When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-10-CM code is assigned
a. Z21
b. R75
c. B20
d. Z11.4
b. R75
What does
... [Show More] MRSA stand for
a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
c. Moderate Resistance Susceptible Aureus
d. Mild Resistance Steptococcus Aureus
a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
What does the forth character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indicate?
a. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled
b. Any complication associated with diabetes
c. Type of diabetes (type 1, or Type 2, secondary)
d. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes
b. Any complication associated with diabetes
When do you code acute respiratory failure as a secondary diagnosis
a. the patient has any other condition at the same time
b. When it is determined to be the cause of the shortness of breath
c. Acute respiratory failure is always listed first
d. When it occurs after admission
d. When it occurs after admission
When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note, what is used as the default type
a. Type 2
b. Type 1
c. Can be type 1 or 2
d. Scondary diabetes
a. Type 2
When is it appropriate to use history of malignancy, from category Z85
a. once the malignancy is removed form that site but the patient is still receiving chemotherapy
b. When the patient cancels treatment for that site
c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, and there is not further treatment directed to the site
d. when 5 years has passed after surgery
c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, and there is not further treatment directed to the site
If a patient uses insulin, what type of diabetic does it mean the patient is
a. secondary diabetes
b. type 2
c. type 1
d. the use of insulin does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic
d. the use of insulin does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic
Pneumonia due to adenovirus. What ICD-1-CM code is reported
a. B34.0
b. J12.0
c. B97.0
d. B30.1
b. J12.0
a 50 year old patient has been diagnosed with elevated blood pressure. The patient does not have a history of hypertension. The correct ICD-10-CM code to report is
a. R03.0
b. I10
c. I13.0
d. I15.0
b. I10
What type of fracture is considered traumatic
a. pathologic fracture
b. spontaneous fracture
c. stress fracture
d. compound fracture
d. compound frature
Can Z codes be listed as a primary code?
a. No; Z codes are never listed as primary codes
b. No; Z codes are always reported as secondary codes
c. No; Z codes are reported for external injuries and where it happened which is always listed as secondary
d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes
d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes
Where can you find the Table of Drugs and Chemicals
a. Tabular List of the ICD-10-CM codebook
b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook
c. Index to Procedures of the b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook
d. CPT codebook
b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook
In which circumstances would an external cause code be reported
a. Delivery of a newborn
b. Causes of injury or health condition
c. Chemotherapy treatment of neoplasms
d. Only for the cause of motor vehicle accidents
b. Causes of injury or health condition
What would be considered an adverse effect
a. Wound infection after surgery
b. hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery
c. shortness of breath when running
d. rash developing when taking penicillin
d. rash developing when taking penicillin
What does the root work colp/o stand for
a. cervix
b. vagina
c. uterus
d. Fallopian tubes
b. vagina
What does the abbreviation CKD stand for
a. Chronic Kidney Dysfunction
b. Congenital Kidney Disorder
c. Chronic Kidney Disease
c. Chronic Kidney Disease
Which statement is TRUE for reporting burn codes
a. burn codes are coded by the anatomical site and sequenced form top to bottom of the anatomical body
b. first degree burns involve the epidermis and dermis and should always be sequenced first for multiple degrees of burns.
c. Sunburns are classified with traumatic burns and should be the only burn code reported
d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code
d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code
What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails
a. Chapter 13: Diseases of Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue
b. Chapter 16: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal
c. Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System
d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue
What does the 7th character A indicate in Chapter 19
a. Initial encounter
b. Subsequent encounter
c. Sequela
d. Adverse effect
a. Initial encounter
The provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported
a. N18.4
b. N18.6, N18.4
c. N18.4, N18.6
d. N18.6
d. N18.6
What is the definition of a postpartum complication?
a. any complication occurring within the six-week period prior to delivery
b. b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery
b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery
What is NOT an example of active treatment for pathological fractures
a. Surgical treatment
b. Emergency department encounter
c. Evaluation and treatment by a new physician
d. Cast change
d. Cast change
According to ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Chapter 15: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium (O00-O9A) codes have sequencing priority over what codes
a. Codes from all other chapters
b. All codes including Z33.1
a. Codes from all other chapters
Many coding professionals go on to find work as
a. Accountants
b. Consultants
b. Consultants
A medical record contains information on all but what areas
a. Observations
b. Medical or surgical interventions
c. Treatment outcomes
d. Financial records
d. Financial records
Technicians who specialize in coding are called
a. coding specialists
b. LPN's
a. coding specialists
What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of education and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physician
Physician Assistant (PA)
The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is most significant to coders working in physician offices and covers physician fees without the use of a private insurer?
Part B
The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid -Hierarchical Condition Categories (CMS-HCC)
Part C
What does CMS-HCC stand for
a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Category
b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hospital Correct Coding Initiative
a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Category
When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be recommended
a. Starting with the procedure listed
b. Reading the body of the report
c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report.
d. Highlighting unfamiliar words
c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report.
Outpatient coders focus on learning which coding manuals
CPT, HCPCS Level II, ICD-10-CM
If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed ona Medicare patient, who determines coverage
MAC (Medicare Administrative Contractor)
The ___ describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare.
a. NCD
b. Medicare Physician Fee Schedule
c. MS-DRG
d. Internet Only Manual
NCD (National Coverage Determinations Manual)
NCD serve what purpose
a. to provide payment options to physicians
b. To spell out CMS policies on when Medicare will pay for items or services.
b. To spell out CMS policies on when Medicare will pay for items or services.
MAC stands for
Medicare Administrative Contractor
Local Coverage Determinations (LCD) are administered by
Each regional MAC
LCD only have jurisdiction in their ____ area
regional
ABN stands for
Advance Beneficiary Notice
When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service not considered medically necessary
a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
b. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary
a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
A covered entity does NOT include
a. Healthcare provider
b. Patient
c. Clearinghouse
d. Health plan
b. Patient
What is the definition of coding
a. deciphering explanation EOB provided by an insurance carrier
b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement
b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement
Who is responsible for enforcing the HIPAA security rule
OCR (Office of Civil Rights)
Healthcare providers are responsible for developing ___ and policies and procedures regarding privacy in their practices
a. Fees
b. Notice of Privacy Practices
Notice of Privacy Practices
A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose PHI to carry out all but what of the following
a. healthcare operations
b. for public use
for public use [Show Less]