BIO 1020 PATHO FINAL EXAM MCQ (Latest): South University
Question 1 (2 points) Which symptom is related to tuberculosis (TB)? Question 1 options:
... [Show More] Cachexia Night sweats Hemoptysis Both B and C Question 2 (2 points) Why is the incidence of strokes rising every year? Question 2 options: There is an increased number of older adults. There is an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease. Both A and B. None of the above. Question 3 (2 points) What is the mode of transmission for the hepatitis D virus? Question 3 options: Blood transfusion Oral-fecal route Sexual contact Both A and C Question 4 (2 points) Which specific sign or symptom indicates that a client is suffering from varicose veins? Question 4 options: Itching and aching lower leg muscles Ropiness over a vein in the leg Tenderness in the vein Irregular margins in the medial ankle region Question 5 (2 points) How would you show your understanding of the fact that vaginal candidiasis a side effect of long-term antibiotic use? Question 5 options: By the fact that it is an opportunistic infection. By the fact that it eradicates lactobacillus in the vagina. By the fact that it is caused by an antibiotic-resistant bacteria in the vagina. By the fact that it is caused by decreased vaginal pH due to antibiotic use. Question 6 (2 points) What is hypocapnea? Question 6 options: Low partial pressure of oxygen Elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide Diminished partial pressure of carbon dioxide None of the above Question 7 (2 points) While assessing a 7-year-old female client, the primary health-care provider finds that the client has enlargement of the breasts, erection of the nipples, and development of pubic hair. Which hormonal levels can be found high in the client? Question 7 options: Estrogen Gonadotropin Both A and B None of the above Question 8 (2 points) Which virus caused the Spanish flu epidemic of 1918 that took many lives? Question 8 options: Epstein Barr virus Cytomegalovirus Influenza virus Morbillivirus Question 9 (2 points) Which condition is caused by an increase in the amount of potassium in the blood? Question 9 options: Hypocapnea Hypotension Hyperkalemia Hypercalcemia Question 10 (2 points) After assessing a client, a nurse finds that the client has a growth of cancer cells in the bladder, rectum, and other parts of the body. Which stage of cervical cancer should the nurse expect in the client? Question 10 options: Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV Question 11 (2 points) While reviewing the medication chart of a client, the nurse finds that the client is on a therapy to decrease the release of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate. Which disorder will the nurse suspect in the client? Question 11 options: Myasthenia gravis Huntington’s disease Guillain–Barré syndrome Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Question 12 (2 points) What is the other name for white blood cells? Question 12 options: Leukocytes Erythrocytes Thrombocytes None of the above Question 13 (2 points) Based on what would you justify that rubella causes teratogenic side effects? Question 13 options: Microcephaly in the fetus Retinitis in the fetus Vision impairment in the fetus Spontaneous abortion of the fetus Question 14 (2 points) A 78-year-old man presents to his physician for evaluation of edema. He reports a 3-month history of peripheral edema. Which edema may have developed in the client? Question 14 options: Edema in the skin Edema in the ankle Edema in the feet and lower legs None of the above Question 15 (2 points) Which is the most malignant type of brain tumor? Question 15 options: Meningiomas Ependymomas Astrocytic tumors Oligodendroglial tumors Question 16 (2 points) Which component of the blood is involved during an inflammatory response due to a respiratory burst from the mitochondria? Question 16 options: Eosinophils Basophils Neutrophils Lymphocytes Question 17 (2 points) Which acts as a blue print for the construction of proteins? Question 17 options: Transfer RNA Ribosomal RNA Messenger RNA Mitochondrial DNA Question 18 (2 points) Which pulmonary condition is caused by infiltration of bacteria, resulting in a localized area of purulent inflammation, tissue necrosis, and central area of liquefaction? Question 18 options: Lung abscess Myringitis Tuberculosis Tracheitis Question 19 (2 points) What percentage of filtered electrolytes is reabsorbed at the loop of Henle? Question 19 options: 15% 25% 40% 60% Question 20 (2 points) While assessing a child, a nurse finds that the child has otitis media. Which other finding in the child should the nurse associate with otitis media? Question 20 options: Kidney infection Vaginal infection Gastrointestinal infection Upper respiratory tract infection Question 21 (2 points) Where does maturation of T lymphocytes occur? Question 21 options: Spleen Bone marrow Thymus gland Lymph nodes Question 22 (2 points) A nurse observes that a newborn has an abnormally positioned urethral orifice of the penis. Which disorder will the nurse suspect in the newborn? Question 22 options: Orchitis Hypospadias Cryptorchidism Testicular torsion Question 23 (2 points) A 30-year-old client who presents with symptoms of redness, heat, and pain in the joints undergoes a complete blood count test. The blood report shows an increased white blood cell count. Which condition does this indicate? Question 23 options: Inflammation Anemia Increased bleeding tendency Pulmonary embolism Question 24 (2 points) Which endocrine disorder involves treatment using antithyroid hormone medication such as propylthiouracil (PTU)? Question 24 options: Grave’s disease Plummer disease Cushing’s disease Addison’s disease Question 25 (2 points) While assessing a client with a musculoskeletal disorder, the nurse abducts the client’s arm to 90 degrees and places anteriorly directed force on the posterior humeral head from behind. Which test is the nurse performing? Question 25 options: Hawkins test Relocation test Apprehension test Neer impingement test Question 26 (2 points) The nurse is providing care for four clients diagnosed with different gastrointestinal disorders. Client Condition Client 1 Esophagitis Client 2 Esophageal cancer Client 3 Dumping syndrome Client 4 Upper gastrointestinal bleed (UGIB) Which client does the nurse instruct to avoid eating or drinking food items that are hot or spicy? Question 26 options: Client 1 Client 2 Client 3 Client 4 Question 27 (2 points) The student nurse is performing a Babinski reflex test in a client to assess his or her neurologic system. Which is the correct interpretation by the student nurse? Question 27 options: A negative Babinski reflex indicates an upper motor neuron disorder. A positive Babinski reflex, where the client has flaring of the toes in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot, indicates an upper motor neuron disorder. A positive Babinski reflex occurs when the toes of the client flex inward upon stimulation of the sole of the foot. A negative Babinski reflex occurs when there is flaring of the toes in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot. Question 28 (2 points) Which statement best differentiates cardiac afterload from cardiac preload? Question 28 options: Cardiac afterload is the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole. Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome. Cardiac afterload is the factor that affects cardiac output. Cardiac afterload is the amount of blood that enters the right atrium. Question 29 (2 points) A nurse is assessing a client who has severe pain in the shoulder, which radiates down the arm. The nurse notes that the client has ptosis, miosis, and enopthalmus. The laboratory reports of the client indicate the presence of lesions on the thoracic inlet. What should the nurse interpret from these findings? Question 29 options: The client has Pancoast syndrome. The client has Trousseau’s syndrome. The client has Lambert-Eaton syndrome. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. Question 30 (2 points) Which type of calculi in the ureter is found most often in clients with spinal cord injuries? Question 30 options: Calcium Struvite Uric acid Cystine Question 31 (2 points) Which is an example of passive acquired adaptive immunity? Question 31 options: Newborns receiving immunity through breast milk Individuals becoming immune to chicken pox after infection Individuals becoming immune to measles after infection None of the above Question 32 (2 points) Which factors may lead to an acute inflammation of the pancreas? Question 32 options: Excessive alcohol intake High triglyceride level Both A and B None of the above Question 33 (2 points) Pain is an unpleasant sensation that is associated with disease. The process by which people experience pain occurs in four phases. Choose the first phase that converts painful stimuli into neuronal impulses. Question 33 options: Perception Modulation Transduction Transmission Question 34 (2 points) A client presents with a specific type of renal calculi that is not widely prevalent. The nurse knows that this client has been undergoing chemotherapy as part of his or her treatment for cancer. Which is an associated characteristic of the type of renal calculi that is most likely to be present in this client? Question 34 options: Urine supersaturated with cystine High purine levels in the bloodstream Alkaline pH of urine Pseudomonas infection in the urinary tract Question 35 (2 points) Which microorganism causes inclusion conjunctivitis? Question 35 options: Treponema pallidum Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis None of the above Question 36 (2 points) A primary health care provider performs a digital rectal exam in a client who is diagnosed with colon cancer and finds that the tumor has invaded into the visceral peritoneum. Which stage of colon cancer should a nurse document in the client’s medical record according to Dukes classification? Question 36 options: Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV Question 37 (2 points) Which fact would you select to justify why both the Ebola and Marburg viruses are classified as Category A bioterrorism agents? Question 37 options: They cause hemorrhagic fevers. They are virulent, stable, and infective as small-particle aerosols. They are transmitted by direct contact through blood and body fluids. There is no standard treatment. Question 38 (2 points) A client suffering from an asthma attack is brought to the emergency department. The client’s body temperature is 98.4ºF, pulse rate is 110 beats/minute, respiratory rate is 24 shallow breaths/minute, and the blood pressure is 136/86 mm Hg. Arterial blood gas values are also documented. Blood pH 7.30 Partial pressure of carbon dioxide 58 mm Hg Partial pressure of oxygen 88 mm Hg Bicarbonate concentration 29 mEq/L Oxygen saturation 88% Which condition has the client developed? Question 38 options: Compensated metabolic acidosis Compensated respiratory acidosis Compensated respiratory alkalosis Uncompensated respiratory acidosis Question 39 (2 points) The cellular organelle responsible for propelling mucous and inhaled debris out of the lungs is Question 39 options: cilia. microfilament. secretory vesicle. endoplasmic reticulum. Question 40 (2 points) A client is hospitalized for diarrhea. Arterial blood gas values of the client are documented. Blood pH 7.50 Partial pressure of carbon dioxide 27 mm Hg Partial pressure of oxygen 92 mm Hg Bicarbonate concentration 17 mEq/L Oxygen saturation 91% Which statement is correct according to the interpretation of the arterial blood gas? Question 40 options: The client has developed alkalosis. The client has a lung problem. The client has developed an uncompensated condition. All of the above Question 41 (2 points) Which clinical sign signifies leukocytosis? Question 41 options: A white blood count of 3,000/microliter A white blood count of 52,000/microliter A decrease in signs and symptoms of infection Wounds that show no evidence of healing Question 42 (2 points) Which cultural and ethnic group of Americans has a lower risk of stroke when compared to other cultural and ethnic groups of Americans? Question 42 options: Native Americans African Americans Hispanic Americans Caucasian Americans Question 43 (2 points) What factor would contribute to a client having a high hemoglobin count? Question 43 options: Being a female Living at high altitudes Being of African-American decent All of the above Question 44 (2 points) Which congenital condition occurs due to thyroid hormone deficiency during embryonic development and early neonatal life? Question 44 options: Cretinism Pheochromocytoma Sheehan’s syndrome Fetal alcohol syndrome Question 45 (2 points) Which immunity is developed by an individual after experiencing an illness? Question 45 options: Innate immunity Active acquired adaptive immunity Passive acquired adaptive immunity None of the above Question 46 (2 points) Which disease is spread from human to human via droplet infections through coughing or sneezing? Question 46 options: Mumps Poliomyelitis Herpes simplex West Nile virus infection Question 47 (2 points) Which type of melanoma is characterized by deep, penetrative growth and early metastasis? Question 47 options: Superficial spreading melanoma Lentigo maligna melanoma Acral lentiginous melanoma Nodular melanoma Question 48 (2 points) Which cranial nerve senses the flow of endolymph fluid in the ear? Question 48 options: Cranial nerve I Cranial nerve V Cranial nerve VIII Cranial nerve XII Question 49 (2 points) Which condition causes pseudohypocalcemia? Question 49 options: Hyperkalemia Hyponatremia Hypophosphatemia Hypoalbuminemia Question 50 (2 points) The nursing instructor is teaching a group of student nurses about the treatment plan for Crohn’s disease. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning? Question 50 options: “Cholestyramine should be prescribed to clients with ileal disease.” “Loperamide should be administered in clients to reduce abdominal cramps.” “Propantheline dicyclomine should be used to relieve chronic diarrhea.” “Multivitamin supplements are contraindicated since the clients have decreased absorption.” Question 51 (2 points) Which diagnostic test is most preferred to detect liver cancer? Question 51 options: CA-125 blood test Papanicolaou test Barium enema test Alpha-fetoprotein test Question 52 (2 points) The nurse finds a note stating “Reduction in 15% to 20% from the original stomach size” while reviewing the medical record of an obese client. Which surgical procedure can the nurse expect for this client? Question 52 options: Gastric bypass Gastric banding Sleeve gastrectomy Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch Question 53 (2 points) A client who recently underwent an abdominal surgery is scheduled for an immediate surgery due to a wound healing complication. What is the complication of healing that the client might have developed? Question 53 options: Dehiscence Evisceration Keloid All of the above Question 54 (2 points) Which birthmarks are characterized by pink, patch-like lesions that occur from permanent blood vessel abnormalities? Question 54 options: Port wine stains Strawberry hemangiomas Spider veins Mongolian spot Question 55 (2 points) What is a characteristic feature of ulcerative colitis? Question 55 options: Presence of pseudopolyps Continuous areas of inflammation in the large intestine Both A and B None of the above Question 56 (2 points) Which finding is associated with ectropion? Question 56 options: Bulging of the eye out of the orbit Recession of the eyeball within the orbit Damage to epithelial surface of the cornea Turning of the eyelid outward, revealing conjunctiva Question 57 (2 points) A client who is unconscious due to drug toxicity is brought to the emergency room. The client’s vital signs include a body temperature of 97.8ºF, pulse rate of 90 beats/minute, respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The arterial blood gas values of the client are also documented. Blood pH 7.29 Partial pressure of carbon dioxide 32 mm Hg Partial pressure of oxygen 95 mm Hg Bicarbonate concentration 17 mEq/L Oxygen saturation 98% Which condition has the client developed? Question 57 options: Compensated respiratory acidosis Compensated respiratory alkalosis Uncompensated metabolic acidosis Uncompensated respiratory acidosis Question 58 (2 points) The registered nurse is teaching about portal hypertension to a group of student nurses. Which statement by the student nurse indicates the need for further teaching? Question 58 options: “Caput medusa is a sign of portal hypertension.” “Portal hypertension can cause hematemesis.” “Ascites is associated with portal hypertension.” “Portal hypertension causes coagulation abnormalities.” Question 59 (2 points) The registered nurse is teaching about the pathophysiology of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) to student nurses. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning? Question 59 options: “NAFLD is linked to metabolic syndrome.” “Exposure to vinyl chloride can cause NAFLD.” “Increased level of adiponectin is associated with NAFLD.” “NAFLD is caused by accumulation of fat in the adipose tissue.” Question 60 (2 points) Which wave in the electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization? Question 60 options: P wave Q wave S wave T wave Question 61 (2 points) Which type of cancer is caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV)? Question 61 options: Breast cancer Cervical cancer Ovarian cancer Prostate cancer Question 62 (2 points) While reviewing a client’s medical history, a nurse understands that the client is at risk of bleeding because the client’s platelet count is 80,000/uL. Which condition is this? Question 62 options: Thrombocytosis Thrombocytopenia Thrombus Thrombosis Question 63 (2 points) Which clinical manifestation is observed in a client who has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) rupture? Question 63 options: Increased blood pressure Cool extremities Hyperthermia Decreased heart rate Question 64 (2 points) A hiker experiences muscle pain and acidosis as he or she ascends a mountain during a long, steep climb. What is the reason for these symptoms? Question 64 options: Cellular hypoxia Autolysis Heterolysis Cellular edema Question 65 (2 points) What percentage of the body’s cardiac output is received by the kidneys? Question 65 options: 5% to 10% 20% to 25% 30% to 35% 45% to 50% Question 66 (2 points) Where does the liver release its bile? Question 66 options: Cystic duct Hepatic duct Pancreatic duct All of the above Question 67 (2 points) Which is a normal blood pH? Question 67 options: 7.00 7.20 7.35 None of the above Question 68 (2 points) A client comes to the hospital with reports of chest pain due to lymphoma. Reports show that the lymphoma cells have a rapid growth, but are curable. How would this lymphoma be classified? Question 68 options: Low-grade lymphoma Intermittent-grade lymphoma High-grade lymphoma None of the above Question 69 (2 points) A nurse is assessing a client with a short but thick neck circumference. Which form of cardiopulmonary disorder can the nurse suspect in the client? Question 69 options: Pickwickian syndrome Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis Cor pulmonale Marfan syndrome Question 70 (2 points) A registered nurse is teaching nursing students about the normal level for central venous pressure. Which statement made by one of the student nurses indicates effective learning? Question 70 options: “The normal range for central venous pressure is 4 to 13 mm Hg.” “The normal range for central venous pressure is 60 to 80 mm Hg.” “The normal range for central venous pressure is 12 to 15 mm Hg.” “The normal range for central venous pressure is 1 to 5 mm Hg.” Question 71 (2 points) Which diagnostic finding is most likely to be observed in a client with aplastic anemia? Question 71 options: Decreased production of T cells Decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets Decreased level of immunoglobulin A Decreased number of Kupffer cells Question 72 (2 points) Which condition is related to ankylosing spondylitis? Question 72 options: Formation of abscesses in the bone Inflammation at the joint of the great toe Formation of abscesses in the paravertebral muscles Inflammation at the point where tendons and ligaments join the bone around a joint Question 73 (2 points) How does Ebstein’s anomaly lead to a small right ventricular chamber? Question 73 options: The mitral valve leaflets push into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber. A displaced tricuspid valve lowers into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber. The pulmonic valve pushes into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber. The aortic valve pushes into the right ventricle, creating a small right ventricular chamber. Question 74 (2 points) Which disease can cause iritis and pulmonary fibrosis? Question 74 options: Polymyositis Psoriatic arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis Polymyalgia rheumatica Question 75 (2 points) Which component separates the two labyrinths from each other? Question 75 options: Sebum Cerumen Perilymph fluid Endolymph fluid Question 76 (2 points) A registered nurse is teaching a group of student nurses about synovial fluid. Which statement made by a student nurse indicates the need for further teaching? Question 76 options: “Synovial fluid provides stabilizing effects.” “The volume of synovial fluid increases in the presence of a joint disease.” “There is a wide exchange between the bloodstream and the synovial joint.” “In the synovium, all the essential nutrients are delivered and metabolic byproducts are cleared by the bloodstream.” Question 77 (2 points) A client with an infection was brought to the hospital. The complete blood count with differential report shows a white blood cell count of 3,000/uL. Which condition has the client developed? Question 77 options: Leukopenia Leukocytosis Thrombocytopenia None of the above Question 78 (2 points) Which component enables the blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable during the vascular phase of inflammation? Question 78 options: White blood corpuscles Blood platelets Inflammatory mediators C-reactive proteins Question 79 (2 points) The nurse is assessing a client with complaints of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and discomfort. The nurse finds that the abdomen is firm and peristalsis is visible. The laboratory reports show electrolyte imbalances. Which condition does the nurse anticipate in the client? Question 79 options: Hiatal hernia Acute gastritis Pyloric stenosis Peptic ulcer disease Question 80 (2 points) IgA is found most in Question 80 options: tears. plasma. blood. All of the above. Question 81 (2 points) A nurse is caring for a client with chronic venous insufficiency. Which instruction is appropriate to include in the client’s care plan? Question 81 options: Try to reduce your walking throughout the day. Wear constriction garments. Apply a cold compression. Elevate your legs periodically during the day. Question 82 (2 points) Which theory explains apoptosis of the ovary? Question 82 options: Immunosenescence theory Telomere shortening theory Programmed aging of the cell Damaged-based theory of aging Question 83 (2 points) A client who is scheduled for a hysteroscopy asks a nurse about the procedure involved in this technique. Which statement made by the client indicates effective understanding? Question 83 options: “A radiopaque dye is used during a hysteroscopy.” “A scope is inserted into the uterus to take a small amount of tissue.” “A scope is inserted through a small surgical incision in the abdomen.” “A thin telescopic type device is inserted via the vagina into the uterus.” Question 84 (2 points) Which condition would a nurse expect in a client with polycythemia vera? Question 84 options: Hyperuricemia Orthopnea Angina Ulcers on lower extremities Question 85 (2 points) Pain that is dull or aching and that occurs in certain parts of the body is referred to as deep somatic pain. Explain how somatic pain is different from other pain. Question 85 options: Pain that occurs from ligaments, tendons, and bones Pain originating in an amputated part of the body Pain from deep organs resulting from disease processes Pain originating from the chest and left arm Question 86 (2 points) Which complication should be suspected in a client who has an obstruction of the common bile duct? Question 86 options: Cholecystitis Pancreatic cancer Jaundice All the above Question 87 (2 points) Which type of renal calculi is caused by a genetic disorder associated with the faulty metabolism of an amino acid? Question 87 options: Calcium stones Uric acid stones Cystine stones Struvite stones Question 88 (2 points) Which neurotransmitter dysfunction has been implicated in Tourette's syndrome? Question 88 options: Serotonin Dopamine Acetylcholine None of the above Question 89 (2 points) What is the purpose of a Greenfield filter? Question 89 options: To prevent the formation of a blood clot To help burst a blood clot To prevent a blood clot from traveling To detect a blood clot Question 90 (2 points) How long does a typical wave of renal colic last? Question 90 options: 10 to 15 minutes 20 to 60 minutes 70 to 90 minutes 5 to 7 minutes Question 91 (2 points) Individuals with which tissue types are at high risk for developing Goodpasture’s syndrome in the kidney and lungs? Question 91 options: HLA-DR2 HLA-DR3 Both A and B None of the above [Show Less]