel sign.
b. a negative Phalen test.
c. reduced abduction of the thumb.
d. palm tingling.
c. reduced abduction of the thumb.
____ 40. Excessive hyperextension of the knee with weight bearing may indicate:
a. advanced joint degeneration.
b. gout.
c. rotation of the Achilles tendon.
d. weakness of the quadriceps muscle.
d. weakness of the quadriceps muscle.
____ 41. Arm length is measured from the acromion process through the:
a. olecranon joint to the carpal thumb hinge.
b. olecranon process to the distal ulnar prominence.
c. proximal radial prominence to the distal joint.
d. proximal ulnar joint to the middle fingertip.
b. olecranon process to the distal ulnar prominence.
____ 42. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates:
a. leg length discrepancy.
b. improperly conditioned muscles.
c. lumbar nerve root irritation.
d. hip bursitis.
c. lumbar nerve root irritation.
____ 43. The Thomas test is used to detect:
a. hip dislocation.
b. unstable sacroiliac joints.
c. knee instability.
d. flexion contractures of the hip.
d. flexion contractures of the hip
____ 44. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?
a. Drawer test
b. McMurray test
c. Thomas test
d. Trendelenburg test
b. McMurray test
____ 45. When performing the McMurray test, the examiner should place the patient in a supine position with a hand on the patient's completely flexed knee and the foot flat on the table at the buttocks, and then:
a. grasp and evert the foot and extend the knee.
b. grasp and invert the foot and rotate the knee.
c. apply valgus stress with the foot planted.
d. apply varus stress with the foot planted.
a. grasp and evert the foot and extend the knee.
____ 46. Which technique is performed at every infant's examination during the first year of life to detect hip dislocation?
a. Ballottement maneuver
b. Barlow-Ortolani maneuver
c. Range of motion
d. Thomas McMurray assessment
b. Barlow-Ortolani maneuver
____ 47. You note that a child has a positive Gower sign. You know that this indicates generalized:
a. arthropathy.
b. muscle weakness.
c. bursitis.
d. muscle hypertrophy.
b. muscle weakness
____ 48. A 3-year-old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding his right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. The mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of:
a. radial head subluxation.
b. femoral anteversion.
c. carpal tunnel syndrome.
d. osteomyelitis.
a. radial head subluxation.
____ 49. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
b. Osteitis deformans
c. Radial head subluxation
d. Talipes equinovarus
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
____ 50. A red, hot, swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect:
a. trauma.
b. bursitis.
c. gout.
d. cellulitis.
c. gout.
____ 51. An adult with bowed tibias and a shortened thorax may have:
a. ankylosing spondylitis.
b. Paget disease.
c. rheumatoid arthritis.
d. Sprengel deformity.
b. Paget disease.
____ 52. In contrast to the patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA), the osteoarthritis patient typically exhibits:
a. pain most pronounced after periods of rest.
b. depression.
c. sudden onset.
d. less weakness and fatigue.
d. less weakness and fatigue
____ 53. Your examination of an infant reveals a positive Allis sign. To confirm this finding, you would perform (or elicit) a:
a. startle reflex.
b. Barlow-Ortolani maneuver.
c. Trendelenburg test.
d. tibial torsion test.
b. Barlow-Ortolani maneuver.
____ 54. Term infants normally resist:
a. ankle dorsiflexion.
b. McMurray test.
c. forefoot adduction.
d. knee extension.
d. knee extension.
____ 55. A 7-year-old child who begins to limp and complains of persistent hip pain may have:
a. congenital hip dislocation.
b. Dupuytren contracture.
c. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.
d. osteoarthritis.
c. Legg-Calvé-Perthes diseas
____ 56. Dupuytren contracture affects the:
a. hip flexor muscle.
b. rotator cuff.
c. carpal tunnel.
d. palmar fascia.
d. palmar fascia.
____ 57. A dowager hump is:
a. the hallmark of osteoporosis.
b. pathognomic of scoliosis.
c. indicative of tendonitis.
d. characteristic of rickets.
a. the hallmark of osteoporosis.
Completion
Complete each statement.
1. A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive _____ sign.
2. Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _________ test.
3. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee, you should initially perform the __________ test.
4. The elbow joint that allows for flexion and extension in one plane represents a type of _____ joint.
5. The most mobile vertebrae are the _______________ vertebrae.
1. Tinel
2. Lachman
3. valgus stress
4. hinge
5. cervical
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
____ 1. Cardinal signs for rheumatoid disorders include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Gradual onset
b. Weakness that is usually localized and not severe
c. Coarse crepitus on motion
d. Joint tenderness
e. Sleep disturbance
A, D, E
a. Gradual onset
d. Joint tenderness
e. Sleep disturbance
____ 2. The wrist moves in: (Select all that apply.)
a. eversion and inversion.
b. proximal radius and ulna articulation.
c. flexion and extension
d. adduction and abduction.
C, D
c. flexion and extension
d. adduction and abduction. [Show Less]